Week 2 Comprehensive Radiology Review

Front 1

Which of the following positions will most effectively move the gallbladder away from the vertebrae in the asthenic patient?
A. LAO
B. RAO
C. LPO
D. Erect

Back 1

A.
LAO

Front 2

The esophagus commences at about the level of
A.
C3.
B.
C6.
C.
T1.
D.
T11.

Back 2

B.
C6.

Front 3

Which of the following is (are) accurate positioning or evaluation criteria for an anteroposterior projection of the normal knee?
1. Femorotibial interspaces equal bilaterally
2. Patella superimposed on distal tibia
3. CR enters 1/2 in distal to base of patella

Back 3

1 only

Front 4

Which of the following articulations participate in the formation of the elbow joint?

1. Between the humeral trochlea and the semilunar/trochlear notch

2. Between the capitulum and the radial head

3. The proximal radioulnar joint

Back 4

1, 2, and 3

Front 5

Which of the following techniques would provide a PA projection of the gastroduodenal surfaces of the barium-filled, high and transverse stomach?
A.
Place the patient in a 35° to 40° RAO position.
B.
Place the patient in a lateral position.
C.
Angle the central ray 35° to 45° cephalad.
D.
Angle the central ray 35° to 45° caudad.

Back 5

C.
Angle the central ray 35° to 45° cephalad.

Front 6

The advantages of digital subtraction angiography over film angiography include
1. greater sensitivity to contrast medium.
2. immediately available images.
3. increased resolution.

Back 6

1 and 2 only

Front 7

At what level do the carotid arteries bifurcate?
A.
Foramen magnum
B.
Trachea
C.
Pharynx
D.
C4

Back 7

C4

Front 8

Skeletal conditions characterized by faulty bone calcification include
1. osteoarthritis.
2. osteomalacia.
3. rickets.

Back 8

2 and 3 only

Front 9

Which of the following are demonstrated in the oblique position of the cervical spine?
1. Intervertebral foramina
2. Apophyseal joints
3. Intervertebral joints

Back 9

1 only

Front 10

A flat and upright abdomen is requested on an acutely ill patient, to demonstrate the presence of air-fluid levels. Because of the patient's condition, the x-ray table can be tilted upright only 70° (rather than the desired 90°). How should the central ray be directed?
A.
Perpendicular to the IR
B.
Parallel to the floor
C.
20° caudad
D.
20° cephalad

Back 10

Parallel to the floor

Front 11

The four major arteries supplying the brain include the
1. brachiocephalic artery.
2. common carotid arteries.
3. vertebral arteries.

Back 11

2 and 3 only

Front 12

Which of the following articulations participate(s) in formation of the ankle mortise?
1. Talotibial
2. Talocalcaneal
3. Talofibular

Back 12

1 and 3 only

Front 13

All the following can be associated with the elbow joint except
A.
the capitulum.
B.
the trochlea.
C.
the tubercles.
D.
the epicondyles.

Back 13

the tubercles.The distal humerus articulates with the radius and ulna to form the elbow joint. The lateral aspect of the distal humerus presents a raised, smooth, rounded surface, the capitulum, that articulates with the superior surface of the radial head. The trochlea is on the medial aspect of the distal humerus and articulates with the semilunar/trochlear notch of the ulna. Just proximal to the capitulum and trochlea are the lateral and medial epicondyles; the medial is more prominent and palpable.

Front 14

Which of the following positions is required to demonstrate small amounts of fluid in the pleural cavity?
A.
Lateral decubitus, affected side up
B.
Lateral decubitus, affected side down
C.
AP Trendelenburg
D.
AP supine

Back 14

Lateral decubitus, affected side down

Front 15

Which of the following articulates with the base of the first metatarsal?
A.
First cuneiform
B.
Third cuneiform
C.
Navicular
D.
Cuboid

Back 15

First cuneiform

Front 16

Which of the following is (are) located on the posterior aspect of the femur?
1. Intercondyloid fossa
2. Intertrochanteric crest
3. Intertubercular groove

Back 16

1 and 2 only

Front 17

The carpal scaphoid may be demonstrated in the following projection(s) of the wrist:
1. PA oblique
2. PA with ulnar flexion/deviation
3. PA with forearm elevated 20°

Back 17

1, 2, and 3

Front 18

All of the following statements regarding TLDs are true except
A.
TLDs are reusable.
B.
TLDs store energy.
C.
The TLD's response is proportional to the quantity of radiation received.
D.
Following x-ray exposure, TLDs are exposed to light and emit a quantity of heat in response.

Back 18

D. TLD is a sensitive and accurate device used in radiation dosimetry. It may be used as a personal dosimeter or to measure patient dose during radiographic examinations and therapeutic procedures. The TLD utilizes a thermoluminescent phosphor, usually lithium fluoride. When used as a personal monitor, the TLD is worn for 1 month. During this time, it stores information regarding the radiation to which it has been exposed. It is then returned to the commercial supplier. In the laboratory, the phosphors are heated. They respond by emitting a particular quantity of light (not heat) that is in proportion to the quantity of radiation delivered to it. After they are cleared of stored information, they are returned for reuse

Front 19

Which of the following has (have) an effect on the amount and type of radiation-induced tissue damage?
1. Quality of radiation
2. Type of tissue being irradiated
3. Fractionation

Back 19

1, 2, and 3

Front 20

Radiation dose to personnel is reduced by which of the following exposure control cord guidelines?
1. Exposure cords on fixed equipment must be very short.
2. Exposure cords on mobile equipment should be fairly long.
3. Exposure cords on fixed and mobile equipment should be of the coiled expandable type.

Back 20

1 and 2 only

Front 21

Which of the following is most likely to result in the greatest increase in patient exposure?
A.
Changing from a 400 speed system to a 200 speed system
B.
Increasing kVp 15% and cutting mAs in half
C.
Using two tomographic cuts instead of two plain images
D.
From nongrid technique to 8:1 grid

Back 21

D.
From nongrid technique to 8:1 grid

Front 22

If a patient received 4500 mrad during a 6-min fluoroscopic examination, what was the dose rate?
A.
0.75 rad/min
B.
2.7 rad/min
C.
7.5 rad/min
D.
27 rad/hr

Back 22

A: Since 4500 mrad is equal to 4.5 rad, if 4.5 rad were delivered in 6 minutes, then the dose rate must be 0.75 rad/min:

Front 23

According to the NCRP, the total gestational dose equivalent limit for the pregnant radiographer is
A.
1 mSv
B.
5 mSv
C.
15 mSv
D.
50 mSv

Back 23

B. 5 mSv

Front 24

In radiation protection, the product of absorbed dose and the correct modifying factor (rad x QF) is used to determine
A.
roentgen (C/kg).
B.
rem (Sv).
C.
rad (Gy).
D.
radiation quality.

Back 24

B.
rem (Sv).

Front 25

Under what circumstances might a radiographer be required to wear two dosimeters?
1. During pregnancy
2. While performing vascular procedures
3. While performing mobile radiography

Back 25

1 and 2 only

Front 26

What is the approximate ESE for the average AP cervical spine radiograph?
A.
40 rad
B.
40 mrad
C.
80 rad
D.
80 mrad

Back 26

80 mrad

Front 27

Which of the following is (are) considered long-term somatic effect(s) of exposure to ionizing radiation?
1. Life-span shortening
2. Carcinogenesis
3. Cataractogenesis

Back 27

D.
1, 2, and 3

Front 28

Occupational exposure received by the radiographer is mostly from
A.
Compton scatter.
B.
the photoelectric effect.
C.
coherent scatter.
D.
pair production.

Back 28

A. Compton scatter. The photoelectric effect and Compton scattering are the two predominant interactions between x-ray photons and matter in diagnostic radiology. In the photoelectric effect, the low-energy incident photon is absorbed by the tissues being radiographed. In Compton scatter, the high-energy incident photon uses only part of its energy to eject an outer-shell electron. It retains much of its original energy in the form of a scattered x-ray. Radiologic personnel can be exposed to that high-energy scattered radiation, especially in fluoroscopy and mobile radiography. Lead aprons are used to protect us from exposure to scattered radiation during these procedures.

Front 29

LET is best defined as
1. a method of expressing radiation quality.
2. a measure of the rate at which radiation energy is transferred to soft tissue.
3. absorption of polyenergetic radiation.

Back 29

1 and 2 only

Front 30

Which of the following affect(s) both the quantity and quality of the primary beam?
1. Half-value layer (HVL)
2. kVp
3. mA

Back 30

1 and 2 only

Front 31

Which of the following is the approximate skin dose for 5 minutes of fluoroscopy performed at 1.5 mA?
A.
3.7 rad
B.
7.5 rad
C.
15 rad
D.
21 rad

Back 31

15 rad Fluoroscopic skin dose is greater than radiographic skin dose because the x-ray source is much closer to the patient. The generally accepted rule is that the skin receives 2 rad/min/mA. Therefore, 2 rad/min for 5 min equals 10 rad/mA. At 1.5 mA, the patient dose is 15 rad (2 rad/5 min/1.5 mA).

Front 32

How do fractionation and protraction affect radiation dose-effects?
1. They reduce the effect of radiation exposure.
2. They permit cellular repair.
3. They allow tissue recovery.

Back 32

1, 2, and 3

Front 33

The relationship between the intensity of light striking a film and the intensity of light transmitted through the film is an expression of which of the following?
A.
Radiographic contrast
B.
Radiographic density
C.
Recorded detail
D.
Radiographic filtration

Back 33

B.
Radiographic density

Front 34

To produce a just perceptible increase in radiographic density, the radiographer must increase the
A.
mAs by 30%.
B.
mAs by 15%.
C.
kVp by 15%.
D.
kVp by 30%.

Back 34

A.
mAs by 30%.

Front 35

Decreasing field size from 14 x 17 into 8 x 10 inches will
A. decrease radiographic density and decrease the amount of scattered radiation generated within the part.
B. decrease radiographic density and increase the amount of scattered radiation generated within the part.
C. increase radiographic density and increase the amount of scattered radiation generated within the part.
D. increase radiographic density and decrease the amount of scattered radiation generated within the part.

Back 35

A.
decrease radiographic density and decrease the amount of scattered radiation generated within the part.

Front 36

Using a short (25–30 inches) SID with a large size (14 x 17 inches) image receptor is likely to
A.
increase the scale of contrast.
B.
increase the anode heel effect.
C.
cause malfunction of the AEC.
D.
cause premature termination of the exposure.

Back 36

B.
increase the anode heel effect.

Front 37

All of the following statements regarding CR cassettes are true, except
A.
CR cassettes do not contain radiographic film.
B.
CR cassettes use no intensifying screens.
C.
CR cassettes must exclude all white light.
D.
CR cassettes function to protect the IP (image plate).

Back 37

C.
CR cassettes must exclude all white light.

Front 38

With all other factors constant, as digital image matrix size increases,
1. pixel size decreases.
2. resolution increases.
3. pixel size increases.

Back 38

C.
1 and 2 only

Front 39

Recorded detail depends on all the following except

1. quantity of filtration.

2. anode angle.

3. intensification factor of screens.

Back 39

1 only

Front 40

Which of the following is (are) classified as rare earth phosphors?
1. Lanthanum oxybromide
2. Gadolinium oxysulfide
3. Cesium iodide

Back 40

1 and 2 only

Front 41

With a given exposure, as intensifying-screen speed decreases, how is radiographic density affected?
A.
Decreases
B.
Increases
C.
Remains unchanged
D.
Is variable

Back 41

A.
Decreases

Front 42

Which of the following quantities of filtration is most likely to be used in mammography?
A.
0.5 mm Mo
B.
1.5 mm Al
C.
1.5 mm Cu
D.
2.0 mm Cu

Back 42

A. 0.5 mm Mo EXPLANATION: Soft tissue radiography requires the use of long-wavelength, low-energy x-ray photons. Very little filtration is used in mammography. Certainly, anything more than 1.0 mm of aluminum would remove the useful soft photons, and the desired high contrast could not be achieved. Dedicated mammographic units usually have molybdenum targets (for the production of soft radiation) and a small amount of molybdenum filtration. (Carlton & Adler, p 581)

Front 43

Which of the following will have an effect on radiographic contrast?
1. Beam restriction
2. Grids
3. Focal spot size

Back 43

1 and 2 only

Front 44

Which of the following is performed to check the correctness of the developing parameters?
A.
Densitometry
B.
A thorough cleaning of rollers
C.
A warm-up procedure
D.
Sensitometry

Back 44

Sensitometry

Front 45

An increase in kVp with appropriate compensation of mAs will result in
1. increased exposure latitude.
2. higher contrast.
3. increased density.

Back 45

1 only

Front 46

An exposure was made using 300 mA, 0.04-second exposure, and 85 kVp. Each of the following changes will decrease the radiographic density by one-half except a change to
A.
1/50-second exposure.
B.
72 kVp.
C.
10 mAs.
D.
150 mA.

Back 46

10 mAs. Radiographic density is directly proportional to mAs. If exposure time is halved from 0.04 (1/25) to 0.02 (1/50) second, radiographic density will be cut in half. Changing to 150 mA will also halve the mAs, effectively halving the radiographic density. If the kVp is decreased by 15%, from 85 to 72 kVp, radiographic density will be halved according to the 15% rule. To cut the density in half, the mAs must be reduced to 6 (rather than 10).

Front 47

If 85 kVp, 400 mA, and 1/8 second was used for a particular exposure using single-phase equipment, which of the following milliamperage or time values would be required, all other factors being constant, to produce a similar density using 3-phase, 12-pulse equipment?
A.
200 mA
B.
600 mA
C.
0.125 second
D.
0.25 second

Back 47

200 mA With three-phase equipment, the voltage never drops to zero and x-ray intensity is significantly greater. When changing from single-phase to three-phase, six-pulse equipment, two thirds of the original mAs are required to produce a radiograph with similar density. (When going from three-phase, six-pulse to single-phase, add one-third more mAs.) When changing from single-phase to 3-phase, 12-pulse equipment, only one-half of the original mAs is required. (Going from three-phase, 12-pulse to single-phase requires twice the mAs.) In this instance, we are changing from single-phase to three-phase, 12-pulse equipment; therefore the new mAs should be half the original 50 mAs, or 25 mAs. The only selection that will provide 25 mAs is A, 200 mA. B will produce 75 mAs (600 mA x 1/8 s = 75 mAs); C will produce 50 mAs (400 mA x 0.125 s = 50 mAs); D will produce 100 mAs (400 x 0.25 = 100 mAs).