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83 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What method does an A-scan indicator use to display video?
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A. Z-axis modulation.
B. Intensity modulation C. Deflection modulation D. Amplitude modulation |
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What target information is provided by the plan-position indicator? (PPI)
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A. Azimuth only
B. Elevation only C. Range and azimuth D. Elevation and range |
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What type of scan can “paint” a map of the area, to include areas if heavy rain or clouds?
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A. A-scan.
B. B-scan. C. Raster scans. D. Plan-position indicator scan |
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In a Raster scan indicator, how many vertical scan periods does it take to produce one complete picture?
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A. 1
B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 |
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Which indicator component determines the overall operation of the indicator?
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A. Data processing circuits
B. Deflection circuits. C. Video Circuits. D. Cathode-ray tube |
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Which color lamp is lit on the AN/TPS-75 radar control panel when the first level of degration indicates LRU requires adjustment?
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A Red
B Blue C Green D Amber |
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Which condition causes a steady alarm light on the OK-217/UPX system control monitor unit?
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A P1 and P3 pulses missing
B Range zero trigger missing. C ISLS trigger missing. D Power supply voltages out of tolerance. |
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What is the term given when two or more reply codes overlap and interface with each other's time space?
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A Garble.
B Overlapping. C Compacted video. D Contiguous pulses. |
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What is the AN/TPN-19 LCC's ATCRBS maximum range?
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A 60 nautical miles.
B 100 nautical miles. C 200 nautical miles D 240 nautical miles. |
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What does the AN/TPN-25 PAR display information include?
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A Glide slope, range, and safety zone.
B Course line, range, and format video. C Course line, safety zone, and aircraft identification. D Glide slope, safety zone, and aircraft identification. |
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What is the source used to perform timing functions in the AN/TPN-25 transmitter?
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A TWT driver trigger.
B Grid clamp pulse. C Grid clamp pulse. D PRF trigger. |
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When primary power fails within the AN/TPN-19, what is the length of time that the internal battery provides emergency backup power to the VHF transceivers in the RAPCON?
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A 5 minutes.
B 10 minutes. C 15 minutes. D 20 minutes. |
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In the presence of local rainstorms or chaff, the video processing circuits in the AN/TPN-24 would automatically switch to which type of video?
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A Noncoherent MTI.
B Coherent MTI. C Composite. D Normal. |
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What device is contained within the AN/TPN-25 radar data transfer subsystem that is not contained within the AN/TPN-24 radar data transfer subsystem?
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A Microwave transmitter
B Supervisory multiplexer C Digital to digital converter D Analog to digital converter |
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In the AN/TPN-24 video processor, what video is used instead of normal video when a block of clutter is detected by the clutter gate?
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A Noncoherent MTI video
B Wideband limited video C Coherent MTI video D Limited video |
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What is the normal frequency difference between the two transmitters in the AN/TPN-24 that permits proper operation of the diplexer?
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A 47 MHz
B 65 MHz C 93 MHz D 101 MHz |
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The maximum degree of ground slope for the radar antenna pallet and equipment shelter is?
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A 4 degrees.
B 6 degrees. C 10 degrees. D 15 degrees. |
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Electromagnetic deflection is accomplished by applying?
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A Current through the two deflection plates.
B Triggers to the two deflection plates. C Current through the deflection coil. D Triggers to the deflection coil. |
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The vacuum in a cathode-ray tube (CRT)?
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A Prevents implosion if the CRT is broken.
B Keeps the phosphor coating from burning. C Eliminates static charges on the deflection plates. D Prevents collisions between electrons in the beam and air molecules. |
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While siting an airport surveillance radar, the approach path, including touchdown, should be in the line of sight. If it is impossible to include the touch down point, there should be a line of sight path at least to the point corresponding to the
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A Minimum approach range
B Maximum appraoch range C Minimum instrument flight rule (IFR) altitude for the base D Maximum instrument flight rule (IFR) altitude for the base |
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The AN/GPN-22 precision approach radar accuracy is impaired when the setback distance is more than
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A 1,000 feet
B 3,000 ft C 5,000 ft D 6,000 ft |
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The most commonly used and normally maintenence free reflector used for the AN/GPN-22 PAR is the
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A MTI reflector
B center-line reflector C reference reflector D bracket reflector |
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n the AN/GPN-22 PAR frequency diversity is used in the scan mode to eliminate
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A weather returns
B large target fluctuations only C large target fluctuations and weather returns D large target fluctuations and provide target enhancement |
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In the AN/GPN-22 PAR, the coherent and non-coherent inputs to the signal data converter is
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A unipolar video
B bipolar video C cancelled unipolar video D cancelled bipolar video |
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Which of the following is NOT part of the siting information requested by the target data computer (TDC) from the computer data entry (CDE)?
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A Safety zone
B Elevation angle C Distance to centerline D Elevation only |
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The operator collects what type of data for the Acquisition word by positioning the trackball symbol to lead the target return slightly?
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A Azimuth and range
B Range only C Range and elevation D Elevation only |
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What is the time duration of the local oscillator (LO) chirp?
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A .5 usec
B 1 usec C 1.3 usec D 1.5 usec |
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How long is the traveling wave tube (TWT) turned on to amplify the transmitted RF pulse?
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A .5 usec
B 1 usec C 1.35 usec D 1.53 usec |
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he transmitted pulse is made of two .5-usec pulses, seperated in frequency by
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A 120 MHz
B 74 MHz C 37 MHz D 24 MHz |
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The 443 memory constants for each beam position are sent to the phase computation algorithm and converted into phase commands containing how many bits?
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A 32
B 12 C 6 D 3 |
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The best description of STC attenuators is they
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A automatically adjust receiver sensitivity in the discrete normalizing target return energy depending on range
B provide improved minimum discernable signal strength at shorter ranges C normalize signal amplitude as a function of return frequency D increase signal-to-noise ratio in high clutter segments |
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The STC assures a constant amplitude IF signal to the receiver by
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A providing high attenuation for near targets (which produce strong signals) and gradually less attenuation for distant targets
B amplifying the leading and lagging edge of the target block, and avoiding large, mid-target fluctuations C varying the gain on the sum channel using an STC variable waveform D varying the direct video input to the display |
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Which timing generator module controls the off-line channel in the dual redundant receiver?
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A Selected by the TDC and alternated every scan dwell
B Randomly selected by the TDC C On-line timing generator D Off-line timing generator |
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What single dwell does the acquisition dwell replace when it is scheduled by the target data computer (TDC)?
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A coast
B scan C track D alternates between scan and track |
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What is the number of automatic alignment procedures to be performed by the timing generator during dead time?
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A 2
B 4 C 6 D 8 |
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The fault threshold for both the LO and Transmitter drive outputs are set to indicate a fault at what level below the normal output level?
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A 2 dB
B 3 dB C 6 dB D 10 dB |
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What module in the dual redundant receiver determines the active channel of the receiver-processor based on the test results?
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A Timing generator
B Reference generator C Interface circuit card D Error detector circuit card |
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How many radar scans does double canellation require?
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A 2
B 3 C 4 D 5 |
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What type of multiplexing is used in the closure, analog, digital, and video/trigger/data channels?
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A Time division multiplexing
B Frequency multiplexing C Amplitude multiplexing D Phase multiplexing |
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The MOST COMMON type of modulation used in remoting is
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A AM
B FSK C PCM D sideband |
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In the AN/GPN-22 PAR, which channel is NOT remoted to the radar unit?
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A Voice
B Analog C Digital D Video/triggers/data |
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In the remoting section of the PAR what are the 4 stages of the line receiver?
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A HV protection and balance adjust circuits, equilizer circuits, output amplifier and gain adjust circuit, and output buffer
B Input buffer and line compensation ciruits, equilizer circuits, output amplifier and gain adjust circuit, and output buffer C Input buffer and line compensation circuits, frequency stability circuits, output amplifier and gain adjust circuit, and output buffer D HV protection and balance adjust circuits, frequency stability circuits, output amplifier and gain adjust circuit, and output buffer |
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What effectively eliminates MTI blind speeds at the speeds seen in air traffic control?
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A Staggered PRF
B Non-staggered PRF C MTI second-time-around reduction circuits D Normal second-time-around reduction circuits |
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What circuit in the AN/GPN-20 ASR realigns the staggered PRTs back to the average PRT?
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A Video combiner
B Timing and control circuit C Timing and phase detector circuit D MTI and normal alignment circuit |
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A dual-diversity configuration of transmitter and receiver pairs provides a capability to operate
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A Each system alternately with one antenna
B Each system alternately with two antennas C Both systems simultaneously with one antenna D Both systems simultaneously with two antennas |
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In dual diversity mode, the overall system timing is derived from the
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A Selected master channel
B individual channel's processors C Selected master STALO D Individual channel's STALO |
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In the AN/GPN-20 ASR transmitter, what causes the magnetron to oscillate?
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A Low voltage positive pulse
B Low voltage pulse and RF drive signal from the receiver C HV negative pulse D HV negative pulse and RF drive signal from the receiver |
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What is the origin and name of the signal that discharges the 4 pulse modules?
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A Mod-driver assembly and SCR gate
B Mod-driver assembly and PRE RF Trigger C Modulator control assembly and SCR gate D Modulator control assembly and PRE RF Trigger |
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The component that provides the proper holdoff time necessary for the spreading of the silicon controlled rectifier (SCR) junction conductive area and permits the complete transfer of energy from the pulse modules into the PFN is the
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A Switching transformer
B Hold-off inductor C Saturated inductor D Pulse transformer |
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Which assembly ensures the level of charge on the PFN is the same from PRT to PRT, regardless of duration?
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A PFN control assembly
B De-Quing control assembly C Modulator control assembly D HVPS assembly |
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The 3x fault will turn off the HVPS and not automatically turn the transmitter back on if the same 3x fault occurs
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A 3 times within a 61 second sample period
B 3 times within a 51 second sample period C 4 times within a 61 second sample period D 4 times within a 51 second sample period |
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Which component consists of two RF filters?
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A Coupler
B Diplexer C TR tube D Anti-TR tube |
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RF to the antenna makes the transition from fixed to rotating waveguide within the
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A rotary joint
B slip rings C polarizers D feedhorn |
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How many feedhorns does the AN/GPN-20 ASR use to both transmit and receive?
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A 1
B 2 C 3 D 4 |
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The ASR antenna is always aligned to
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A Magnetic north
B Magnetic north with declination factors entered into the encoders C True north D True north with declinaton factors loaded into the encoders |
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How many ACPs are generated each antenna revolution?
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A 880
B 8800 C 460 D 4096 |
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The low-power phase-shifter is adjusted by a
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A magnetically driven waveguide circulator
B magnetically driven waveguide dialectric vane C tuning knob positioned on the same section of waveguide D tuning knob positioned onthe waveguide circulator |
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Most of the crystal current flowing in a signal mixer is generated by the
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A Return RF echoes
B Signal mixer power supply C Receiver STALO D Main bang feeding into the receiver |
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Which is a weakness of the phase detector with respect to the COHO and echo relationship?
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A Blind phase; phase relationship equals 0 volts
B Blind phase; phase relationship equals 180 degrees C Blind speed; phase relationship equals 0 volts D Blind speed; phase relationship equals 180 degrees |
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Most MTI phase detectors are designed to develop a
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A trapezoidal output characteristic
B sinusoidial output characteristic C triangular output characteristic D flat-line output characteristic |
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What two signals are mixed in the automatic frequency control circuitry stop tuning and shut off the transmitter HV?
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A STALO and COHO signal
B STALO and preamplifier output C attenuated transmitter pulse and COHO signal D attenuated transmitter pulse and STALO signal |
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To condition the input video to the video processor, the moving target indicator (MTI) video conditioner card shifts the incoming video from a zero volt base line to a
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A negative two-volt base line for A/D conversion
B positive two-volt base line for A/D conversion C positive three-volt base line for digital cancellation D Negative three-volt base line for digital cancellation |
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In the AN/GPN-20, MTI cancellation takes place in the
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A Receiver MTI phase detector
B Receiver MTI cancellation circuits C Video processor phase detector D Video processor cancellation circuits |
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How many range cells long will the moving target indicator (MTI) LOG-FTC card eliminate blocks of weather clutter?
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A 7
B 8 C 9 D 10 |
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The purpose of the airport surveillance radar video processor enhance circuit card is to
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A Reduce synchronous target intensity (aircraft returns), and remove nonsynchronous returns, such as random noise
B Increase synchronous target intensity, and remove nonsynchronous returns, such as random noise. C Reduce synchronous target intensity, and cancel normal video D Increase synchronous target intensity, and cancel normal video |
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In the ASR video processor, either the log or normal video is selected for the inpuit to the MTI/normal enhancer circuit in the
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A Normal video combiner
B Normal log FTC circuit card C normal video switch D Log video is switch |
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The cascade canceller response is more desirable(lower response) for
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A Higher speed moving rtargets
B Slow speed moving targets C Average speed moving targets D Higher speed and lower speed moving targets. |
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If your base services slower-moving aircraft, which subclutter visibility (SCV) mode would be the best to use?
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A 25dB
B 30dB C 35dB D 40dB |
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Who initially determines area needs for the range azimuth gating circuits?
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A Senior radar technician
B Chief of maintenance C Operations commander D Survey team |
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Concerning airport surveillance radar remoting, all control functions are sent through
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A Control encoder and decoder
B Multi-stage multiplexer C pulse code modulation circuit D dual distribution amplifier |
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What air trafific control identification friend or foe/selective identification feature component generates mode interrogation triggers?
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A coder-synchronizer
B interference blanker C Receiver/transmitter D transger switching drawer assembly(TSDA) |
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The range delay switches used with the range azimuth beascon monitor (RABM) provide a maximum delay of
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A 3 miles
B 6 1/8 miles C 12 miles D 15 7/8 miles |
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What is the frequency of the transmitted output from the range azimuth beacon monitor?
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A 1030 kHz
B 1090 kHz C 1030 MHz D 1090 MHz |
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In the transfer switching drawer assembly (TSDA), the amplitude normalizer circuits limit inputs to how many volts before routing the signals to other circuits?
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A .25
B .5 C 1.5 D 5 |
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In the TSDA, what condition causes a range error inhibit signal to be produced?
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A Coincidence between the P3 and RZR pulses.
B Coincidence between the P1 and RZR pulses. C A drift of the RZR pulse inside of the window gate. D A drift of the RZR pulse outside of the window gate. |
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An interrogator side-lobe suppression (ISLS) diplexer is used in lieu of an ISLS switch when the radar system has
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A Only one AC-coupled rotary joint for IFF/SIF.
B only one DC-coupled rotary joint for IFF/SIF. C A capactively coupled rotary joint for IFF/SIF D A inductively coupled rotary joint for IFF/SIF. |
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n the video signal processor, what is the name of the new azimuth computed between the on-target (OT) and the end-of-target (EOT) azimuths.?
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A Targetsplit azimuth
B Beamsplit azimuth C Leading edge azimuth D Lagging edge azimuth |
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On the interrogator set control (B-box), if the TARGET LOAD indicator comes on, it's indicating that the programmable indicator data processor (PIDP) II is processing more than
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A 128 targets
B 200 targets C 300 targets D 320 targets |
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What is the primary advantage of having two operator keyboards for each control indicator group?
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A Enables the lead controller to override a trainee's incorrect data entry during routine air traffic training.
B Enables the on-duty chief controller to invoke system inquiries without encroachment to the drop/suspend list priority. C Enables one controller to "work" active traffic and the remaining controller to perform flight data entry/modification, handoffs, etc. D Provides a backup keyboard in the event of master indicator keyboard failure. |
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If the operation program detects a data transmission error from an ARTCC, the
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A Message is ignored
B Message is displayed containing an LRC flag C Message is flagged and the target symbol flashes D Data is saved to memory and reverified during the next data burst. |
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Regarding the PIDP II tabular data, what area of the radar display shows the date, hour, minute, second, barometric pressure, and altitude filter limits (upper and lower)?
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A Preview area
B Drop/suspend list C Arrival/departure area D Operating parameters list |
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On the tower display, the BIT target is always located at
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A 40 nm and at 1 of 8 azimuths selectable at 45 degree increments
B 56 nm and at 1 of 8 azimuths selectable at 45 degree increments C 40 nm and at 180 degrees only D 56 nm and at 180 degrees only |
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What DBRITE display assembly applies the video signal to the cathode of the cathode ray tube?
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A Deflection
B Video sync C Video driver D Dynamic focus |
