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123 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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In 2009 intercontinental ballistic missile forces were broken away from the Air Force Space Command with the standup of |
Air Force global strike command |
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What organization launches satellites into Polar orbit |
30th space wing |
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Defense satellite communications system control is the responsibility of |
50th space wing |
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What installation was originally activated as camp cooke in 1941 and provided infantry and armor training |
Vandenberg Air Force base, California |
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What organization leads the air force evolved expendable launch vehicle program on the west coast |
4th space launch sqaudron |
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What installation is the administrative hub of the 45th space wing |
Patrick afb, Florida |
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At what cape Canaveral air force station space launch complex does preparation and launch of the atlas 5 launch vehicle occur |
Slc -37 |
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What organization maintains the only department of defence spacecraft processing facility capable of placing spacecraft into Geo synchronous orbit |
45th LSS |
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What Atlas 5 major assembly provides attachments for up to 5 strap on solid rocket boosters is |
Common core booster |
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What fuel is in the 2 propellant tanks of the Atlas 5 common core booster |
Rp-1 and liquid oxygen |
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For the Atlas 5 what major assembly provides the proportion, guidance, and control capability to place spacecraft into selected orbits |
Centaur upper stage |
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The Atlas 5 payload adapter connects the payload to the standard interface plain located at the top of the centaur |
Forward adapter |
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What structure erects the Atlas 5 and centaur And mates the encapsulated spacecraft to the launch vehicle |
Mobile service tower |
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What Atlas 5 structure provides support for lightning mast that provides a 45ﾟ cone of protection |
Umbilical tower |
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What Atlas 5 structure provides a ramp up for moving the Atlas, centaur, and spacecraft into position to be erected |
Launch support building |
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What structure contains 3 retractable launch heads to hold the Atlas 5 launch vehicle |
Fixed launch platform |
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The Delta 4 is primarily designed to satisfy requirements of |
The United States military |
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A typical Delta 4 1st stage contains one common booster core. how many common booster cores are used on the Delta 4 heavy variant |
3 |
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What fuel does the Delta 4 2nd stage Rl-10b2 rocket engine burn |
Liquid hydrogen |
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What provides acoustic, radio frequency, and static protection for the spacecraft atop the Delta 4 launch vehicle |
Payload fairing |
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In order to provide an environmental Enclosure for the Delta 4 launch vehicle, the mobile assembly shelter meets the |
The fixed umbilical tower and the mobile service tower |
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During a launch, how quickly do the swing arms of the Delta 4 Fixed umbilical tower retract |
Less then 12 seconds |
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What powers the elevating platform transporter in the Delta 4 horizontal integration facility where precise movements are important |
Diesel engines |
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What is the purpose of navigation satellites |
Provide pinpoint weapon system accuracy |
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A research satellite is used to |
Determine patterns and frequencies of solar events |
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What space craft electrical system power source is used only on lengthy missions or at great distances from the Sun |
Nuclear |
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What type of spacecraft thermal control is considered an active thermal control |
Electric heater |
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What type of spacecraft propulsion uses electrical energy to heat A gaseous propellant |
Electro thermal system |
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What is considered spacecraft telemetry data |
Astronomical data |
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Where is the Air Force research laboratory headquarter |
Wright Patterson Air Force base, Ohio |
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What Air Force research laboratory directorate finds new ways to strike the enemy |
Air vehicles |
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What Air Force research laboratory works on new technologies to find And engage the enemy and eliminate their ability to hide or threaten our forces |
Sensors |
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The Air Force research laboratory space vehicles directorate it conducts what type of flight experiments |
Satellites |
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The Air Force operational test and evaluation center reports to |
Headquarters, United States Air Force |
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Air Force operational test and evaluation center tests are conducted by |
Operational personnel |
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Air Force policy directives cannot be supplemented by subordinate units because |
The secretary of the Air Force is the only approval authority |
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How long do Air Force policy memorandums expire after publication |
180 days |
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What is the purpose of a permanent visual aid |
Explain or instruct |
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What statement about doctrine documents is true |
They are broad in nature and require judgment in applying them |
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You should reference the Air Force publishing website for publications instead of relying on paper copies because |
The website maintains the most current version |
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What is the quickest, easiest method of finding a technical order if you do not have the TO number |
Look it up in an index type TO |
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What information does a inspection work card contain |
Specific pass or fail criteria |
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What happens when an urgent time compliance technical order is not completed within its set time limit |
The equipment or item must be removed from service |
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Before a preliminary technical order can be used for maintenance on the weapon system, it must |
Have its procedures verified with oversight from the technical content manager |
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What determines how a technical order will be numbered |
The 1st set of numbers/letters that identify the category |
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What information is located in the bottom right hand corner of a technical orders title page |
Latest change number and when it was changed |
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Which section of the technical order contains a variety of general procedures common throughout the TO |
Introduction |
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Which chapter of the technical order can a technician used to determine a specific chemical required for completing a procedures |
Special tools and test equipment |
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When is a technician authorized to use technical order diagrams for troubleshoot |
When using check out or trouble analysis procedures |
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Before submitting an Air Force technical order form 22, you supervisor needs to review and approve it in order to |
Ensure it is a valid recommendation |
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What action must a technical content manager take upon receipt of an emergency technical order improvement report |
Issue a rapid action change within 48 hours |
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After a routine TO improvement report is received by the technical content manager the technical order of date is generally published |
Within one year |
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More than one correction can be submitted on a technical order improvement when |
The error occurs more than once in the same TO |
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Civil engineering manual improvement reports are not submitted for |
Changing a master change log |
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Who is the final approval authority for all Air Force global command |
Missile engineer squadron |
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When a civil engineering manual change is authorized for interim use, who must provide final approval |
Maintenance group commander and base civil engineer |
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When an emergency civil engineering manual improvement report is submitted, changes need to be made to Alleviate the issue within |
Thirty days |
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An organization receiving equipment from the air logistics center must |
Accomplish an acceptance inspection on all items |
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Which deficiency report classification would be appropriate if the reported defect is likely to result in a hazardous condition |
Critical |
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What type of deficiency is assigned when a component or equipment is installed and fails right away or within its warranty service. |
Quality |
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What step in the deficiency reporting process reviews deficiency reports for proper categorization, validity, correctness of entries, and accuracy |
Screening point |
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Which of the following is not an objective of the Integrated maintenance data system |
Eliminate and/or reduce maintenance related accident reporting |
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What integrated maintenance data system function allows the user to view historical data |
Background retrievals |
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What integrated maintenance data system subsystem allows the user to track maintenance actions and has both maintenance and supply data |
Maintenance events |
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What integrated maintenance data system operational event phase provides the capability for periodic reports of mission accomplishment |
Analysis phase |
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What integrated maintenance data system subsystem provides the capability to order parts for unscheduled discrepancies |
Base supply system interface |
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What role does headquarters, United States Air Force have in nuclear weapons related material |
Manage and publish the master NWRM listing |
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Who is responsible for developing a quality assurance program that focuses attention on nuclear weapons related material |
Group commanders |
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Nuclear weapons related material responsibility officers are responsible for |
Maintaining a list of NWRM components not installed in the weapon system |
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What statement about nuclear weapons related material semi annual inventories is true |
Packaged containers showing signs of tampering need to be opened |
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How often are those performing nuclear weapons related material related duties required to complete the nuclear weapons related material fundamentals course |
Every 12 months |
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Newly assigned personnel who handle electro static discharge sensitive items shall receive |
Initial ESD awareness and prevention training and annual refresher training |
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Prior to initial use, personnel must test their wrist straps for serviceability and log the date, |
Time, test results, and use your name for quality assurance purposes |
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Bare skin contact is required only when |
Installing conductive dust caps on an electronic drawer |
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What electro static discharge precautions shall be taken prior to removing a circuit board from inside the auxiliary alarm panel |
Roll sleeves up above the elbow |
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Which type of electro static discharge packaging is preferred |
Type 3 |
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Where should you begin your fault isolation troubleshooting in the technical order |
Fault index |
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What would you find in the upper left hand and right hand corners of the fault response figure |
Fault number |
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Which series of faults would be associated with the missile alert facility |
2000 |
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What column tells the technician to refer post maintenance requirements |
Results column |
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To make understanding system operation easier, diagrams are usually drawn with |
Power not applied and switches and contacts in the appropriate position |
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What statement best describes graphic symbols used on a diagram |
They do not necessarily represent a components physical appearance |
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Doing troubleshooting, a Wiring diagram can be a useful tool for a technician because it will |
Allow you to verify a component is wired properly |
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Using the correct technical reference to understand circuit operations is |
The most important step in circuit extraction |
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When tracing a circuit, consider it to be |
DE energized unless identified as energized |
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What should a replacement troubleshooting team verify before taking over the task |
Verify the system is returned to its operational configuration |
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Who can a technician contact to find out if a particular fault has occurred at the launch facility in the past |
Missile maintenance operations center because they can retrieve a fault history |
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Before working on the system you are troubleshooting, you must |
Review the applicable technical order before probing or making corrections |
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During the 3rd step of troubleshooting a technician must |
Use the technical order to perform a proportional check out only when power is removed |
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While troubleshooting, verifying if any recent maintenance activities have occurred on a system will help |
Locate the area to start probing actions |
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When the technical order does not clearly help alleviate a problem what can be the most difficult part of troubleshooting |
Locating the cause of the malfunction |
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Protected devices actuating and the circuit is inoperative are indications of a |
Direct short |
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What causes 2 or more independent circuits to operate from one control device |
Cross short |
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What short is occurring when switches are corroded together and a circuit continues to operate with the control device in the off position |
Shorted control |
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If a technician reads the same resistance at both ends of a diode, what has happened |
The diode is malfunction |
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What statement is most accurate in regards to testing a switch |
Power may be removed or applied |
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What are items or parts, of a minute man weapon system which If bypassed, activated, or tampered with could result in or contribute to deliberate or inadvertent authorizing, pre arming, or launching of a combat delivery vehicle that is carrying a nuclear weapon called |
Critical components |
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What special notation is used in technical orders other than 21m-LGM30F-12-1 |
NSP |
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A complete operational certification would be required |
If a decertified critical component is going to be connected to the weapon system |
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What action during a limited operational certification would not void a drawers certification |
Removing a circuit card to install a test accessibility device |
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Who makes the final determination if an operational certification failure is not the result of tampering |
The technical engineering team |
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When may the 2 person control be released on a critical component |
Once the critical component has been decertified |
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How many launch facilities and launch control centers are normally involved in a simulated electronic launch test for a minute man system |
6 LFs and 2 LCCs |
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What percentage of launch facility test sorties are normally simulated launched on the 1st day of a simulated electronic's launch test |
50% |
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At what launch facilities are test evaluation teams stationed during simulated elecktronicks launch minute man testing |
LF's where ordinance is activated |
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How many bays and subsystems make up the ground minute man automatic test station |
4 bays and 3 subsystems |
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What subsystem within the ground minute man automatic test station is used to measure and interpret data received from the unit under test |
Instrumentation group |
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What type of power does the generator room supply the 82 bench workbench |
120/208 VAC, 60 Hz and 400 Hz |
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What 82 bench component enables cooling air to be supplied to an electronic's drawer |
Holding fixture |
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Which of the following is not operational certified by the nuclear certification test station |
RMB 32 modules |
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The nuclear certified testation requires how many mobile work platforms |
2 |
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While on alert at the launch facility, the missile guidance set continuously |
Monitors and reports missile status to the LCF |
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What do the elastomer connector Shields protect the cable connectors in a missile guidance |
Radiation effects |
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What item mounted to the missile guidance set test sets mobile console assimbly has banana pin jacks that can be used to test the static random access memory battery voltage and current |
Test point panel |
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Which of the missile guided set test set components consist of devices that must be replaced, not repaired, if they become defective |
Certification test controller assembly |
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During the missile guidance set certification procedure, how many times can be certification be performed on the same MGS |
No more than 6 in a 24 hour period |
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The missile maintenance test set is used for offline testing of line replacement units related to |
Strategic automated command and control system equipment |
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What are the missile maintenance test set test stands normally equipped with that are identical to the line replaceable units installed at a launch control center |
Configuration items |
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Which component of the shielding enclosure has a honeycomb construction to provide emissions security integrity |
Air conditioning filters |
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Which type of when code processing system start up is from the system disk |
Normal |
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Which of the following components on the wing code process existed are in the red sensitive area |
Bays 5 and 6, and the CRT keyboard |
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What device would automatically dissipate if it were to be partially removed from its mounting location |
Mechanical code unit |
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What hardware certification verification equipment test is more user friendly |
Online diagnostics test |
