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115 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Which of the following is an example of a campaign or a service award?

a. Good Conduct Medal
b. Air Medal
c. Navy “E”
d. Navy and Marine Corps Medal
A
How many years of continuous good conduct are required before a person becomes eligible to wear gold service stripes?

a. 12
b. 10
c. 8
d. 6
A
Which of the following are precautions you should follow when lifting heavy objects?

a. Keep the load close to the center of your body
b. Pull the load toward you; then lift gradually
c. If too heavy to lift alone, get help
d. All the above
D
How many different tags are authorized for use in identifying defective instruments or pieces of equipment?

a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
C
Which of the following publications contain information on Navy safety?

a. OPNAVINST 4450.2
b. OPNAVINST 5100.19
c. NAVPERS 4450.2
d. NAVPERS 5100.19
B
Military Sealift Command ships use which of the following titles?

a. United States Naval Ships (USNS)
b. Unites States Charter Ships (USCS)
c. United States Coast Guards (USCGS)
d. United States Transportation Service Ships
(USTSS)
A
According to grooming standards for men, how many rings per hand may be worn (excluding wedding and engagement rings)?

a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. As many as they wish
A
According to grooming standards for women, what is the maximum length of fingernails (as measured) from the tip of the finger)?

a. 1 inch
b. ½ inch
c. ¾ inch
d. ¼ inch
D
How many movements are used to perform the ABOUT FACE command?

a. Five
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
B
When the command CLOSE RANKS is given to members in formation, the fourth rank moves how many paces forward?

a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
C
In normal situations, how many paces from the person being saluted, should the hand salute be rendered?

a. Two
b. Four
c. Six
d. Eight
C
What number of rotations is required when locking a
security container with a combination lock?

a. Three times
b. Four times
c. Five times
d. Six times
B
How often should locks be changed or rotated?

a. Annually
b. quarterly
c. monthly
d. weekly
A
What form is used as the cover sheet for Top Secret
Classified information?

a. Standard Form 701
b. Standard Form 703
c. Standard Form 704
d. Standard Form 705
B
What form is used as the cover sheet for Secret
Classified information?

a. Standard Form 701
b. Standard Form 703
c. Standard Form 704
d. Standard Form 705
C
What form is used as the cover sheet for Confidential
Classified information?

a. Standard Form 701
b. Standard Form 703
c. Standard Form 704
d. Standard Form 705
D
How is a burn bag containing Top Secret/Secret
material handled until the contents are destroyed?

a. Handled only
b. Stored only
c. Accounted only
d. All of the above
D
How many types of security clearances are there?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
C
Who publishes the Manpower Authorization, OPNAV Form
1000/2?

a. BUPERS
b. CNO
c. CINCLANTFLT
d. COMNAVSURFLANT
B
Which of the following is correct when typing block
one of Eval/FITREP form?

a. John J. DOE
b. DOE, John J.
c. DOE, J. J.
d. DOE, JOHN J
D
When a member has two designators in block 3 of the
Eval/FITREP form, how should in appear?

a. (SW/AW)
b. SW–AW
c. SW/AW
d. (SW-AW)
C
Who may be a delegated reporting senior for reports on
members in pay-grades E5 through E9?

a. LT or GS9 and above
b. LCDR or GS11 and above
c. Any Officer and GS9 and above
d. XO only
B
Commanding Officers are required to do a close-out
reports upon a member’s death.

a. True
b. False
B
What form of wording is used for a formal invitation?

a. It is written in third person, present tense
b. It is written in second person, past tense
c. It is written in third person, past tense
d. It is written in the originators choice
A
What is used on invitations instead of the letters
R.S.V.P. in the lower left corner?

a. Please Reply
b. A favor of a reply is requested
c. Please Respond Very Promptly
d. Please Respond
B
How are invitations always written?

a. Longhand
b. Shorthand
c. Never, must be engraved
d. Typewritten
A
What is always repeated when accepting an invitation?

a. Date
b. Time
c. Place
d. All of the above
D
How should you determine the order in which the
various parts of a letter will be arranged?

a. Most important item first
b. Most important item last
c. Keep the reader in mind
d. Shortest paragraph always goes first
C
Which of the following is a brief summary of information and facts, which will provide the reader with a concise statement and presentation of points relating to its subject?

a. Memorandum
b. Basic Letter
c. Point Paper
d. Message
C
What must an officer in command do upon learning of
a casualty?

a. Notify Next of Kin
b. Notify his chain of command
c. Notify BUPERS by message
d. Notify local Chaplain
C
A casualty is broadly defined as a person whose
services are lost to the Navy due to what reasons?

a. Death
b. Illness, injury, wounds of a serious nature
c. MIA, captured, detained in a foreign country
d. All of the above
D
Personal effects of deceased members must be
inventoried, cleaned and shipped to primary next of kin within what time period?

a. 5 days
b. 10 days
c. two weeks
d. three weeks
C
Who has the primary responsibility for notification of
next of kin in the event of a naval disaster?

a. Commanding Officer
b. CINCPAC/CINCLANT
c. CNO
d. BUPERS
D
Who publishes the Manpower Authorization, OPNAV Form
1000/2?

a. CNO
b. BUPERS
c. CHNAVPERS
d. EPMAC
A
What form is used to identify formal charges and refer
a case to trial by court-martial?

a. Report Chit/NAVPERS Form 1626/7
b. A formal letter from CA to JAG
c. The Charge Sheet/DD Form 458
d. A formal letter from CO who held NJP
C
What article of the UCMJ is the basis for power to
convene a Special Courts-Martial?

a. Article 15
b. Article 23
c. Article 24
d. Article 37
B
What article of the UCMJ is the basis for Commanding
Officer’s to hold NJP?

a. Article 15
b. Article 23
c. Article 24
d. Article 37
A
The purpose of the summary court-martial is to exercise justice promptly for relatively minor offenses involving enlisted and officer personnel.

a. True
b. False
B
What action is taken with the Charge Sheet if an
accused objects to trial by SCM?

a. Return to the CA for disposition of the case
b. Advise member of rights and continue
c. Officer annotates on Charge Sheet that member objects and continues
d. Nothing, member cannot refuse trial by SCM
A
What is the most formal fact finding body?

a. Single individual investigation
b. Courts of inquiry
c. Boards of investigation
d. JAG Manual investigation
B
Who signs the appointing order for a court of inquiry
or formal investigation?

a. Military Judge
b. Military Judge and all board members
c. Any commissioned officer 04 and above
d. Convening Authority
D
How often should the Reports Control Office publish and distribute a list of recurring reports prepared by the command?

a. Monthly
b. Quarterly
c. Semi-annually
d. Annually
D
What are the basic resources of a manager?

a. People, Materials
b. Money
c. Space and Time
d. All of the above
D
Information for the recall of reserve officers, retired
officers and retention of retired officers can be found in what chapter of the OFFTRASMAN?

a. 2
b. 6
c. 8
d. 11
D
Information for the Issuance of orders and special
requirements can be found in what chapter of the OFFTRASMAN?

a. 2
b. 6
c. 8
d. 11
A
46. When a member is not entitled to or waives an
administrative board, the member should be separated within how many working days of notification?

a. 3
b. 5
c. 10
d. 15
D
What publication governs the policy and provisions of
the Survivor Benefit Plan?

a. SECNAVINST 1750.4
b. MILPERSMAN
c. BUPERSINST 1750.11
d. NAVMILPERSCOMINST 1750.1 (series)
C
What SSIC section of the MILPERSMAN would you refer to
about Casualties and Survivor’s Benefits?

a. MILPERSMAN 1070
b. MILPERSMAN 1770
c. MILPERSMAN 1910
d. MILPERSMAN 1920
B
When updating an officer’s permanent personnel record,
documents shall be submitted to what PERS code?

a. PERS 300A
b. PERS 312A
c. PERS 313C
d. PERS 322B
C
A personnel casualty report must be submitted by
immediate message and within what time frame after the casualty?

a. 4 hours
b. 6 hours
c. 12 hours
d. 24 hours
A
Except in time of war or national emergency declared by
congress or the president, not more than how many retired flag officers of the Navy may be on active duty?

a. 3
b. 8
c. 15
d. 24
C
A retired officer recalled for a period of greater than
180 days must be approved by what official?

a. SECNAV
b. CHNAVPERS
c. BUPERS
d. CNO
A
What publication(s) gives detailed instructions for preparing and distributing of the DD214?

a. MILPERSMAN
b. BUPERSINST 1900.8
c. NAVMILPERSCOMINST 1900.1
d. Both a and b
B
The authorizing official on a DD214, Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active Duty, must be of what minimum rank?

a. CO or XO only
b. 01 or GS11 and above
c. E9 or GS9 and above
d. E7 or GS7 and above
D
What copy(ies) of the DD214, will be provided to the
member?

a. Original only
b. Copies 2 and 4
c. Original and copy 4
d. Copy 3 only
C
The DD214 will be issued to all but which of the
following personnel?

a. E4 separated after 120 days of active duty for training
b. E6 re-enlisted for 6 years
c. E7 released from active duty
d. E8 discharged to accept appointment to CWO
B
When typing the DD214, what is placed in the unused space in a large block?

a. Type in a diagonal line “NO FURTHER ENTRIES THIS BLOCK”
b. Type in a diagonal line “N F E T B”
c. Type in a diagonal line “X’s”
d. Nothing, leave unused space blank
C
When making corrections in the shaded area on a DD214,
you must initial all copies?

a. True
b. False
B
What publication would you refer to for information
about the Diary Message Reporting System?

a. DMRSMAN 1080#1 UM-02
b. MILPERSMAN
c. ENLTRANSMAN
d. Both b and c
A
If “minimize” is in effect for 14 days or more, how do
you prepare and submit DMRS transactions?

a. Message, minimize does not effect DMRS transactions
b. Letter
c. E-mail
d. Registered mail
B
When submitting DRMS transactions, what PLA is used?

a. EPMAC NEW ORLEANS LA//31//
b. EPMAC //31//
c. EPMAC DIARY NEW ORLEANS LA//31//
d. DIARY EPMAC NEW ORLEANS//31//
C
What instruction governs the format and procedures for
validating the ODCR?

a. SECNAVINST 7220.10
b. SECNAVINST 1301.11
c. BUPERSINST 1301.40
d. BUPERSINST 7220.1
C
How many copies of the ODCR do you receive from BUPERS
monthly?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
B
What color of ink do you use to make corrections on the
ODCR?

a. Red
b. Blue
c. Black
d. None, you don’t make corrections
A
Where do you send the ODCR if there is a discrepancy on
the UIC?

a. BUPERS
b. EPMAC
c. CNO
d. CINCLANTFLT
B
Where do you send the ODCR if there is a discrepancy on
fitness reports?

a. BUPERS
b. EPMAC
c. CNO
d. CINCLANFLT
A
The administrative assistant’s basic responsibilities
may include which of the following duties?

a. Report on the effectiveness of administrative policies, procedures, and regulations of the command
b. Review all correspondence prepared for the signature of the executive officer
c. Schedule interviews of visitors with the executive officer
d. All of the above
D
Since every petty officer and chief petty officer has a
duty to work toward maintaining high morale among their personnel, what practice should each leader or supervisor employ?

a. Avoid counseling about personal matters
b. Avoid giving guidance in spiritual matters
c. Provide adequate counseling and guidance, but only in matters pertaining to a member’s military duties and obligations
d. Provide counseling to members who feel a need to discuss with you any problem that hinders the operation of your division
D
Providing financial aid to personnel who attend
educational institutions on a voluntary off-duty basis is the purpose of which of the following programs?

a. Defense Activity for Non-Traditional Educational Support(Dantes)
b. Program for Afloat College Education (PACE)
c. Tuition Assistance (TA)
d. Instruction Service Program
C
A person wishing to take the Scholastic Aptitude Test
(SAT) should apply through which of the following programs?

a. Basic Skills Program
b. DANTES
c. PACE
d. TA
B
The DD214 will be issued to all but which of the
following personnel?

a. E4 separated after 120 days of active duty for training
b. E6 re-enlisted for 6 years
c. E7 released from active duty
d. E8 discharged to accept appointment to CWO
B
When typing the DD214, what is placed in the unused space in a large block?

a. Type in a diagonal line “NO FURTHER ENTRIES THIS BLOCK”
b. Type in a diagonal line “N F E T B”
c. Type in a diagonal line “X’s”
d. Nothing, leave unused space blank
C
When making corrections in the shaded area on a DD214,
you must initial all copies?

a. True
b. False
B
What publication would you refer to for information
about the Diary Message Reporting System?

a. DMRSMAN 1080#1 UM-02
b. MILPERSMAN
c. ENLTRANSMAN
d. Both b and c
A
If “minimize” is in effect for 14 days or more, how do
you prepare and submit DMRS transactions?

a. Message, minimize does not effect DMRS transactions
b. Letter
c. E-mail
d. Registered mail
B
When submitting DRMS transactions, what PLA is used?

a. EPMAC NEW ORLEANS LA//31//
b. EPMAC //31//
c. EPMAC DIARY NEW ORLEANS LA//31//
d. DIARY EPMAC NEW ORLEANS//31//
C
What instruction governs the format and procedures for
validating the ODCR?

a. SECNAVINST 7220.10
b. SECNAVINST 1301.11
c. BUPERSINST 1301.40
d. BUPERSINST 7220.1
C
How many copies of the ODCR do you receive from BUPERS
monthly?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
B
What color of ink do you use to make corrections on the
ODCR?

a. Red
b. Blue
c. Black
d. None, you don’t make corrections
A
Where do you send the ODCR if there is a discrepancy on
the UIC?

a. BUPERS
b. EPMAC
c. CNO
d. CINCLANTFLT
B
Where do you send the ODCR if there is a discrepancy on
fitness reports?

a. BUPERS
b. EPMAC
c. CNO
d. CINCLANFLT
A
The administrative assistant’s basic responsibilities
may include which of the following duties?

a. Report on the effectiveness of administrative policies, procedures, and regulations of the command
b. Review all correspondence prepared for the signature of the executive officer
c. Schedule interviews of visitors with the executive officer
d. All of the above
D
Since every petty officer and chief petty officer has a
duty to work toward maintaining high morale among their personnel, what practice should each leader or supervisor employ?

a. Avoid counseling about personal matters
b. Avoid giving guidance in spiritual matters
c. Provide adequate counseling and guidance, but only in matters pertaining to a member’s military duties and obligations
d. Provide counseling to members who feel a need to discuss with you any problem that hinders the operation of your division
D
Providing financial aid to personnel who attend
educational institutions on a voluntary off-duty basis is the purpose of which of the following programs?

a. Defense Activity for Non-Traditional Educational Support(Dantes)
b. Program for Afloat College Education (PACE)
c. Tuition Assistance (TA)
d. Instruction Service Program
C
A person wishing to take the Scholastic Aptitude Test
(SAT) should apply through which of the following programs?

a. Basic Skills Program
b. DANTES
c. PACE
d. TA
B
At what rank will officers be assigned a precedence
number?

a. ENS
b. LTJG
c. LT
d. LCDR
B
When submitting correction for the Register for active
duty personnel, submit corrections by message to PERS 85.

a. True
b. False
B
What officers are assigned both lineal and precedence numbers?

a. Active duty
b. Reservists
c. TAR
d. All of the above
C
What chapter of the ENLTRANSMAN would you refer to for
Duty Preferences and Special Requests?

a. Chapter 2
b. Chapter 5
c. Chapter 7
d. Chapter 10
A
What chapter of the ENLTRANSMAN would you refer to for
Enlisted Distribution Management System?

a. Chapter 1
b. Chapter 3
c. Chapter 6
d. Chapter 9
A
What instruction(s) gives detailed information for
travel of Officers and Enlisted dependents?

a. DOD 4500.9R Part I
b. OPNAVINST 4650.15
c. Joint Federal Travel Regulations
d. Both a and b
D
Who is responsible for administering the Navy program
for world-wide movement of Navy sponsored passengers?

a. Chief of Naval Operations
b. Chief of Naval Personnel
c. Navy Transportation Office
d. Secretary of the Navy
A
Who is responsible for implementing DOD/Navy Passenger
Transportation policy and overall traffic management program within assigned geographic regions?

a. SATO
b. NAVPTO
c. PSD
d. All of the above
B
Regardless of rank, first class service will be provided only when such service has been authorized in writing by what official?

a. Navy Transportation Officer
b. Commanding Officer of traveler
c. OIC, SATO
d. Under Secretary of the Navy
D
What is the SSIC 1321 specifically used for?

a. Assignment and distribution
b. Orders for officers
c. Orders for enlisted
d. Personnel request for officers
B
What is the SSIC 1626 specifically used for?

a. Discipline of enlisted personnel
b. Discipline of officers
c. Shore patrol and police matters
d. Confinement
a
What is the SSIC 1421 specifically used for?

a. Advancement in rate
b. Temporary promotion
c. Selection board requirements
d. Reduction in rank/rate
b
The Navy’s SSIC system is broken down in how many major subject groups?

a. 13
b. 14
c. 15
d. 16
a
What does the last digit of a SSIC number reflect?

a. Tertiary
b. Primary
c. Secondary
d. General
a
What SSIC includes subjects relating solely to the administration of civilian personnel?

a. 10000 – 10999
b. 11000 – 11999
c. 12000 – 12999
d. 13000 - 13999
C
What publication was developed for the purpose of providing PLAs, AIGs and CAD assignments to the U.S. Navy, Marine Corps, and Coast Guard activities?

a. SNDL
b. NTP-3 SUPP-1(L)
c. NTP-4
d. All of the above
B
What is used at the end of a PLA when the office code
is unknown?

a. ADMOFF
b. OIC
c. CO
d. JJJ
D
Who develops and is responsible for promulgating the
NTP-3 SUPP-1(L)?

a. SECNAV
b. Commander, Naval Computer and Telecomunications
Command
c. CNO
d. BUPERS
B
What publication issues regulations and guidance
governing the conduct of all members of the U.S. Navy?

a. Navy Regulations Manual
b. Standard Organization and Regulations Manual
c. UCMJ
d. JAGMAN
B
Delegation of authority should be delegated to the
lowest level of competence commensurate with the subordinates assigned responsibilities and capabilities.

a. True
b. False
A
Who has the authority to assign EMI to be performed
during working hours?

a. CO/XO/Department Head
b. CPO/LPO
c. Petty Officer in Charge
d. All the above
D
Ribbons will be worn in what order of precedence?

a. Military decorations, Unit awards, Campaign service awards
b. Unit awards, Personal awards, Campaign service awards
c. Personal awards, Campaign service awards, Military decorations
d. Military decorations, Campaign service awards, Unit awards
A
The Sea Service Deployment Ribbon falls under which
category of award?

a. Military decorations
b. Personal award
c. Campaign service award
d. Unit award
C
The Combat Action Ribbon falls under which category of
award?

a. Military decorations
b. Personal award
c. Campaign service award
d. Unit award
A
Which of the following awards may also be awarded to
armed forces of a friendly foreign nation?

a. Purple Heart
b. Navy Commendation Medal
c. Meritorious Service Medal
d. Navy Achievement Medal
D
Which of the following awards are not authorized for
wear on the Navy uniform?

a. Air Force Small Arms Expert Ribbon
b. Coast Guard “E” Ribbon
c. Army Reserved Component Achievement Medal
d. Airman Medal
A
What size of star is worn on all military decorations?

a. 1/4
b. 3/8
c. 3/16
d. 5/16
D
What attachment device is worn on the battle “E” for
four or more awards?

a. EEE
b. EEEE
c. 1 wreathed E
d. EEE and 1 wreathed E
C
Put the following awards in precedence order as worn on
the uniform: (1) Sea Service, (2) Purple Heart, (3) Navy Expeditionary, (4) Navy Achievement, (5) Multi National Force Ribbon, (6) Good Conduct, (7) Navy Unit?

a. 2, 4, 7, 6, 3, 1, 5
b. 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 3, 1
c. 4, 2, 3, 1, 5, 6, 7
d. 4, 2, 6, 3, 5, 1, 7
A
Secretary of the Navy has not delegated the authority
to approve which of the following awards?

a. Purple Heart
b. Legion of Merit
c. Meritorious Service Medal
d. Navy Commendation Medal
B