Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
411 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
How often does the carbon dioxide absorbent canister need to be changed? |
Every 6-8 hours of use |
|
|
Passive scavenging systems use ___________________________ to nullify the harmful gases |
Canister of activated charcoal |
|
|
Active scavenging systems use ________________________ to draw out waste gases |
Vacuum |
|
|
Rebreathers (circle systems) |
Expired gases are mixed in with the fresh incoming gas and oxygen to be inhaled by the patient. They also retain heat for patient warmth |
|
|
Non-rebreathers (Bain systems) |
Rely on high gas flow to flush carbon dioxide into the scavenger system. Higher gas flow promotes hypothermia and the high consumption of gas is expensive to use |
|
|
Which stage of anesthesia is the "excitement phase" |
Stage 2 |
|
|
Propofol |
- Rapid acting - Quickly eliminated from the body by hepatic and extrahepatic metabolism - Potent respiratory depressant that can cause apnea after induction - Can cause hypotension due to vasodilation - Does cross placental barrier but with minimal depressant effects on the fetus - IV administration only |
|
|
Etomidate |
- Rapid acting - Produces a hypnotic-like state that doesn't completely sedate, therefore induction can be rough - Eliminated by hepatic metabolism - Administration can be painful due to propelyne glycol carrier - Cardiovascular system is unaffected by this drug - Does cross placental barrier, but with minimal depressant effects on fetus. - IV administration only |
|
|
Benzodiazapines |
- Diazepam, midazolam, and zolazepam - Reduce anxiety and provide skeletal muscle relaxation - Given with another induction agent because they do not provide sedation and may cause excitement - Eliminated by hepatic metabolism |
|
|
Diazepam |
Contains propylene glycol which can be irritating to the tissues and causes the drug to have an unreliable absorption rate when given intramuscularly. Not water soluble and can only be mixed in a syringe with ketamine |
|
|
Zolazepam |
Benzodiazepine in mixture of Telazol |
|
|
Cyclohexamines |
- Ketamine and Tiletamine - Stimulate the CNS rather than depress it like most other induction drugs - Produces muscle rigidity and sensitivity to light, sound, and touch. - Increases heart rate, blood pressure and intraocular pressure - Recovery can be rough as patients tend to be dysphoric |
|
|
Ketamine |
- Metabolized by the liver in the dog and kidney in the cat |
|
|
Tiletamine |
Cyclohexamine part of the mixure Telazol |
|
|
Barbiturates |
- Thiopental and methohexital - Rapid onset of action - Causes respiratory and cardiovascular depression - Metabolized hepatically and extrahepatically - Redistributes to highly lipid areas of the body - Contraindicated for cesareans, cardiac dz, hepatic dz, respiratory dz, hypoproteinemia, acidosis, or hypothermia |
|
|
Thiopental |
Cumulative effect with repeated doses |
|
|
Methohexital |
Does not have cumulative effect and does not redistribute to highly lipid tissues as heavily as thiopental does |
|
|
ECG (Electrocardiogram) |
- Avisual representation of heart conduction and provides a heart rate. - Allowsyou to assess heart rhythm, electrical conduction though the heart, andidentify arrhythmia’s - Disadvantage:Does not indicate cardiac function and can look normal even though peripheralblood pressure is compromised |
|
|
SpO2 - Pulse Oximetry |
- Measures the oxygen saturation in blood and gives a pulse rate. - Provides a visual pulse waveform. - Disadvantage: Has to be moved frequently due to capillary’s being crushed by the monitoring device. Unreliable at low saturation levels and difficult to get a reading if tissue has dark pigmentation. |
|
|
Capnography |
- Measures the endtidal and inspiratory carbon dioxide and anesthetic gas concentration.
- Endtidal CO2 readings are 5-10 mm Hg lower than actual alveolar concentrations. - Allows you to access systematic metabolism, cardiac output, pulmonary perfusion, and the adequacy of patient ventilation |
|
|
CVP (Central Venous Pressure) |
- Indicatesfluid status and assesses cardiac output. - Normalrange: 0-4 cm H2O – standing, awake 2-7 cm H2O anesthetized. - Higher readings thannormal indicate hypervolemia or myocardial depression/heart failure and lower readingsindicate hypovolemia |
|
|
Blood Gas Values |
- Givesand accurate representation of the respiratory function and acid-base balance - Mustbe taken from an artery to evaluate respiratory function. Normal values for anarterial blood gas: PH – 7.35 – 7.45 PaCO2 – 35-45 mm Hg, PsO2 90-115 mm Hg onroom air, if the patient is on 100% oxygen the PsO2 = 500 mm Hg, SaO2 ->95%, HCO3 - 18-26 mEq/L, BE- -2 to+2 |
|
|
Pale mucus membranes |
Vasoconstriction, decreased cardiac output, hypoxia, and anemia |
|
|
Dark pink mucus membranes |
Vasodilation, sludging of the blood in the capillaries, and high CO2 levels |
|
|
Cyanotic mucus membranes |
Severe hypoxemia |
|
|
Yellow mucus membranes |
High serum bilirubin from hemolysis or hepatic disease |
|
|
Tachypnea |
- Rabid breathing - Caused by light anesthetic plane, pain, hypercarnia, hypovolemia, hypoxemia, drugs and cerebral spinal fluid acidosis |
|
|
Apnea |
- Suspension of breathing - Caused by deep anesthetic plane, hypothermia, recent hyperventiliation, musculoskeletal paralysis and drugs. |
|
|
Tachycardia |
- Rapid heart rate - Caused by light anesthetic plane, pain, hypotension, hypoxemia, hypercarbia, ischemia, acute anaphylactic reaction, anemia, and drugs |
|
|
Bradycardia |
- Slow heart rate - Caused by deep anesthetic plane, hypertension, increased intracranial pressure, surgical vagal reflex, hypothermia, hyperkalemia, myocardial ischemia and drugs |
|
|
Hypertension |
- High blood pressure - Caused by ligh anesthetic plane, pain, hypercarbia, fever and drugs |
|
|
Hypotension |
- Low blood pressure - Caused by deep anesthetic plane, hypovolemia, sepsis, shock and drugs |
|
|
Toxic foods to birds |
Avocados - cadiac toxin that causes heart failure Chocolate - seizures, vomiting, diarrhea, cardiac arrhythmias Comfrey - causes liver damage Avoid foods in high sugar and salt |
|
|
Dermatologic Diseases : Birds |
- Flies - Lice, ticks, mites - Ulceration or folliculites associated with bacterial infection - Stress bars in feathers could indicate poor husbandry, infections or self-mutilation |
|
|
Gastrointestinal Diseases: Birds |
- Normal droppings contain both feces and urine, which comes from the cloaca - Swollen crop, may be infectious: trichomonas (parasite), candida (fungus), or bacterial - Viral, proventricular dilatation disease (PDD) associated with avian bornavirus: infection causes nervous system inflammation leading to neurologic signs and gastrointestinal dysfunction - Tapeworm, giardia, roundworms |
|
|
Respiratory Disease : Birds |
Aspergillosis:fungal infection of the respiratory tract; may lead to fungal granulomas in theupper or lower respiratory tract |
|
|
Viral Disease: Birds |
- Psittacine beak and feather disease
- Polyoma virus - Pacheco’s disease: parrot herpesvirus, often fatal |
|
|
Zoonotic Diseases: Birds |
- Chlamydophila psittaci (Psittacosis): one of most common bacterial respiratory diseases in pet birds. Transmission through inhalation or ingestion of spore-like phase of organism - Exotic Newcastle disease: transmission through direct contact with viral particles from aerosolized bodily fluids; may result in systemic clinical signs in birds. In humans, can result in sinusitis, lethargy, and conjunctivitis - West Nile virus: transmission through infected mosquitoes; causes neurologic disease in animals and people - Avian influenza: wild birds are the natural hosts of Influenza A; different subtypes of influenza A have infected people. Dangerous subtypes identified = H5 & H7. Infection can result in flu-like symptoms and death in animals and people |
|
|
Detrusor Muscle |
Contracts during urination |
|
|
Hypogastric nerve is part of the ____________________ in bladder intervention |
Efferent sympathetic |
|
|
Function of the hypogastric nerve |
When stimulated, causes relaxation of detrusor, contraction of trigone and internal sphincter resulting in retention of urine |
|
|
Pelvic nerve is part of the ____________________ in bladder intervention |
Efferent parasympathetic |
|
|
Function of the pelvic nerve |
When stimulated, causes detrusor contraction andrelaxation of trigone and internal sphincter resulting in emptying of thebladder |
|
|
The Pudental nerve is part of the _______________ in bladder intervention |
Somatic |
|
|
The Hypogastric and pelvic nerves are both part of the _____________, giving sensation due to bladder distension |
Sensory (afferent) |
|
|
How does the front cerebral cortex control micturition? |
Conscious micturition |
|
|
How does the thalamus control micturition? |
Conditioned micturition |
|
|
How does the brainstem control micturition? |
Coordination of micturition |
|
|
How does the sympathetic nervous system control micturition? |
Controls storage phase |
|
|
How does the parasympathetic nervous system control micturition? |
Controls voiding phase (Pelvic nerve) |
|
|
How does the somatic nervous system control micturition? |
Controls Pudendal nerve |
|
|
How does the α-adrenergic stimulation (via hypogastric nerve) help in storing urine? |
Maintainsinternal urethral sphincter contraction |
|
|
How does the β-adrenergicstimulation help in storing urine? |
Inhibitsdetrusor contraction, allowing filling |
|
|
In blood gas analysis, what is normal pH? |
7.35 - 7.45 |
|
|
In blood gas analysis, what is normal pCO2? |
34 - 40
(Normal Venous Value is 38- 45) |
|
|
In blood gas analysis, what is normal pO2? |
80 - 120 (Normal Venous Value 45 - 65) |
|
|
In blood gas analysis, what is normal HCO3? |
18 - 24 |
|
|
In blood gas analysis, what is normal base excess? |
-6 to +1 |
|
|
In blood gas analysis: pH is low, and HCO3 is low |
Metabolic acidosis |
|
|
In blood gas analysis: pH is low, and pCO2 is high |
Respiratory acidosis |
|
|
In blood gas analysis: pH is high, and HCO3 is high |
Metabolic alkalosis |
|
|
In blood gas analysis: if pH is high, and pCO2 is low |
Respiratory alkalosis
|
|
|
If the patient is hyperventilating, what blood gas value is affected? |
Low pCO2 |
|
|
If the patient is hypoventilating, what blood gas value is affected? |
High pCO2 |
|
|
Function of cerebrum |
Conscious thought and perception, largest partof the brain |
|
|
Function of cerebellum |
Motor control, coordinates movement |
|
|
Function of the cerebellum |
Motor control, coordinates movement |
|
|
The diencephalon is composed of |
Thalamus, hypothalamus, pituitary |
|
|
Function of the hypothalamus |
Controls temperature, thirst, hunger, sleep. Regulates neuroendocrine function and homeostasis of the body |
|
|
Function of the Pituitary |
Endocrine gland which secretes ACTH, TSH, growth hormone, prolactin, LH, FSH |
|
|
Function of the Brain Stem |
Connects the brain to the spinal cord. Origin of most cranial nerves. Composed of medulla oblongata, pons and midbrain |
|
|
What are meninges? |
Cover the brain and spinal cord |
|
|
Dura Mater |
Outer layer of meninges |
|
|
Arachnoid |
Middle layer of meninges |
|
|
Pia mater |
Inner layer of meninges |
|
|
Cerebrospinal fluid |
Flows between layers of meninges and protects/provides cushion for the brain |
|
|
The periphreal nervous system is composed of |
12 cranial nerves and 31 spinal nerves |
|
|
The blood-brain barrier |
Separates circulating blood from the fluid in the CNS - prevents toxins from getting to brain |
|
|
Glial cells |
Do not transmit nerve impulses but function tohelp protect the nervous system (Oligodendrocytes in CNS and Schwann cells in PNS) |
|
|
Body of neuron |
Soma |
|
|
What happens when sympathetic nervous system is stimulated? |
Epineephrine is released and causes increased heart rate, increased blood pressure, pupil dilation(mydriasis), increase respirations, bronchodilation, and decreasedgastrointestinal activity. Can be triggered by fear, stress, excitement,exercise,etc |
|
|
Neurotransmitters in the sympathetic nervous system |
Adrenergic/catecholamine/epinephrine |
|
|
What stimulates the parasympathetic nervous system? |
Controls normal homeostasis. Acetylcholine isreleased in a rested state causing decreased heart and respiratory rate, pupilconstrition (miosis), increased salivation and gastrointestinal activity.(SLUD)- salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation |
|
|
Neurotransmitters in the parasympathetic nervous system |
Cholinergic/acetylcholine |
|
|
Parasympathetic nervous system and the sympathetic nervous system are both a part of |
The autonomic nervous system |
|
|
Communication between cells |
Cellscommunicate via the Sodium-Potassium Pump. Sodium moves out of the cell andPotassium goes back into the cell AtRest (Resting Membrane Potential): The cell is negative on the inside (K+) andpositive on the outside (Na+). This causes a charge across the cell membrane. Firingof the cell is Depolarization. Sodium channels open and sodiumflows into the cell (now the cell is positive- “action potential”). Repolarizationoccurs when the sodium channels close and potassium channels open. Nowpotassium is moved back into the cell and sodium is pushed out. The cell holdsa negative charge again |
|
|
Key signs of canine parvovirus |
Bloody diarrhea, vomiting, intussusception, leukopenia |
|
|
How is parvo spread? |
fecal-oral route |
|
|
What does parvo do to the body? |
Destroys rapidly dividing cells in intestinal crypts causing secondary villous atrophy |
|
|
Treatment for parvo? |
None, only supportive care |
|
|
Supportive care for parvo? |
IV fluids, with electolyte deficit of patient Antibiotics - either amikacin and potentiated clavulanic acid OR enrofloxacin and ampicillin/cefazolin/metronidazole Anti-emitics - metoclopramide, chlorpromazine or maropitant (Cerenia) Gastric protectants - Ranitidine, omeprazole, sucralfate |
|
|
Function of the vena cava? |
bringsde-oxygenated blood from the body to the heart and empties into the rightatrium |
|
|
Function of the aorta |
Largest vessel in body and carries oxygenated blood from the left ventricle |
|
|
Function of the pulmonary artery |
transports the de-oxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs
|
|
|
Function of the pulmonary vein |
transports oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium
|
|
|
Function of the coronary arteries |
branch off of the aorta near the top of the heart and carry oxygen to the cardiac muscle tissue
|
|
|
Chambers of the Heart |
Left atrium, left ventricle, right atrium and right ventricle |
|
|
Left atrium |
Receives oxygenated blood from the lungs via the pulmonary vein. During contraction, blood passes from the left atrium through the mitral valve into the left ventricle
|
|
|
Left Ventricle |
Receives oxygenated blood from the left atrium during contraction. As the blood goes through the mitral valve and into the left ventricle, the aortic valve is closed so that the ventricle may fill. After the ventricles are full, they contract. During contraction, the mitral valve closes to prevent backflow of blood and the aortic valve opens to allow the blood to go into the aorta and out to the body
|
|
|
Right Atrium |
Receives de-oxygenated blood from the body via the vena cava. During contraction blood passes from the right atrium through the tricuspid valve and into the right ventricle
|
|
|
Right Ventricle |
Receives de-oxygenated blood from the right atrium during contraction. As the blood goes through the tricuspid valve and into the right ventricle, the pulmonary valve is closed so that the ventricle may fill. During contraction, the tricuspid valve closes to prevent backflow and the pulmonary valve opens so that blood goes into the pulmonary artery and to the lungs
|
|
|
Mitral Valve |
separates left atrium from left ventricle |
|
|
Tricuspid Valve |
separates right atrium from right ventricle n |
|
|
Pulmonary Valve |
separates right ventricle from the pulmonary artery
|
|
|
Aortic Valve |
separates left ventricle from the aorta
|
|
|
Chordae tendinae |
tendons which link the papillary muscles to the valves and aid in opening and closing of the valves. String-like in appearance |
|
|
Papillary muscles |
contract to open the valves. Connected to chordae tendinae
|
|
|
Systole |
During systole, blood is ejected from the ventricles into the arteries leaving the heart. The left ventricle empties into the aorta and the right ventricle empties into the pulmonary artery. The pressure created during this contraction is called systolic pressure
|
|
|
Diastole |
Diastole occurs when the ventricles are relaxed. During this time the ventricles are filling with blood, preparing for the next contraction
|
|
|
Sinoatrial Node (SA Node) |
The natural pacemaker of the heart. It starts the electrical impulses in the heart, which then travel to the Atrioventricular node (AV node)
|
|
|
Atrioventricular Valve (AV Node) |
The AV node delays the impulse until theventricles are completely filled. The impulses pass from the AV node throughthe right and left bundle branches (at the Bundle of His) |
|
|
Bundle of His |
|
|
|
Purkinje fibers |
Purkinje fibers are specialized cardiac musclecells that conduct impulses deep within the myocardium assisting to transmitimpulses from the AV node to the ventricles |
|
|
Dilated Cardiomyopathy (DCM) |
Weakened and enlarged heart; may be associated with taurine deficiency in some cases
|
|
|
Hypertrophic Cariomyopathy (HCM)
|
Hypertrophy or thickening of the myocardium (heart muscle); sometimes associated with hyperthyroidism in cats
|
|
|
CongestiveHeart Failure (CHF) |
Heart can no longer pump blood efficiently and leads to pulmonary edema (fluid in the lungs)
|
|
|
Second-degree AV block |
Common in horses; Arrhythmia causing delay at the AV node, often caused by high vagal tone in athletically fit horses, may resolve with exercise. May see a p wave with no QRS on an ECG |
|
|
Ventricularfibrillation (V-fib) |
Uncoordinated contraction of the cardiac muscle in the ventricles. It is during V-fib that a defibrillator may be used to try and induce back to a normal rhythm
|
|
|
Furosemide (Lasix) |
A loop diuretic used in congestive heart failure. (side note: diuretics increase urination)
|
|
|
Spironolactone |
An aldosterone antagonist used as a potassium sparing diuretic
|
|
|
Enalapril |
An ace inhibitor/ vasodilator used often inconjunction with a diuretic for treating CHF |
|
|
Pimobendan |
Inodilator used in treatment of CHF in dogs withCHF from valvular disease or from DCM |
|
|
Atropine |
Anticholinergic, given to increase heart rate, often during anesthesia or during arrest
|
|
|
Nitroglycerine |
Potent venodilator, often used in acute CHF as atopical (must wear gloves) |
|
|
Sildenafil (Viagra) |
Used mostly in vet med for treating pulmonary hypertension
|
|
|
Lidocaine |
Used to treat ventricular tachycardia and VPC’s (ventricular premature contractions)
|
|
|
Digoxin |
Cardiac glycoside, blood levels should be monitored to preventtoxicity |
|
|
Warning signs of impending cardiopulmonary arrest |
Alterations in respiratory rate, respiratory character, hypotension, bradycardia, hypothermia, and cyanosis |
|
|
Ideal position for CPR |
Right lateral recumbency |
|
|
Where should compressions be performed on the patient? |
7kg and less - thumb on one side of chest, other fingers on other side Over 7kg - 4th and 6th intercostal space and the costochondral junction |
|
|
Epinephrine use in CPR |
Positive inotrope (force of contraction), chronotrope(rate) and possesses potent vasoconstrictor effects. Epinephrine can induceventricular fibrillation |
|
|
Arginine vasporessin use in CPR |
This drug induces marked peripheral vasoconstriction, improving cerebral and coronary perfusion. There are no direct cardiac effects with vasopressin. Unlike all other drugs used in CPCR, vasopressin maintains its effectiveness in hypoxemic and acidemic states
|
|
|
Atropine use in CPR |
Anticholinergic that decreases vagal tone andmay halt the progression of unstable bradycardia to asystole in the arrestingpatient. This drug increases sinoatrial node automaticity and atrioventricularconduction |
|
|
Amiodarone use in CPR |
Class III antiarrhythmic that prolongs bothaction potential duration and refractory period. This is the recommended drugfor treatment of continued ventricular fibrillation after defibrillation |
|
|
Cranial Nerve I |
Olfactory Nerve Mediates the sense of smell, observed when the pet sniffs around its environment |
|
|
Cranial Nerve II |
Optic Nerve Carries visual signals from retina to occipital lobe of brain, observed as the pet tracks an object with its eyes. It also causes pupil constriction. The Menace response is the waving of the hand at the dog’s eye to see if it blinks |
|
|
Cranial Nerve III |
Oculomotor Nerve Provides motor to most of the extraocularmuscles (dorsal, ventral, and medial rectus) and for pupil constriction |
|
|
Cranial Nerve IV |
Trochlear Nerve Provides motor function to the dorsal oblique extraocular muscle and rolls globe medially |
|
|
Cranial Nerve V |
Trigeminal Nerve Provides motor to muscles of mastication (chewing muscles) and sensory to eyelids, cornea, tongue, nasal mucosa and mouth |
|
|
Cranial Nerve VI |
Abducens Nerve Provides motor function to the lateral rectus extraocular muscle and retractor bulbi Examined by touching the globe and observing for retraction (also tests V for sensory) |
|
|
Cranial Nerve VII |
Facial Nerve Provides motor to muscles of facial expression (eyelids, ears, lips) and sensory to medial pinna (ear flap). Also taste to rostral tongue |
|
|
Cranial Nerve VIII |
Vestibulocochlear Nerve Sensory for hearing and head position |
|
|
Cranial Nerve IX |
Glossopharyngeal Nerve Innervates the pharynx for swallowing (with X). Also innervates some salivary glands and provides taste innervation from caudal tongue Examine by eliciting a gag reflex and observing for dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) |
|
|
Cranial Nerve X |
Vagus Nerve Innervatesthe larynx, esophagus, and pharynx. Also provides parasympathetic innervationto the heart and viscera Tested with a gagreflex |
|
|
|
Spinal Accessory Nerve Innervates cranial cervical muscles |
|
|
Cranial Nerve XII |
Hypoglossal Nerve Motor to the tongue |
|
|
Apical |
toward the root
|
|
|
Attrition |
wearing of the teeth from mastication or teeth rubbing together
|
|
|
Buccal |
direction toward the cheek
|
|
|
Calculus |
calcified plaque which hardens on the tooth and may not be brushed off
|
|
|
Cementum |
hard connective tissue covering the tooth root and sometimes the crown
|
|
|
Crown |
portion of the tooth that sits above the gumline and is covered in enamel
|
|
|
Dentin |
the bulk of the tooth; the hard connective tissue of the tooth made mostly of calcium and collagen
|
|
|
Enamel |
the white hard outer layer of the crown (made mostly of calcium)
|
|
|
Endodontics |
treatment involving the pulp cavity (i.e. root canal procedure)
|
|
|
Floating |
smoothing a horse’s teeth with a file (called a float) to rid of sharp edges
|
|
|
Gingiva |
mucosa surrounding the teeth (gums around theteeth) |
|
|
Halitosis |
Bad Breath |
|
|
Lingual |
direction toward the tongue
|
|
|
Malocclusion |
abonormal position of the teeth
|
|
|
Occlusal |
regarding the tooth surface that meets tooth surface on the opposite jaw
|
|
|
Periodontal ligament |
collagen fiber which attaches tooth to the bone (holds tooth in place)
|
|
|
Periodontium |
supportive tissues around the tooth including bone of alveolus, periodontal ligament, cementum, and gingiva
|
|
|
Plaque |
a film which accumulates on the tooth made of food, bacteria, cells, and mucin
|
|
|
Pulp |
the soft part inside the tooth made of nerves, vessels, odontoblasts, connective tissues and lymphatics
|
|
|
Ranula |
a salivary cyst under the tongue
|
|
|
Recession |
apical gingival movement away from the tooth crown
|
|
|
Root |
lower part of the tooth that is in the alveolus
|
|
|
Stomatitis |
inflammation of the soft tissues in the mouth
|
|
|
Sulcus |
pocket under the gingiva; normal is 0-3 mm, greater than this suggests periodontal disease
|
|
|
Hypsodont |
High crowned teeth seen in horses, cattle and deer |
|
|
Radicular |
Continuously erupting like rodents, rabbits and chinchillas |
|
|
Aradicular |
Continuously growing |
|
|
Brachydont |
Low-crowned teeth seen in cats and dogs |
|
|
Dog dental formula |
3142, 3143 |
|
|
Cat dental formula |
3131, 3121 |
|
|
Ruminant dental formula |
0033, 3133 |
|
|
Horse dental formula |
3133, 3143 |
|
|
Pig dental formula |
3143, 3143 |
|
|
Rabbit dental formula |
2033, 1023 |
|
|
Rat/mouse dental formula |
1003, 1003 |
|
|
Key signs of diabetes mellitus |
PU/PD, polyphagia, weight loss Can include cataracts |
|
|
Type I diabetes |
No longer producing insulin |
|
|
Type II diabetes |
Insulin resistance (rare in dogs, common in cats) Some cats can go into diabetic remission |
|
|
"Healthy diabetic" clinical signs |
PU/PD, polyphagia, recurrent infections, plantigrade stance (cats), cataracts (dogs) |
|
|
"Severe" diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) |
Anorexia, vomiting, weakness, metabolic acidosis, blood glucose > 500 mg/dl, may have previous history of the signs of a healthy diabetic |
|
|
Clinical signs of diabetes |
Hyperglycemia, glocosuria |
|
|
Treatment of diabetes mellitus |
Insulin injections - BID, SQ by owner High fiber, low fat/carb diet *Oral hypoglycemics are not effective in pets!! |
|
|
Short-acting insulin |
Hummulin-R - used for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) |
|
|
Intermediate or longer acting insulins |
Hummulin-N, Vetsulin - used for maintenance therapy |
|
|
Dog and cat flea |
Ctenocephalides felis or canis
|
|
|
Xenopsylla cheopis |
Rat flea known for plague organism Yersinia pestis |
|
|
Female fleas lay around ___ eggs a day |
50 |
|
|
Ixodes |
Deer tick - transmits lyme |
|
|
Dermacentor |
American dog tick - transmits Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (Rickettsia rickettsii) |
|
|
Rhipicephalus |
Brown dog tick - transmits Ehrlichia spp. |
|
|
Capitulum |
Tick mouth parts |
|
|
Otobius megnini |
Ear tick |
|
|
Demodex mites |
"Deep" mites, treated with oral ivermectin or lyme sulfur dip |
|
|
Scabies |
Pruritic, zoonotic (self-limiting), multiple scrapes necessary, treated with selamectin, lime sulfur dips or milbemycin. Sarcoptes scabiei is canine mite, Notoedres cati is the feline mite |
|
|
Cheyletiella |
Walking dandruff, superficial mite, very pruritic |
|
|
Ear mites |
Otodectes cynotis is ear mite of cats and dogs, treated with topical ivermectin |
|
|
Lice |
Infestation with lice is known as pediculosis. Pruritic, transmitted via direct contact. Uncommon, may be biting or sucking in nature. Treated with fipronil or selamectin. Trichodectes canis (chewing) and Linognathus setosus (sucking are found in canines. Hematopinus (sucking) are found in cattle |
|
|
Strongylus vulgaris |
Larvae penetrate submucosal arteries and migrate along endothelium to the cecal and colic arteries and then to the base of the cranial mesenteric artery; they return to the intestine via the arteries |
|
|
Strongylus edentatus |
Larvae invade gut wall and penetrate blood vessels and migrate to liver via the hepatic portal vein; larvae then travel through the liver and return to the large intestine via the mesentery.
Migration may or may not result in observable clinical signs |
|
|
Strongylus equinus |
During maturation, larvae leave intestine and migrate to the liver; from there they migrate back to the large intestine
Migration may or may not result in observable clinical signs |
|
|
Anoplocephala perfoliata |
May or may not be a common cause of colic in thehorse Inhabits the region of the ileocecal junction and can produce ulcerations of the mucosa |
|
|
Parascaris equorum |
P. equorum (also known as roundworms or ascarids) cause disease in foals and is not a significant parasite in the adult horse (adult horses develop immunity to ascarids and thus are not associated with disease in adults)
|
|
|
Cyathostomes |
Known as small stronglyes, include a number of species (40+) and can cause severe diarrhea in adult horses (larval cyathostomiasis). Typically occurs in the late winter or spring and is associated with the simultaneous emergence of a large number of fourth-stage larvae from the intestinal mucosa
|
|
|
Dictyocaulus arnfieldi |
Equine lung worm Commonly seen in donkeys, but rarely produce clinical signs. If seen in horses, can be more sever and result in bronchial inflammation and chronic cough |
|
|
Right side of horse |
Far side |
|
|
Left side of horse |
Near side - standing side |
|
|
Crystalloids |
Crystalloids are solutions that are isotonic with plasma and contain sodium as the major osmotically active particle. Lactated Ringer’s Solution, 0.9% Sodium Chloride (Normal Saline), and Normosol-R are isotonic crystalloid solutions
|
|
|
Maintenance Rate |
60ml / kg / day |
|
|
Anesthetic Rates |
10ml / kg / hr for dogs 5ml / kg / hr for cats |
|
|
Shock Rates |
90ml / kg in dogs 45ml / kg in cats |
|
|
Dextrose Solutions |
Formed when dextrose is added to a crystalloid. Dextrose provides an intracellular carbohydrate source in septic patients and aids correction of hypoglycemia
|
|
|
Synthetic Colloids |
Act primarily to expand plasma volume. Useful as resuseitative or replacement fluids and can be given as a boluis if patient has poor perfusion due to hypovolemia Hetastarch, Dextrans 40 and Dextrans 70 |
|
|
Hetastarch maintenance rate |
20ml / kg / day |
|
|
Colloids |
Used for the relative expansion of the interstitial space in the event of a plasma volume deficiency resulting from traumatic or septic shock, and replacement of lost blood volume. Colloid solutions include human and canine albumin, fresh frozen plasma, and whole blood
|
|
|
Dry or sticky oral mucous membranes |
5% - 6% dehydration |
|
|
Mild to moderate decrease in skin turgor, dry or “sticky” oral mucous membranes, sunken eyes |
6% - 8% dehydration |
|
|
Marked decrease in skin turgor, dry mucousmembranes, sunken eyes, weak and rapid pulses, slow capillary refill time,moderate to marked mental depression |
10% - 12% |
|
|
Signs of OVER hydration |
Serous nasal discharge, subcutaneous edema, increased urine output, ascites, coughing/pulmonary edema, increased respiratory rate |
|
|
GDV |
Gastric Dialation Volvulus |
|
|
What does GDV look like on radiograph |
Right lateral is best Gastric compartmentalization of air, or "double bubble" |
|
|
A Great Dane is predisposed with a ___% chance of developing a GDV |
37% |
|
|
Clinical Signs of GDV |
Restless/nervous pacing/painful, non productive retching, abdominal distension, increased respiratory rate, tachycaardia, weak pulses, pale mucus membranes, prolonged CRT, depressed mentaion |
|
|
Pros and cons of an orograstric tube in patient with GDV |
More effective emptying Requires heavy sedation, tube might not pass, possible esophageal trauma |
|
|
Pros and cons of trocarization in patient with GDV |
More rapid intervention, doesn't require sedation Limited decompression, risk of lacerating gastric wall, puncturing speleen |
|
|
Negative prognostic indicators for GDV |
Lactate > 6 mmol/L Need for gastric resection/splenectomy Long onset of signs to time of presentation (5-6 hrs) Recumbency at presentation |
|
|
Recurrence of GDV? % |
If gastropexy is performed, recurrence is less than 4% If not, recurrence is 50% |
|
|
Nematode - Roundworms |
Toxocara Most common in cats and dogs Causes zoonotic disease ocular larval migrans Treated with piperazine, pyrantel or fenbendazole Transmitted fecal-oral route, or trans-placental Live in small intestine |
|
|
Nematode - Hookworms |
Ancylostoma and Uncinaria Causes zoonotic disease cutaneous larval migrans Treated with fenbendazole, pyrantel Transmitted fecal-oral route, transmammary or percutaneous infections Percutaneous = migrate through skin, to lung where coughed up and swallowed into the small intestine |
|
|
Nematode - Whipworms |
Trichuris vulpis Transmitted fecal-oral route Can cause hyperkalemia and hyponatremia Treated with fenbendazole |
|
|
Cestodes - Tapeworm |
Dipylidium caninum transmitted by flea as host Taenia are transmitted by ingestive of hydatid cysts during predation Proglottid segments are released from the end of the worm and shed in feces Treated with praziquantel |
|
|
Trematodes - Flukes |
Fasciola hepatica - liver fluke Parasite most common in areas of high rainfall or moist environments Treated with albendazole |
|
|
Giardia |
Protozoan Treated with fenbendazole or metronidazole |
|
|
Coccidia |
Isospora- most common in dogs and cats Eimeria - most common in poultry/birds, rabbits Treated with sulfadimethoxine (albon) |
|
|
Soft palate |
Separates the oropharynx and the nasopharynx |
|
|
Oropharynx |
Part of pharynx between the tongue and soft palate |
|
|
Two layers of lining in the esophagus |
Mucosa and submucosa |
|
|
Two layers of muscle in the esophagus |
Longitudinal and the circular |
|
|
4 stomachs of ruminants |
Reticulum, rumen, omasum, abomasum |
|
|
Monogastric stomach parts |
Fundus, body, antrum |
|
|
Function of stomach |
Produces hydrochloric acid (via parietal cells) which aids in breakdown of food. pH of stomach is tightly controlled by active transport. Enzymes, mostly pepsin, breakdown proteins into amino acids. Stomach also produces a layer of mucus made up mostly of mucin and bicarbonate to protect itself from acidity |
|
|
3 parts of small intestine |
Dudenum, jejunum, ilieum |
|
|
Parts of large intestine |
Cecum and colon |
|
|
Cecum |
Blind sac that is less developed in dogs and cats bu is advanced in the ruminant In the horse and cattle, referred to as the "hindgut" - fermentation occurs here in cow |
|
|
Colon |
Tubular organ that uses peristaltic and segmental contraction Absorb nutrients and water not already absorbed by small intestine and stores feces |
|
|
Drug to treat heartworm disease |
Melarsomine |
|
|
Wohlbachia |
Bacterium that infects the heartworm itself. Doxycycline is given to pet to prevent secondary bacteria infection |
|
|
Signs of heartworm in dogs |
Exercise intolerance, cough, dyspnea, ascites |
|
|
Signs of heartworm in cats |
Salivation, tachycardia, shock, neurologic symptoms, or sudden death |
|
|
Diagnosis of heartworm disease |
Heartworm antigen test, right sided cardiac enlargement on radiograph, enlarged pulmonary arteries, proteinuria or increased eosinophil count |
|
|
Treatment of heartworm disease |
Single injection of melarsomine followed by 2 injections 24 hours apart 4-6 weeks later |
|
|
Red blood cell parameters of a CBC consist of: |
RBC count Hemoglobin measurement (Hgb) Hematocrit measurement (Hct) Mean corpuscular volume measurement (MCV) RBC distribution width measurement Mean Corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH) measurement Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) Comments on RBC morphology |
|
|
White blood cell parameters of a CBC consist of |
WBC count Differential count of neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils |
|
|
Platelet parameters of a CBC consist of |
Platelet count Mean platelet volume (MPV) Comments on platelet morphology |
|
|
Anemia |
Decreased number of RBC's |
|
|
Polycythemia |
Increased number of RBC's |
|
|
Rouleaux |
RBC's that form stacks |
|
|
Agglutination |
RBC's that form irregular clumps |
|
|
Microcytosis |
Decreased RBC size |
|
|
Macrocytosis |
Increased RBC size |
|
|
Ansiocytosis |
Increased variation in cell size |
|
|
Hypochromia |
Decreased pigment (increased pallor) |
|
|
Hyperchromia |
Increased pigment (lack of central pallor) |
|
|
Ansiochromasia |
Increased variation in pigmentation |
|
|
Polychromasia |
RBC's with a blue or lilac tinge |
|
|
Poikilocytosis |
Increased variation in RBC shape |
|
|
Spherocytosis |
Cells that are spherical in shape with lost central pallor |
|
|
Target cell |
Cell with strongly staining area in the middle of the central pallor region |
|
|
Schistocyte |
Fragmented RBC's that are usually angluar |
|
|
Echinocyte |
Creneated RBC with many (20-30) small, regular, blunt projections |
|
|
Acanthocyte |
Cell with irregularly distributed small projections |
|
|
Howell-Jolly bodies |
Round dense staining inclusions, usually toward one edge of the cells; represents a nuclear fragment |
|
|
Basophilic stippling |
Presence of the small basophillic inclusions distributed throughout the RBC; represents abnormally staining ribosomes |
|
|
Nucleated RBC's |
RBC's that have not complete maturation and still have a nucleus |
|
|
Cytoplasmic basophilia |
Streaky diffuse blue appearance to cytoplasm |
|
|
Dohle bodies |
Round to linear blue aggregates in the cytoplasm |
|
|
Cytoplasmic vacuolation |
Indistinct vacuoles throughout the cytoplasm creating a frothy appearance |
|
|
Nucelear immaturity |
Less clumped chromatin in the nucleus |
|
|
Macroplatelets |
Larger than normal platelets |
|
|
Hyperadrenocorticism |
Cushing's Disease |
|
|
What causes Cushing's disease? |
Excessive circulating cortisol |
|
|
Where is cortisol produced? |
Adrenal gland |
|
|
What signals the adrenals to continue and produce cortisol? |
The pituitary secretes ACTH |
|
|
Symptoms of Cushing's disease |
PU/PD, pot belly appearance, hair loss, calcinosis cutis, excessive panting, may have concurrent hypertension |
|
|
Laboratory findings for Cushing's Disease |
Elevated ALKP, +/- proteinuria, dilute urine, prone to UTI's |
|
|
Diagnosis of Cushing's |
Testing is with the ACTH stimulation test Low-Dose Dexamethasone Suppression test (if differentiating pituitary vs. adrenal cause) |
|
|
Treatment of Cushing's |
Trilostane (Vetoryl) - Inhibits steroid synthesis and doesn't usually cause permanent change in adrenal gland Lysodren (mitotane) - destroys part of adrenal cortex to prevent cortisol production, but may cause more side effects that can lead to hypoadrenocorticism |
|
|
Equine Cushing's |
May have hirsutism (abnormal long and wavy haircoat), and other symptosm associated with dogs |
|
|
The thyroid gland synthesizes what hormones |
Thyroxine (T4) and Triiodothyronine (T3) which incorporate iodine |
|
|
Clinical signs of hyperthyroidism |
Weight loss with ravenous appetite Thyroid nodule Hyperactivity Vomiting/increased vocalizing Tachycardia, and possibly heart murmur or gallop (thyrotoxic cardiomyopathy) |
|
|
Diagnosis of hyperthyroidism |
Serum total T4 levels |
|
|
Treatment of hyperthyroidism |
Oral or transdermal methimazole (can cause facial exoriations) Thyroidectomy Radioactive iodine - single dose, requires hospitalization |
|
|
Hypoadrenocorticism |
Addison's Disease |
|
|
What causes Addison's disease? |
Inability of the adrenal glands to produce cortisol |
|
|
Clinical signs of Addison's disease |
Weakness, vomiting, diarrhea, finicky appetite, dehydration, bradycardia and low blood pressure |
|
|
Laboratory findings of Addison's disease |
Elevated potassium, low sodium and chloride Hypoglycemia, increased BUN and creatinine due to decreased renal perfusion |
|
|
Diagnosis of Addison's disease |
ACTH Stimulation test |
|
|
Treatment of Addison's disease |
Steroids, only after ACTH stimulation test has been performed |
|
|
What causes hypothyroidism |
When thyroid glands produce insufficient levels of thyroid hormone |
|
|
Clinical Signs of hypothyroidism |
Weight gain, obesity, lethargy, alopecia (bilaterally symmetic over the lateral trunk, tail and ventral thorax), heat-seeking, muscle weakness, skin disease |
|
|
Diagnosis of hypothyroidism |
Serum total T4 levels |
|
|
Treatment of hypothyroidism |
Oral levothyroxine |
|
|
What is plasma composed of? |
90% water, 10% proteins, carbs, vitamins, hormomes, fats, salts, enzymes and wastes |
|
|
What is serum? |
Plasma that has had fibrinogen removed |
|
|
EDTA tube |
Prevents coagulation by binding to calcium ions |
|
|
Red-top tube |
Glass tubes have no additive, plastic tubes have clot activators |
|
|
Tiger-top tube |
Serum separator tubes - contains clot activator gel |
|
|
Light blue-top tube |
Contains sodium citrate, anticoagulant that binds calcium Used to check for coagulation disorders such as PT, PTT, FDP, D-dimer, and von Willebrand factors |
|
|
Green-top tube |
Plasma separator tubes Contain heparin, which activates antithrombins, which block coagulation |
|
|
Gray-top tube |
Contain sodium fluoride, which is a glucose preservative, and some contain potassium oxalate Used if accurate glucose measurement is needed and sample processing will be delayed |
|
|
What is needed for skeletal muscle contraction? |
ATP and calcium |
|
|
The neurotransmitter for skeletal muscles |
Acetylcholine (ACH) |
|
|
Skeletal muscle activity is ceased by |
Acetylcholinesterase |
|
|
Neurotransmitter for smooth muscles |
Acetylcholine or norepinephrine |
|
|
Sarcomere |
Contractile unit of a muscle fiber |
|
|
Myofibril |
Muscle fiber |
|
|
Sarcoplasmic reticulum |
Endoplasmic reticulum that is needed for muscle contraction |
|
|
Z-line |
Protein bands where actin filaments attach in a striated muscle fiber and mark the boundaries of adjoining contractile units |
|
|
Sarcolemma |
Thin plasma cell membrane of a muscle cell |
|
|
Orbit |
Hole in which the eye sits surrounded and formed by the maxilla, zygomatic, frontal and ethmoid bones |
|
|
Term for eyelids |
Palpebrae |
|
|
Conjunctiva |
Membrane that lines the insides of the eyes and eye itself - secretes mucus that lubricates the eye |
|
|
Lacrimal gland |
Makes tears which are secreted through lacrimal ducts |
|
|
Third eyelid |
Nictitating membrane - near medial canthus and sometimes protrudes |
|
|
Sclera |
White part of eyeC |
|
|
Cornea |
Clear and retracts light - no vessls |
|
|
Uvea |
Vascular tunic made of choroid, ciliary body and iris |
|
|
Iris |
Colored part of eye |
|
|
Ciliary body
|
Helps focus the eye |
|
|
Choroid |
Guards against glare |
|
|
Pupil |
Central part of the iris where light passes through |
|
|
Retina |
Where images are formed, made of rods and cones (mostly rods in dogs) |
|
|
Tapetum |
Reflective layer that helps animals see in dim light |
|
|
Fundus |
Part of posterior eye segment that is viewed with the opthalmascope |
|
|
Lens |
Circular and transparent disc made of protein with no blood supply |
|
|
Anterior chamber of eye |
Filled with aqueous humor related to intraocular pressure |
|
|
Posterior chamber of eye |
Located between iris, lens and ciliary body - has vitreous humor which keeps retina intact |
|
|
Schirmer Tear Test |
A small strip of designated STT paper is placed under the lower lid of each eye. The dye in the paper will begin to turn color as tears are produced
|
|
|
Normal tear production |
Greater than 15 mm in 60 seconds
|
|
|
Fluoroscein Dye Stain Test |
A small amount of yellow fluoroscein stain is applied to the eyes. If there is a corneal defect or scratch, the dye will glow under a blue light. This is the test for a corneal ulcer or abrasion
|
|
|
Tonometry |
Tonopen is used to measure intraocular pressures. The reading should be taken 3 times or more to ensure accuracy. High pressures suggest glaucoma. This is the test for glaucoma. A low pressure suggests uveitis, or inflammation in the eye
|
|
|
Normal eye pressures |
Less than 25 |
|
|
Miosis |
Small or constricted pupil |
|
|
Mydriasis
|
Dilated pupil |
|
|
Anisocoria |
Different sized pupils |
|
|
Pupillary Light Reflex |
Pupils should constrict in light and dilate in dark |
|
|
Enucleation |
Surgical removal of eye |
|
|
Proptosis |
Eye that has been popped out of socket |
|
|
Hyphemia |
Blood in the anterior chamber of eye |
|
|
Hypopion |
Puss in the anterior chamber of the eye |
|
|
Entropion |
Rolling in of the eyelids |
|
|
Cherry eye
|
Prolapsed gland of the third eyelid |
|
|
Canthus |
Corner of the eye |
|
|
Whelping |
Act of dog giving birth |
|
|
Queening |
Act of cat giving birth |
|
|
Parturition |
General term for birth |
|
|
Maltiparous |
Having two or more offspring at birth |
|
|
Colostrum |
Early milk that is rich in antibodies and protein |
|
|
Dystocia |
Difficult birth |
|
|
Gestation length of dogs and cats |
60-63 days |
|
|
Stage 1 of labor |
Restless, may seek seclusion or refuse food. This stage may last for 6-24 hours
|
|
|
Stage 2 of labor |
Contractions begin. A small fluid-filled sac protrudes from the vulva, encompassing the puppy, and has attached placenta. Puppies normally are nose first with abdomen down. Up to 1/3 of puppies may present with hindquarters first (breech)
|
|
|
Stage 3 of labor |
Resting stage in between each delivery. Expulsion of afterbirth. May last 10 minutes or less, or up to an hour
|
|
|
Natural Birth Care |
Mother should lick or chew the sac open Neonate should have mouth suctioned and stimulated with a towel Encourage neonate to suckle on mother immediatley - causes oxytocin release in the mother and helps with uterine contractions and milk letdown |
|
|
Cesarean Section Care |
Mouth should be suctioned several times to remove mucus, and neonates should be stimulated with warm towels Doxapram (dopram) can be administered orally to stimulate breathing |
|
|
Nutrition for after birth |
For lactating mother, 2-3 times normal (give puppy food), until puppies are weaned |
|
|
When should weaning begin? |
Around 5 weeks of age |
|
|
When assistance should be necesary in delivery of neonates |
Stuck in canal for longer than 5 minutes Strong contractions for 30 minutes and no delivery Labor is weak and goes on for 3-4 hours without delivery More than 4 hours have passed and more puppies are expected Mom has been pregnant for more than 65 days Dark discharge and no delivery or labor in 3-4 hours |
|
|
Eclampsia |
The bitch is losing more calcium in the milk than she is taking in. Signs of this are muscle twitching, seizures, drooling, fever, extreme restlessness, or panting. This is lifethreatening, and the pet should receive immediate veterinary attention
|
|
|
Mastitis |
Infection of a mammary gland. May cause lethargy and fever. The gland becomes hard, may be purple or red in color, and may have a foul smell or abnormal color to the milk; is typically painful.
|
|
|
What should be given to orphaned puppies? |
Fed milk replacer (Esbilac for dogs and KMR for cats) Do not give cow's milk |
|
|
When do puppies and kittens open their eyes? |
10-14 days of age |
|
|
Toxin: Lilies |
Toxic to cats Causes acute renal failure within 18-72 hours |
|
|
Toxin: Ethylene Glycol |
Antifreeze Causes acute renal failure Causes metabolic acidosis |
|
|
Toxin: Rodenticide |
Contains anticoagulant which is Vitamin K antagoinst Treated with emesis Signs may not be evident for 4-5 days after ingestion Causes spontaneous bleeding |
|
|
Toxin: Metaldehyde |
Found in snail bait Causes anxiety, ataxia, hyperesthesia, muscle twitching or seizures, tachycardia, dilated pupils, hypersalivation, and vomiting or diarrhea; pets often present seizuring and have a high temperature; vomitus often contains green pellets which are usually snail bait |
|
|
Toxin: Pyrethrin |
Most often seen in kittens or cats that have recently had an over-the-counter topical flea treatment
|
|
|
Toxin: Acetaminophen |
Tylenol is very toxic to cats as it causes methemoglobin formation; in dogs it may be primarily toxic to the liver at higher doses
It causes Methemoglobinuria in cats and may cause the urine to appear brown, the gums to appear brown or cyanotic, and may cause peripheral edema Toxic dose in dogs 150 mg/kg, toxic dose in cats50 mg/kg |
|
|
Toxin: Chocolate |
Toxic agents in chocolate are theobromine and caffeine
Causestachycardia, CNS excitability/tremoring, excitement, and if severe enough canresult in death within 6-24 hours TheLD50 of theobromine and caffeine is 100-200 mg/kg Treatment isinduction of emesis, fluid therapy, and activated charcoal |
|
|
Toxin: Grapes and Raisins |
May contain oxalates that can damage the kidneys
Can cause renal failure in some patients depending on genetic predisposition and quantity ingested, etc |
|
|
Toxin: Onions |
May cause Heinz Body anemia |
|
|
Clinical Signs of Rabies |
Behavior change or vocalization Lameness Acute or progressive signs Asymptomatic for 1-2 months Dumb and furious forms (hypersalivation vs aggressive) |
|
|
Diagnosis of Rabies |
Direct Fluorescent Antibody Test |
|
|
Unit of abosrbed dose equivalent used for radiation safety |
Seivert (Sv) |
|
|
Maximum permissible dose limits for exposure |
Whole body = 50 mSv (5 rem) Skin and extremities = 500 mSv (50 rem) Eye or lense = 150 mSv (15 rem) |
|
|
Sante's Rule |
2 (tissue thickness in cm) + SID + grid factor = kVp setting |
|
|
X-ray film too black? |
Lower kVp |
|
|
X-ray film too white? |
Increase kVp |
|
|
Nephron |
Functional unit of the kidney |
|
|
Renin |
Secreted by the kidney; mediates extracellular volume and arterial vasoconstriction (regulates blood pressure), via the renin-angiotensin system |
|
|
Aldosterone |
Stimulates active sodium resorption |
|
|
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) |
Stimulates passive water re-absorption |
|
|
Function of Kidney |
Regulating water and electrolyte balance
Maintains acid:base homeostasis Aids in retaining protein and glucose in the body Excretes wastes and toxins Plays a role in many endocrine functions by secreting hormones |
|
|
Prostate gland |
Only accessory gland in dog |
|
|
Bulbourethral gland |
Present in domestic animals except the dog |
|
|
Polyestrous |
2 or more estrous cyclesS |
|
|
Seasonally polyestrous |
Cycles only during certain parts of the year |
|
|
Diestrous |
Resting period between cycles |
|
|
Monoestrous |
Single estrous cycle in a year |
|
|
Anestrus |
Not ovulating, not sexually receptive |
|
|
Rabbit gestation period |
30-32 days |
|
|
Horse gestation period |
320-346 days |
|
|
Cows |
271-291 days |
|
|
Sheep |
143-151 days |
|
|
Ferrets |
42 days |
|
|
Metabolic Bone Disease |
In lizards, malnutrition and lack of exposure to UVB light(either from sunlight or artificial bulbs). This leads to decreased synthesisof vitamin D3. Vitamin D3 is essential for calcium absorption and metabolism.Low levels of vitamin D3 impairs calcium absorption and metabolism. Patientswith metabolic bone disease may exhibit the following clinical signs: weakness,lethargy, stunted growth, muscle fasciculations, abnormal gait or posture,fractures, soft mandible (rubber jaw). Without treatment and correct husbandrythis condition is fatal |
