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78 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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How do ruminants obtain glucose?
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Ruminants can only synthesise glucose from proprionate (grain diet). Glycogen storage capacity is poor
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How can Dry Matter Intake be calculated?
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DMI = (0.025 x bodyweight) + (0.1 x milk yield)
For most mammals 2% of bodyweight is ok |
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What is the result of magnesium deficiency?
What causes it? |
Staggers/grass tetany (acute, subacute or chronic)
Caused by fresh grass (low magnesium and decreased gut transit time) and potassium fertiliser (competes with magnesium for uptake) |
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What does calcium deficiency cause?
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Parturient paresis, flaccid paralysis and milk fever
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What does phosphorus deficiency cause? How is it treated?
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Causes 'happy downer cow' (regional)
Treatment is Foston IV |
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What is dietary cation anion balance.
What is an ideal value? How is it monitored? |
DCAB = (Na+K) - (Cl+S); affects blood pH
Aim for <-200mmol/kg Monitor by urine pH (normal 5.5-6.5) If urine pH is too high there are too many cations, if it's too low there are too many anions |
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What is a common result of a raw meat diet?
Give FOUR symptoms |
Nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism (high phosphorus, low calcium). Causes severe osteopaenia, fractures, twitching and seizures
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What does excess calcium/vitamin D cause?
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Radius curvus syndrome
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How does obesity affect glucose metabolism?
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Fat produces adipokines (lectin, TNF) which decrease insulin efficiency
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What are weight loss targets for small animals? How best can they be achieved?
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Aim for 2% bodyweight loss per week.
Give 60% of maintenance for optimum bodyweight for dogs, 75% for cats |
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What are weight gain targets for neonatal lambs and beef calves?
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Lambs: 350-400g/day
Calves: 1kg/day |
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What is the function of cobalt? What is the consequence of deficiency?
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Required for gluconeogenesis
Deficiency causes ill-thrift and anaemia. Lambs are particularly susceptible |
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What is the function of selenium?
What is the consequence of deficiency? |
Antioxidant, required for immunity
Deficiency causes ill-thrift, white muscle disease and embryonic death |
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What are the FOUR functions of copper?
What is the consequence of deficiency? |
Myelination, erythropoiesis, elastin/collagen synthesis and pigmentation
Deficiency causes swayback (ataxia, anaemia and fractures) |
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What is the function of iodine?
What is the consequence of deficiency? |
Required for T3/T4 synthesis
Deficiency causes perinatal mortality and goitres in neonates |
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How should mineral deficiency be diagnosed in livestock?
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Test a selection of animals as the diet may not be deficient (luminal interaction may inhibit absorption)
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Outline the life-cycle of liver fluke.
What clinical signs does it cause? What is the best treatment? |
Lymnea trunculata reproduces asexually to form cercariae. Cercariae encyst on pasture to form metacercariae. Metacercariae are ingested and excyst in the rumen or duodenum before migrating through the liver as larvae, then mature in the bile ducts.
Causes anaemia, weight loss, submandibular oedema and diarrhoea Treatment is benzimidazole |
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What is the life cycle of Ostertagia in cattle?
What disease does it cause? How is it diagnosed? |
Eggs hatch on pasture, L1 are ingested and moult twice (L2-L4) in abomasal glands.
Cause protein-losing gastropathy Diagnose based on blood pepsinogen (FEC not useful as larvae cause dz) |
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What is the life cycle of Telodorsagia in sheep?
What disease does it cause? How is it diagnosed? |
Eggs hatch on pasture, L1 are ingested and moult twice (L2-L4) in abomasal glands.
Cause protein-losing gastropathy Diagnose based on blood pepsinogen (FEC not useful as larvae cause dz) |
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What is the life cycle of Nematodirus?
What clinical signs does it cause? How is it diagnosed? |
Eggs may overwinter on pasture and hatch, larval stages affect the small intestine.
Causes acute profuse diarrhoea Diagnose based on blood pepsinogen (FEC not useful as larvae cause dz) |
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What is the life cycle of Trichostrongylus?
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Eggs hatch on pasture, L1 are ingested and moult twice (L2-L4) in abomasal glands
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What is the life cycle of Haemonchus?
What clinical signs does it cause? |
Eggs hatch on pasture, L1 are ingested and moult twice (L2-L4) in abomasal glands, where they suck blood.
Cause anaemia and ventral or submandibular oedema. No diarrhoea |
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What is the life cycle of Cyathostomins?
What clinical signs does it cause? |
Develop in equine intestinal walls and feed superficially on mucosa as adults.
Clinical signs are rare unless heavy burden or all die at once, in which case pipestream diarrhoea |
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What is the life cycle of Parascaris?
What clinical signs does it cause? |
Eggs hatch in intestines. Larvae migrate through the liver to the lungs before moving up the bronchial tree and being swallowed.
Causes verminous pneumonia ('summer cold'), colic and rarely intestinal obstruction |
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What are the cow's FOUR natural defences against mastitis?
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Teat canal smooth muscle sphincter
Epithelial keratin contains cationic proteins and fatty acids Furstenburg's rosette (at top of teat canal) contains IgG, fatty acids and cationic proteins IgG/macrophages/lymphocytes in the milk |
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Name FOUR non-lactating mastitis pathogens
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Actinomyces
Corynebacterium Streptococcus dysgalactiae Peptostreptococcus indolicus (anaerobic) |
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What causes gangrenous mastitis?
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Peracute S. aureus infection during parturition. Causes death within hours
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Name FIVE contagious mastitis pathogens. Describe the type of disease caused by each
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Staphylococcus aureus; adheres to internal duct and epithelium causing hypersensitivity
Streptococcus agalactiae; host-adapted causing mild chronic dz Streptococcus dysgalactiae; percutaneous acute infection E. coli; mild acute mastitis (may be severe) M. bovis; haematogenous spread from respiratory/genital tract causing decreased yield |
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Name TWO contagious mastitis pathogens. Describe the type of disease caused by each
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Streptococcus uberis; percutaneous infection
E.coli; mild acute mastitis (may be severe) |
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How is mastitis graded?
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1-3: 1- milk changes only
2 - milk and udder changes 3 - systemically ill cow |
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Outline the 5 point plan to control infectious mastitis
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1. Detection and treatment of clinical cases
2. Post milking dip teats and keep standing for 30 mins 3. Dry cow therapy (antibiotics and teat sealant) 4. Cull persistent cases (>3 high SCCs) 5. Maintenance of milking machine |
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What are the FOUR stages of devising a risk management strategies?
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Risk transfer
Risk avoidance Risk mitigation Risk acceptance |
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In study design, what are internal and external validity?
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Measurements of data quality: internal validity is how accurately the data reflects the study group, external validity is how accurately the study group reflects the population
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What are the THREE types of EU food hygiene regulation?
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Regulations - direct laws applicable to all member states
Directives - objectives that must be met by all member states Decisions - direct laws applicable to specific members |
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How are veterinary medicines legally controlled?
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UK Veterinary Medicines Regulations are updated annually by the Veterinary Medicines Directorate
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What are the FIVE stages of outbreak investigation?
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Establish there is an outbreak
Identify the source Identify the spread Attempt to limit the spread Evaluate previous control measures |
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What is R0?
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The basic reproduction number (i.e. the number of new cases caused per one infected individual in an entirely susceptible population)
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What does anthrax cause? What should you do if you suspect it?
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Sudden death in herbivores, swollen neck in pigs, an enlarged spleen and abdominal bleeding.
If you suspect anthrax you should notify the DVO and take a blood smear |
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What are the clinical signs of Brucella infection?
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Abortion/premature calving
Undulating fever Orchitis |
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How is lean growth encouraged?
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Reduce protein:energy ratio of diet with increasing bodyweight
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What are the THREE phases of layer hen production?
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Rearing phase (frame development): 0-6 weeks
Rearing phase (gut development): 9-16 weeks Laying phase: 16-72 weeks |
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What is the most likely cause of hens being slow into lay?
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Poor lighting patterns failing to induce sexual maturity
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What type of virus is Infectious Bronchitis Virus?
What are the EIGHT clinical signs? How is it controlled? |
Coronavirus
Causes inappetence, depression (huddling), coughing, sneezing, rales, visceral gout, diarrhoea and death Vaccine available but high mutation rate means it is often ineffective |
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With type of disease is Gumburo?
What does it cause? |
Birnavirus (also called Infectious Bursal Disease)
Causes acute haemorrhage and oedema of the bursa of Fabricius followed by severe atrophy |
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What's the most common type of coccidia?
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Eimeria species - each affects a specific host and tissue. No cross-immunity
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What is Marek's disease?
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A herpesvirus causing tumour formation
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Name THREE water-soluble antibiotics
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Cephalosporins
Penicillins Gentamicin |
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Name SIX lipid-soluble antibiotics
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Fluoroquinolones
Metronidazole Clindamycin Lincomycin Macrolides TMPS |
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What is bioavailability?
What influences it? |
Fraction of unchanged drug entering the circulation.
Affected by absorption and first-pass hepatic metabolism (decreased in liver disease) |
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What are the TWO stages of hepatic drug metabolism?
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Phase I: p450 or CYP enzymes
Phase II: conjugation |
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What is normal meat pH ante mortem? Post mortem?
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Ante mortem; 6.8
Post mortem; drops to 5.4 due to lactic acid formation |
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What is dark cutting beef/dark firm dry pork?
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pH is over 6 after 24h. Sternuous exercise ante-mortem depletes the muscle of glycogen so less lactic acid is produced
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What is pale soft exudative pork?
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pH is below 6 within 45 minutes. Due to stress ante-mortem causing hyperthermia and metabolic acidosis
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What are the FIVE signs of a good captive bolt stun?
What is important to remember about captive bolt stunning? |
Immediate collapse with hindlimbs flexed
Tonic body spasm No breathing No corneal or palpebral reflex No eyeball rotation Causes severe convulsions in pigs so not used |
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What are the TWO types of electrical stunning?
How does each work, and how long does it take to recover? |
Head-only stunning: induces epilepsy. Fastest recovery 40s
Head-to-back stunning: induces epilepsy and cardiac arrest. Fastest recovery 3 minutes |
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What are the TWO types of gas stunning? What are the pros and cons of each?
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Carbon dioxide stunning: induces breathlessness then unconsciousness in 15-30s
Hypoxic stunning: does not induce breathlessness but does induce convulsions |
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What causes Lyme's disease?
How is it transmitted? What are the clinical signs? |
Borellia burgdorferi is a spirochete bacteria. Reservoir small mammals and birds
Transmission is by Ixodes ticks - reservoir deer. May be shed in milk of ruminants Causes erythema migrans, fever and fatigue progressing to neurologic signs, cardiac and joint disease in humans. Causes recurrent lameness and self-resolving arthritis in dogs and horses |
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What TWO diseases were introduced to control wild rabbits? What are the clinical signs?
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Myxomatosis: skin and conjunctival swellings, death is due to secondary infections
Calicivirus: liver damage causing DIC/stroke |
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What is the difference between meat infection and meat intoxication?
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Meat infection is due to endotoxin (Gram negative organism, long incubation)
Meat intoxication is due to exotoxin (Gram positive organism, short incubation) |
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What temperature should meat be stored at?
What THREE pathogens can still grow at this temperature? |
Below -18 degrees inhibits all microbial growth but may impair quality
Below 3 degrees is acceptable but Listeria, Salmonella and Campylobacter still grow |
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Briefly describe FOUR methods of meat curing
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Sodium chloride - inhibits pathogens by depriving them of water
Sodium nitrite - stabilises meat colour and aroma by inhibiting fatty acid oxidation Phosphates - enhance water-holding capacity of meat Smoking |
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How is meat hygiene regulated?
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MHS is responsible for enforcement of legislation
FBO is responsible for traceability, good hygiene practice, temperature control, meeting microbiological criteria and record keeping OV is responsible for auditing the FBO |
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What TWO health marks are stamped on meat? What do they mean?
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Oval health mark = slaughtered at abattoir
Square health mark = emergency slaughter elsewhere |
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What are the THREE categories of condemned meat? How are they identified?
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Category 1 = specified risk material. Dyed blue and incinerated
Category 2 = high risk material. Dyed black and rendered Category 3 = low risk material. Incinerated |
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What EIGHT organs should specifically be checked in post mortem inspection of cattle? Why?
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Lymph nodes
Massesters (Cysticercus bovis) Tongue (Actinobacillosis) Tonsils Brainstem testing in animals over 48 months (18 months in small ruminants, 24 months if emergency slaughter) (TSEs) Trachea Heart Liver |
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What FOUR organs should always be exposed of as category 1 specified risk material from cattle?
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Skull, brain, eyes and tonsils
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How should the identification of Cysticercus bovis be dealt with at slaughter?
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Less than 25 cysts - cold treatment (-10 degrees for 14 days or -7 degrees for 21 days)
More than 25 cysts - reject carcase |
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How should the identification of Mycobacterium bovis be dealt with at slaughter?
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Condemn affected part or whole carcase if generalised
Detain carcase and alert authorities |
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How should identification of Brucellosis be dealt with at slaughter?
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Slaughter positive animals and inconclusive reactors separately. Total condemnation
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How should pork be treated at slaughter? Why?
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Test or cold-treat all meat sue to risk of Trichinella spiralis
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How should poultry be treated at slaughter?
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Routinely sample 10 caeca and 1 whole carcase per batch for Campylobacter
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What are the THREE groups of chemical hazards in meat?
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Group A - unauthorised substances
Group B - veterinary contaminants Group C - environmental contaminants |
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What is raw milk? What criteria must it meet to be deemed fit for human consumption?
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Milk that has not been heated about 40 degrees
Must have SCC below 400,000/ml |
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How is milk pasteurised? How can you confirm if milk is pasteurised or not?
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Heated to 63 degrees for 30 min or 72 degrees for 15 seconds.
Milk is alkaline phosphatase negative after pastuerisation |
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How is milk ultra heat treated?
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135 to 150 degrees for 2 to 5 seconds
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What FIVE milk-borne pathogens can survive pasteurisation?
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Bacillus
Clostridia Lactobacillus Micrococcus Streptococcus |
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What is a rare consequence of Campylobacter food poisoning?
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Guillian-Barre syndrome; acute demyelinating peripheral neuropathy
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How long must medicine records be kept on-farm?
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3-5 years
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