Vett 236 Exam 2

Front 1

Toxicity from acetaminophen results when the metabolic pathways for glucuronidation and sulfation are absent or deplete and the toxic metabolite __________ accumulates, causing oxidative injury.

Back 1

NAPQI

Front 2

In veterinary medicine there are several primary B1 and B2 drugs that are used therapeutically in patients with specific indications. Is Resperalol one of them?

Back 2

No.

Front 3

What is the best First Aid measure when a patient has been bitten by a pit viper?

Back 3

Get in the car and get to the veterinary emergency clinic ASAP.

Front 4

T or F: there are 2 types of B-receptors. B1-receptors are located primarily within the heart and adipose tissue. Stimulation of B1-receptors results in increased heart rate, myocardial contractility, AV conduction velocity, and automaticity of subsidiary pacemakers.

Back 4

True.

Front 5

How many stages of acetaminophen toxicity have been described?

Back 5

4

Front 6

Salicylate toxicity may result with acute ingestions of ____ mg/kg in the dog, and _____ mg/kg in the cat.

Back 6

100 and 50

Front 7

What is the antidote for Ivermectin overdose?

Back 7

There is no antidote, so management is primarily supportive care.

Front 8

Is the coral snake a pit viper?

Back 8

No.

Front 9

Which rodenticide produces its results by uncoupling oxidative phosphorylation leading neurologic signs from intramyelinic edema?

Back 9

Bromethalin

Front 10

This drug is an antidote for nicotinic signs of acute, moderate to severe anticholinesterase toxicity. It has little effect on muscarinic or CNS signs.

Back 10

2-PAM

Front 11

T or F: the common signs of Ivermectin toxicity would include ataxia, disorientation, hyperesthesia, blindness, weakness, mydriasis, and bradycardia.

Back 11

true

Front 12

T or F: plants do not contain any anticholinergic chemicals or compounds and are therefore not a source of possible anticholinergic toxicity in small animals.

Back 12

false

Front 13

The main physiologic derangements caused by B1-receptor and B2-receptor blocker medications are _____ and ______ , leading to decreased cardiac output , hypotension, tissue hypoperfussion, and shock.

Back 13

negative inotropy and negative chronotropy

Front 14

The treatment for cyclic antidepressant toxicity includes:

Back 14

Treatment of CNS signs/cardiac arrhythmias, basic GI decontamination procedures, support of systemic blood pressure.

Front 15

T or F: clinical signs reported in companion animals due to accidental ingestion of serotonergic medications include central nervous system signs, GI tract symptoms, hyperthermia, death.

Back 15

true.

Front 16

The confirmation of carbon monoxide toxicity is performed via measurement of _________ with a co-oximeter.

Back 16

carboxyhemoglobin

Front 17

What rodenticide produces its effects by inhibiting vitamin K?

Back 17

Brodifacoum

Front 18

Is pentacycline a cyclic antidepressant?

Back 18

No.

Front 19

Unless specifically contraindicated, what technique should be initially performed on patients that have acutely ingested a rodenticide?

Back 19

decontamination.

Front 20

Calcium channel blockers and B-blockers inhibit which type of voltage-sensitive calcium channels?

Back 20

L-type

Front 21

T or F: the mainstays of therapy for opioid overdose include providing a means for adequate ventilation, and the administration of Yohimbine, an opioid antagonist.

Back 21

False

Front 22

Is significant local symptoms and swelling seen in black widow spider bites?

Back 22

No.

Front 23

What does coral snake evenomation cause?

Back 23

flaccid paralysis.

Front 24

Is cholecalciferol (Calcitrol) a specific cyclic antidepressant?

Back 24

NO.

Front 25

What is an effective therapy for Salicylate toxicity and should be considered in cases where severe neurologic impairment, acute renal failure, refractory acidosis, or patients intolerant of bicarbonate or fluid therapy?

Back 25

hemodialysis

Front 26

T or F: cats may exhibit clinic signs of toxicity with any level of exposure to acetaminophen.

Back 26

true

Front 27

Does spider bite evenomation cause methemoglobinemia?

Back 27

No

Front 28

There are no known reports in veterinary literature of cyanide toxicity from naturally occurring sources in companion animals. However, cyanide poisoning should be suspected in smoke inhalation victims or animals on prolonged infusions of which drug?

Back 28

sodium nitroprusside

Front 29

What is the best single treatment for patients with carbon monoxide toxicity?

Back 29

oxygen

Front 30

Which 2 drugs are the first-line of anticonvulsant drugs recommended for chronic seizure disorders in dogs?

Back 30

Phenobarbitol, bromide

Front 31

This is a clinical syndrome caused by infection of the host by microorganisms and the host's inflammatory response to it; microorganisms may be bacterial, viral, protozoal, or fungus.

Back 31

sepsis.

Front 32

Medical management of hepatic encephalopathy includes strategies to minimize ammonia absorption from the intestine and control seizure activity, if present. The definitive therapy for hepatic encephalopathy involves correcting underlying causes. Name a definitive therapy.

Back 32

surgical correction of the portosystemic shunt.

Front 33

If there is no suspicion or indication of a spinal fracture or luxation in patients with spinal trauma, the exam of the patient should begin with what?

Back 33

gait analysis.

Front 34

cluster seizures are ____ or more within a 24 hour period.

Back 34

2

Front 35

What procedure should be considered in animals with intracranial hypertension (ICH) refractory to medical and pharmacological decompression?

Back 35

craniectomy

Front 36

These structure in patients with head trauma are the basis of brain stem reflexes category evaluation. Their size, shape and reactivity are recorded routinely during the initial exam and periodically thereafter.

Back 36

Pupils

Front 37

True or False: it is always preferable to begin treating the patient with antibiotics and other medications prior to collecting CSF.

Back 37

false

Front 38

What is the numeric scoring system for animals with head injury?

Back 38

The modified Glasgow Coma Scale

Front 39

Is tachycardia a symptom of hepatic encephalopathy?

Back 39

no

Front 40

Intracranial hypertension (ICH) is the persistent elevation of intracranial pressure (ICP) above the normal range of ____ to _____ mm Hg.

Back 40

5 to 12

Front 41

Is Pentothal an appropriate drug to control seizures in patients?

Back 41

No

Front 42

What is the recommended dosage of 20% mannitol solution for patients with increased intracranial hypertension (ICH)?

Back 42

0.5 to 1 g/Kg IV over 20 minutes

Front 43

The parophysiology of hepatic encephalopathy is complex and completely misunderstood; however, the importance of elevated levels of _______ have been reemphasized as part of the paraphysiology of this disease.

Back 43

ammonia

Front 44

Intracranial hypertension is the persistent elevation intracranial pressure above the normal range of ___ to ____ mm Hg.

Back 44

5 to 12

Front 45

Is HCO3- a factor that influences chemical regulation of cerebular vascular resistence?

Back 45

No

Front 46

Canine parvovirus is seen most commonly in dogs less than 6 months of age, generally between the ages of ___ and ___ weeks.

Back 46

6 and 20.

Front 47

ER treatment of spinal cord injury may vary depending on diagnosis. For all acute, spinal injuries, which therapy is indicated initially because of presumed compromise of spinal cord casculature that inhibits the normal autoregulation of arteriolar blood flow?

Back 47

IV fluid

Front 48

T or F: Hemolysis, which occurs predominately extravascualrly, may also occur inside the vascular space. Either way, breakdown of RBCs leads to the release of bilirubin bilirubenemia, and bilirubinuria are consistent with either intravascular or extravascular pathologic hemolysis.

Back 48

true

Front 49

Wound indications for surgical exploration of patients with acute bilary disease include an increasing blood glucose and BUN and creatinine levels on repeat profiles.

Back 49

no.

Front 50

What is the most common electrolyte disturbance in vomiting patients?

Back 50

hypokalemia.

Front 51

The pathophysiology of macrovascular thrombosis is best described using Virchow's triad. This researcher postulated that 3 factors are required for thrombosis formation. Is hypovolemia one of them?

Back 51

no.

Front 52

What is the most common cause of secondary megaesophagus in dogs accounting for 20 - 30 % of all cases?

Back 52

Myasthenia gravis

Front 53

What is a left shift defined as?

Back 53

increased numbers of immature neutraphils in the blood.

Front 54

What form of anemia is seen as with blood loss or hemolysis?

Back 54

polychromasia

Front 55

Icterus may be observed the day after substancial hemolysis and when the serum bilirubin concentration often exceeds ____ mg/dl

Back 55

2

Front 56

With a diagnosis of DIC is absolute leukopenia seen?

Back 56

No

Front 57

Thrombocytopenia is the most common primary hemostatic defect in patients with a bleeding disorder. Spontaneous bleeding generally does not occur until platelet counts fall below ____ and ____ ul unless a concommitant bleeding disorder exists.

Back 57

20,000 to 50,000

Front 58

Which sedative would be indicated to assist with the placement of urinary catheters because of their action on peripheral skeletal muscle, which may induce relaxation of the external ureter sphincter muscle.

Back 58

Benzodiazipines

Front 59

This is the inability to reduce the penis into the prepuce.

Back 59

paraphimosis

Front 60

This is a persistent penile erection in the absence of sexual stimulation.

Back 60

Priapism

Front 61

What is the most common hematologic finding in ******* and queens with pyometria?

Back 61

Neutrophilia

Front 62

This is defined as a delay in the passage of milk from the mammary glands.

Back 62

glactostasis

Front 63

In the *****, the second stage of labor lasts from ___ to ____ hours.

Back 63

3 to 12

Front 64

Female cats are seasonally polyestrous, with ovulation occurring 24 to 48 hours after breeding. The interval from ovulation to parturition is ___ to ___ days.

Back 64

63 to 65

Front 65

Radiographs of fetal skeletons, sufficiently distinct for an unequivocal diagnosis, can be obtained ___ to ___days before parturition.

Back 65

17 to 20

Front 66

This disease process describes a spectrum of uterine pathology that is the most common uterine disease in middle-aged and older intact ******* and queens, and frequently lead to pyometria.

Back 66

Cystic endometrial hyperplasia.

Front 67

For less severe cases of pyometria in animals intended for breeding, patients can be treated medically with combinations of progesterone receptor antagonists, dopamine agonists, and what else?

Back 67

PGF2a

Front 68

What diet quality/parameters have been shown to slow the progression, prolong survival, and decrease signs of uremia in chronic renal failure patients?

Back 68

high quality, restricted quantity, and low phosphorus diet

Front 69

Pyometria is an endocrine disease most commonly occurring during which stage of the estrous cycle?

Back 69

Diestrus

Front 70

What class of drugs used in anesthetic plans do not aversely affect the cardiovascular system and are safe to use even in the most critically ill animals?

Back 70

opioids