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75 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Range cards are record of
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firign data.
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How many range cards are prepared for each position?
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Two
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In addition to preparing a range card for the M4, what other fixed weapons require a range card?
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M240B, MK19 and .50 cal.
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What does the acronym FPL stand for?
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Final protective line.
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Which of the following is used primarily to control direct-fire weapons but may aslo be sued for indirect-fire weapons?
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Target reference point (TRP).
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Where would you sketch in magnetic north data on your range card?
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Marginal data area.
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What information should you include on the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position?
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Prominent natural and man-made features that could be likely targets
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The space that cannot be engaged with grazing fire called?
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Dead space.
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When clearing fields of fire, at least how many meters would start at your position and work forward?
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100.
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The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is
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observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon.
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What is the function of the foward assist?
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lock the bolt forward during immediate action procedure.
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Any interruption in the cycle of operations is the definition of
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a stoppage.
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The acronym SPORTS stands for
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Slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shoot.
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The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to keep weapons
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clean and properly lubricated.
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How many different types of ammunition are there for the M4 carbine?
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10.
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What cartridge, used in the M4 carbine, is similar to the M196 except it has a longer tracer burnout distance?
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M856.
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What is the maximum effective range of the M9 pistol?
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50M
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What the maximum range for the M9 pistol?
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1,800M
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If necessary, shooters are required to use what method when firing the M9 in order to engage targets?
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Adjusted aiming point method.
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On the M9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is case extractor and
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loaded chamber indicator.
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Applying immediate actions to remedy an M9 malfunction or stoppage should be
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instinctive.
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Cleaner, lubricant, preservative (CLP) or lubricating oil, semi-fluid (LSA) are used on what part of the M9 to prevent rusting?
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Steel.
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How many types of 9mm ammunition are used with the M9 pistol?
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4.
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What is the standard cartridge used with the M9?
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M882
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Which M9 ammunition round is only issued to SF, OSI detachments, and USAF personnel assigned to air operations security (ani-jacking) duties?
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MK243 MOD 0.
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In meters, what is the maximum range of the M203 when engaging fire-team-sized-area targets?
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150
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In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M203 when engaging fire-team-sized area targets?
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350
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What is the waiting period (in seconds) from the tim eof the failure before opening the barrel assembly to unload the M203?
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30.
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Which part of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker (smoke) rounds indicate the color of the smoke produced?
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Ogive.
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What is the number of meters for the danger radius for the M781 practice round used in the M203?
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20.
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Which M203 round is most effective in thick vegetation areas or for room clearing?
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Buckshot.
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Under what circumstances would you use MK19 ammunition in the M203?
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Under no circumstances.
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What is the M249 maximum effective range (in meters) for a point target using a bipod?
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600.
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Which assembly on the M249 is the support for all major components?
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Receiver assembly.
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An interruption in the cycle of operations caused by faulty action of the weapon or faulty ammunition is called?
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a stoppage
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How many rounds does an M249 bandoleer contain?
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200.
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What type of M249 ammunition is used during mechanical training, dry-fire exercises, and function check?
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M199 Dummy.
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How is ammunition fed into the M240B?
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100 round bandoleer, split-link belt.
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In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M240B for a point target with tripod?
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800.
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From what position is the M240B loaded?
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Bolt OPENED or CLOSED
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Which action in the cycle of operations for the M240B is initiated by squeezing the trigger?
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Firing.
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What are the two most common malfunction for the M240B?
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Sluggish operation and uncontrolled fire.
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At a minimum, you clean the M240B after firing a basic load of
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900 to 1,200 rounds.
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What type of ammunition is used to engage lightly-armored targets?
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M61.
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What does the acronym blank firing adapter (BFA) stand for?
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Blank firing adapter
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Which weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing?
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MK19.
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What is the standard round for the MK19?
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M430.
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Which of the following tripods is the most often used gun mount for the MK19?
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M3.
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Searching fire is most often used on
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level or evenly sloping ground.
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What is the maximum effective range of the M2, .50 caliber machine gun?
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2,000 yards.
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The maximum extent of grazing fire is obtainable to how many meters?
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700.
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When selecting crew-served weapons position, which type of fire organizes the battlefield for the gunners?
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Predetermined.
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Abbreviated fire commands and previously recorded data enable the gunner to aim or adjust fire on the target
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quickly and accurately
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Which of the follwoing is an immediately available, prearranged barrier of fire to stop enemy movement across defensive lines or areas?
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Final protective fire.
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Whihc of the folowing is fixed in direction and elevation?
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a final protective line (FPL)
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Which of the following is assigned to the gun team to cover the most likely avenue of enemy approach from all types of defensice positions?
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Secondary sector of fire.
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Concerning machine guns in the offense, the primary objective of the offense is to advance, occupy, and
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hold the enemy position.
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In meters, what is the maximum range of the M870 shotgun using "00" buckshot round?
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640
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The shotgun is an effective weapon when used in what type of role?
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The close-quarters battle role.
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Sharpshooters will be well trained in tactical use of which of the following?
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Terrain.
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Optimal employment capabilities of close precision engagement (CPE) marksmen and sharpshooter teams should include
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response, overwatch, screening, and reconnaissance.
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Sniper ammunition is produced to stringent tolerances to ensure superior
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accuracy.
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The M107 sniper rifle operates by means of
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short recoil principle.
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The sniper's primary mission is to support combat operations by delivering precise rifle fire from
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concealed positions.
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What are three common characteristics hand grenandes share?
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Short employment range, small casualty radius, and delay element permits safe throwing.
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How many meters is the kill radius for hand grenades?
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5
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How must live fragmentation grenades be thrown in the training enviroment?
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Overhand.
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The claymore mine is used primarily as a/an
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defensice weapon.
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When the claymore is employed in an uncontrolled role, it is considered a
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mine or booby trap.
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In what year was the M18A, claymore mine standardized?
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1960
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When employed in a controlled role, the claymore is treated as a
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one-shot weapon.
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The two detonator wells located on the top of the claymore allow for
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single or dual priming.
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Before firing the light antiarmor weapon (LAW), what should you check?
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Backblast area.
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A black and yellow band on the M136 AT4 launcher indicates what type of launcher?
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Field handling trainer.
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The M136 AT4's warhead has excellent penetration ability and lethal
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after-armor effects.
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