Ethics Paper #1 Among the countless number of different philosophies regarding human happiness that have been proposed, Aristotle's philosophy concerning human happiness is perhaps one of (if not) the most pervasive, well-known, and controversial philosophies (pertaining to human happiness) to date. Despite having been around for more than a couple of millennia, Aristotle's philosophy on human happiness still relevant (and highly debated) to this day. Aristotle reveals his philosophy on human happiness in one of his most famous works titled Nicomachean Ethics. The rudimentary purpose behind the Nicomachean Ethics is to define the true meaning behind the ultimate human good (i.e. the one thing that everyone in life seeks for the most). In
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In an effort to accomplish this task, Aristotle first starts out by stipulating the required criteria which must be met in order for something to be considered the highest good. Aristotle exclaims, that "the chief good is evidently something final"(10). Furthermore, Aristotle believes that in order for something to be deemed as the final good it must be "desirable in itself and never for the sake of something else"(10). By laying out these conditions which must be satisfied by the highest good, Aristotle (in his opinion) has simultaneously substantiated his assumption that human happiness is the highest good. How does this effectively reinforce Aristotle's argument that human happiness is the highest good? Well, because Aristotle insists that these conditions are unique to (and, therefore can only be satisfied by) the highest good. And as it just so happens, human happiness fulfills these mandatory conditions indicative of (and unique to) the ultimate good. Aristotle corroborates this when he contends, that "happiness, above all else, is held to be; for this we choose always for itself and never for the sake of something else, but honor, pleasure, reason, and every virtue, we choose indeed for themselves (for if nothing resulted from them we should still choose each of them), but we choose …show more content…
So then, what is the basic definition of human happiness according to Aristotle? Answering this question is going to be a little bit tricky, because Aristotle's definition of happiness can't be completely understood without first understanding how he arrived at his definition. It involves going through a multiple number of different steps which (for instance) include: (1) indentifying what the human function is, and (2) then discussing the relationship that exists between the human function and human happiness. I think Aristotle's reason for doing this is because he believes it's the most effective way to fully comprehend the meaning of human happiness definition. In any event, Aristotle's first step involves describing the important details regarding proper functions. Aristotle argues that a proper function is assessed by how good it is at carrying out its function (e.g. the function of a mechanic is to fix cars, and how good he can repair cars is how he judged and evaluated as a mechanic). Next, Aristotle goes on to explain, that man also (just man by himself) has a function; and, that this function "is peculiar to man"(11). Meaning, that the function isn't something mutually shared with other animals, plants, and a "life of perception"(11). Aristotle also states that the function of man should "exclude, therefore, the
In an effort to accomplish this task, Aristotle first starts out by stipulating the required criteria which must be met in order for something to be considered the highest good. Aristotle exclaims, that "the chief good is evidently something final"(10). Furthermore, Aristotle believes that in order for something to be deemed as the final good it must be "desirable in itself and never for the sake of something else"(10). By laying out these conditions which must be satisfied by the highest good, Aristotle (in his opinion) has simultaneously substantiated his assumption that human happiness is the highest good. How does this effectively reinforce Aristotle's argument that human happiness is the highest good? Well, because Aristotle insists that these conditions are unique to (and, therefore can only be satisfied by) the highest good. And as it just so happens, human happiness fulfills these mandatory conditions indicative of (and unique to) the ultimate good. Aristotle corroborates this when he contends, that "happiness, above all else, is held to be; for this we choose always for itself and never for the sake of something else, but honor, pleasure, reason, and every virtue, we choose indeed for themselves (for if nothing resulted from them we should still choose each of them), but we choose …show more content…
So then, what is the basic definition of human happiness according to Aristotle? Answering this question is going to be a little bit tricky, because Aristotle's definition of happiness can't be completely understood without first understanding how he arrived at his definition. It involves going through a multiple number of different steps which (for instance) include: (1) indentifying what the human function is, and (2) then discussing the relationship that exists between the human function and human happiness. I think Aristotle's reason for doing this is because he believes it's the most effective way to fully comprehend the meaning of human happiness definition. In any event, Aristotle's first step involves describing the important details regarding proper functions. Aristotle argues that a proper function is assessed by how good it is at carrying out its function (e.g. the function of a mechanic is to fix cars, and how good he can repair cars is how he judged and evaluated as a mechanic). Next, Aristotle goes on to explain, that man also (just man by himself) has a function; and, that this function "is peculiar to man"(11). Meaning, that the function isn't something mutually shared with other animals, plants, and a "life of perception"(11). Aristotle also states that the function of man should "exclude, therefore, the