• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/100

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

100 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

The equator is

a. not a great circle.


b. equal distance from the poles.


c. a plane parallel to the polar axis.


d. the only fixed reference point on the earth.

Any plane that passes through the center of the Earth and divides it into two equal parts formswhat on the surface of the earth?

a. Equator.


b. Great circle.


c. Parallel of latitude.


d. Meridian of longitude.

Circles running east to west around the earth are called

a. equatorial parallels.


b. parallels of latitude.


c. equatorial meridians.


d. meridians of longitude.

Parallels of latitude are parallel to the

a. equator.


b. polar axis.


c. Greenwich meridian.


d. international date line.

Parallels between the equator and the north pole carry values from

a. 0° to 90°N.


b. 0° to 90°S.


c. 0° to 180°N.


d. 0° to 180°S.

Parallels between the equator and the south pole carry values from

a. 0° to 90°N.


b. 0° to 90°S.


c. 0° to 180°N.


d. 0° to 180°S.

The international date line is

a. a circle designated 0° latitude.


b. designated as the 180° meridian.


c. a meridian passing through Greenwich, England.


d. a circle located an equal distance between the north and south poles.

Starting from the prime meridian and going east to the international dateline, meridians areassigned values of

a. 0° to 90° east.


b. 0° to 90° west.


c. 0° to 180° east.


d. 0° to 180° west.

A correct geographic coordinate is

a. 45°N.


b. 15°S.


c. 99°N 120°E.


d. 76°S 030°W.

If your aircraft is flying with a true heading of 320° and your destination point is located at atrue bearing of 270°, what is your relative bearing to the destination point?

a. 50°.


b. 270°.


c. 310°.


d. 320°.

If you fly along the equator from 0°N10°E to 0°N15°E, how many nautical miles (NM) will youhave flown?

a. 250 NM.


b. 300 NM.


c. 350 NM.


d. 400 NM.

The wind’s effect on an aircraft is

a. slight.


b. negligible.


c. significant.


d. unimportant.

Wind moving from 225° towards 45° at a speed of 15 knots would be expressed as

a. 45°/15 knots.


b. 225°/15 knots.


c. 225° to 45°/15 knots.


d. 45° from 225°/15 knots.

The aircraft’s path over the Earth’s surface is called

a. track.


b. true bearing.


c. true heading.


d. intended track.

If the aircraft is flying a true heading of 180° what are the effects of a 180°/20 knot wind on itsground speed and track?

a. Increase in ground speed with right drift.


b. Decrease in ground speed with right drift.


c. Increase in ground speed with no change in track.


d. Decrease in ground speed with no change in track.

What is used to correct true heading and allow the aircraft to achieve the desired true course?

a. Drift correction.


b. Wind disbursement.


c. Airspeed correction.


d. Ground speed correction.

True directions are measured from the

a. equator.


b. 0° meridian.


c. magnetic poles.


d. geographical poles.

The lines on navigation charts that connect points of equal magnetic variation are called

a. agonic lines.


b. isogonic lines.


c. variation lines.


d. deviation lines.

The lines on navigation charts that connect points of zero magnetic variation are called

a. agonic lines.


b. isogonic lines.


c. variation lines.


d. deviation lines.

An inertial navigation system establishes

a. altitude.


b. a coordinate system.


c. a frame of reference.


d. a frame of displacement.

Which is not a basic inertial navigation system component?

a. Platform.


b. Integrator.


c. Summing unit.


d. Accelerometer.

What inertial navigation system component measures aircraft movement?

a. Platform.


b. Integrator.


c. Computer.


d. Accelerometer.

The inertial navigation system’s accelerometers must be protected from

a. motion and pressure changes.


b. magnetic and motion changes.


c. temperature and pressure changes.


d. temperature and magnetic changes.

To measure acceleration in all directions an aircraft’s inertial navigation system uses how manyaccelerometers?

a. 1.


b. 2.


c. 3.


d. 4.

The changing of position with respect to some other body is called

a. speed.


b. motion.


c. velocity.


d. reference.

The rate at which motion is occurring without regard to direction is called

a. speed.


b. motion.


c. velocity.


d. reference.

The rate at which motion is occurring in a known or given direction is called

a. speed.


b. motion.


c. velocity.


d. reference.

How many integrators are required for an inertial navigation system to indicate distance?

a. 1.


b. 2.


c. 3.


d. 4.

The inertial navigation system (INS) provides data for the information managementsystem/flight management system to compute all of the following except

a. altitude.


b. system status.


c. present position.


d. magnetic heading.

The gas discharge in the inertial navigation unit (INU) section of the embedded globalpositioning and inertial navigation unit (EGI) is used to generate

a. stable pressurization.


b. a constant temperature.


c. a non-corrosive environment.


d. monochromatic radiation beams.

When the ring laser gyro of the inertial navigation unit (INU) is subjected to angular rates suchas those encountered during aircraft maneuvers, what happens to the laser beams’ optical pathlengths?

a. Both beams remain constant.


b. Both beams increase in length.


c. One beam remains constant, the other increases in length.


d. One beam increases in length, the other decreases in length.

If the accelerometers associated with the inertial navigation unit (INU) ring laser gyro senses anapplied acceleration, the accelerometer pendulum moves in response and causes a

a. stability circuit to generate a voltage.


b. single-axis sensor to generate voltage.


c. proximity detector to generate a voltage.


d. fringe pattern detector to generate a voltage.

Following power-up the embedded global positioning and inertial navigation unit (EGI)automatically enters what mode?

a. Self test.


b. Navigation.


c. Allignment.


d. Initialization.

If the gyro compass alignment of the inertial navigation unit (INU) portion of the embeddedglobal positioning and inertial navigation unit (EGI) is interrupted due to aircraft motion, then thealignment will

a. automatically restart.


b. stop and await a manual restart.


c. be prolonged by no more than the period of suspension.


d. be prolonged by no more than the period of suspension plus 20 seconds.

The embedded global positioning and inertial navigation unit (EGI) provides a pure inertialnavigation solution

a. automatically upon failure of inertial navigation system (INS)/global positioning system (GPS)solution.


b. automatically upon failure of GPS-only solution.


c. only when manually selected.


d. at all times.

Each global positioning system satellite transmits how many radio frequency signals?

a. None, they’re passive.


b. Two, called L1 and L2.


c. One, containing radar data.


d. One, containing radio data.

If your global positioning system has a figure of merit of 5, what is the total expected positionerror (EPE)?

a. EPE < 25 meters.


b. 101 EPE < 200 meters.


c. 201 EPE < 500 meters.


d. EPE > 5000 meters.

The global positioning system’s navigational system has a time accuracy of

a. 50 nanoseconds.


b. 100 nanoseconds.


c. 150 nanoseconds.


d. 200 nanoseconds.

The global positioning system is capable of tracking how many satellites at one time?

a. Four.


b. Five.


c. As many as necessary.


d. As many as can be seen.

Which global positioning system unit provides a display for the ARN–151?

a. Mount.


b. Receiver.


c. Antenna control.


d. Indicator control.

The purpose of the ARN–151’s receiver unit is to

a. demodulate the radio frequency signal to produce an audio signal.


b. demodulate the intermediate frequency signal to produce an audio signal.


c. process the radio frequency signal and calculate it into a navigation solution.


d. process the intermediate frequency signal and calculate it into a navigation solution.

Which receiver interface provides binary-coded decimal format communication between theglobal positioning system and HAVE-QUICK equipment?

a. 1553 interface.


b. Instrument interface.


c. Precise time and time interval (PTTI) interface.


d. Aeronautical radio incorporated interface (ARINC) interface.

The global positioning system interface that uses simplified computer words of specific high-and low-voltage levels is the

a. 1553 interface.


b. instrument interface.


c. Precise time and time interval (PTTI) interface.


d. Aeronautical radio incorporated interface (ARINC) interface.

The tactical air navigation (TACAN) system overcomes the signal propagation limits of earlierlow-frequency navigation equipment by operating in which frequency band?

a. High frequency (HF).


b. Ultra-high frequency (UHF).


c. Very-high frequency (VHF).


d. Super-high frequency (SHF).

A Y-channel tactical air navigation (TACAN) beacon main reference burst (MRB) consists of

a. 12 pulse pairs spaced 30 microseconds apart.


b. 12 pulse pairs spaced 24 microseconds apart.


c. 13 single pulses spaced 30 microseconds apart.


d. 13 single pulses spaced 15 microseconds apart.

The main reference burst (MRB) is transmitted when the main lobe of the tactical air navigation(TACAN) surface beacon radiation pattern is due

a. North.


b. South.


c. East.


d. West.

When a tactical air navigation (TACAN) surface beacon receives distance measuring equipmentpulses from an interrogating aircraft, the surface beacon replies with

a. 1 pulse pair.


b. 2 pulse pairs.


c. a single pulse.


d. 2 single pulses.

When the tactical air navigation (TACAN) main reference burst (MRB) occurs at the 15-Hzvariable signal’s minimum amplitude, the azimuth to the station is

a. 0°.


b. 90°.


c. 180°.


d. 270°.

If the horizontal situation indicator displays a magnetic heading of 45° and magnetic bearing tothe tactical air navigation (TACAN) station of 5°, then relative bearing is

a. 40°.


b. 45°.


c. 225°.


d. 320°.

In the tactical air navigation (TACAN) mode, if the course deviation bar on the horizontalsituation indicator (HIS) is deflected two dots to the right, how many degrees off course are you?

a. 1.25°.


b. 2.50°.


c. 5.0°.


d. 10.0°.

The AN/ARN–118 is controlled by the area navigation (RNAV) system when the tactical airnavigation (TACAN) control box channel selector (X or Y) is set to

a. 00.


b. 01.


c. 10.


d. 11.

In order for two aircraft to communicate using the AN/ARN–118 in A/A mode when oneaircraft is on channel 37Y, then the other aircraft must be on channel

a. 37X.


b. 37Y.


c. 100X.


d. 100Y.

When the TEST switch on the tactical air navigation (TACAN) control box is pressed, what isthe first heading indicated by the TACAN bearing pointer?

a. 0°.


b. 90°.


c. 180°.


d. 270°.

The tactical air navigation (TACAN) receiver transmitter (RT) automatic self-test lasts for

a. 3 seconds.


b. 7 seconds.


c. 15 seconds.


d. 22 seconds.

Tactical air navigation (TACAN) channel data and selected mode information are routed to thereceiver transmitter as a

a. 24-bit serial word.


b. 32-bit serial word.


c. 16-bit ternary word.


d. 32-bit ternary word.

When a tactical air navigation (TACAN) station receives a pair of interrogation pulses, theinterrogations are delayed for how long before they are transmitted back?

a. 25 μsec.


b. 50 μsec.


c. 75 μsec.


d. 100 μsec.

The purpose of the tactical air navigation (TACAN) receiver transmitter (RT) adapter is toconvert

a. a 32-bit ternary word into an analog output.


b. a 24-bit serial word into a 32-bit data output.


c. analog distance information into a digital output.


d. digital distance information into an analog output.

The basic operating principle of very-high frequency omnirange (VOR) is phase comparing the

a. 90-Hz and 150-Hz modulated signals.


b. 30-Hz reference and 30-Hz variable signals.


c. 30-Hz variable and the 9,960-Hz FM signals.


d. 30-Hz reference and the 9,960-Hz FM signals.

If the magnetic bearing to a very-high frequency omnirange (VOR) station is 225°, the phasedifference between the 30-Hz reference and the 30-Hz variable signals will be

a. 15°.


b. 45°.


c. 135°.


d. 180°.

Very-high frequency omnirange (VOR) aural (station identification) signals are transmitted

a. continuously.


b. at 20-second intervals.


c. at 30-second intervals.


d. at specified time intervals.

At a distance of 10 miles from the transmitter the instrument landing system (ILS) localizercourse width is approximately

a. 1800 feet.


b. 2800 feet.


c. 3600 feet.


d. 4600 feet.

What frequency band is used to transmit instrument landing system (ILS) glide slopeinformation?

a. LF.


b. HF.


c. UHF.


d. VHF.

All of the following are indicating parts of the radio magnetic indicator except a

a. miles window.


b. rotating compass card.


c. number one, single bar.


d. number two, double bar.

When an instrument landing system (ILS) frequency is selected, the ARN–127 receiver parksthe horizontal situation indicator (HSI) bearing pointer at the

a. 3 o’clock position.


b. 4 o’clock position.


c. 6 o’clock position.


d. 10 o’clock position.

When an instrument landing system (ILS) frequency is selected, the ARN–147 receiver parksthe horizontal situation indicator (HSI) bearing pointer at the

a. 3 o’clock position.


b. 4 o’clock position.


c. 6 o’clock position.


d. 9 o’clock position.

In glide slope, each deviation dot on the attitude director indicator (ADI) glide slope indicatorrepresents

a. 0.3° deviation.


b. 0.5° deviation.


c. 0.6° deviation.


d. 1.25° deviation.

If an aircraft is flying inbound on the 90° radial of a very-high frequency (VHF) omnirange(VOR) station, what will the outbound radial be when the aircraft passes the station?

a. 90° radial.


b. 180° radial.


c. 270° radial.


d. 360° radial.

Which radial will the aircraft be positioned on if the aircraft is located north of the very-highfrequency (VHF) omnirange (VOR) station?

a. 270°.


b. 180°.


c. 090°.


d. 000°.

Magnetic bearing to the very-high frequency (VHF) omnirange (VOR) station is 75°. In order toget a FROM flag in view on the horizontal situation indicator (HIS), manually set the selected courseto

a. 75°.


b. 150°.


c. 210°.


d. 360°.

During instrument landing system (ILS) operation, a full-scale deflection of the horizontalsituation indicator (HSI) vertical needle indicates the aircraft is off course by

a. 0.3°.


b. 0.6°.


c. 1.25°.


d. 2.5°.

In instrument landing system (ILS) operation, if the pilot’s attitude director indicator banksteering bar deflects to the left, what direction must the pilot fly to get the aircraft back on the runwaycenterline?

a. Fly up.


b. Fly left.


c. Fly right.


d. Fly down.

In instrument landing system (ILS) operation, a deflection of two dots on the attitude directorindicator (ADI) glide slope deviation scale indicates that the aircraft is off the glide path by

a. 0.25°.


b. 0.6°.


c. 2.5°.


d. 6.0°.

When the instrument landing system (ILS) marker beacon amber (orange) lamp illuminates, thepilot hears a

a. 400-Hz tone.


b. 3,000-Hz tone.


c. 1,000-Hz tone.


d. 1,300-Hz tone.

The ARN–147 receiver is divided into how many different receivers?

a. 1.


b. 2.


c. 3.


d. 4.

The ARN–147 very-high frequency (VHF) omnirange (VOR)/localizer receiver can receive andprocess signals between 108.00 to 117.95 MHz spaced 50 MHz apart, providing

a. 100 VHF omnirange channels and 100 localizer channels.


b. 120 VHF omnirange channels and 80 localizer channels.


c. 140 VHF omnirange channels and 60 localizer channels.


d. 160 VHF omnirange channels and 40 localizer channels.

The AN/ARN–147 glide slope receiver processes frequencies ranging from

a. 329.15 to 335.00 MHz.


b. 319.15 to 325.00 MHz.


c. 108.00 to 117.95 MHz.


d. 108.01 to 111.50 MHz.

The AN/ARN–147 system uses how many separate antennas?

a. 3.


b. 4.


c. 5.

Which system is used to determine if an aircraft is friend or foe?

a. TACAN.


b. RADAR.


c. ADF.


d. IFF.

The ground radar and the identification, friend or foe (IFF) interrogator transmissions aresynchronized so that the radar returns can be

a. displayed on a separate plan position indicator (PPI).


b. displayed on the PPI independent of the IFF reply.


c. displayed on the PPI together with the IFF reply.


d. used to display altitude information.

When your aircraft AIMS is replying to interrogations with personal identification (militaryonly), then it is using what mode?

a. Mode 1.


b. Mode 2.


c. Mode 3/A.


d. Mode 4.

The identification, friend or foe (IFF) mode 4 interrogation consists of

a. two 0.5-microsecond pulses, spaced 2 microseconds apart.


b. two 0.8-microsecond pulses, spaced 21 microseconds apart.


c. four 0.5-microsecond pulses, spaced 2 microseconds apart.


d. four 0.8-microsecond pulses, spaced 21 microseconds apart.

In order for the identification, friend or foe (IFF) system to sense side lobe interrogations, theinterrogating station will transmit a

a. P1 pulse 2 microseconds after the first interrogation pulse.


b. P2 pulse 2 microseconds after the first interrogation pulse.


c. P1 pulse 6 microseconds before the first interrogation pulse.


d. P2 pulse 6 microseconds before the first interrogation pulse.

The identification, friend or foe (IFF) information pulses used for mode 1 replies are

a. A1, A2, A3, B1, and B4.


b. A1, A2, A4, B1, and B2.


c. A1, A4, B1, B4, and C1.


d. A1, B1, B2, B4, and C1.

The maximum number of identification, friend or foe (IFF) reply codes that can be selected inmode 1 is

a. 32.


b. 73.


c. 77.


d. 1064.

To prevent accidental switching, the identification, friend or foe (IFF) control box master switchmust be pulled out before being turned to

a. STBY or OFF.


b. STBY or NORM.


c. EMER or OFF.


d. EMER or NORM.

When the IDENT-OUT-MIC switch is in the MIC position, identification, friend or foe (IFF)identification of position (I/P) replies are triggered every time the

a. HF radio is keyed.


b. LHF radio is keyed.


c. UHF radio is keyed.


d. VHF radio is keyed.

Which position of the identification, friend or foe (IFF) mode 4 code selection switch is springloaded?

a. a.


b. b.


c. Zero.


d. Hold.

What is the function of the identification, friend or foe (IFF) antenna switching unit?

a. Provides for altitude sensing.


b. Allows the system to go from operate to test.


c. Provides switching of the system from transmit to receive.


d. Provides switching between the bottom and the top antennas.

The altitude-encoder provides the identification, friend or foe (IFF) transponder pressurealtitude encoded in

a. 50-foot increments.


b. 100-foot increments.


c. 200-foot increments.


d. 500-foot increments

Illuminating of which monitor light on the front of the identification, friend or foe (IFF) receivertransmitter (RT) indicates satisfactory operation of the local oscillator mixer circuits?

a. CODER.


b. REC VID.


c. XTAL CUR.


d. XMTR OSC.

How many complete reply trains for identification of position (I/P) operation are generated bythe coding circuits when the identification, friend or foe (IFF) system’s I/P control circuits areenabled?

a. 1.


b. 2.


c. 3.


d. 4.

Mode IV identification, friend or foe (IFF) code settings can be retained by momentarily placingthe MODE 4 CODE switch in the spring-loaded HOLD position and maintaining aircraft power for atleast how long after selecting HOLD?

a. 5 seconds.


b. 8 seconds.


c. 10 seconds.


d. 15 seconds.

Which of the following is not an advantage of an active on board collision avoidance system?

a. Works anywhere in the world.


b. Relies on local radar to generate transponder replies.


c. Has an onboard system that queries local transponders for replies.


d. Creates images of the local traffic for display on multifunction displays.

The Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) surveys valid transponder trafficthat is approximately

a. 15 to 40 NMs forward, 5 to 15 NMs aft, and 10 to 20 NMs on both sides of an aircraft.


b. 15 to 40 NMs forward, 10 to 20 NMs aft, and 5 to 15 NMs on both sides of an aircraft.


c. 10 to 40 NMs forward, 5 to 15 NMs aft, and 10 to 20 NMs on both sides of an aircraft.


d. 10 to 20 NMs forward, 5 to 15 NMs aft, and 10 to 40 NMs on both sides of an aircraft.

Which of the following in not considered a critical calculation made by the Traffic Alert andCollision Avoidance System (TCAS)?

a. Range.


b. Speed.


c. Bearing.


d. Altitude.

If a yellow circle is displayed on theTtraffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS)resoultion advisory/vertical speed indicator, then the intruder aircraft is

a. within 25 seconds closest point of approach (CPA).


b. within 35 seconds CPA.


c. within 48 seconds CPA.


d. within 58 seconds CPA.

If the aircraft pilot is given a Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) resolutionadvisory of “increase climb, increase climb”, then the pilot should maneuver the aircraft to a

a. +1000 feet per minute (fpm) climb.


b. +1500 fpm climb.


c. +2000 fpm climb.


d. +2500 fpm climb.

What advisories are be generated if an intruder aircraft is operating a non-altitude reportingtransponder?

a. Traffic advisories.


b. Resolution advisories.


c. Degraded traffic advisories.


d. Degraded traffic and resolution advisories.

What is the purpose of the mode S Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS)function?

a. Track all TCAS equipped aircraft.


b. Develop TCAS symbology for traffic advisories.


c. Establish resolution advisories based on intruding aircraft position.


d. Establish and track aircraft identification and characteristics addresses.

Which of the following is not a resolution advisory?

a. Corrective.


b. Preventive.


c. Change to current advisory.


d. Change to previous advisory.