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47 Cards in this Set

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  • Back
Which of the following positions will most effectively move the gallbladder away from the vertebrae in the asthenic patient?
A. LAO
B. RAO
C. LPO
D. Erect
A.
LAO
The esophagus commences at about the level of
A.
C3.
B.
C6.
C.
T1.
D.
T11.
B.
C6.
Which of the following is (are) accurate positioning or evaluation criteria for an anteroposterior projection of the normal knee?
1. Femorotibial interspaces equal bilaterally
2. Patella superimposed on distal tibia
3. CR enters 1/2 in distal to base of patella
1 only
Which of the following articulations participate in the formation of the elbow joint?

1. Between the humeral trochlea and the semilunar/trochlear notch

2. Between the capitulum and the radial head

3. The proximal radioulnar joint
1, 2, and 3
Which of the following techniques would provide a PA projection of the gastroduodenal surfaces of the barium-filled, high and transverse stomach?
A.
Place the patient in a 35° to 40° RAO position.
B.
Place the patient in a lateral position.
C.
Angle the central ray 35° to 45° cephalad.
D.
Angle the central ray 35° to 45° caudad.
C.
Angle the central ray 35° to 45° cephalad.
The advantages of digital subtraction angiography over film angiography include
1. greater sensitivity to contrast medium.
2. immediately available images.
3. increased resolution.
1 and 2 only
At what level do the carotid arteries bifurcate?
A.
Foramen magnum
B.
Trachea
C.
Pharynx
D.
C4
C4
Skeletal conditions characterized by faulty bone calcification include
1. osteoarthritis.
2. osteomalacia.
3. rickets.
2 and 3 only
Which of the following are demonstrated in the oblique position of the cervical spine?
1. Intervertebral foramina
2. Apophyseal joints
3. Intervertebral joints
1 only
A flat and upright abdomen is requested on an acutely ill patient, to demonstrate the presence of air-fluid levels. Because of the patient's condition, the x-ray table can be tilted upright only 70° (rather than the desired 90°). How should the central ray be directed?
A.
Perpendicular to the IR
B.
Parallel to the floor
C.
20° caudad
D.
20° cephalad
Parallel to the floor
The four major arteries supplying the brain include the
1. brachiocephalic artery.
2. common carotid arteries.
3. vertebral arteries.
2 and 3 only
Which of the following articulations participate(s) in formation of the ankle mortise?
1. Talotibial
2. Talocalcaneal
3. Talofibular
1 and 3 only
All the following can be associated with the elbow joint except
A.
the capitulum.
B.
the trochlea.
C.
the tubercles.
D.
the epicondyles.
the tubercles.The distal humerus articulates with the radius and ulna to form the elbow joint. The lateral aspect of the distal humerus presents a raised, smooth, rounded surface, the capitulum, that articulates with the superior surface of the radial head. The trochlea is on the medial aspect of the distal humerus and articulates with the semilunar/trochlear notch of the ulna. Just proximal to the capitulum and trochlea are the lateral and medial epicondyles; the medial is more prominent and palpable.
Which of the following positions is required to demonstrate small amounts of fluid in the pleural cavity?
A.
Lateral decubitus, affected side up
B.
Lateral decubitus, affected side down
C.
AP Trendelenburg
D.
AP supine
Lateral decubitus, affected side down
Which of the following articulates with the base of the first metatarsal?
A.
First cuneiform
B.
Third cuneiform
C.
Navicular
D.
Cuboid
First cuneiform
Which of the following is (are) located on the posterior aspect of the femur?
1. Intercondyloid fossa
2. Intertrochanteric crest
3. Intertubercular groove
1 and 2 only
The carpal scaphoid may be demonstrated in the following projection(s) of the wrist:
1. PA oblique
2. PA with ulnar flexion/deviation
3. PA with forearm elevated 20°
1, 2, and 3
All of the following statements regarding TLDs are true except
A.
TLDs are reusable.
B.
TLDs store energy.
C.
The TLD's response is proportional to the quantity of radiation received.
D.
Following x-ray exposure, TLDs are exposed to light and emit a quantity of heat in response.
D. TLD is a sensitive and accurate device used in radiation dosimetry. It may be used as a personal dosimeter or to measure patient dose during radiographic examinations and therapeutic procedures. The TLD utilizes a thermoluminescent phosphor, usually lithium fluoride. When used as a personal monitor, the TLD is worn for 1 month. During this time, it stores information regarding the radiation to which it has been exposed. It is then returned to the commercial supplier. In the laboratory, the phosphors are heated. They respond by emitting a particular quantity of light (not heat) that is in proportion to the quantity of radiation delivered to it. After they are cleared of stored information, they are returned for reuse
Which of the following has (have) an effect on the amount and type of radiation-induced tissue damage?
1. Quality of radiation
2. Type of tissue being irradiated
3. Fractionation
1, 2, and 3
Radiation dose to personnel is reduced by which of the following exposure control cord guidelines?
1. Exposure cords on fixed equipment must be very short.
2. Exposure cords on mobile equipment should be fairly long.
3. Exposure cords on fixed and mobile equipment should be of the coiled expandable type.
1 and 2 only
Which of the following is most likely to result in the greatest increase in patient exposure?
A.
Changing from a 400 speed system to a 200 speed system
B.
Increasing kVp 15% and cutting mAs in half
C.
Using two tomographic cuts instead of two plain images
D.
From nongrid technique to 8:1 grid
D.
From nongrid technique to 8:1 grid
If a patient received 4500 mrad during a 6-min fluoroscopic examination, what was the dose rate?
A.
0.75 rad/min
B.
2.7 rad/min
C.
7.5 rad/min
D.
27 rad/hr
A: Since 4500 mrad is equal to 4.5 rad, if 4.5 rad were delivered in 6 minutes, then the dose rate must be 0.75 rad/min:
According to the NCRP, the total gestational dose equivalent limit for the pregnant radiographer is
A.
1 mSv
B.
5 mSv
C.
15 mSv
D.
50 mSv
B. 5 mSv
In radiation protection, the product of absorbed dose and the correct modifying factor (rad x QF) is used to determine
A.
roentgen (C/kg).
B.
rem (Sv).
C.
rad (Gy).
D.
radiation quality.
B.
rem (Sv).
Under what circumstances might a radiographer be required to wear two dosimeters?
1. During pregnancy
2. While performing vascular procedures
3. While performing mobile radiography
1 and 2 only
What is the approximate ESE for the average AP cervical spine radiograph?
A.
40 rad
B.
40 mrad
C.
80 rad
D.
80 mrad
80 mrad
Which of the following is (are) considered long-term somatic effect(s) of exposure to ionizing radiation?
1. Life-span shortening
2. Carcinogenesis
3. Cataractogenesis
D.
1, 2, and 3
Occupational exposure received by the radiographer is mostly from
A.
Compton scatter.
B.
the photoelectric effect.
C.
coherent scatter.
D.
pair production.
A. Compton scatter. The photoelectric effect and Compton scattering are the two predominant interactions between x-ray photons and matter in diagnostic radiology. In the photoelectric effect, the low-energy incident photon is absorbed by the tissues being radiographed. In Compton scatter, the high-energy incident photon uses only part of its energy to eject an outer-shell electron. It retains much of its original energy in the form of a scattered x-ray. Radiologic personnel can be exposed to that high-energy scattered radiation, especially in fluoroscopy and mobile radiography. Lead aprons are used to protect us from exposure to scattered radiation during these procedures.
LET is best defined as
1. a method of expressing radiation quality.
2. a measure of the rate at which radiation energy is transferred to soft tissue.
3. absorption of polyenergetic radiation.
1 and 2 only
Which of the following affect(s) both the quantity and quality of the primary beam?
1. Half-value layer (HVL)
2. kVp
3. mA
1 and 2 only
Which of the following is the approximate skin dose for 5 minutes of fluoroscopy performed at 1.5 mA?
A.
3.7 rad
B.
7.5 rad
C.
15 rad
D.
21 rad
15 rad Fluoroscopic skin dose is greater than radiographic skin dose because the x-ray source is much closer to the patient. The generally accepted rule is that the skin receives 2 rad/min/mA. Therefore, 2 rad/min for 5 min equals 10 rad/mA. At 1.5 mA, the patient dose is 15 rad (2 rad/5 min/1.5 mA).
How do fractionation and protraction affect radiation dose-effects?
1. They reduce the effect of radiation exposure.
2. They permit cellular repair.
3. They allow tissue recovery.
1, 2, and 3
The relationship between the intensity of light striking a film and the intensity of light transmitted through the film is an expression of which of the following?
A.
Radiographic contrast
B.
Radiographic density
C.
Recorded detail
D.
Radiographic filtration
B.
Radiographic density
To produce a just perceptible increase in radiographic density, the radiographer must increase the
A.
mAs by 30%.
B.
mAs by 15%.
C.
kVp by 15%.
D.
kVp by 30%.
A.
mAs by 30%.
Decreasing field size from 14 x 17 into 8 x 10 inches will
A. decrease radiographic density and decrease the amount of scattered radiation generated within the part.
B. decrease radiographic density and increase the amount of scattered radiation generated within the part.
C. increase radiographic density and increase the amount of scattered radiation generated within the part.
D. increase radiographic density and decrease the amount of scattered radiation generated within the part.
A.
decrease radiographic density and decrease the amount of scattered radiation generated within the part.
Using a short (25–30 inches) SID with a large size (14 x 17 inches) image receptor is likely to
A.
increase the scale of contrast.
B.
increase the anode heel effect.
C.
cause malfunction of the AEC.
D.
cause premature termination of the exposure.
B.
increase the anode heel effect.
All of the following statements regarding CR cassettes are true, except
A.
CR cassettes do not contain radiographic film.
B.
CR cassettes use no intensifying screens.
C.
CR cassettes must exclude all white light.
D.
CR cassettes function to protect the IP (image plate).
C.
CR cassettes must exclude all white light.
With all other factors constant, as digital image matrix size increases,
1. pixel size decreases.
2. resolution increases.
3. pixel size increases.
C.
1 and 2 only
Recorded detail depends on all the following except

1. quantity of filtration.

2. anode angle.

3. intensification factor of screens.
1 only
Which of the following is (are) classified as rare earth phosphors?
1. Lanthanum oxybromide
2. Gadolinium oxysulfide
3. Cesium iodide
1 and 2 only
With a given exposure, as intensifying-screen speed decreases, how is radiographic density affected?
A.
Decreases
B.
Increases
C.
Remains unchanged
D.
Is variable
A.
Decreases
Which of the following quantities of filtration is most likely to be used in mammography?
A.
0.5 mm Mo
B.
1.5 mm Al
C.
1.5 mm Cu
D.
2.0 mm Cu
A. 0.5 mm Mo EXPLANATION: Soft tissue radiography requires the use of long-wavelength, low-energy x-ray photons. Very little filtration is used in mammography. Certainly, anything more than 1.0 mm of aluminum would remove the useful soft photons, and the desired high contrast could not be achieved. Dedicated mammographic units usually have molybdenum targets (for the production of soft radiation) and a small amount of molybdenum filtration. (Carlton & Adler, p 581)
Which of the following will have an effect on radiographic contrast?
1. Beam restriction
2. Grids
3. Focal spot size
1 and 2 only
Which of the following is performed to check the correctness of the developing parameters?
A.
Densitometry
B.
A thorough cleaning of rollers
C.
A warm-up procedure
D.
Sensitometry
Sensitometry
An increase in kVp with appropriate compensation of mAs will result in
1. increased exposure latitude.
2. higher contrast.
3. increased density.
1 only
An exposure was made using 300 mA, 0.04-second exposure, and 85 kVp. Each of the following changes will decrease the radiographic density by one-half except a change to
A.
1/50-second exposure.
B.
72 kVp.
C.
10 mAs.
D.
150 mA.
10 mAs. Radiographic density is directly proportional to mAs. If exposure time is halved from 0.04 (1/25) to 0.02 (1/50) second, radiographic density will be cut in half. Changing to 150 mA will also halve the mAs, effectively halving the radiographic density. If the kVp is decreased by 15%, from 85 to 72 kVp, radiographic density will be halved according to the 15% rule. To cut the density in half, the mAs must be reduced to 6 (rather than 10).
If 85 kVp, 400 mA, and 1/8 second was used for a particular exposure using single-phase equipment, which of the following milliamperage or time values would be required, all other factors being constant, to produce a similar density using 3-phase, 12-pulse equipment?
A.
200 mA
B.
600 mA
C.
0.125 second
D.
0.25 second
200 mA With three-phase equipment, the voltage never drops to zero and x-ray intensity is significantly greater. When changing from single-phase to three-phase, six-pulse equipment, two thirds of the original mAs are required to produce a radiograph with similar density. (When going from three-phase, six-pulse to single-phase, add one-third more mAs.) When changing from single-phase to 3-phase, 12-pulse equipment, only one-half of the original mAs is required. (Going from three-phase, 12-pulse to single-phase requires twice the mAs.) In this instance, we are changing from single-phase to three-phase, 12-pulse equipment; therefore the new mAs should be half the original 50 mAs, or 25 mAs. The only selection that will provide 25 mAs is A, 200 mA. B will produce 75 mAs (600 mA x 1/8 s = 75 mAs); C will produce 50 mAs (400 mA x 0.125 s = 50 mAs); D will produce 100 mAs (400 x 0.25 = 100 mAs).