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83 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

If available, the MO SUPT position will be filled by an SNCO with what AFSC(s)?

2RXXX (scheduler or analyst).

The responsibilities of the MO are managed by what sections?

(1) MMP.


(2) MOC.


(3) EM.


(4) MSL.


(5) MMA.


(6) Maintenance Training.


(7) Programs and Resources.

Who does the MO SUPT submit the wing flying/maintenance schedule to for approval?

OG/CC and MXG/CC.

What maintenance-related AFSCs must be possessed when selecting MOC personnel?


2AXXX, 2RXXX or 2WXXX.


What is the purpose of the visual aids used in the MOC?


To provide ready access to critical data

What agency does the MOC contact for the arming or de-arming of transient aircraft?


WS.

Name some examples that would warrant the use of an emergency checklist.


(1) Aircraft crash.


(2) IFE.


(3) Severe weather warning or evacuation.


(4) Hung ordinance.


(5) Hazardous spills.


(6) Flight-line fire.


(7) Runway closure.

What section tracks, analyzes, and organizes information to help senior leadership assess the health of the unit’s weapon systems and equipment.


Maintenance management analysis.

What is a special study?


A special study is both an investigation and in-depth analysis of any subject to determine the root cause of a specific problem.

What is often an indication that further investigation is needed?


Negative trends.

What are the five basic elements of a special study?


(1) Purpose.


(2) Assumptions and limitations.


(3) Investigation and findings.


(4) Conclusion.


(5) Recommendations

Most of the key metrics fall into what two categories?


Leading and Lagging indicators.

What are the two most common types of chargeable deviations?


Maintenance and Supply.

What does the logistics departure reliability rate provide?


The logistics departure reliability rate provides the percent of departures that are delayed because of supply, saturation, or maintenance problems.

What is a manpower requirement?


The manpower needed to accomplish a job, mission, or program.

List the five most common manning tools available to leaders.


(1) The LCOM.


(2) The AFMS.


(3) The UMD.


(4) The UPMR.


(5) The ACR

What is the LCOM used to determine?


The required number of manpower positions necessary in each AFSC to produce a desired number of sorties/flying hours in support of a specific weapons system based on the PAA.

What does the AFMS quantify?


The number and type of manpower positions required to accomplish the mission based on the predetermined workload factor.

What is the primary source document that reflects the manpower required to accomplish a unit’s mission?


Unit Manning Document.

What does the SEI indicate?


The special experience or qualification you must have on a particular weapon system to fill a particular position.

Unlike the UMD, the UPMR provides what detailed list?


A detailed list by workcenter or FAC of each unit’s authorizations by position and the name and rank of the actual personnel filling each position. In addition, it reflects projected accessions, gains, losses, retirements, separations and PCS assignments by month and year.

On the UPMR, everyone assigned to a position number is listed under that position number by what?


Full name, rank, and, for military personnel, SSAN.

What does a blank in the name column on the UPMR indicate?


No one is filling that position.

What is the most important component of upgrade training that is conducted hands-on to certify personnel?


OJT. It is a hands-on, "over-the-shoulder" method of training conducted to certify personnel in both upgrade (skill level award) and job qualification (position certification training).

What is the master training plan?


A career field specific "road map" that guides


trainees.

What skill level requires a minimum rank of SSgt and a recommendation from supervisor?


7 skill level (craftsman).

What is the personnel rotation plan?


A tool used by the PS&D section chief to make sure personnel are equitably moved through various duty positions to increase field knowledge and experience every 24 months, not to exceed 36 months.

To whom does the personnel rotation plan apply?


TSgts and below as well as 3 or 5 skill level personnel of any rank.

What is the primary document for training which identifies life-cycle education and training requirements within a specific AFS?


The CFETP is the primary document for training which identifies life-cycle education and training requirements within a specific AFS.

Referred to as the STS, name all elements of Part II of the CFETP.


1) The STS used Air Force-wide.


(2) Course objective list.


(3) Support material, if applicable.


(4) Training course index.

What minimum qualification requirement is identified with an asterisk in the STS?


Core Task.

Name three most commonly used tools to maintain automated training records.


(1) TBA.


(2) IMDS.


(3) ADLS.

Who is the approval authority for out-of-cycle time change CAD/PAD requests?


MXG/CC or designate.

When should munitions operations be contacted when replacing a CAD/PAD component out-of- cycle to ensure the part does not get cycled back into the serviceable rotation?


When CAD/PAD components are replaced out-of-cycle earlier than nine months.

Who is the responsible agency that verifies approved CAD/PAD allocations and any changes that occur throughout the year based on the AFTO Form 223 submitted by MMP?


Munitions operations.

Who appoints the MASO?


The wing or group commander.

What Air Force instruction provides information on general MASO responsibilities?


AFI 23–111.

What qualifications must the appointed MASO meet and maintain?


Be a Munitions and Missile Maintenance Officer, Aircraft Maintenance Officer, Munitions Senior NCO, or civilian equivalent (GS-9 or above) and have 18 months munitions management experience (as an element NCOIC or higher) or six months munitions management experience and attendance at the Munitions Accountability Course.

When does the MASO have to perform physical inventories?


At least semiannually, and validated jointly by incoming/outgoing MASOs prior to transfer of responsibilities.

What is the purpose of the quarterly meeting PS&D holds with munitions operations?


To ensure IMDS/G081 quarterly requirements and AFTO Form 223 forecasts are accurate and available to the MASO for timely requisitioning.

What blocks on AFTO Form 223 does PS&D fill out?


Blocks 1 through 6.

What is AF Form 68 used by organizational commanders for?


To establish all custody and consumption accounts, appoint munitions custodians, identify personnel currently authorized to receive munitions, and authorize user access to CAS for managing custody/consumption accounts for personnel outside the munitions organization (including tenant units).

Whose responsibility is it to review AF Form 68 for completeness and accuracy and sign to approve establishment or continuance of a custody/consumption account?


The MASO.

What is the only way to add personnel to AF Form 68?


A new AF Form 68 must be routed and approved.

How often will the unit account custodian or organizational commander revalidate AF Form 68?


Annually.

When and to whom are overdue and uncorrected discrepancies briefed?


Weekly during the daily production and scheduling meeting chaired by the deputy maintenance group commander.

Building and maintaining an accurate matrix for special inspections is required by what Air Force instruction?


AFI 21–101.

What should the comprehensive quarterly review for all SI and TCI JSTs for each assigned aircraft identify?


Required SIs and TCIs, as well as missing and/or excess SIs and TCIs loaded to the aircraft.

Who maintains, loads, changes, and deletes the JML for all inspections and time changes listed in the applicable aircraft Dash–6 and commodity TOs?


PS&D.

What is the JML?


A complete listing of all individual job standards loaded in the MIS.

What screen will PS&D use to load and maintain the JST records?


466.

PS&D, more than likely the documentation section, will perform a semiannual review of the JML and ALL JSTs for accuracy and currency and will document the review on what form?


AF IMT 2411.

List the printed products that are commonly used when conducting a weekly TCTO review.


(1) IMDS background product, TSS.


(2) MSAT products.


(3) IMDS screen 525.


(4) G081 screen F8026.

What is the compliance period start date for an inspection TCTO?


Upon receipt of the TCTO.

What date is the same as the "Ground Date" as calculated 60 days from recession date in automated data systems IMDS, G081, and REMIS?


Remove from service date.

PS&D will brief the MXG/CC weekly regarding unaccomplished TCTOs that are within how many days of grounding?


60 days.

What are all units required to perform annually no later than 30 September and before deleting TCTO records from IMDS or G081?


Reconciliation of rescinded TCTOs using a REMIS Master TCTO report.

How are TCTO waivers documented?


On the AFTO Form 95, or the automated TCTO status report, such as IMDS or G081, as applicable.

What must the managing PS&D submit if a unit cannot accomplish the TCTO on all affected aircraft or equipment before the expiration of the compliance period?


A request to extend the compliance period.

If the compliance period extension request is approved, who will establish an extended compliance period for the affected unit?


Program manager.

When can TCTO automated records be deleted?


After verification, reprint the appropriate report, the 525 screen or equivalent, and file the MIS printout with the TCTO.

Who is responsible for the coordination of TCTO kit requirements between supply and maintenance?


The supply TCTO kit monitor/materiel control.

Excess kits will be reported via letter or electronic transmission to the applicable TCTO kit unit in accordance with what supply manual?


AFMAN 23–110.

What system provides a single point of worldwide enterprise level transaction validation, integration and data cleansing across the maintenance enterprise, regardless of input source?


REMIS.

Name four different systems that interface with REMIS?


IMDS, SBSS, G081, and Air Staff computer systems.

What are the four subsystems of REMIS?


EIMSURS; PPS; GCSAS, and MSIA.

What defines the number of training sorties required for aircrew proficiency and currency in mission events?


RAP.

What are some elements that ASD is based on?


Training range location, base, and local airspace traffic peculiarities.

What rate is determined by the Lead Command for the weapons systems or aircraft under their control?


Air Force standard UTE rate.

List techniques to consider for meeting operation needs when your unit gets behind on its monthly FHP goals.


(1) Flying additional turns per day (i.e., some three-go days versus two-go days).


(2) Surges (i.e., flying all available MC aircraft at an increased turn rate for one or more days, while considering MAJCOM policies).


(3) Flying aircraft on additional O&M days (e.g., on weekends and holidays or on scheduled "UTE/goal days").

Describe the O&M fund and what it is used for.


O&M budgets fund that are typically the day-to-day expenses for the USAF. O&M funds are used to operate, sustain, and maintain aircraft, space and related weapons systems; train and develop Airmen; operate advanced communications, command and control systems; purchase critical supplies; equipment and fuel; and operate both stateside and overseas installations.

Provide examples of activities that may consume O&M funds, but do not necessarily contribute to aircrew mission capability or upgrade.


Air shows, flybys, and photo shoots.

What three items must the wing plan include during the O&M planning cycle?


(1) Include assessment of the wing’s ability to execute the Flying Hour Program.


(2) Coordinate with the O&M GP/CCs before being approved by the WG/CC.


(3) Commit the fewest number of aircraft possible to meet programmed UTE rate standards and goals.

When is the First Look report initiated?


Every year, the First Look report is initiated to plan for the upcoming fiscal year. On or about 15 March, MOF PS&D requests from MMA an airframe capability assessment.

What agency does the wing rely on and is responsible for producing the maintenance capabilities assessment?


MMA.

What becomes the contract for the unit’s annual flying and maintenance planning process?


Final flying hours allocation.

Describe depot maintenance and what it includes.


It includes the repair, fabrication, manufacture, rebuilding, assembly overhaul, modification, refurbishment, rebuilding, test, analysis, repair-process design, in-service engineering, upgrade, painting and disposal of parts, assemblies, subassemblies, software, components, or end items that require shop facilities, tooling, support equipment, and/or personnel of higher technical skills.

AFTO IMT 103 must be prepared and submitted in accordance with what TO?


TO 00–25–4.

What action is PS&D required to conduct upon arrival of the DFT?


PS&D conducts an initial meeting to validate maintenance support requirements are in place. Meetings are documented on an AF IMT 2410, or locally developed product.

What type of assistance is provided by AFMC to resolve problems with maintenance procedures or production?


Maintenance assistance or 107.

What agencies are required to develop and implement policies and procedures to validate sorties and hours flown?


PS&D and OG AVUM.

What products do PS&D provide to the AMU debrief and operations monitor daily?


PS&D sends a daily electronic copy of the MSAT product or the AUR to the AMU debrief section, and operations monitors.

When is the monthly flying report due to the MAJCOM AVUM?


By the fifth calendar day of each month.