Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
112 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
How are nervous signals disseminated throughout the gastrointestinal tract?
|
Myenteric plexus is in tunica muscularis - motor nerves; sympathetic and parasympathetic control
Meissener's plexus is between the mucosa and muscularis - secretory nerves under parasympathetic control |
|
|
What secretory cells are found in the mucosa of the stomach?
|
Goblet (mucus neck) cells - mucus
Chief cells - pepsinogen Parietal cells - HCl |
|
|
What is the name of the secretory structures of the small intestine?
|
Crypts; contain Brunner's glands (secrete mucus) and enteroendocrine cells
|
|
|
What are Kupffer cells?
|
Macrophages lining hepatic sinusoids
|
|
|
What secretory cells are found in the pancreas?
|
Acinus cells - amylase, trypsinogen, lipase, chymotrypsinogen, HCO3
alpha-cells - glucagon beta-cells - insulin delta-cells - somatostatin |
|
|
What controls appetite?
|
Hypothalamus (hunger)
Vagus (stomach stretch) |
|
|
Outline the THREE arteries that supply the gastrointestinal tract, and the regions they supply.
How does blood supply differ in ruminants? |
Coeliac artery (oesophagus - cranial duodenum)
Cranial mesenteric artery (caudal duodenum - proximal transverse colon) Caudal mesenteric artery (distal transverse colon - rectum) In ruminants all of above plus left and right ruminal arteries |
|
|
What structures border the epiploic foramen?
|
Caudate lobe of liver, inferior vena cava, hepatic portal vein and pancreas
|
|
|
Describe the nervous supply of the gastrointestinal tract
|
Parasympathetic: vagus (oesophagus - descending colon) and pelvic nerve (descending colon - rectum)
Sympathetic: splanchnic nerve via coelacomesenteric ganglion (at root of coeliac and cranial mesenteric arteries) and caudal mesenteric ganglion (at root of caudal mesenteric artery) |
|
|
What controls gastrointestinal contraction?
How does this differ in the horse? |
Interstitial cells of Cajal cause rhythmic contraction of circular muscle in response to stretching and chemical stimulation.
In the horse the caecal pacemaker is in the pelvic flexure Spontaneous contractions start in the distal stomach and migrate |
|
|
What THREE things regulate endocrine activity in the gastrointestinal tract?
|
- The sight and smell of food causes vagal stimulation of gastrin and histamine release
- Chemoreceptors in the stomach promote gastrin/histamine release in the presence of food, and inhibit it when local pH drops below 3 - Chyme in the duodenum causes secretion of gastrin inhibitory peptide and cholecystokinin (stimulates gall bladder emptying) |
|
|
How are sugars absorbed?
|
Oligosaccharidases protrude from the luminal side of small intestinal cells. Glucose uptake is active
|
|
|
How are proteins absorbed?
|
Peptidases are secreted into the gastrointestinal tract. Protein uptake is active
|
|
|
How are fats absorbed?
|
Fat uptake is passive
|
|
|
How is water absorbed?
|
Active maintenance of a sodium gradient draws water out of the gut by osmosis
|
|
|
What is target energy intake for an average animal?
|
50kcal/kg target bodyweight per day
|
|
|
What disease process causes weight loss with abnormal faeces and normal or increased appetite?
What TWO diseases are most likely to cause this? |
Maldigestion
Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency or intestinal disturbance |
|
|
What disease process causes weight loss with increased faecal bulk and normal or increased appetite?
What SIX diseases are most likely to be a primary cause of this? What TWO diseases are most likely to be a secondary cause of this? |
Malabsorption
Primary cuases: IBD, bacterial flora overgrowth, infiltrative neoplasia (lymphoma/MCT), hypersensitivity, FIP or lymphangiectasia Secondary causes: hyperthyroidism, liver disease |
|
|
What disease process causes weight loss with normal faeces and normal or increased appetite?
What SEVEN diseases are most likely to cause this? |
Malutilisation
Congestive heart failure, diabetes mellitus, dirofilariasis, neoplasia, hyperthyroidism, Addison's disease, renal disease |
|
|
How can intestinal dilation be quantified radiographically?
What is a likely cause if it is localised? Generalised? |
Intestinal width more than 1.6x the depth of mid-L5
Obstruction locally, parvovirus/electrolyte imbalance generally |
|
|
How can gastric dilation be quantified radiographically?
|
If the stomach extends beyond the last rib
|
|
|
What type of muscle is found in the oesophagus (including oesophageal sphincter)?
|
Oesophageal sphincter is cricopharygeus muscle.
Oesophagus is 100% skeletal muscle in the dog, distal third is smooth muscle in the cat and horse. |
|
|
What is a normal small intestinal wall thickness?
|
5mm or less
|
|
|
What are the NINE possible causes of regurgitation?
What advice should the owner be given until the problem can be resolved? |
Vascular ring anomaly, cricopharyngeal disease, hiatal hernia, diverticulum, stricture, foreign body, mass, oesophagitis or megaoesophagus
Feed in front-elevated position |
|
|
What FOUR biochemical changes are associated with vomiting acutely? Chronically?
|
Alkalosis, hypochloraemia, hypokalaemia, haemoconcentration.
May progress to acidosis if fluid loss becomes so severe tissue perfusion is lost and anaerobic metabolism occurs |
|
|
What TWO biochemical changes would be cause by vomiting secondary to low intestinal obstruction?
|
Acidosis (loss of duodenal bicarbonate) and hyponatremia
|
|
|
What is the most common consequence of chronic vomiting?
|
Diarrhoea (due to bacterial proliferation)
|
|
|
Describe the THREE phases of gastrointestinal wound healing.
|
Lag phase: 1-4d (inflammation and haemorrhage)
Proliferative phase: 3-14d (acquires up to 80% of initial strength) Maturation phase |
|
|
What is the prognosis following gastric resection?
|
No compromise to function unless pylorus is resected; then high morbidity due to bile duct and pancreatic damage
|
|
|
What is the most common gastric neoplasia in the dog? Cat?
|
Dog - adenocarcinoma
Cat - lymphoma |
|
|
What FIVE clinical signs occur with acute ruminal acidosis?
How is it managed? |
Recumbency, blindness, laminitis, ataxia and abdominal distension
Treatment may be surgical (rumen lavage) or medical (5% sodium bicarbonate and 0.9% saline IV, magnesium hydroxide orally) |
|
|
What SIX clinical signs occur with SARA?
|
Low milk fat, low milk yield, laminitis, liver abscesses, haemoptysis. Epistaxis may occur secondary to vena caval thrombosis
|
|
|
Name THREE causes of gaseous bloat
|
Excessive carbohydrate intake
Oesophageal obstruction Milk fever (decreased calcium reduces gut motility) |
|
|
Give FOUR differentials for left-sided pings in cows
|
LDA
Bloat Pneumoperitoneum Rumen collapse |
|
|
What are FIVE risk factors for LDA?
|
Within 6 weeks of calving
Insufficient dietary fibre Milk fever Sudden diet changes Poor management in transition period |
|
|
Give FOUR differentials for right-sided pings
|
RDA (rare, but may progress to volvulus)
Caecal dilation (may progress to volvulus) Gas in spiral colon (clinically insignificant) Uterine tear |
|
|
What are the equine tooth eruption times?
|
01 - 2.5yr
02 - 3.5yr 03 - 4.5yr 06 - 2.5yr 07 - 3yr 08 - 4yr 09 - 1yr 10 - 2yr 11 - 3.5yr |
|
|
What are the FIVE structural components of equine teeth?
|
Cementum - attaches to periodontal ligament
Dentine - tubular structure Enamel - laminated sheets Pulp - blood vessels and nerves Infundibulae - 2 per cheek tooth, 1 per incisor |
|
|
How should teeth be graded for dental records?
|
0-3 scores for:
plaque index calculus (hardened plaque) index gingival index |
|
|
Give SEVEN differential diagnoses for acute small intestinal diarrhoea
|
Dietary indiscretion
Bacterial Protozoa (Giardia) Viral (distemper, parvovirus, panleukopaenia) Helminths Haemorrhagic gastroenteritis Acute pancreatitis |
|
|
Give FIVE differential diagnoses for chronic small intestinal diarrhoea
|
Partial obstruction
Food allergy Lymphangiectasia Lymphoma IBD |
|
|
What causes increased faecal volume, vomiting, weight loss and poor condition?
|
Small intestinal diarrhoea
|
|
|
What causes increased frequency of defaecation, tenesmus, mucus, dyschezia, and vomiting?
|
Large intestinal diarrhoea
|
|
|
Give FOUR differential diagnoses for acute large intestinal diarrhoea
|
Trichuris (whipworms)
clostridia Giardia campylobacter |
|
|
Give SIX differential diagnoses for chronic large intestinal diarrhoea
|
Partial obstruction
IBD Food hypersensitivity Ulcerative colitis Polyps Neoplasia |
|
|
What causes antibiotic responsive diarrhoea?
|
Occurs in German Shepherd Dogs due to small intestinal antibacterial overgrowth
|
|
|
Outline a treatment plan for IBD
|
Elimination diet and 3-4 weeks metronidazole
If inadequate response add in high dose prednisolone and taper when signs resolved Add in cyclosporin if required Supplement vitamin B in cats |
|
|
Give FIVE differentials for neonatal calf diarrhoea
|
E. coli
coronavirus rotavirus cryptosporidium salmonella |
|
|
Give FOUR differentials for diarrhoea in adolescent cattle
|
BVDV
Endoparasites Ruminal acidosis Salmonella |
|
|
Give FOUR differentials for diarrhoea in adult cattle
|
SARA
BVDV Johne's disease Salmonellosis |
|
|
Outline the mechanism of BVDV
|
Infection of dam before foetus reaches immunocompetence with a cytopathic strain = abortion, with a non-cytopathic strain = PI
Infection of dam after foetus reaches immunocompetence = cerebellar hypoplasia, abortion or clearance and normal calf |
|
|
Outline the mechanism of Johne's disease
|
Mycobacterium avium paratuberculosis infection is acquired in the first month of life. It colonises Peyer's patches in the small intestine and causes chronic scours and wasting disease that presents at 2-4yo
|
|
|
How should Johne's disease be managed?
|
ELISA milk test whole herd (two tests). Cull red animals (persistently high titres). Snatch-calve orange cows (medium high titres) and give colostrum/milk from green cows ONLY (Johne's-free).
|
|
|
What tests may be used to detect Johne's disease?
|
Bulk milk ELISA, individual milk ELISA, Zinc-neillsen stain faecal smear, faecal culture
ALL poor sensitivity |
|
|
When does E. coli cause disease?
|
Strains must have adhesive fimbria and enterotoxin-producing ability to be pathogenic
|
|
|
When does Salmonella cause disease?
|
Most strains of Salmonella are enteropathic, some may be invasive. Salmonella is able to survive in phagosomes
|
|
|
Give NINE differentials for foal diarrhoea
|
Foal heat
Virus (usually rotavirus, less commonly parvovirus/coronavirus) Salmonella Clostridia spp. Lawsonia intracellularis Rhodococcus equi cryptosporidium Strongylus vulgari/westeri gastric ulceration |
|
|
Give FIVE differentials for adult horse diarrhoea
|
Salmonella
Clostridia spp. cyathostomiasis (encysted L4) NSAID toxicity peritonitis |
|
|
What is the common sequel to colonic resection?
|
Increased volume and fluidity of faeces. If the ileocaecal valve is compromised SIBO occurs
|
|
|
How much of the rectum may be resected
|
Up to 6cm; more causes faecal incontinence
|
|
|
How should megacolon be managed?
|
Medical management: high fibre diet, increased exercise, enema, laxatives and prokinetics
Surgical management: subtotal colectomy |
|
|
Give THREE differentials for peri-rectal masses. How should they be managed? What is the prognosis?
|
Perianal adenomas: common, benign and testosterone-driven, excellent prognosis with removal and castration
Anal sac apocrine adenocarcinomas: palliate with closed anal sac resection, removal of sublumbar lymph nodes and chemotherapy. High rate of metastasis Anal furunculosis: Immunosuppressive tx until resolution, then remove residual lesions, perianal crypts and anal sacs. Most dogs need long-term immunosuppressive tx |
|
|
What is the difference between true and false hernias?
|
True hernias are through an existing body orifice, false hernias are through a traumatic opening
|
|
|
What are the two types of inguinal hernia? What is the predilection?
|
Direct - hernia outside the visceral tunic (commonly occurs in bitches during gestation)
Indirect - hernia within the visceral tumour (commonly occurs in young large breed males) |
|
|
Give THREE differentials for pre-hepatic icterus
|
IMHA
Babesia infection Toxicity - onion/lead/copper |
|
|
Give SIX differentials for hepatic icterus in the cat
|
Suppurative cholangiohepatitis
Lymphocytic plasmocytic hepatitis Hepatic lipidosis FIP Aspirin toxicity Neoplasia |
|
|
Give FOUR differentials for hepatic icterus in the dog
|
Acute hepatitis
Leptospirosis Chronic hepatitis Neoplasia |
|
|
Give THREE differentials for post-hepatic icterus
|
Pancreatitis
Neoplasia Cholelithiasis |
|
|
What TWO conditions cause an elevation in fasting bile acids?
|
Liver failure
Portosystemic shunt |
|
|
What TWO mechanisms cause photosensitisation in horses and farm animals?
|
Ingestion of plants containing photosensitising agents (St John's wort, clover)
Hepatic failure (Phylloerythrin is produced by gastrointestinal tract commensals and normally conjugated by the liver) |
|
|
What are the SIX principles of treatment of hepatic encephalopathy?
|
Reduce toxin absorption: liquid paraffin/magnesium sulphate
Reduce cerebral oedema: mannitol Reduce bacterial ammonia production: oral neomycin Limit ammonia absorption: oral lactulose High fibre/low protein diet Anti-inflammatories: NSAIDs, steroids if no infection |
|
|
What is Theiller's disease?
|
Acute centrilobular hepatocellular necrosis, with haemorrhage
Occurs 4-10 weeks after receiving equine serum |
|
|
What is Tyzzer's disease?
|
Peractute or acute hepatic disease in foals following infection with Clostridium piliformis from adult faeces
Very poor prognosis - often found dead |
|
|
What are THREE differentials for equine biliary obstruction?
|
Cholelithiasis
Ascariasis Ascending E.coli - Salmonella, E. coli, Aeromonas |
|
|
What THREE drugs are used to manage hyperlipaemia?
|
Insulin
Glucose (inhibit further fat mobilisation) Heparin (increase tissue trigylceride uptake) |
|
|
What biochemical abnormality indicates cholestasis?
|
Elevated GGT
|
|
|
What is the space of Disse?
|
Plasma-containing space between hepatocytes and sinusoids, facilitating nutrient/waste diffusion
|
|
|
What causes 'plum pudding' liver appearance?
|
Telangiectasia: foci of blood that accumulate in sinusoids due to adjacent hepatocellular necrosis
Incidental in cats and cattle |
|
|
What virus causes canine infectious hepatitis?
What clinical signs does it cause? What post-mortem signs are seen grossly? What histopathological signs are seen? |
Canine adenovirus-1
Vomiting, melaena and fever Friable liver, gall bladder wall oedema, acute serosal haemorrhage in all viscera Periacinar necrosis, intranuclear inclusion bodies in heptocytes, Kupffer cells and endothelium |
|
|
What causes focal necrosis in neonatal livers?
|
Herpesviruses
|
|
|
What is Black disease?
|
Caused by Clostridium novyi infection in fluke-damaged livers
There are pale foci of hepatic necrosis with a haemorrhagic rim, extensive venous congestion and fibrinous peritoneal and pericardial effusion |
|
|
What causes bacillary haemoglobinuria?
|
Clostridium haemolyticum - causes a single large necrotic focus in the liver, severe anaemia, jaundice and haemoglobinuria
|
|
|
What protozoal disease infects poultry? Describe the aetiology
|
Histomonas meleagridis is transmitted in the eggs of the caecal worm (Heterakis gallinarium). Causes foci of necrotising and granulomatous inflammation with intralesional protozoa in the caecum or liver
|
|
|
What causes milk spot liver?
|
Ascaris suum
|
|
|
What parasite causes hydatid cyst formation in the liver? What species does it affect?
|
Echinococcus granulosus - ox, sheep, horse and man
Echinococcus equinus - older horses (incidental) |
|
|
What is the intermediate host of the liver fluke? How does it behave within the body?
|
Lymnea trunculata (snail) transmits Fasciola hepatica: larvae migrate through liver parenchyma and mature in bile ducts, causing chronic cholangiohepatits
|
|
|
What type of hepatitis is commonly seen in young cats? Old cats?
|
Young cats: Feline progressive lymphocytic cholangiohepatitis - immune mediated
Old cats: lymphocytic portal hepatitis - incidental |
|
|
What breeds are prone to pancreatic acinar atrophy?
What clinical signs does it cause? |
German Shepherd Dogs and rough-coated collies.
Pancreatic acinar atrophy is a juvenile onset T-cell mediated autoimmunity Causes juvenile-onset steatorrhea, diarrhoea, weight loss, pot-bellied appearance and lack of mesenteric fat |
|
|
Describe the aetiology of acute pancreatitis
|
Self-digestion of the pancreas. May activate coagulation cascade causing shock or have no systemic signs.
Leads to chronic pancreatitis, exocrine pancreatic insufficiency and diabetes mellitus Intense peripheral neutrophilia |
|
|
What causes central diabetes insipidus?
How is it diagnosed? |
Compression of the posterior pituitary gland or hypothalamus
Diagnosis is by water deprivation and exogenous ADH |
|
|
What are the SIX differentials for pings in the cow?
|
Bloat, ruminal Collapse, Peritonitis, Pneumoperitoneum, Indigestion, Displaced abomasum
(Big Cows Piss In Doorways) |
|
|
What are the FOUR biochemical abnormalities caused by Addison's disease?
|
Hyponatraemia, hypochloraemia, hyperkalaemia, generalised hypoperfusion
|
|
|
What are the THREE possible causes of hypothyroidism?
|
Iodine deficiency
TSH deficiency Autoimmunity (95% of dogs) |
|
|
What are the THREE possible causes of hyperthyroidism?
|
Adenoma (common
Carcinoma (rare) Hyperplasia |
|
|
What are the ELEVEN common sequels of diabetes mellitus?
|
Cataract formation (osmotic disruption)
Infection (increased glucose in tissue fluids, immunosuppression) Neuropathies/hindlimb weakness (loss of myelination) Hypertension Cardiac arrest Stroke Nephropathy (due to hypertension) Angiopathy (limb gangrene may occur due to poor circulation) Ketoacidosis Hepatic lipidosis Pancreatic amyloidosis |
|
|
What are oral hypoglycaemics? Give an example
|
Sulphonylureas increase islet sensitivity to glucose so stimulate increased insulin release. Works in 10-25% of cats (NOT in insulin-dependent diabetes)
May accelerate islet exhaustion e.g. sulphonylureas (glipizide) |
|
|
What type of insulin is most suitable for the cat? Dog?
|
Bovine for cats, porcine for dogs
|
|
|
What is lente insulin?
|
30% amorphous particles (short acting), 70% crystals (long acting)
|
|
|
What is glargine?
|
Insulin with reduced solubility: binds to subcutaneous tissues to form a depot
|
|
|
How does feline hyperthyroidism cause HCM?
|
Increases catecholamine sensitivity, decreases vascular resistance
|
|
|
Outline the FOUR tests for feline hyperthyroidism
|
Basal T4 elevation - may be lowered by stress; if normal repeat after 1 month
Free T4 elevation (i.e. equilibrium dialysis); may be elevated in normal cats Scintigraphy T3 suppression test (oral T3 for 3 days and see if free T4 lowers); gold standard but must be good to pill |
|
|
Name FIVE symptoms of hypothyroidism
|
Epiphyseal dysgenesis
Peripheral neuropathy Symmetrical alopecia Hyperkeratosis Hyperpigmentation |
|
|
What blood abnormalities are associated with hyperthyroidism?
|
None - stress leukogram at most
|
|
|
What blood abnormalities are associated with hypothyroidism?
|
Mild, non-regenerative anaemia
Elevated CK Elevated cholesterol Proteinuria |
|
|
What are the TWO tests to diagnose hypothyroidism? How should the results be interpreted?
|
Basal T4 decrease; occurs with any disease
Basal TSH abnormality (increase = primary hypothyroidism, decrease = secondary hypothyroidism); wide range of normals |
|
|
How does Addison's disease differ from atypical Addison's disease?
|
Addison's disease is mineralocorticoid and glucocorticoid deficiency
Atypical Addison's disease is glucocorticoid deficiency only |
|
|
When do clinical signs occur with Addison's disease? What is the likely aetiology?
|
90% of adrenal function may be lost before signs
Usually autoimmune |
|
|
How should Addison's disease be diagnosed?
|
ACTH stimulation test (can stabilise patient with dexamethasone if required without affecting result)
|
|
|
Outline a treatment plan for Addison's disease
|
Oral prednisolone (glucocorticoid) and fludrocortisone (mineralocorticoid) daily
|
|
|
What is the cycle of transmission of Toxoplasma gondii?
|
Sexual phase in intestinal cells of felids and asexual phase in muscles of any other mammal or bird
|
|
|
What is the life cycle of Cysticerca spp?
How long does it take? |
Eggs/gravid proglottis passed in faces; Taenia spp (larval stages) hatch in small intestine, develop into Cysticerci in striated muscle then into adults in intestines
Takes around 2 months |
|
|
What is the life cycle of Sarcocysta?
|
Asexual reproduction in the vessels of the horse then form sarcocysts in the muscle which are infective to the definitive host
|
