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56 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
A 65 year old man comes into your office complaining of pain in his right great toe for 2 days time. His serum uric acid concentration is elevated at 10.4. Which of the following drugs inhibits the enzyme xanthine oxidase in the uric acid pathway?

A. Colchicine
B. Naproxen
C. Indomethacin
D. Allopurinol
E. Probenecid
D. Allopurinol
What is the base of IMP?
A. Xanthine
B. Hypoxanthine
C. Glycine
D. Glutamine
B. Hypoxanthine
What is hypoxanthine's role in tRNA?
A. Aids in protein transcription
B. Aids in formation of tRNA
C. Allows wobble base pair formation
D. Allow recognition of base pairs
C. Allow wobble base pair formation
What enzyme is NOT regulated in the production of purines?
A. glutamine phosphoribosyl amidotransferase
B. PRPP synthetase
C. amidophosphoribosyl transferase
D. IMP dehydrogenase
A. glutamine phosphoribosyl amidotransferase
What is the committed step of purine synthesis?
A. Formation of PRPP
B. Formation of IMP
C. Formation of AMP
D. Formation of 5-phosphoriboxyl 1-amine
D. Formation of 5-phosphoriboxyl 1-amine
Deficiency in purine nucleoside phosphorylase activity leads to what immune disorder?
A. Compromised T-cell immunity
B. Compromised B-cell immunity
C. Lack of antibody production
D. Lack of antigen recognition
A. Compromised T-cell immunity
Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is a deficiency of what?
A. Purine nucleoside phosphorylase
B. Adenosine deaminase
C. Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT)
D. adenine phosphoribosyl transferase (APRT)
C. Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT)
A patient comes to your office complaining of an allergy to her new dog. Which of the following molecules is responsible for the increase in mucus secretion experienced by this patient?

A. IL-3
B. IL-10
C. IL-13
D. IFN-alpha
C. IL-13
A patient presents with an allergic reaction to an unknown allergen. What cell type synthesizes the molecule which promotes isotype switching in this patient?

A. Th1
B. Th2
C. Macrophages
D. B cells
B. Th2 cells synthesize IL-4, which promotes isotype swithcing of IgE.
Indomethacin is different from other NSAIDs in that it may do all the following EXCEPT:

A. Reduce macrophage migration
B. Reduce neutrophil migration
C. Inhibit phospholipase A and C
D. Decrease T cell and B cell proliferation
A. Reduce macrophage migration
Which of the following is a barrier to the GI tract?

A. Gastric achlorhydria
B. Normal intestinal flora
C. Vomiting
D. Small intestinal peristalsis
B. Normal intestinal flora
Which situation below describes and exogenous infection?

A. 12 y.o. boy with a skin infection after a cut with a kitchen knife
B. 16 y.o. girl with a vaginal yeast infection acquired after tetracycline use for acne
C. 22 y.o. woman with common cold
D. E. coli in the bloodstream of a 45 y.o. man after he received cancer chemotherapy and has had an absolute deficiency of neutrophils as a result
C. 22 y.o. woman with common cold
On first contact with respiratory pathogens, a macrophage promptly begins to produce TNF-a and other cytokines that stimulate enhanced intracellular killing in neighboring phagocytic cells. This is an example of what type of immunity?

A. Cellular
B. Humoral
C. Adaptive
D. Innate
D. Innate
Which of the following is the main constituent of biofilm?

A. Proteins
B. Mycolic acid
C. Bilamellar lipid membranes
D. Peptidoglycan
E. Polysaccharides
E. Polysaccharides
Which of the following is a feature that distinguishes prokaryotes from eukaryotes?

A. ATP
B. Ribosomes
C. Cell wall
D. Nucleus
D. Nucleus
Which function is inhibited by penicillins and cephalosporins?

A. DNA replication
B. Autolysis
C. Transpeptidation
D. Peptide chain elongation
E. Addition of polysaccharides to growing peptidoglycan chain
C. Transpeptidation
Which of the following features distinguishes Gram negative from Gram positive bacteria?

A. Flagella
B. Capsule
C. Cell wall
D. Outer membrane
D. Outer Membrane
Which of the following functions best describes the role of a bacterial siderophore?

A. Proton motive force
B. Porin
C. Chelator
D. Permease
C. Chelator
A student performing a Gram stain accidentally substitutes water for alcohol. What might happen?

A. Gram negatives would appear red
B. Gram positives would appear red
C. Both Gram positive and Gram negative would appear to be Gram negative
D. All bacteria would be unstained and transparent
E. Both Gram positive and Gram negative would appear to be Gram positive
E. Both Gram positive and Gram negative would appear to be Gram positive
Which of the following sites is the location of oxidative metabolism in bacteria

A. Cell wall
B. Ribosomes
C. Periplasm
D. Cell membrane
D. Cell membrane
Lipopolysaccharide (LPS) repels hydrophobic compounds that could damage the cell because of its hydrophilic domains. In which component of the LPS do these hydrophilic domains reside?

A. Lipid A
B. Teichoic acid
C. 2,3 keto-doxyoctanoic acid (2,3 KDO)
D. Core polysaccharide
E. O antigen
E. O antigen
Which system of transport is not energy dependent?

A. Phosphorylated linked transport
B. proton motive force
C. Active transport
D. Carrier mediated diffusion
D. Carrier mediated diffusion
A bacterial culture begins with 100 live organisms. If the generation time is 20 minutes and there is no lag phase, how many bacteria will be present in 3 hours?

A. 10^9
B. 900
C. 100^7
D. 51,200
E. 20,000
D. 51,200

100 * 2^9
A lab tech prepares a Gram stain of a Gram negative bacillus. Although the bacteria were taken from an abundant culture, the tech sees no bacteria in the field when viewing the finished slide. What step did he forget?

A. Decolorize with alcohol
B. Modify with iodine
C. Stain with crystal violet
D. Stain with safranin
D. Stain with safranin
Which of the following structures is found in the bacterial outer membrane?

A. Lysozyme
B. Murein
C. Beta-Galactosidase
D. Teichoic acid
E. Lipid A
E. Lipid A
In which of the following types of allergic reaction is histamine NOT released? A. Urticaria B. Hay Fever C. Asthma D. Anaphylaxis
C. Asthma
The process in which an antibody covers the toxic sites of the antigenic agent is called what? A. Agglutination B. Precipitation C. Lysis D. Neutralization
D. Neutralization
Where do monocytes mature? A. Tissue B. Bone marrow C. Thymus D. Spleen
A. Tissue
Patient presents to the emergency room with urticaria, wheezing, and hypotension after ingesting food that contained peanuts. Patient was unaware of the ingredient and is highly allergic to peanuts. Which type of white blood cells would be elevated in number? A. Monocytes B. Basophils C. Neutrophils D. B cells
B. Basophils
What is used to conteract acetaminophen overdose? A. aspirin B. acetylcysteine C. phenacetin D. naproxen
B. acetylcysteine
Which of the following interactions is NOT required to activate a T cell? A. CTLL-4 and B7.2 B. TCR and antigen-MHC C. CD40 and CD40 receptor D. CD28 and B7
C. CD40 and CD40 receptor
Which of the following interleukins is not linked to increased production of IgE? A. IL-2 B. IL-4 C. IL-5 D. IL-13
A. IL-2
Which of the following is an infectious disease that occurs without bacterial penetration through epithlelial surface?
A. Hookworm
B. Whooping cough
C. Yellow fever
D. Malaria
B. Whooping cough
What must be administered promptly in an acetaminophen overdose?
A. Acetylsalicylic acid
B. Probenecid
C. Acetylcysteine
D. Ibuprofen
C. Acetylcysteine
Which of the following drugs used in treatment of gout inhibit the reabsorption of uric acid?
A. Probenecid
B. Colchicine
C. Allopurinol
D. Indomethacin
A. Probenecid
Which is NOT a mechanism that leads to resistance to penicillin?
A. Inactivation of antibiotic by Beta-lactamase
B. Modification of target PBPs
C. Impaired penetration of drug
D. Modification of the binding site of peptidoglycan building block
D.
Which Beta-lactam antibiotic is the choice treatment of enterobacter infections?
A. 2nd generation cephalosporin
B. Carbapenem
C. Ampicillin
D. Monobactam
B. Carbapenem
Patient was being treated for tuberculosis and is now complaining of vertigo and loss of balance. What drug is most likely the cause of the side effect?
A. Tobramycin
B. Neomycin
C. Streptomycin
D. Amikacin
C. Streptomycin
Which aminoglycoside is also formulated in solution for inhalation treatment?
A. Tobramycin
B. Streptomycin
C. Gentamicin
D. Neomycin
A. Tobramycin
In a normal adult, without stress how much cortisol is secreted daily?
A. 5-10mg
B. 10-20mg
C. 20-30mg
D. 40mg
B. 10-20mg
Which of the following is NOT a receptor antagonist of corticosteroids?
A. Spironolactone
B. Mifepristone
C. Eplerenone
D. Ketoconazole
D. Ketoconazole
What molecule expressed on a T cell that binds with B7 on APC that delivers inhibitory signals to the T cell?
A. CD28
B. CD15
C. CTLA-4
D. CTLA-6
C. CTLA-4 (CD152)
Mechanism by which an infectious microbes produce antigens that are similar to self antigens and cause an autoimmune response:
A. Break anergy
B. Molecular mimicry
C. Express costimulators
D. Release antigens normally hidden
B. Molecular mimicry
The type of hypersensitivity disease where antibodies form complexes with antigens and complex deposits in various tissues causing injury:
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
C. Type III
Which of the following is NOT an example of a Type II hypersensitivity disease?
A. Acute rheumatic fever
B. Graves' disease
C. Goodpasture's syndrome
D. SLE
D. SLE
You are evaluating a patient's heart. On auscultation you hear a "blowing" murmur during diastole over the left ventricle. What type of murmur?
A. Aortic regurgiation
B. Mitral regurgitation
C. Mitral stenosis
D. Aortic stenosis
A. Aortic regurgitation
What enzyme is defective in Lesch-Nyhan syndrome?
A. Purine nucleoside phosphorylase
B. HGPRT
C. Adenosine deaminase
D. AMP deaminase
B. HGPRT
What is the only nucleoside to be directly phosphorylated to a nucleotide?
A. Adenosine
B. Inosine
C. Guanosine
D. Cytosine
A. Adenosine
Elastic fibers have the ability to stretch and reform to original form. What effect is the primary force that allows the stretch to reform?
A. Hydrophilic effect
B. Increased entropy
C. Hydrophobic effect
D. Decreased entropy
C. Hydrophobic effect
Which laminin is defective in Congenital muscular dystrophy?
A. Laminin 1
B. Laminin 2
C. Laminin 5
D. Laminin 6
B. Laminin 2
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the O-antigen of Gram (-) organisms?
A. Long carbohydrate chain
B. Highly antigenic
C. Excludes hydrophobic compounds
D. Anchors LPS in outer leaflet
D. Anchors LPS
Which is NOT a mechanism that microbes use to prevent harmful effects of complement?
A. Produce leukocidins
B. Polysaccharide capsule
C. Limit access of MAC to organism surface
D. Add sialic acid to polysaccharides
A. Produce leukocidins
Which of the following bacterial toxins does NOT act on the cell surface?
A. Endotoxin
B. Superantigens
C. Type III cytotoxins
D. Membrane-damaging toxins
C. Type III cytotoxins
How is parvovirus transmitted?
A. Fecal-oral route
B. Airbone large droplet
C. Blood
D. Insect
B. Airborne large droplet
Which form of fungi cause systemic infections?
A. Mold
B. Yeast
B. Yeast
Which of the following types of protozoal pahtogens move using a "tractor-tread" mechanism of gliding motility?
A. Amebas
B. Flagellates
C. Ciliates
D. Apicomplexans
D. Apicomplexans