Volume 2

Front 1

Which system best describes the operating concept of Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)?

Back 1

As Event-Oriented

Front 2

Why must the database manager inform users when Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) online processing is going down?

Back 2

Because of batch programs that must be run

Front 3

What are the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) recovery procedures based on?

Back 3

length of downtime and volume of transactions

Front 4

Which database verification program requires the database to be down when the program is scheduled to run?

Back 4

Database management utility verify

Front 5

Which program is used to verify program NFS760 runs each week?

Back 5

NFSRU0

Front 6

When contacted by supply, which screen does the database manager (DBM) run for an annual standard reporting designator (SRD) reconciliation?

Back 6

Screen 126

Front 7

What is the Option for offline processing?

Back 7

Creating Input text files

Front 8

What are the two basic procedures for data recovery?

Back 8

Processing Pseudo remote and Manual Remote

Front 9

When should you Implement pseudo processing?

Back 9

When the system is unavailable for a long time

Front 10

What is the reason for establishing an alternate Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) processing site?

Back 10

To continuously report reliable and maintainable information system reportable job data documentation (JDD)

Front 11

When an Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) related advisory notice is sent out to the field, who determines the affected users at the base level?

Back 11

The Host database manager

Front 12

When a system advisory notice (SAN) is sent out, the extent of the system problem is?

Back 12

Air Force Wide

Front 13

Which document is used by the Field Assistance Service (FAS) to communicate with field agencies?

Back 13

Heads-Up messages (HUM)

Front 14

What does the Air Force Life Cycle Management Center (AFLCMC) send out to the field if a software problem is discovered when a system advisory notice (SAN) is delayed?

Back 14

Heads-Up Message (HUM)

Front 15

What is used to identify Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) database corrections and updates to Defense Enterprise Computing Center (DECC) and functional users worldwide?

Back 15

System Release

Front 16

When is a difficulty report (DIREP) in Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) used?

Back 16

When IMDS is NOT operating as designed

Front 17

Who has the responsibility for initializing the interactive communication interface (ICI) software package, via screen #891 for Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)?

Back 17

The Host database Manager (DBM)

Front 18

Which Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS) interface program creates RCS-376 records containing standard reporting designator (SRD) problems that are sent to REMIS?

Back 18

Table Validation Problem Reporting.

Front 19

Which type of Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) database errors cannot be created by Transaction Interface Package (TIP) users?

Back 19

Pointer errors

Front 20

When an Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) abnormal disk condition occur, what does the computer initiate?

Back 20

A rollback

Front 21

Which option within the Universal Data System Monitor (UDSMON) provides the current record, database key (DBK), and commands being performed?

Back 21

The DMR status of the individual run

Front 22

When do you send a copy of the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) database that contains the communications equipment to the Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS)

Back 22

After you correct all the errors identified by the program

Front 23

What is the expiration date of an Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) database save tape changed to, as the result of an aircraft mishap?

Back 23

Changed to 1year

Front 24

What must you immediately do in Mobility Air Force Logistics Command & Control (MAF LOG C2) if there is an aircraft mishap?

Back 24

Secure the aircraft record

Front 25

What are Physical pointers used in networked database for?

Back 25

To establish relationships between records

Front 26

What is the most distinguishing characteristics of a relational query language?

Back 26

Its non-procedural language

Front 27

What does the enterprise location code (ELC) contain?

Back 27

A unique database for each base

Front 28

What are the two divisions of the schema?:

Back 28

Identification and data

Front 29

Which section of the schema is used by the Data Management Routine (DMR) to locate records?

Back 29

The Set

Front 30

What enterprise location codes (ELC) does the Central Database (CDB) global roll-up areas use?

Back 30

Code: 0000

Front 31

Which clause in the record section of the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) schema defines the area where the records can be found?

Back 31

The Data Identifier

Front 32

What is the basic unit of input/output between the area files and the internal buffers in a database?

Back 32

Page

Front 33

When viewing the rectangle box on an Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) schematic, how is the area consisting of one schematic page is denoted?

Back 33

a whole number.

Front 34

Which is the main focus of a data model?

Back 34

Structure and organization of the data.

Front 35

When building a data model, how is all data required by the database represented?

Back 35

completely and accurately.

Front 36

Adding details to a data model includes adding what details?

Back 36

Adding data attributes, manipulation, and

integrity rules

Front 37

What are the two-dimensional structure of data values that form relations to one another in a relational database known as?

Back 37

A table

Front 38

In a relational database, what does an atomic value mean?

Back 38

Means that it is indivisible.

Front 39

What is a column or combination of columns in a relational table that uniquely identifies a row is called?

Back 39

A key

Front 40

Which type of key establishes the relationship with records in one table to records in another table?

Back 40

A Foreign key

Front 41

Which type of data relationship is represented when each row in a table is related to a single row in another table?

Back 41

A One-to-one relationship

Front 42

Which type of data relationship is it when multiple occurrences of one data element are related to one occurrence of another, and vice versa?

Back 42

A Many-to-many relationship

Front 43

Which data relationship are represented in a relational database?

Back 43

One-to-one

Three-to-one &

One-to-many

Front 44

Which type dependency is described by a relationship between fields such that the value in Field A determines the value in Field B, but there can only be one value in Field B?

Back 44

A Functional dependency

Front 45

Which functional dependency is it when the value in a non-key field is determined by the value of another non-key field?

Back 45

A Transitive dependency

Front 46

In the Relational Database Management System (RDMS), how many years of data can the historical tables store?

Back 46

Five Years of data

Front 47

Which table in the Relational Database Management System (RDMS) holds data supplied by the Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS)?

Back 47

The Reference Table

Front 48

In what order are the tables arranged within the Relational Database Management System (RDMS) schema?

Back 48

In Alphabetical Order

Front 49

Which table statement is used in Systems Query Language (SQL) to build relational tables?

Back 49

CREATE

Front 50

Why are Relational Database Management System (RDMS) tables indexed?

Back 50

For faster search and retrieval

Front 51

In the Relational Database Management System (RDMS) schema diagram, how are the tables in an area drawn?

Back 51

Drawn in boxes

Front 52

In the Relational Database Management System (RDMS) schema diagram, a solid arrow line between two tables points to the table with what?

Back 52

A defined foreign key

Front 53

In the Relational Database Management System (RDMS) schema diagram, what does a broken arrow between two tables means?

Back 53

a foreign key exists but is not defined

Front 54

How many access levels does the transaction identifier code (TRIC) have?

Back 54

Two

Front 55

What does the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) master profile Generic_User_Profile contain?

Back 55

The basic TRICs that all users need.

Front 56

What does the allowed enterprise location codes (ELC) concept gives the ELC database managers (DBM) the ability to do?

Back 56

Allow another Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) user from another base access to their database

Front 57

What is the adding or subtracting of a transaction interface code (TRIC) with its respective options and sub-options out of a loaded profile on an individual is known as?

Back 57

Known as DELTA.

Front 58

Which is the only option available to the local database manager (DBM) when the master transaction maintenance program (screen 635) updates the Master_transaction tables?

Back 58

Inquiry Option

Front 59

Which screen is part of the master profile program whose main objective is to copy or merge master profiles to speed up the process creating master profiles?

Back 59

Screen 871.

Front 60

Up to how many user-identifications (user ID) can the enterprise location codes (ELC) Profile Manager By Profile ID program load to a single master profile?

Back 60

25 user-identifications (user ID)

Front 61

Who does the Site management (SIMAN) establishes and defines user-identifications (User-ID) for Demand, Batch, and Transaction Interface Package (TIP) for?

Back 61

Users of the entire mainframe.

Front 62

What are the two modes of operation for Site Management (SIMAN)?

Back 62

Screen and batch

Front 63

Which site management (SIMAN) mode is especially effective for making precise entries or for use by less experienced database managers (DBM)?

Back 63

Screen Mode.

Front 64

Which command in Site management (SIMAN) is used to update screens in screen mode?

Back 64

COMMIT command

Front 65

Which words in a Query Language Processor (QLP) syntax skeleton are mandatory if they are underlined?

Back 65

Uppercase words

Front 66

Which character do you use at the end of a Query Language Processor (QLP) statement when you want to continue the command to the next line?

Back 66

Semicolon (;).

Front 67

In what mode only can Query Language Processor (QLP) be initialized online?

Back 67

DEMAND mode

Front 68

What does the Query Language Processor (QLP) statement "INVOKE FS-QLP–8821 DMS*CAMSDBG–7R1" mean you want QLP to do?

Back 68

To access the database of ELC 8821.

Front 69

When more than one INVOKE statement is entered in one session, what does the second or subsequent INVOKE statement do?

Back 69

Automatically overrides the previous INVOKE statement

Front 70

Which Query Language Processor (QLP) clause allows you to specify only portions of a data item as the selection criteria?

Back 70

MASK clause

Front 71

How do you invoke a Query Language Processor (QLP) MACRO that you have previously defined and saved?

Back 71

By using its name

Front 72

What command invokes the Query Language Processor (QLP) procedures?

Back 72

the CALL command

Front 73

Where do you correct syntax errors of a Query Language Processor (QLP) procedure?

Back 73

EDIT mode

Front 74

When printing a Query Language Processor (QLP) output, which command is used to activate a side-by printer?

Back 74

@@PRNT

Front 75

Which Query Language Processor (QLP) clause defines the explicit attributes of a derived name?

Back 75

DECLARE clause

Front 76

Which Query Language Processor (QLP) clause allows the user to create a cover page for a report?

Back 76

MESSAGE clause

Front 77

When you choose to generate a summary report in Query Language Processor (QLP), which clause is disregarded?

Back 77

LINE clause

Front 78

What is the proper format for listing line numbers 1100 through 2250 of a Query Language Processor (QLP) retrieval?

Back 78

LIST 1100,2250

Front 79

When you edit an existing Query Language Processor (QLP) report and then select the LEAVE-EDIT mode, what do you only make changes to?

Back 79

the source version

Front 80

The Universal data system monitor (UDSMON) provides for an integrated software environment for control data and maintenance of

Back 80

user database.

Front 81

Which save file is automatically assigned to Query Language Processor (QLP) when the INVOKE command is processed?

Back 81

Permanent.

Front 82

Which Query Language Processor (QLP) save file command is used to list all or specific entities?

Back 82

PRINT command

Front 83

In which mode can the Query Language Processor (QLP) COMPILE command not be used?

Back 83

EDIT mode

Front 84

In Structured Query Language (SQL), which clause completes the SELECT statement?

Back 84

FROM clause

Front 85

In Structured Query Language (SQL), which do you normally enter in the select list of a SELECT statement?

Back 85

Column names.

Front 86

In a Query Language Processor (QLP) report, how does the QLP recognize that the SELECT clause being used applies to the Relational Database Management System (RDMS) relational tables?

Back 86

By Invoking the RDMS environment

Front 87

Which command is used to disconnect from the Relational Database Management System (RDMS–2200) and end the IPF SQL session?

Back 87

‘SQL END THREAD'

Front 88

How does IMDS automate maintenance data collection and maintenance work order systems?

Back 88

Through online remote terminals connected to the SBLC system throughout the maintenance complexes

Front 89

What are the three general functions IMDS performs?

Back 89

(1) Updates the database;

(2) Retrieves information from the database for local use;

(3) Reports data required by higher headquarters.

Front 90

Explain the concept of an event-oriented system.

Back 90

Data is entered to update the database as a result of an activity that occurred in the maintenance environment. Retrieval of information from the database is dictated by the needs of the functional user.

Front 91

What does the DBM develop if there are batch programs to run on a regular basis?

Back 91

A schedule.

Front 92

Why must the DECC and the DBM devote special attention to both scheduled and unscheduled maintenance?

Back 92

To ensure uninterrupted flow of information to functional users (the customer).

.

Front 93

What is considered the best way to ensure your users are notified of system nonavailability?

Back 93

By developing and implementing a checklist.

Front 94

Who determines the method of system recovery based on length of downtime?

Back 94

The host DBM

Front 95

What do you do if the system is to be down for more than four hours?

Back 95

Notify the DECC (the system monitor) to save the IMDS database before shutdown.

Front 96

What two programs are used to identify and isolate database errors?

Back 96

NDA500 and DMU verify.

Front 97

What program allows you to browse through the database?

Back 97

DBE.

Front 98

What are the two retrieval language programs used to extract data from the database?

Back 98

QLP and IQU.

Front 99

When do you run the monthly WAH program?

Back 99

On or about the first working day of each month

Front 100

What two tasks must the host DBM ensure have been accomplished prior to executing the WAH?

Back 100

The database has been saved and units processed all require MPR load, change, and delete options.

Front 101

When do you use the work-hour update?

Back 101

When the man-hours previously input were incorrect or a special requirement exists where AF Reserve or Air National Guard units require more hours than are automatically assigned for the current month.

Front 102

Which IMDS program deletes JDD history?

Back 102

NFS760, TRIC SHM, JDD delete history.

Front 103

How often does JDD delete history run?

Back 103

Every Wednesday.

Front 104

How many days of history does TRIC: SHM retain on the database?

Back 104

No more than 92 days.

.

Front 105

Which program is used to transfer equipment records from one ELC to another ELC?

Back 105

NFS7U0, TRIC TBE.

Front 106

What are the three options for program NFS7U0?

Back 106

Check, transfer and "JST" card.

Front 107

How often are supply personnel required to conduct SRD verification?

Back 107

Annually.

Front 108

What screen does the DBM process for supply during SRD verification?

Back 108

Screen 126

Front 109

What are the basic procedures for processing transactions during system downtime?

Back 109

(a) Have the users use hard copies of IMDS screens to record data.

(b) Create a text file.

(c) Create manual forms.

Front 110

When would you implement manual remote processing?

Back 110

When the system is unavailable for only a short period of time and only when a relatively few transactions require processing.

Front 111

When would you implement pseudo remote processing?

Back 111

When the system is unavailable for a long period of time, or if you need to process a large amount of transactions.

Front 112

What type of facilities can be used for contingency processing?

Back 112

The alternate site can be another nearby military base, an auxiliary field, an off-station tenant, or government organization

Front 113

What do you use to establish communication between the alternate site and the DECC?

Back 113

Defense Data Network

Front 114

Why do you need an alternate IMDS processing site?

Back 114

For the continuous reporting of REMIS-reportable JDD.

Front 115

What is an advisory notice?

Back 115

A timely communication used by AFLCMC to provide DECC and functional users with the necessary interim guidance and procedures required for continued system operation or to inform the users that continued system operation is not possible until needed corrections are received.

Front 116

Upon receipt of an advisory notice, what action would the host DBM take?

Back 116

Determines who is affected and what action a user must take.

Front 117

What is the primary purpose of advisory notices?

Back 117

To provide functional users with technical solutions, interim guidance, and procedures for continued system operation and heads-up information

Front 118

How does the FAS use a HUM?

Back 118

As a tool to communicate with field agencies..

Front 119

What is the purpose of a system release?

Back 119

To identify changes, corrections, and updates for IMDS to all DECCs and functional users worldwide

Front 120

When is a difficulty report used?

Back 120

When IMDS does not operate as designed.

Front 121

Who initiates the submission of the DIREP?

Back 121

The IMDS functional manager

Front 122

What are the three stages a DIREP goes through at the IMDS functional section?

Back 122

Initial review, evaluation, and validation.

Front 123

How can an IMDS user add or change the capabilities of IMDS?

Back 123

Submit an ITSRD through the host DBM

Front 124

What does ICI provide to IMDS and supply system users?

Back 124

Message routing, recovery, and utility functions.

Front 125

Who is responsible for initiating ICI software for IMDS and supply system users?

Back 125

Host DBM.

Front 126

What screen is used to initiate ICI?

Back 126

Screen 891.

Front 127

What is the difference between KFS and KRE files?

Back 127

IMDS data files that go to REMIS are known as KFS files; REMIS data files that go to IMDS are known as KRE files.

Front 128

What is the difference between a system and program failure?

Back 128

System failure is when the mainframe computer goes down and communication to the computer is lost. Program failure is when a program does not successfully reach completion and error messages are displayed.

Front 129

How do you restart an online program when the database is restored after a system failure?

Back 129

It is restarted automatically once the database is restored by the DMR. No input action is required by the user

Front 130

What does it mean when an unrecoverable error occurs while the system is running a batch program?

Back 130

This condition occurs when a program can no longer process.

Front 131

How does a user know when a data error may exist?

Back 131

By a TRIC inquiry or background report output that displays the wrong information.

Front 132

What type of users cannot create pointer errors?

Back 132

TIP users (other than the DBM).

Front 133

Where do logical errors usually occur?

Back 133

In manual sets.

Front 134

What is meant by a RB?

Back 134

A rollback erases the effects of input. The DMR would return the database to its previous condition prior to the offending input.

Front 135

Where would you find detailed explanations of the codes associated with an abnormal disk condition?

Back 135

AFCSM 21–571, volume 2, attachment 2.

Front 136

What is RB error code 02 and what corrective action would you first try for an RB code 02?

Back 136

Essentially, it is a deadlock between run units; in other words, two inputs tried to access the same data at the same time and deadlocked between each other. The user needs to retransmit the input to correct this condition.

Front 137

What error code is used in conjunction with the function code to assist in analyzing an abnormal disk condition?

Back 137

The DMR error code.

Front 138

When you encounter an abnormal disk condition that you are unsure how to correct, to whom do you turn to for assistance?

Back 138

Your supervisor, your host database manager, your system monitor, or the FAS at AFMC AFLCMC/HICS.

Front 139

What type of centralized functions does the UDSMON provide?

Back 139

Thread control, locking and queuing, system table control (like file description tables), database I/O, cache, storage management, and data recovery.

Front 140

What option tells you what database files and schemas are being used?

Back 140

File usage information.

Front 141

What option of the UDSMON provides the current records, DBK, and command being performed?

Back 141

DMR status of individual run.

Front 142

What are the three functions of TRIC: RIS?

Back 142

(1) Identifies and/or corrects communication status and inventory problems in IMDS.

(2) Reconciles the IMDS and REMID databases.

(3) Deletes and clears all REMIS errors on the IMDS database.

Front 143

What kind of communication equipment is processed by TRIC: RIS?

Back 143

REMIS reportable equipment.

Front 144

When do you send a copy of the IMDS database containing communication equipment to REMIS?

Back 144

When all errors are corrected.

Front 145

In IMDS, what are the five major steps you need to accomplish if there is an aircraft mishap?

Back 145

(1) Secure the database;

(2) Run a database save;

(3) Get specific aircraft details;

(4) Run reports and inquiries;

(5) Allow users back into the database

Front 146

What do you immediately do when you are notified of a mishap?

Back 146

Place IMDS in FUD mode and enter the User IDs of personnel allowed to process transactions while the system is in FUD.

Front 147

How long do you request the database save tape expiration date be changed to after an aircraft mishap?

Back 147

One year.

Front 148

For a mishap, how do MAF LOG C2 and IMDS differ in the way their records are secured?

Back 148

MAF LOG C2 locks the aircraft records and IMDS secures the entire database.

Front 149

What are the four major steps to accomplish if there is an aircraft mishap?

Back 149

(a) Get specific aircraft details;

(b) Lock the aircraft records;

(c) Run history reports;

(d) Unlock the aircraft records.

Front 150

What screen is used to LOCK and UNLOCK aircraft records?

Back 150

9012.

Front 151

Who gives the approval to UNLOCK aircraft records?

Back 151

The maintenance group commander.

Front 152

What is the schema?

Back 152

As a separate entity from a database file, it describes the exact physical layout of every record in the database. It also describes the logical relationship between each record.

Front 153

What are the four sections of the data division within the schema and what are their purposes?

Back 153

(1) Data name section—defines any data items used throughout the schema

(2) Area section—contains information about each area in the database.

(3) Record section—describes the records to be placed in each area.

(4) Set section—used by the DMR to locate records or chain them into various set occurrences; an application program to locate a record via the linkage may use the set name.

Front 154

What does the subschema do?

Back 154

Describes how different users view the database

Front 155

What is DDL?

Back 155

A high-level computer schema language used to design and create schemas, and is independent of any programming language.

Front 156

When reading the area section of the subschema, what does sizing information mean?

Back 156

Number of pages allocated and the size of each page.

Front 157

What do the last four characters in the area name represent?

Back 157

The ELC.

Front 158

How many roll-up areas are there in the 7R1 DMS schema?

Back 158

Two

Front 159

What purpose does the record section of the subschema serve?

Back 159

Defines every record in the database.

Front 160

What is defined in the set section of the subschema?

Back 160

Every set in the database and every set user in the database.

Front 161

What is the highest subdivision of a database?

Back 161

An area.

Front 162

What is a page?

Back 162

Subdivision of an area.

Front 163

What are the three parts of a DBK?

Back 163

Area code, page number, and record number.

Front 164

What is the difference between a DBP and DBK?

Back 164

A DBP represents the relative position of a record on a page and a DBK represents the absolute location of that record

Front 165

What is a record placement strategy?

Back 165

A method for storing and accessing a record for each type.

Front 166

What are the three types of records based on the record placement strategy?

Back 166

Direct, CALC, and via set.

Front 167

How are direct records accessed?

Back 167

By the DBK.

Front 168

What type of records can be accessed using key data elements identified in the schema?

Back 168

CALC records.

Front 169

The majority of the IMDS database is comprised of what type of records?

Back 169

Via set.

Front 170

What are the owner/member record relationships?

Back 170

Owner records are at the highest level of a set with member records linked at a lower level to their respective owner. In order for a record to be an owner there must be records below it

Front 171

Describe one-way circular linkage.

Back 171

The owner points to the first member of the chain, and that record points to the next, and so on; the last member points back to the owner.

Front 172

What is meant by linked prior?

Back 172

Where every record of a set also points to the record that precedes it.

Front 173

Describe the record placement method first.

Back 173

It places the newest record closest to the owner.

Front 174

What is meant by automatic set participation?

Back 174

Member/owner linkage is established by the system when a record is created in the database

Front 175

What kind of structure does the database diagram describe?

Back 175

Logical

Front 176

How are off page connectors from another area reflected on a system schematic?

Back 176

With an arrow pointing from a circled number to a record.

Front 177

How are off page connectors to another area reflected on a system schematic?

Back 177

With an arrow pointing to a circled number

Front 178

What does a rectangle box represent on a system schematic?

Back 178

Record

Front 179

What does the online schema diagram depict?

Back 179

7R1 DMS and RDMS schema.

Front 180

What is a data model?

Back 180

To define relational tables, primary and foreign keys, and procedures for manipulating the stored data.

Front 181

What is the purpose of data model?

Back 181

The logical and physical structure of one or more databases to accommodate the information needs of the user in an organization for a defined set of applications

Front 182

Define database design.

Back 182

The planning and requirements analysis

Front 183

What is the first step in building an effective data model?

Back 183

Determine the following:

(1) Data requirements of the database in terms of raw data elements.

(2) Classification and description of these elements.

(3) Relationships among the objects.

(4) Types of transactions performed on the elements.

(5) Rules governing data integrity.

Front 184

What should a requirements analysis determine?

Back 184

Vertical columns and horizontal rows.

Front 185

What are the two dimensions that make up the structure of a relational table?

Back 185

The intersection of a column and a row is a data item. The specific value of a data item is a data value.

Front 186

What is the difference between a data item and a data value?

Back 186

Parent table.

Front 187

Where does a foreign key relate a table to?

Back 187

An association between two or more data items or relational tables.

Front 188

What is a data relationship?

Back 188

A data relationship is defined with a name, whether it is optional or mandatory, and a degree (how many)

Front 189

What two elements define a data relationship?

Back 189

One-to-one, one-to many, and many-to-many.

Front 190

What are the three types of data relationships?

Back 190

Reduce the size of the database and increase the flexibility and performance of queries performed on the data.

Front 191

What are two advantages of using one-to-many relationships in a relational database?

Back 191

Because they cannot be represented in a relational database

Front 192

Why are many-to-many relationships not allowed to be used in a relational database?

Back 192

You must create a third table, called a linking table, to join the two tables together and create two one-to-many relationships.

Front 193

How do you resolve many-to-many relationships?

Back 193

Through the use of key fields

Front 194

How are the logical relationships in a relational database created and maintained?

Back 194

The properties are as follows:

(1) Every table in the database must have a unique name. No two tables within the same database may be named exactly the same.

(2) Values are atomic—Columns in a relational table are not repeating. This meets the first normal form (1NF). This is one of the cornerstones of a relational data model.

(3) Column values are of the same kind—This means the values in a column are from the same domain. In other words, columns only contain specific values, not other information such as comments, status flags, or data from a different scale (monthly versus weekly).

(4) Each row is unique—No two rows in a relational table are identical. At least one column of volumes must uniquely describe each row or record. See primary key above.

(5) Sequence of columns and rows is insignificant—Order of the columns or rows makes no difference. Allows user to share tables without regard to table organizations.

(6) Each column has a unique name—Columns must be referenced by name and not by position, such as in a spreadsheet. Column names need not be unique within the entire database, only in its table.

(7) A primary key field may not be null. Null is not the same as being equal to zero or blank. Both zero and blank are considered to be values. Null means that the value is equal to nothing.

Front 195

List the seven properties of relational tables

Back 195

To improve query performance and efficiency.

Front 196

Why do relational databases use indexed fields?

Back 196

Data will always be correct and precise, so that your database contains less redundant data, is more efficient, and is more adaptable to changing requirements.

Front 197

What are four advantages to data normalization?

Back 197

To create a set of relational tables that are free of redundant data and with records that can be easily queried and correctly updated, added, or deleted.

Front 198

What is the goal of data normalization?

Back 198

The rules are as follows:

(1) Values in each column of a table are atomic—no sets of values within a column.

(2) Eliminate repeating groups in individual tables.

(3) Create a separate table for each set of related data.

(4) Identify each set of related data with a primary key.

Front 199

Name the four rules for data normalization to 1NF

Back 199

A relationship between fields such that the value in Field A determines the value in Field B, and there can be only one value in Field B.

Front 200

Define functional dependency.

Back 200

It deals with relationships between composite key columns and non-key columns.

Front 201

What does 2NF deal with in regards to data relationships?

Back 201

3NF rules:

(1) Table must already be in 2NF.

(2) There must be no transitive dependencies

Front 202

Name the two rules for data normalization to 3NF.

Back 202

It eliminates redundant data, saves space, reduces data manipulation anomalies, and allows for faster more efficient queries.

Front 203

List the six categories of the 7R1 RDMS tables.

Back 203

(1) History.(2) AEF.(3) Portal.(4) Reference.(5) Security.(6) System Support.

Front 204

How many years of data can the historical tables hold?

Back 204

Up to five years.

Front 205

In what tables can you find REMIS supplied reference data?

Back 205

Reference tables.

Front 206

In what tables can you find information such as background runs and print products?

Back 206

System support tables.

Front 207

How are the tables in the RDMS schema arranged?

Back 207

Alphabetically.

Front 208

Who are the primary users of the table cross reference chart?

Back 208

SQL programmers.

Front 209

What SQL statement is used to build a relational table?

Back 209

CREATE TABLE.

Front 210

What type of keys do the primary index files store?

Back 210

Primary.

Front 211

Describe the two parts of a table box.

Back 211

Upper part contains the table name; lower part contains one or more primary keys.

Front 212

What does it mean when a solid arrow line connects two tables?

Back 212

Show that a defined foreign key relationship exists—from parent table to child table.

Front 213

How would you know if an implied foreign key exists?

Back 213

A broken arrow dotted line between the tables.

Front 214

What is another function of the table box on the area diagram?

Back 214

A hyperlink to the table schema

Front 215

What is a TRIC?

Back 215

A three-character code that the computer uses to determine the program or routine requested.

Front 216

What are the two levels of TRIC access?

Back 216

Main option and sub-option.

Front 217

On what is TRIC access based?

Back 217

A user’s role or job.

Front 218

What is the purpose of the program TRIC Security Inquiry, screen 896?

Back 218

This program inquires the Allowed_Profile and the User_Profile_Delta tables to see what access User IDs have been granted

Front 219

Describe the single sign-on capability.

Back 219

You have the capability to move from one ELC to another without signing off and signing back on.

Front 220

What does the master profile Generic_User_Profile have?

Back 220

The basic TRICs that all users need

Front 221

What are the two levels of operation in the central database?

Back 221

Enterprise and ELC

Front 222

What is the lowest level of profile administration?

Back 222

Unit DBM

Front 223

Explain briefly the allowed ELC concept.

Back 223

Gives DBMs the ability to allow a user from another base access to the DBMs’ database without having to be loaded in the database.

Front 224

What is a delta?

Back 224

The adding or subtracting of a TRIC with its respective options and sub-options out of a loaded profile on an individual.

Front 225

What does a green screen refer to regarding computer systems?

Back 225

Those systems still utilizing a text-based screen transaction using green text and black background screens

Front 226

What else is granted to allow users to run background programs even though their profile allows access to background TRICs?

Back 226

They will also have to have the “Can Generate Reports” switch set on screen 887 for a user on your database or screen 681 for an allowed ELC user.

Front 227

What IMDS screen number is known as the security subsystem menu?

Back 227

Screen 38.

Front 228

What is SIMAN?

Back 228

The primary security processor for the mainframe computers used at the DECC.

Front 229

When is the OMIT directive used?

Back 229

OMIT disregards all input made during the processing mode.

Front 230

What character option do you enter in screen mode to exit out of SIMAN?

Back 230

X

Front 231

What is used to string commands together?

Back 231

Commas.

Front 232

How do you process a run in batch mode of SIMAN?

Back 232

By using keywords.

Front 233

What is a database?

Back 233

A collection of interrelated data

Front 234

What are the basic structures of a network database?

Back 234

Records and sets.

Front 235

What are used to establish relationships between records in a network database?

Back 235

Physical pointers

Front 236

What kind of database is made of two-dimensional tables of data values?

Back 236

A relational database.

Front 237

What is the programming language used for building, retrieving, and updating a relational database?

Back 237

Structured Query Language (SQL).

Front 238

How many schemas does the IMDS central database have?

Back 238

One.

Front 239

What database structure does the roll-up area follow?

Back 239

The DMS database.

Front 240

Where are the reference data, security data, validation tables, and JDD history located?

Back 240

In the RDMS database

Front 241

What is a data model?

Back 241

A description of data structures that are required by a database.

Front 242

Define a character string.

Back 242

A set of continuous characters.

Front 243

What are the types of words used with QLP?

Back 243

Reserved and key words.

Front 244

What is alphanumeric literal?

Back 244

A character string enclosed by single quotes.

Front 245

What is a user defined term?

Back 245

A sequence of one or more words, literals, or combination of both that must be supplied by the user to satisfy the syntactical requirements of a QLP statement.

Front 246

What user-defined term identifies the occurrence of a data item?

Back 246

Data identifier.

Front 247

How would you write a picture clause for a numeric, 7-position data identifier?

Back 247

PIC IS 9(07).

Front 248

As used with QLP, what do verbs mean?

Back 248

Keywords that specify the action to be performed for a given clause

Front 249

Identify the relational operator in the following statement: LIST WHERE MPR-GRD = ‘007’

Back 249

Equal (=).

Front 250

What are Boolean operators?

Back 250

Key words that link relational operators in a logical sequence.

Front 251

What is a conditional qualifying expression?

Back 251

An expression that specifies the data conditions that must be met in order to retrieve or update data.

Front 252

How can a user determine the construction requirement of a QLP statement?

Back 252

By referencing the syntax skeleton

Front 253

What command initializes QLP?

Back 253

@QLP.

Front 254

What command stops the echoing?

Back 254

MODE IS NO ECHO.

Front 255

What command terminates a QLP session?

Back 255

EXIT.

Front 256

What information is obtained by using the COUNT command?

Back 256

A tally of data item occurrences.

Front 257

What information is obtained by using the LIST command?

Back 257

The contents of specific records, ranging from a single data item to an entire record.

Front 258

What conversational inquiry command makes your output more readable and presentable?

Back 258

LIST BY COLUMN

Front 259

What SORT command sorts numeric values from highest to lowest?

Back 259

SORT DESC.

Front 260

How would you write a MASK statement indicating that the fourth position of a five-digit literal is to be selected if it equals T?

Back 260

MASK ***-* = ‘T’ or MASK ***- = ‘T’.

Front 261

What command allows you to execute a previous action clause with a new WHERE clause?

Back 261

REPEAT.

Front 262

What command allows the selection criteria for the current command to be the same as that of the preceding command?

Back 262

WHERE SAME.

Front 263

What is the purpose of a macro?

Back 263

It allows you to reference a unique name that you defined with the macro anytime you want.

Front 264

What is the purpose of the MACRO clause?

Back 264

To tell the QLP that you plan to define a macro and give an entity name to the macro.

Front 265

What is the purpose of the END-MACRO clause?

Back 265

To tell the QLP you are finished with your macro definition.

Front 266

How are procedures invoked?

Back 266

With the CALL command.

Front 267

What are the first and last statements of a QLP procedure?

Back 267

PROCEDURE and END PROCEDURE.

Front 268

What command tells the terminal to echo an inquiry that comes to the screen to your side-by printer?

Back 268

@@PRNT.

Front 269

What statement directs an inquiry to print at the Enterprise Output Manager printer?

Back 269

OUTPUT TO DEVICE DP0069.

Front 270

What clause must appear first in a report definition?

Back 270

REPORT.

Front 271

What does the PAGE clause do?

Back 271

It enables the user to specify the length and width of a page in terms of lines and columns.

Front 272

What are the default margins?

Back 272

Four lines top and bottom; zero left and right margins.

Front 273

What clause specifies the beginning page number of a report?

Back 273

PAGE-COUNTER.

Front 274

What is the purpose of the SORT clause?

Back 274

To specify the order in which a report is to be presented.

Front 275

What statement contains the WHERE clause?

Back 275

SELECT.

Front 276

What is the purpose of the DEFAULT clause?

Back 276

Defines the attributes (type data and length of field) of a derived name that was not explicitly declared.

Front 277

What is the purpose of the DEFAULT clause?

Back 277

To define the explicit attributes of a derived name.

Front 278

What clause establishes a hierarchy for processing?

Back 278

CONTROLS.

Front 279

What clause enables the user to develop a cover page?

Back 279

MESSAGE.

Front 280

How would you write a statement requesting a double-spaced report?

Back 280

LINE PLUS 2.

Front 281

How many headings and footings are allowed for each data identifier or Boolean expression listed in the CONTROLS clause?

Back 281

Only one per data identifier

Front 282

What statement sets up the body of a report?

Back 282

DETAIL clause

Front 283

What clause must be the final clause in a report definition?

Back 283

END REPORT.

Front 284

If you do not specify DETAIL or SUMMARY, what is the system response?

Back 284

It assumes you want a DETAIL report.

Front 285

What clause allows you to specify where you want your report printed?

Back 285

The TO clause

Front 286

What does the DENSITY clause control?

Back 286

The number of lines per inch to be printed.

Front 287

In addition to the SELECT clause, what clause may you use to specify additional selection criteria?

Back 287

A WHERE clause.

Front 288

What does the EDIT feature do?

Back 288

Correct errors or modify an existing report.

Front 289

What is the function of the editing LIST command?

Back 289

To list the entire report or a particular line.

Front 290

How are line numbers deleted?

Back 290

By entering the line number and transmitting.

Front 291

What two commands do you use to call up line numbers?

Back 291

GO and LIST.

Front 292

What is the command to exit the edit mode?

Back 292

LEAVE-EDIT or LEA.

Front 293

What save file is erased when the user executes the exit command?

Back 293

Temporary.

Front 294

What save file may be established by the user?

Back 294

User.

Front 295

What savefile is automatically assigned?

Back 295

Permanent

Front 296

What does the PRINT command do?

Back 296

It lists the elements residing in a particular savefile

Front 297

What does the COPY command do?

Back 297

It allows the user to copy a savefile entity from a QLP savefile or an external file into QLP savefile.

Front 298

What does the SAVE command do?

Back 298

It copies a savefile, then purges it from the temporary savefile.

Front 299

What does the PURGE statement do?

Back 299

It allows the user to erase an entity from a savefile

Front 300

What does the COMPILE statement do?

Back 300

It translates an English definition into a language the computer understands.

Front 301

What QLP command is the SQL SELECT statement similar to?

Back 301

LIST.

Front 302

Describe what this SQL query will do: SELECT * FROM Org_Code.

Back 302

Display all columns from the Org_Code table.

Front 303

What clause completes the SELECT statement?

Back 303

FROM.

Front 304

What is the purpose of aggregate functions?

Back 304

They are used to summarize the data returned by a SELECT statement

Front 305

What clause sorts your SQL queries?

Back 305

ORDER BY

Front 306

When you use the SQL SELECT statement within a QLP report, how do you enter the columns you want to display?

Back 306

Each column must be listed separately.

Front 307

How does QLP know that the SELECT statement in the QLP report refers to the RDMS tables?

Back 307

When you invoke the RDMS in your INVOKE statement.

Front 308

What is the drawback to using the FOR TRANSFER clause option?

Back 308

You can only generate the report to a file.

Front 309

Where do you enter the FOR TRANSFER clause when you want to use this option in your QLP report?

Back 309

After the report name in the REPORT line of your QLP

Front 310

What must precede SQL SELECT statements in IPF?

Back 310

“SQL”