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225 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
The primary power for the KG-84C is _________.
115VAC 400hz
IAW NATOPS, before using the Pilot's or Co-Pilot's escape strap, you should check _____________________.
that the green band is even with the window sill
The RT rack MDF's recieve 28vdc power from which of the following:
P67-3 panel
The Low Range Radio Altimeter is powered whenever power is applied to the aircraft.
False
Where is the intake hazard area on the E-6B at take off rated thrust (TRT)?
an arc 50 ft out in front of the engine around to 6 ft back behind the inlet
When the Pilot's Instrument Source Select Switch is in the ALTN position, the selected data sources are FMCS 2, IRS 3 and DAC 1 ALTN.
False
What is the frequency range of the SSPA?
17.00 khz to 59.99 khz
The ADF system consists of two ADF receivers, two loop antennas, one sense antenna, and two ADF control panels.
FALSE
With the weather radar operate switch in the ______ position the radar can be damaged if the ANT STAB switch is set to ON and the selected attitude source is OFF.
WX, MAP 1, MAP 2, BCN
Power is applied to the UHF Guard Receiver by the _______.
V/UHF #1 mode switch
Administer oxygen to personnel overcome by smoke/fumes, after removing them from the scene of the fire.
True
The SIMOP Filter for the HF-3 System is located in RT Cabinet Bay _______.
2
The APU ground fire switch, light and horn are located ___________________.
in the starboard wheel well
How many stations in Comm Central can communicate via the flight deck UHFs?
5
The VOL control on the ARC-190 control head is inoperative.
False
Identify the sequence of events for ground evacuation using the forward or aft main door and escape slide slide_____________.
Open door, pull inflation handle, jump clear of door sill.
Which radar setting is used for short or medium range terrain mapping at altitudes above 500 ft AGL.
MAP 1
When deploying the liferafts, if possible deploy them forward of the wings.
True
The pilot and copilot sliding windows are two of the primary exits in a ditching situation.

An operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., which may result in personal injury or death, if not carefully observed or followed, is the NATOPS definition of a __________.
WARNING
The radar hazard area for personnel is within a _____ foot radius in a _____ degree arc off the nose of the aircraft.
60 / 240
Secure HF transmissions can be accomplished utilizing which HF radios?
3, 4 & 5
With the Split System Breaker OPEN, which generators supply power to the Mission Equipment SYNC BUS?
2,4,6,7 & 8
The APU inlet and exhuast hazard area extends for _______ ft from the aircraft.
25
The following ditching procedures are for Station 21(ACOM) : Perform Checklist. After ditching: Remove starboard overwing hatch. Take escape strap, exit via hatch. Inflate life vest. Conditions permitting, attach escape strap to wing fitting. Deploy and board No. 2 liferaft.
True
Displayed TACAN bearings are still reliable if all three RMIs are displaying TACAN data.

Which Comm Central positions have access to Conf 1 on the ICS?
ALL
Which position on the UHF Receive Antenna Control will manually select UHF SATCOM 10 antenna?
Overhead
To avoid shocking personnel working on the aircraft external skin surfaces, HF radio transmissions are not allowed while on the ground.
False
With the Split System breaker OPEN, aircraft generators ________ are normally used for the AVE SYNC bus.
1,3 and 5
The FMCS CDU's are cooled by _______.
Draw Thru Cooling
The UHF C3 antenna is hazardous to personnel within a _____ foot radius if the C3 HPA PA is disabled, and within a _____ foot radius if the C3 HPA is enabled.
1 / 17
The Preselect Bandpass Filter for the HF 5 system is located in the RT Cabinet, Bay _____.
1
28VDC DISTR 1 PNL recieves its power from ___________.
P67-3 circuit breaker panel
How many portable fire extinguishers are on the E-6B?
6
The E-6B has ________ crash axes onboard.
5
If an escape slide fails to inflate it can not be used for an escape exit.
FALSE
The inflation of the liferafts takes less than_____seconds in all enviroments.
10
What is the Bold Face for Sudden Loss of Cabin Pressurization?
OXYGEN- ON (ALL)
Where are the circuit breakers for the IRS systems located?
P5 & P6 panels
The word _______ is used in the NATOPS to indicate that application of a procedure is recommended.
SHOULD
An operating procedure, practice or condition, which may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed or followed is the NATOPS definition of a:
CAUTION
Pressure should indicate between _____ and _____ Oxygen Regulators.
290 / 430
The 30M setting on the portable oxygen bottle regulator is used when cabin altitude is __________ feet.
30,000 to 42,000 ft
The E-6B IFF, (AIMS) system mode _____ provides for CRYPTO secure indentification.
4
The forward main door and escape slide and the aft main door and escape slide are not the primary exits for a ground evacuation.
False
Where is the intake hazard area on the E-6B at idle thrust?
An arc 25 feet out in front of the engine around to 5 feet back down the nacelle.
IAW NATOPS, a "WARNING' is:
none of the above
How many portable emergency exit lights are on the E-6B?
9
The E-6B has _____ liferafts on board which have a normal-rated capacity of _____ people.
3 / 10
IAW NATOPS, do not discharge the Portable Halon Fire Extinguisher unless flames are visible.
True
Of the _____ modes of the IFF system available on the E-6B, _____ provides altitude information.
5 / Mode 3/A
UHF 12 and 13 receive antennas are both located in the port wingpod.
False
The word ________ is used in the NATOPS to indicate that application of a procedure is mandatory.
SHALL
The normal rated capacity of each liferaft is _______ persons with an overload capacity of ______ persons.
7/10
HF-5 radio uses which aircraft antenna?
Starboard wing probe
The MISC CONT circuit breaker supplies power to all but which of the following?
60 HZ Power Control Panel
Where is the closest oxygen refill station to Comm Central Seat one?

The four positions on the portable oxygen bottle selector knob are NORM, __________
42M, 45M, EMER
How many comm central stations can communicate on the Flight deck VHF/UHF radios?
4
Which of the following frequencies is an ILS frquency, and would be used to perform an self-test of the VHF NAV system.
109.20
Each UHF C3 radio is capable of storing _______ transmit and _______ receive presets stored in non-volatile memory.
20/20
Which HF radio(s) may be utilized for secure voice (ANDVT/KYV-5) transmissions?
HF-3, 4, & 5
Fill the MA-1 portable oxygen bottle before the pressure drops below 50 psi. If the pressure drops below 50 psi, recharge bottles immediately or purge bottle before filling.
True
What station performs the following "Fire Bill" duties: Remain at assigned station; assist as directed.
8, 10, 6
There are _______ MB-1 portable oxygen bottles on the E-6B aircraft.
6
The UHF C3 system has ________ receive antennas and ________ high power transmit antennas.
3-Feb
The Network Bays are located on the _______ side of the SSPA/C.
starboard
What station performs the following "DITCHING" duties: Perform checklist. After ditching: 1. Release No. 2 liferaft and survival kit. Attach retaining line (located in inflation handle pocket) to assist handle on side of starboard overwing hatch. 2. Pass liferaft and survival kit thru overwing hatch, exit via hatch. 3. Inflate life vest. 4. Assist in deploying liferaft. Board No. 2 liferaft.
No. 20
The ARN-118 Tacan system aboard the E-6 has ______ total selectable channels (counting both X and Y channel modes).
252
What station performs the following "DITCHING" duties: Perform checklist. After ditching: 1. Release No. 1 liferaft and survival kit. Attach retaining line (located in inflation handle pocket) to assist handle on side of port overwing hatch. 2. Pass liferaft and survival kit thru overwing hatch, exit via hatch. 3. Inflate life vest. 4. Assist in deploying liferaft. Board No. 1 liferaft.
No. 17
What station performs the following "Fire Bill" duties: Take oxygen mask from station regulator, proceed to forward lower compartment access hatch. Obtain portable oxygen bottle and fire extinguisher from next to access hatch. When the monitor arrives, inspect the forward lower compartment. Check for tripped circuit breakers, arcing, smoke or fire. If MSU in station.the compartment to report to ACO. Return to assignedfire/smoke source is not found, utilize
No. 9
What is the maximum cabin temperature for the startup and continuous ground operation of all avionics cooled by the Draw-Through-Cooling System?
90 deg. F
What station performs the following "Fire Bill" duties: Take oxygen mask from station regulator and obtain portable oxygen bottle from the port side aft comm central bulkhead. Inspect aft communications central. Return to station and report to ACO.
No. 20
What is the radar area of possible fuel ignition _____________ and electro-explosive device detonation______________.
300-foot radius / 100-foot radius
Personnel in forward facing seats take bracing position with seatbelt fastened, back against backrest, feet flat on floor, and arms braced with hands on knees.
True
An operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that may result in injury or death if not carefully observed or followed is __________.
Warning
Operation of the SSPA/C can be accomplished from ________ ACHs.
2
If an escape slide fails to inflate it can not be used for an escape exit.
False
Which key on the MILSTAR keyboard confirms that a correct entry has been made?
VERIFY
What station performs the following "DITCHING" duties: Perform checklist. After ditching: 1. Remove port overwing hatch. 2. Take escape strap, exit via hatch. 3. Inflate life vest. 4. Conditions permitting, attach escape strap to wing fitting. 5. Deploy and board No. 1 liferaft.
No. 18
__________ is used only when application of a procedure is recommended.
Should
Personnel in aft facing seats take bracing position with seatbelt fastened, back against backrest, feet flat on floor, and arms braced with hands on knees.
True
The two ______, located at ACOM positon 21 and ACO, provide operator interface to the DAISS for administrative and maintenance functions.
SDUs
The SSPA/C matches the impedance of the amplifier to the impedance of the ________.
RF radiating STWA
What station performs the following "DITCHING" duties: Perform checklist. After ditching: 1. Obtain portable liferaft from crew rest area. Proceed to port overwing hatch. 2. Pass liferaft through overwing hatch; exit via hatch. 3. Inflate life vest. Board No. 1 liferaft (Take extra liferaft to No. 1 liferaft.)
No. 9
The UHF-DF system uses which radio(s)?
V/UHF #1 only
What station performs the following "Fire Bill" duties: "Take oxygen mask from station requlator and obtain portable oxygen bottle from port side forward comm central bulkhead. Inspect forward comm central area, including battlestaff positions if vacant. Return to assigned station, report to ACO, and prepare to transmit emergency message.
No. 17
Allow each TCG to warm up ________ before applying power to the SDSU.
5 minutes
The APU inlet and exhuast hazard area extends _____ ft from the aircraft.
25
The Forced Air Cooling system control panel is located on the flight engineer's panel.
True
Remove personnel overcome by smoke/fumes from scene of fire before administering oxygen. Keep oxygen bottles away from scene of fire.
True
The Secondary ditching exits are _______________.
forward and aft main doors.'pilot and co-pilot sliding windows.'bailout door.
Which key on the MILSTAR keyboard confirms that a correct entry has been made?
VERIFY
How many subscriber station units (SSUs) make up the Digital Airborne Intercommunications and Switching Set (DAISS)?
10
In the MILSTAR system, all processing that does not require KG-33, KGV-11, KYV-5 or KG-84 cryptography is done by the _____.
TAC
Which antenna is connected in line with the link monitor step attenuator?
UHF 10 MILSTAR
With the INSTR SOURCE SEL switch set to ALT, symbol generator 1 receives inputs from:
IRU 3 and FMCU 2.
Which indicator on the ANDVT Call box when illuminated, indicates user may talk?
CTS
The APU ground fire switch, light and horn are located __________________.
in the starboard wheel well
There are ______ authorized ditching stations are on the E-6B aircraft.
23
The 42M setting on the portable oxygen bottle regulator is used when cabin altitude is ____ feet.
42,000 to 45,000
The UHF SATCOM and UHF C3 antennas are hazardous to personnel within a _____ foot radius when the transmitting power amplifier is disabled and within a _____ foot radious when the transmitting power amplifier is enabled.
1 / 17
What is the Mission Computer System's (MCS) main operator interface device?
Display/keyboard unit (DKU)
When performing the oxygen preflight, which of the following DOES NOT apply?
Insure all ICS connections are disconnected.
What station performs the following "Ditching" duties: Perform checklist: After Ditching: 1. Take first aid kit and one emergency water bottle from starboard overwing hatch; exit via hatch. 2. Inflate life vest. Board No. 2 liferaft.
No. 6
What station performs the following "Fire Bill" duties: Take oxygen mask from station requlator and obtain portable oxygen bottle and fire extinguisher from the port side aft comm central bulkhead. Beginning at the starboard R/T bays, inspect in a clockwise fashion the entire aft compartment. Report to ACO and return to assigned station when directed.
No. 21
On the Weather Radar, prior to operating with the Antenna Stab switch on, the radar must have warmed up for at leat 10 minutes.
False
An operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc. that is essential to emphasize is a __________.
Note
What station performs the following "Fire Bill" duties:Take oxygen mask from station regulator and obtain portable oxygen bottle from port side forward comm central bulkhead. Proceed to the forward lower compartment access hatch. Monitor personnel in the lower compartment. Notify ACO when personnel enter/exit the lower compartment. When personnel exit the lower compartment, report to ACO and return to
No. 18
What is the radar hazard area to personnel?
60-foot radius
Which HF radio(s) may be utilized for secure voice (ANDVT/KYV-5) transmissions?
HF-3,4, & 5
On the Weather Radar, prior to operating with the Antenna Stab switch on, the radar must have warmed up for at leat 10 minutes.
False
What will the indication be if the FREQ thumbwheels on the ARC-190 control are set to a frequency below 2 MHz?
CONT FAULT only
What are the valid preset conference numbers for DAISS?
1 to 20
28 vdc to the SSPA/C is supplied by the ________ circuit breaker located on the __________ panel.
VLF PWR AMP / P67-3
On the DAISS special dialing features, the access code that is used to insert a security device in call on hold would be __________.
#6XXX
Which MILSTAR processor provides BLACK message processing?
TAC
What station performs the following "DITCHING" duties: Perform checklist: After ditching: 1. Remove starboard overwing hatch. 2. Take escape strap, exit via hatch. 3. Inflate life vest. 4. Conditions permitting, attach escape strap to wing fitting. 5. Deploy and board No. 2 liferaft.
No. 21
What station performs the following "DITCHING" duties:Perform checklist. After ditching: 1. Proceed to starboard overwing hatch; exit via hatch. 2. Inflate life vest. Board No. 2 liferaft.
No. 7
Three remotely controlled VLF receivers accept MSK, FSK, and CW FSK signals in the ________ range from the preamp/filter.
14 to 59.99 kHz
The facsimile (FAX) machine is hardwired to which STU-III/R?
6
Each remote control unit (RCU) provides for the complete control of ______ STU-III/R secure telephone units.
2
Pressure should indicate between ______ & ______ psi on the oxygen regulator.
290 - 430
If an accidental entry into the MILSTAR antenna radiation hazard area occurs, it does not result in injury if exposure is limited to _______ minutes maximum.
6
The Baseband Processor (BBP) NVRAM stores the MILSTAR terminal image.
FALSE
The SSPA/C matches the impedance of the amplifier to the impedance of the ________.
RF radiating STWA
Valid preset conference numbers fall in the range ________.
1 to 20
The UHF-DF system uses a seperate UHF-DF antenna located on the bottom centerline of the aircraft.
True
During flight, with engine #4 shut down, the SSB open and the AGB closed, what generators are now powering the ME SYNC Bus? the AGB closed, what generators are now powering the ME SYNC Bus?
2, 4, 5, & 6
Each of the power transformers supply two ______ within the SSPA/C.
high voltage power supplies (HVPS)
The DAISS can be configured for a maximum of _____ fifteen member preset conferences and a maximum of _____ five member preset conferences.
5/15
What are the MUX channel SDNs of Transmultiplexer one (1) ?
201 - 215
The A1-E6AAB-NFM-000 manual contains information on all aircraft systems, performance data, and operating procedures.
True
What is the interface which links the TX and RX baseband signals between the UHF C3 modems and their designated DAISS multiplexers?
Baseband Control Assembly
What is the maximum cabin temperature for the startup and continuous ground operation of all avionics cooled by the Draw-Through-Cooling System?
90 deg. F
_____________ SDNs are a three digit numbers starting with 40 or 41, not ending in zero.
Hunt Group
The Network Bays are located on the _______ side of the SSPA/C.
starboard
When performing a BIT on the ESM system, the letter F appearing on the display screen indicates that the system is working Fine.
False
There are _______ PAMs contained in the SSPA/C.
32
The ______ stores the MILSTAR terminal image in its internal memory.
TSM
The antenna for the Rendezvous Radar Beacon is located on the bottom of the aircraft.
True
Which ALCS component is hardwired to the single output of the 70 MHz select switch?
Demodulator/Decoder
What two faults will cause illumination of the CPLR FAULT indicator on the ARC-190 control panel?
The SIMOP and the COUPLER.
The "Battle Short" switch restores primary power to the _____________ regardless of the draw-through cooling status.
VERDIN TX terminal
How many UHF C3 radio(s) may be connected to the ALCS at one time using the UHF C3 mode select panel?
1
What station performs the following "DITCHING" duties: Perform checklist. After ditching: 1. Take classified data boxes to starboard overwing hatch, pass boxes through hatch, exit via hatch. 2. Inflate life vest. 3. Ensure disposition of data boxes. 4. Board No. 2 liferaft.
No. 19
The pilot and copilot sliding windows are two of the primary exits in a ditching situation.
False
There are _______ speakers on the aircraft utilized for the public address system.
17
The primary exits for ground evacuation are the Forward and Aft main crew doors and the bailout door.
False
_____________ is used only to indicate futurity, never to indicate any degree of requirements for application of a procedure.
Will
What cryptographic device provides for the loading of the following MILSTAR TRANSEC keys: terminal unique, uplink and downlink, and the cover key?
KGV-11A
What is the power output (in watts) of the ARC-190 transceivers?
400
To dial a preset conference, _________ should be dialed on your SSU.
#31XX (XX = 01-20, preset conference number assigned on SDU)
What is the Mission Computer System's (MCS) main operator interface device?
Display/keyboard unit (DKU)
The Network Bays are located on the _______ side of the SSPA/C.
starboard
What is the frequency range of the VOSAT power amplifier?
225 - 400 MHz
What is the O'scope warm up period?
20 minutes.
The normal rated capacity of each liferaft is _______ persons with an overload capacity of ______ persons.
10/15
The crewmember discovering fire, smoke, or fumes in the aircraft shall ___________________.
notify the flight station.
There are _______ PAMs contained in the SSPA/C.
32
There are _________ emergency exits that may be used for ground evacuation.
seven
What does a satellite survival kit contain?
first-aid supplies, food packets, other survival items, 'various day/night signaling devices, 'an emergency transmitter, a radio
Immediately evacuate the aircraft ________________________.
upon command of the pilot.
If evacuating after aborted takeoff or heavyweight landing, depart directly forward or aft of aircraft to avoid possible tire/wheel burst area if fuse plugs do not melt.
True
Operation of the SSPA/C can be accomplished from ________ ACHs.
2
The Standards Distribution and Switching Unit (SDSU) provides 5 MHz and 1 PPM output to the ____________, and TOD output to the two ________.
VLF subsystem/TCGs.
All personnel in the aft compartment during flight shall wear ear protection.
False
The full face oxygen masks are rated for use to _________ feet altitude.In an emergency, they can be used up to _______ feet altitude.
40,000/50,000
Placing the IRS mode select switch from OFF to NAV, and entering the current position, will initiate a _______ alignment.
5 minute
The VLF Secure Transmit TSEC is selectable at the VERDIN Control Unit via the KEY GEN SELECT switch. Key generator 1 is _________. Key generator 2 is ________.
TSEC 6/TSEC 5
On the DAISS special dialing features, the access code that is used to insert a security device in call on hold would be __________.
#6XXX
Voice capabilities of the UHF C3 radio subsystem may be accessed through the DAISS or ICS?
FALSE
The Mode Select Switch on the VLF receiver control head, when switched to ______ routes the receiver output to the DC jackfield.
FSK
What is the power requirement for the KG-84C?
115V, 400Hz
The C3 radio subsystem provides both amplitude modulation and frequency modulation in the ___________ range.
225.000 MHz to 399.975 MHz
Operation of the SSPA/C can be accomplished from ________ ACHs.
2
The maximum operating cabin pressure altitude for the VLF PA is:
10,000
The UHF C3 system has ________ receive antennas and ________ high power transmit antennas.
3-Feb
The MUX channel SDNs (1-15) for the Transmultiplexer two (MUX 2) are ________________.
216 - 230
How many speed dial number selections may be entered into DAISS?
100
The UHF C3 system has ________ receive antennas and ________ high power transmit antennas.
3-Feb
During postflight, the HF radio mode select switches shall be set to AM.
True
How many speed dial number selections may be entered into DAISS?
100
How many speed dial number selections may be entered into DAISS?
100
The 30M setting on the portable oxygen bottle regulator is used when cabin altitude is __________ feet.
30,000 to 42,000 ft
The inflation of a liferaft takes less than ______ seconds in all enviroments.
10
The full face oxygen masks are rated for use to _________ feet altitude.In an emergency, they can be used up to _______ feet altitude.
40,000/50,000
There are _______ portable emergency exit lights are on the E-6B.
8
The maximum operating cabin pressure altitude for the VLF PA is:
10,000
Ear protection required within ________ foot radius of any engine at idle including the APU and _______ foot radius of any engine at takeoff rated thrust.
60 / 150
When using the Pilots or Co-Pilots escape strap, you should check ____________________.
that the green band on the strap is at the window sill
Escape slides are provided for the forward and aft main doors and the bailout door.
True
Allow each TCG to warm up ________ before applying power to the SDSU.
5 minutes
The two ______, located at ACOM positon 21 and ACO, provide operator interface to the DAISS for administrative and maintenance functions.
SDUs
The facsimile (FAX) machine is hardwired to which STU-III/R?
6
_____________ SDNs are a three digit numbers starting with 40 or 41, not ending in zero.
Hunt Group
When first powering up the HF radios, you get a Control Fault, the most probable cause is:
The frequency selection is below 2.0000 Mhz.'Control head has mode "A" selected.
The heading information displayed by the RMI's is magnetic heading only.
True
What cryptographic device provides for the loading of the following MILSTAR TRANSEC keys: terminal unique, uplink and downlink, and the cover key?
KGV-11A
Escape slides can be detached from door and used as liferafts if liferafts fail to inflate.
True
An operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc. that may result in damage to equipment is not carefully observed or followed is a ______________.
Caution
What are the HF radio hazard areas for personnel?
headsets connected to external jacks'contact with external aircraft skin surface'10 feet from any point on pod or antenna wire
Sound attenuators (mickey mouse ears) can reduce noise by an additional ____ to ____ dB, if used with ear plugs.
10 / 15
The bailout door escape slide weighs _______ pounds.
43
The E-6B aircraft has ______ fire extinguishers.
8
The four positions on the portable oxygen bottle altitude selector knob are NORM, _____, _____, & _____.
30M, 42M, EMER
The MUX channel SDNs (1-15) for the Transmultiplexer two (MUX 2) are ________________.
216 - 230
What COMSEC device is used for EHF transmission/reception and operates in conjunction with the BBP?
KG-84/A
What are the valid preset conference numbers for DAISS?
1 to 20
Each of the power transformers supply two ______ within the SSPA/C.
high voltage power supplies (HVPS)
The power output from the HF-1 radio can only be measured from the HF Power Monitor Panel at Comm Central Seat 4.
False
The operating range of the ARN-118 TACAN is ______ miles depending on the line of sight range.
390
Valid preset conference numbers fall in the range ________.
1 to 20
Which MILSTAR processor provides for RED message processing?
BBP
Mode 3/A of the IFF (AIMS) system is used for:
position identification for air traffic control.
Each remote control unit (RCU) provides for the complete control of ______ STU-III/R secure telephone units.
2
The link monitor filter select panel provides ________ or _______ output from the UHF C3 subsystem.
filtered,nonfiltered
The MUX channel SDNs (1-15) for the Transmultiplexer two (MUX 2) are ________________.
216 - 230
What is the O'scope warm up period?
20 minutes.
Each UHF C3 radio is capable of storing _______ transmit and _______ receive presets stored in non-volatile memory.
20/20
The RED side of the BBP contains the equipment that handles unencrypted infromation and unclassified control signals.
False
What is the BOLDFACE for FIRE, SMOKE, OR FUMES IN AIRCRAFT INTERIOR?
Firebill - Activated (P) Oxygen - As Required (ALL)
What station performs the following Fire Bill duties: Perform checklist; organize refill and replacement of portable oxygen bottles if necessary. Direct fire fighting effort when source is located. Keep pilot informed.
No. 19
_____________ is used only when application of a procedure is optional.
May