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60 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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1. (401) What management notice is produced when a consolidated shipment is received?
a. I116. b. I136. c. I008. d. I023. |
a. I116
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2. (401) Which transaction exception code (TEX) code is not used when attempting to process a material receipt for a bulk issue item during inventory?
a. "A", b. "C". c. "D". d. "G". |
a. "A"
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3. (402) Which option is not a category of receipt variances?
a. Partial receipt, b. Excess receipt, c. Shortage receipt, d. Serviceable receipt. |
d. Serviceable receipt.
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4. (402) For an overage receipt, what action must be taken on the receipt document?
a. Write the correct quantity on it. b. Write the overage quantity on it. c. Circle the incorrect quantity and put the overage quantity above it. d. Circle the incorrect quantity and put the correct quantity actually received above it. |
d. Circle the incorrect quantity and put the correct quantity actually received above it.
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5. (403) Which materiel management complex individuals are authorized to determine the condition of property for the supply account?
a. Inspectors, b. In-checkers. c. Storage personnel, d. Inventory personnel. |
a. Inspectors
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6. (403) The physical state that determines the usefulness of an item to carry out its intended purpose is the
a. condition, b. ERRCD. c. identity, d. status. |
d. status.
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7. (403) Which of the following three things does a materiel management inspector uses to identify an item?
a. stock number, item description, and specifications, b. stock number, nomenclature, and item description, c. stock number, reference number, and part number, d. stock number, reference number, and item description. |
d. stock number, reference number, and item description.
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8. (404) What computer input is made to initiate a condition change?
a. FCC. b. FCH. c. FCI. d. FCU. |
a. FCC
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9. (405) Who is notified to determine the shelf life coding for a stored item that appears to be deteriorating and is excluded from shelf life control?
a. Inspector and HQ AFMC. b. Item manager and HQ AFMC. c. Accountable Officer and HQ USAF. d. Inventory supervisor and HQ USAF. |
b. Item manager and HQ AFMC.
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10. (405) How many days before the expiration date arc type II shelf life items scheduled for serviceability testing?
a. 10. b. 15 to 45. c. 60 to 90. d. 120. |
b. 15 to 45.
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11. (405) What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to load or delete the functional check flag indicator (F) on functional check assets?
a. FCD. b. FCH. c. FCK. d. FTR. |
a. FCD.
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12. (405) Which transaction identification code (TRIC) and activity code is used to process items accounted for on mobility readiness spares package (MRSP), war reserve materiel (WRM), or supply point details to maintenance for a functional check?
a. ISU, C. b. ISU, A. c. MSI, C. d. MSI, A. |
c. MSI, C.
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13. (406) Who forwards two copies of each time compliance technical order (TCTO) publication with a cover letter to the Materiel management inspector?
a. Supply In-checker. b. TCTO kit monitor, c. Supply Warehouse supervisor, d. Base Maintenance Quality Control. |
d. Base Maintenance Quality Control.
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14. (406) How often are on-the-shelf time-compliance technical order (TCTO) items inspected to ensure TCTO compliance is being accomplished?
a. Weekly, b. Monthly, c. Semiannually. d. Annually. |
b. Monthly,
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15. (406) A time-compliance technical order (TCTO) item is identified in the computer by a TCTO flag or by
a. other assets indicator "5." b. other assets indicator "4." c. NPPC "5." d. NPPC "4." |
d. NPPC "4."
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16. (406) What computer input is used to load a time compliance technical order flag?
a. FCC. b. FCD. c. FCI. d. FCU. |
b. FCD
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17. (407) Which computer input is used to load a suspect materiel flag to an item?
a. FCC with an "F" in position 48. b. FCD with an "F" in position 48. c. FCC with an "S" in position 48. d. FCD with an "S" in position 48. |
d. FCD with an "S" in position 48.
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18. (407) Who maintains inquiry images for items that are unsuitable for Air Force use?
a. Stock Control, b. Production control. c. Repair Cycle Support, d. Materiel Management inspector. |
d. Materiel Management inspector.
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19. (407) The Inspection Offline Checklist (R32) should be processed at least
a. weekly, b. monthly, c. quarterly, d. semiannually. |
b. monthly,
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20. (408) The document that specifies materiel safety data sheets (MSDS) requirements for government purchases is
a. AFMAN 23-110. b. AFMAN23-210. c. FED-STD-313. d. FED-PUB313. |
c. FED-STD-313
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21. (408) Which activity must approve all additions or deletions to the Health Hazard Approval Listing (HHAL)?
a. Bioenvironmental Engineering Services, b. Maintenance contact point, c. Customer service, d. Item manager. |
a. Bioenvironmental Engineering Services,
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22. (409) How are electrostatic sensitive devices (ESD) identified on the item record?
a. Issue exception code "3." b. Issue exception code "4." c. Type cargo code "3." d. Type cargo code "4." |
c. Type cargo code "3."
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23. (409) Which transaction identification code (TRIC) and activity code is used to process an electrostatic sensitive device (ESD) on a detail record to maintenance for testing?
a. ISU, "E." b. MSI, "E." c. ISU, "C." d. MSI, "C." |
d. MSI, "C."
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24. (410) The responsibility for maintaining effective property management of all Air Force-owned property belongs to
a. commanders, b. supervisors, c. flight chiefs, d. individuals at all levels. |
d. individuals at all levels.
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25. (410) Who appoints responsible individuals with the lawful duty to maintain accurate records of property?
a. MAJCOM POC. b. Chief enlisted manager, c. Logistics group commander, d. Wing or vice-wing commander. |
d. Wing or vice-wing commander.
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26. (411) Who was chartered by HQ USAF as the centralized Air Force program manager for all Mechanized Materiel Handling Systems (MMHS) and Storage Aids Systems (SAS)?
a. Storage Systems Program Office, b. Materials Handling Engineering Office, c. Materials Handling Development Office, d. Materials Storage and Handling Systems Office. |
b. Materials Handling Engineering Office
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27. (411) Which type of warehouse equipment is part of a Storage Aid System (SAS)?
a. Conveyors, b. Affixed cranes, c. Overhead trolleys, d. General-purpose shelves. |
d. General-purpose shelves.
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28. (412) Prime factors in determining the best possible space layouts for storage operations are
a. size, quantity, and type items stocked, b. size of facility and number of personnel assigned, c. efficiency of operations and effective space utilization, d. number, size, and geographical location of supported organizations. |
c. efficiency of operations and effective space utilization,
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29. (412) What item storage factor is used when items with the slowest turnover rate arc stored in areas farther from active stock processing areas?
a. Quantity, b. Similarity, c. Popularity, d. Size and weight. |
c. Popularity,
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30. (412) When you increase the amount of space for an item in a location to eliminate overflow into another item's location, you are implementing what item storage factor?
a. Quantity, b. Similarity, c. Popularity, d. Size and weight. |
a. Quantity,
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31. (412) Which warehouse aisle runs the entire length of the warehouse?
a. Fire, b. Main, c. Service, d. Working. |
b. Main,
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32. (412) Which warehouse aisle can increase the possibility of pilferage in a warehouse?
a. Main, b. Service. c. Working, d. Personnel. |
d. Personnel.
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33. (413) The practice of storing items in a way that causes a loss of storage space is called
a. honeycombing, b. cross stacking, c. mezzanine storage, d. potential vacant space. |
a. honeycombing
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34. (413) How much clearance space, in inches, must be maintained below automatic sprinkler heads in a storage space when stack heights exceed 15 feet?
a. 12. b. 18. c. 24. d. 36. |
d. 36.
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35. (413) How many inches of clearance space must be maintained around light or heating fixtures in a storage space?
a. 12. b. 18. c. 24. d. 36. |
b. 18.
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36. (413) The total or maximum amount of weight that can be stored in a specific amount of floor space is known as
a. scale load, b. weight limit, c. floor load limit, d. weight restriction. |
c. floor load limit,
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37. (414) Which method of storage helps to ensure that the oldest items are issued before they become outdated?
a. First in, last out. b. First in, first out. c. Stock by serial number, d. Rotation of new items to the front. |
b. First in, first out.
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38. (414) What type items (including narcotics, precious metals, arms, and ammunition) require a high degree of protection and control due to statutory requirements or regulations?
a. Sensitive items, b. Pilferable items, c. Protective items, d. Highly desired items. |
a. Sensitive items,
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39. (414) What supply-controlled item code is assigned to precious metals?
a. "J." b. "N." c. "Q." d. "R." |
d. "R."
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40. (414) How often must the combination on combination padlocks be changed for classified storage?
a. Monthly, b. Quarterly, c. Semiannually. d. Annually. |
d. Annually.
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41. (415) What individual or activity schedules and conducts a warehouse location validation for satellite accounts?
a. MS&D officer, b. Storage activity, c. Inventory activity, d. Accountable officer. |
b. Storage activity
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42. (415) All assigned warehouse locations must be validated at least
a. monthly, b. quarterly. c. semiannually. d. annually. |
d. annually.
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43. (415) The storage activity should complete scheduled validations within how many workdays of the start of a cycle inventory?
a. 3. b. 7. c. 10. d. 14. |
c. 10.
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44. (416) "FID" entries on the Daily Document Register arc arranged sequentially by
a. ERRCD. b. location, c. stock number, d. priority designator. |
b. location,
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45. (416) When property is found in a location with a corresponding FID entry on the Daily Document Register (D04), what must be entered on the special inventory request?
a. Account delete code, b. Location of the property, c. New warehouse location, d. Condition of the property. |
b. Location of the property,
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46. (417) All copies of a warehouse refused document are forwarded to what supply element?
a. Analysis, b. Receiving, c. Inventory, d. Equipment. |
c. Inventory,
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47. (418) When controlled items, which are not already specified by an item exception (IEX) code, are approved by the unit commander in writing to be placed on bench stock, they are assigned issued IEX code
a. "J." b. "K." c. "M." d. "N." |
d. "N."
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48. (418) How many days before a scheduled semiannual phase II review is a complete inventory and replenishment done?
a. 5. b. 10. c. 15. d. 20. |
c. 15.
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49. (418) How often must standard reporting designator (SRD) data and minimum reserve authorization (MRA) levels be validated?
a. Monthly, b. Quarterly, c. Semiannually. d. Annually. |
d. Annually.
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50. (418) What listing controls the assignment of bench stock item numbers and helps shop personnel locate bench stock items?
a. M04. b. R26. c. R31. d. S04. |
d. S04.
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51. (419) Sample inventories were developed to provide better use of
a. time and money, b. money and space, c. storage and time, d. personnel and time. |
d. personnel and time.
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52. (419) Verifying the physical count balance and recording the accuracy of the count formats are the most important elements of what type inventory?
a. Complete, b. Sample, c. Special, d. EAID. |
b. Sample,
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53. (419) Which program assigns freeze code "C" to all item records specified within the report parameter for a complete inventory?
a. Supply Point Listing (Q13). b. Sample Inventory Program (R17). c. Inventory Count File Program (R12). d. Consolidated Inventory Adjustment (M10). |
c. Inventory Count File Program (R12).
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54. (420) To indicate that additional research is needed, the inventory recount (IRC) image contains a recount/research indicator of
a. "AC." b. "AR." c. "AT." d. "AZ." |
b. "AR."
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55. (421) The type account code for an item to be considered for an automatic adjustment is
a. "B." b. "D." c. "E." d. "X." |
a. "B."
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56. (421) An automatic adjustment for a pilferable item occurs when the record balance does not agree with the recount quantity and the dollar value of the adjustment is less than
a. $1000. b. $100. c. $50. d. $25. |
b. $100.
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57. (421) What type of inventory discrepancy occurs due to an accountable processing error?
a. Unresolved discrepancies that do not require further research, b. Unresolved discrepancies with no personal responsibility, c. Unresolved discrepancies with personal responsibility, d. Resolved discrepancies. |
d. Resolved discrepancies.
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58. (421) What form IS NOT a type of supporting documentation for an inventory adjustment?
a. AFTO Form 350, Reparable Item Processing Tag. b. DD Form 114, Military Pay Order. c. DD Form 200, Financial Liability Investigation of Property Loss d. SF 364, Report of Discrepancy. |
a. AFTO Form 350, Reparable Item Processing Tag.
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59. (421) The last page of the M10 shows the number of sample inventories in progress over how many days?
a. 15. b. 30. c. 45. d. 60. |
b. 30.
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60. (421) What function ensures that certification and approved signatures are on the original copy of the Consolidated Inventory' Adjustment Document Register (M10)?
a. Inventory, b. Procedures, c. Document control, d. Records maintenance. |
a. Inventory,
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