Vett 236 Exam 1

Front 1

Is hemmorhage a cause of cardiogenic shock?

Back 1

No.

Front 2

List causes of cardiogenic shock.

Back 2

Cardiac tamponade, congestive heart failure, drug overdose with beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, etc.; cardiac arrythmia.

Front 3

Most fevers are not life-threatening unless temperature exceeds_____

Back 3

107F

Front 4

list common drugs that may cause altered mentation

Back 4

benzodiazepines, antihypertensives, opiates, antibiotics, anesthetic drugs.

Front 5

A rectal temperature higher than ____F is considered elevated in the unstressed cat/dog.

Back 5

102.5

Front 6

The nutritional needs of the patient should be aggressively addressed. Post operative patients should receive at least ___kcal/kg Q 24 hours.

Back 6

30

Front 7

Is azotemia a cause of PAO2 in arterial blood?

Back 7

No.

Front 8

Should ice water baths and enemas be used for total body cooling?

Back 8

No.

Front 9

The structure in the brain is a network of anatomically and physiologically distinct nuclei int he brain stem that function to "activate" the cerebral cortex and maintain consciousness. Experimentally, stimulation of this structure in anesthetized cats produced electroencephalogram patterns consist with conscious state.

Back 9

reticular formation.

Front 10

What can trigger systemic inflammation?

Back 10

both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria

Front 11

Hypotension is best identified as an abnormally low MAP, typically defined as less than ___mm HG.

Back 11

60

Front 12

Critically ill patients with inadequate oxygen delivery, oxygen uptake, or tissue perfusion often develop ____ that is very reflective of the severity of cellualr hypoxia.

Back 12

lactic acidosis.

Front 13

This is a vagolytic drug that abolishes parasympathetic tone and is indicated in patients that have cardiopulmonary arrest associated with slow pulseless electrical activity or asystole.

Back 13

atropine.

Front 14

Increased sympathetic noradrenergic innervation of cardia muscle will cause what?

Back 14

increased heart rate and increased force of contractions.

Front 15

If there are no visible or only weak breathing efforts evident, what should be done to immediately provide manual positive pressure ventilation?

Back 15

intubate the patient.

Front 16

Traditionally the ABC mnemonic has been followed for determining the order of intervention in basic life support. This often results in a delay in what immediately needed procedure?

Back 16

the initiation of chest compressions.

Front 17

Given the stress of an arrest situation, as well as the manipulation of the patient that occurs during CPR, it is not uncommon for the tube to be misplaced or to become displaced in the esophagus. Because of this, it is important to verify placement. How?

Back 17

Palpate the neck to ensure tube is not felt in the esophagus. By direct visualization of the tube going into the larnyx. Ausculation of breath sounds and proper chest wall movement during ventilation.

Front 18

True fever may be initiated by a variety of substances including infectious agents and their products. List causes.

Back 18

Fungal infections. Bacterial infection. Viral infection. Tissue inflammation or necrosis.

Front 19

True or false. Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) is a widespread response to an infectious or noninfectious insult and, if left untreated, can lead to multiple organ failure and death.

Back 19

True.

Front 20

True or False: Risk factors for nocosomial infections in the ICU include severity of underlying illness, prolonged length of stay, mechanical ventilation and any indwelling devices.

Back 20

Trus.

Front 21

The 2 main pathophysiologic forms of pulmonary edema _______ - pressure edema (due to increased pulmonary capillary hydrostatic pressure) and are _____ -permeability edema (due to damage of the microvascular barrier and alveolar epithelium in more severe cases).

Back 21

High and Increased.

Front 22

This is the most useful initial test to ID the cause of pulmonary edema induced dyspnea; however, this diagnostic test can be highgly stressful and should be avoided in the most severly dyspeic patient until initial stabilization with empiric therapy has been attempted.

Back 22

Thoracic radiographs.

Front 23

Cardiogenic pulmonary edema is the most common form of high-pressure edema. It occurs as a result of what?

Back 23

Left-sided congestive heart failure.

Front 24

Is pneumothorax a contraindication for thoracentisis?

Back 24

No.

Front 25

Is broad spectrum antibiotic therapy used for PTE?

Back 25

No.

Front 26

In animals at risk for embolization, prophylaxis should be considered. Appropriate drugs include:

Back 26

Wayfarin, aspirin, Heparin.

Front 27

True or False: Chylous effusion is usually clear and red or green. Monocytes usually predominate; however, degenerate eosinphils may become predominant after repeated thoracocentensis or with chronic intrapleural disease.

Back 27

False.

Front 28

Clinical symptoms of animals with pleural space disease would include:

Back 28

Tachypnea, extended head/neck, cyanosis, open-mouth breathing.

Front 29

True or False: the prognosis for animals with pulmonary edema varies depending upon the underlying cause.

Back 29

True.

Front 30

The pleural space is a potential space formed by the _____and ______pleura.

Back 30

parietal, visceral.

Front 31

What is the immediate priority to hasten carbon monoxide elimination in patients that have suffered smoke inhalation?

Back 31

aggressive oxygen supplementation.

Front 32

What is NOT a common cause of asthmatic disease?

Back 32

bacterial pneumonitis.

Front 33

What are indications for chest tube placement?

Back 33

Pyothorax, penetrating chest injury, on-going air leakage despite repeated thoracocentesis, tension pneumothorax, chylothorax, after thoracic surgery.

Front 34

True or False: the prognosis for animals with severe acute myocardial infarction is excellent.

Back 34

False.

Front 35

True or False: cardiogenic shock is defined as inadequate cellular metabolism secondary to cardiac dysfunction when there is adequate intravascular volume.

Back 35

True.

Front 36

What are the common clinical signs of left-sided congestive heart failure?

Back 36

dyspnea, coughing, tachypnea

Front 37

Is dehydration a sign of left-sided congestive heart failure/

Back 37

No.

Front 38

This procedure allows the definitive detection of any cardiac-associated masses and provides pericardial tissue for histopathologic analysis.

Back 38

Exploratory thoracotomy.

Front 39

Cardiac stroke volume is determined by?

Back 39

Afterload, preload, contractility.

Front 40

Arterial catheters should be avoided in patients with what condition?

Back 40

thrombocytopenia.

Front 41

If a patient with left heart failure is exercising, _______ production in skeletal muscle results in the feeling of fatigue and forces the patient to stop.

Back 41

lactic acid

Front 42

True or False: small and medium sized dogs are typically affected by DCM.

Back 42

False

Front 43

What are nutritional causes of DCM?

Back 43

Deficiencies of: Taurine, I-carnitine, vitamin E, selenium

Front 44

Cats with congestive heart failure commonly develop what?

Back 44

pleural effusion.

Front 45

True or False: The heart rates of cats with heart failure differ markedly from those of healthy cats.

Back 45

False.

Front 46

True of False: myocardial failure is heart failure caused by a defect in myocardial contractility (systolic pump failure).

Back 46

True.

Front 47

True or False: In general, MVD carries a less favorable than any other cardiovascular disease.

Back 47

False.

Front 48

Arterial catheters can be placed where on the leg?

Back 48

dorsopedal artery.

Front 49

This drug is a benzothiazepine calcium channel antagonist. It has only a modest slowing effect on heart rate but it is believed to speed myocardial relaxation. Additionally, this drug may dilate coronary arteries and improve diastolic function by improving coronary perfusion in patients with feline HCM.

Back 49

Diltiazem

Front 50

True or False: Supraventricular tachyarrythmias are rapid rhythms originating from or dependent on tissues above the ventricles.

Back 50

True.

Front 51

Normal _____ findings and cardiac _______ levels on admission in traumatized human patients are an efficient way to rule out myocardial injuries and arrhythmias associated with trauma.

Back 51

ECG and Troponin I

Front 52

Animals in incessant rapid SVT require interruption of the tachyarrythmia. Vagal maneuvers may be tried first and may terminate the SVT if it is AV node dependent. Subjectively, the effective vagal maneuver in small animals is?

Back 52

carotid sinus massage

Front 53

The most commonly reported physical finding in dogs with myocardial infarction would be?

Back 53

dyspnea, tachycardia, cardiac murmurs, arrythmias

Front 54

Arterial catheters can be used for which 2 procedures?

Back 54

direct blood pressure monitoring and procurement of arterial blood samples.

Front 55

True or False: Medications an fluids with osmolalities of 600 mOsm or more may be administered safely via a peripheral vein.

Back 55

False.

Front 56

The only absolute contraindication to intraosseous catheterization would be?

Back 56

The use of a bone that is fracturedl

Front 57

Persistently elevated lactic acid levels suggest which prognosis?

Back 57

poor.

Front 58

The IV fluid level and type should be tailored to what?

Back 58

The individual patient's needs.

Front 59

Severe skin tenting, prolonged CRT, dry mucous membranes, eyes sunken in orbits, and possibly signs of shock are indicative of _____ to ____ percent dehydration in a patient?

Back 59

10 - 12%

Front 60

Elevated blood hydrogen ion levels (pH <7.4) are described as _______, and reduced hydrogen ion levels (pH>7.4) are described as ____.

Back 60

academia, alkalemia

Front 61

What can cause a reduction in serum calcium concentration in animals with hypercalcemia?

Back 61

glucocorticoids.

Front 62

When serum potassium exceeds _____ mEg/L or severe ECG changes are present, immediate therapy directed toward reducing and antagonizing serum potassium is warrented.

Back 62

8

Front 63

What is the primary complication of hypernatremia?

Back 63

cerebraledema

Front 64

If hyponatremia is severe or occurs rapidly, it may be associated with what?

Back 64

CNS signs

Front 65

True or False: strict aseptic technique does not need to be followed for all central venous catheters.

Back 65

False.

Front 66

The CVP technique uses a smaller introducing catheter or trochar and a guidewire to gain access to vessels or hollow organs.

Back 66

Seldinger

Front 67

Hyperkalemia can result from 4 basic disturbances.

Back 67

Increased intake or admission. Translocation from the intracellular to the extracellular fluid space. artifactual or psuedohyperkalemia.

Front 68

What leads to hyponatremia through decreased sodium retention, combined with increased water drinking, and retention in defense of inadequate circulating volume?

Back 68

hyppoadrenocorticism

Front 69

Daily IV fluid therapy is used for what reason?

Back 69

to correct dehydration, to provide maintenance fluid and electrolyte needs. To replace on-going losses.

Front 70

True or False: Medications and fluids with osmolalities of 600 mOsm or less may be administered safely via a peripheral vein.

Back 70

True.