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106 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What are the functions of saliva?
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Lubrication and binding, Solubilizes dry food, Oral hygiene, Initiates starch digestion, Provides alkaline buffering and fluid
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How is the anatomy of animal teeth different than humans?
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Difference in tooth number and shape – animal – more tapered shape w/sharp cutting edges and fewer chewing surfaces, spaced further apart, teeth contact area smaller and not as tight, enamel is thinner.
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List the dental formulae for dogs and cats.
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Dog primary: 2 x (I3/3 : C 1/1 : P3/3+= 28; Permanent: 2 x (I 3/3 : C 1/1 ; P 4/4 : M2/3 = 42. Cat primary: 2x (I 3/3 ; C 1/1 : P 3/2 = 26. Permanent: 2 x (I 3/3 : C 1/1 : P 3/2 : M 1/1 = 30.
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List the age of deciduous and permanent tooth eruptions in dogs and cats.
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Dogs: Deciduous – 4-6 week, permanent – 12-16 weeks. Cats: deciduous – 3-4 weeks, Permanent – 11-16.
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Identify the directional terms for the surfaces of the teeth.
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Lingual, labial, buccal, contact/proximal.
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Define: Dentition
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The teeth in the dental arch
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Define: Dentine
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One of the hardest tissues of teeth, constitutes most of its bulk, lies between pulp cavity and enamel.
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Define: Enamel
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White, compact hard covering which protects the dentine of the crown of a tooth.
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The ___________ phase begins immediately after injury.
A) Repair B) Inflammatory C) Debridement D) Maturation |
B
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The active phase of hair growth is termed:
A) Telogen B) Anagen C) Catagen D) Diestrus |
B
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The lavage fluid should include
A) Antibiotics B) Antiseptic scrubs C) Soaps D) Balanced electrolyte solution |
D
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_________________ is a method of wound closure is indicated for moderately contaminated wounds and is performed before the development of granulation tissue.
A) Delayed primary closure B) Contraction and epithelialization C) Primary closure D) Secondary closure |
A
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Which factor is important to consider when making a decision about how to treat a wound?
A) Time since the injury B) Degree of wound contamination C) Animal's physical status D) Location of the wound E) All of the above |
E
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The _______________ phase begins about 6 hours after injury when white blood cells appear in the wound to remove necrotic tissue, bacteria, and foreign material.
A) Inflammatory B) Repair C) Maturation D) Debridement |
D
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Another term used to describe areas of hair loss is:
A) Erythema B) Alopecia C) Otitis D) Urticaria |
B
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The _____________ phase is characterized by remodeling of the collagen of the scar and the slow gain in wound strength.
A) Maturation B) Repair C) Inflammatory D) Debridement |
A
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________________ is necessary to remove debris and loose particles and tissue from the wound.
A) Debridement B) Antibiotics C) K-Y Jelly D) Lavage |
D
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Primary surgical closure is indicated in the treatment of an abrasion.
A) True B) False |
B
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A laceration in a healthy, robust animal will heal at the same rate as one in a sick, old, or debilitated animal.
A) True B) False |
B
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The _____________ phase is characterized by remodeling of the collagen of the scar and the slow gain in wound strength.
A) Debridement B) Repair C) Inflammatory D) Maturation |
D
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The ______________phase begins after the blood clot has formed and necrotic tissue and foreign material have been removed from the wound.
A) Maturation B) Inflammatory C) Debridement D) Repair |
D
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The largest organ of the body is the
A) Liver B) Spleen C) Stomach D) Skin |
D
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Periodontics
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The branch of dentistry dealing with the study and treatment of diseases of the periodontium - tissues investing and supporting the teeth, including the periodontal ligament, alveolar bone and gingiva.
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Orthodontics
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The branch of dentistry concerned with irregularities of teeth and malocclusion
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Endodontics
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The branch of dentistry concerned with the aetiology, prevention, diagnosis and treatment of conditions that affect the tooth pulp, root and periapical tissues.
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Restorative Dentistry
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Branch of dentistry dealing with restoring the form and function of teeth.
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What is the periodontium composed of?
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Aveolar bone, periodontal ligament, cementum, and gingiva.
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Define gingival hyperplasia. What breeds are most affected by this?
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Exuberent growth of the gingival tissue, prevalent in Collies and Boxers.
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What are some of the clinical signs seen with a tooth root abscess?
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Facial swelling, painful, rub face with paws, reluctant to eat, drool with blood tinged material.
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What can cause enamel hypoplasia?
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Local, systemic, or hereditary factors.
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In what tooth does is a slab fracture commonly seen? What can cause slab fractures?
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? Fourth maxillary premolar. Chewing on hard door, airplane crates, chain link fences. Hard toys, auto accidents, and dog fights.
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What teeth are oro-nasal fistulas commonly associated with?
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upper canines.
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What medication can cause yellow to darkly stained teeth if used in a very young animal during permanent tooth development?
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Tetracycline
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Define periodontal disease
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Plaque induced inflammation of theperiodontium including gingivitis and periodonitis.
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How common is periodontal disease?
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87% of dogs, 70% of cats over the age of 3 years.
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List the 4 periodontal structures
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Periodontal ligament, alveolar bone, cementum, gingival.
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List the clinical signs of periodontal disease
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. Inflammatory response in the gingival with plaque extending under thegums, loosening the ligaments attachment to the alveolar bone.
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List the sequence of events leading up to tooth loss
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Normal tooth, plaque formation, deepening of sulcus, proliferation of subgingival sulcus, toxins leading to tissue damage, continued attachment loss, tooth loss.
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What are the 3 categories of factors that predispose individuals to develop periodontal disease?
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Breed, chewing/diet, developmental defects, disease,.
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In what breeds (skull shape) can you often see rotation of the teeth?
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brachycephalic
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Is gingivitis reversible?
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Yes.
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Is periodontal disease reversible?
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No.
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Define and describe FORL
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Odontoclastic resorptive lesions are a type of idiotpathic external root resorption wehre the hard surfaces tissues of the root surfaces are destroyed by the activity of multinulcleated odontoclasts.
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Plaque
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Biofilm composed of aggregates of bacteria and their by-products, salivary components, oral debris, and occasional epithelial and inflammatory cells
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Calculus
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Hard deposits which accumulate on the teeth. Mineralized plaque. Tartar.
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Periodontitis
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Plaque induced inflammation of the periodontal tissues resulting in destruction of probing depths and alveolar bine
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Gingiva
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Connective tissue cuff around each tooth. Gum.
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Gingivitis
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Inflammation of the gingival.
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Halitosis
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Unpleasant breath odor
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Enamel hypoplasia
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Condition in which the enamel is abnormal
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CUPS
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Chronic Ulcerative Paradental stomatitis. Immune-mediated disease in which theanimal develops an allergic reaction to bacterial plaque on the teeth.
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Periodontal pocket
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False gingival pockets in which gingival height is increased due to hyperplasia, resulting in deeper “pocket” readings, but without attachment loss
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Supernumerary teeth
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Extra teeth above the normal number.
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Deciduous teeth
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Those teeth which are normally shed and replaced by diphyodont dentitions
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Permanent teeth
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Final or lasting set of teeth that are typically of lasting and durable nature
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Gingival hyperplasia
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Proliferation of the attached gingival
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Periapical abscess
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Infection around the tip of the tooth root.
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Luxated tooth
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Partial or complete separation of a tooth from its avelous
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Avulsed tooth
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Dislocation of a tooth from its alveolus
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What occurs during dental procedures that could cause harm to the person performing the procedure?
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The aerosolized infected water drops. Caluculus or dental debris may hit the eye
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What irrigating solution can be used to help decrease bacterial aerosolization?
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O.12% chlorhexidine solution
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The disease also known as idiopathic stomatitis, ulcerative stomatitis, or lymphocytic-plasmacytic stomatitis and is an immune-mediated disease is:
A) Periodontal disease B) Tooth root abscess C) CUPS D) Hypoplasia / Defect E) Gingival hyperplasia |
C
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What medication can cause yellow to darkly stained teeth if used in a very young animal during permanent tooth development?
A) Prednisone B) Tetracycline C) Parvo D) Amoxicillin |
B
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The disorder of teeth which is caused by a virus, chemical, or other causes and results in the absence of adequate enamel over the crown is:
A) Hypoplasia / Defect B) Gingival hyperplasia C) CUPS D) Chipped teeth |
A
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The neoplastic disease which constitutes about 20-30% of canine oral neoplasias, is usually found on the gingiva and tooth sockets, and has a very slow rate of metastasis is:
A) Squamous cell carcinoma B) Fibrosarcoma C) Osteosarcoma D) Malignant melanoma |
A
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The disease which can occur if dental calculus is allowed to accumulate and infection of the structures surrounding the tooth occurs is:
A) Periodontal disease B) CUPS C) Chipped teeth D) Gingival hyperplasia |
A
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The fibrous tumor which is most often seen in the upper jaw and where metastasis is rarely seen is:
A) Malignant melanoma B) Osteosarcoma C) Fibrosarcoma D) Squamous cell carcinoma |
C
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The disorder described as exuberant accumulation of gingival tissue which sometimes covers the crowns of teeth and is seen more commonly in Collies and Boxers is:
A) Hypoplasia / Defect B) Chipped teeth C) Periodontal disease D) CUPS E) Gingival hyperplasia |
E
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The neoplasia which constitutes about 30-40 % of oral neoplasms in dogs that carries a high probability of metastasis and occurs most commonly on the buccal mucosa, and can be darkly pigmented or less pigmented is:
A) Malignant melanoma B) Fibrosarcoma C) Squamous cell carcinoma D) Osteosarcoma |
A
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Which of the following disorders is / are not congenital disorders?
A) Enamel hypoplasia B) Caries C) Supernumerary teeth D) Fused teeth E) All of the above |
B
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The focal accumulation of purulent material at the apical portion of the tooth is:
A) CUPS B) Hypoplasia / Defect C) Gingival hyperplasia D) Tooth root abscess |
D
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The maxillary tooth, that when abscessed, where you often see swelling below the eye is the:
A) Incisor B) Molar C) Canine D) Carnassial |
D
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The branch of dentistry concerned with the diagnosis and treatment of conditions that affect the tooth pulp, root, and periapical tissues is:
A) Restorative dentistry B) Orthodontics C) Endodontics D) Periodontics |
C
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The disorder where a hole develops allowing direct communication of the oral and nasal cavities and is typically caused by a tooth root abscess is:
A) Oronasal fistula B) Periodontal disease C) Exposed pulp canal D) Tooth root abscess E) Gingival hyperplasia |
A
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In what tooth do you commonly see a “slab fracture” in?
A) Molar B) Incisor C) Upper carnassial D) Canine |
C
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In a cat, severe stomatitis is a clinical sign commonly associated with which of the following diseases?
A) FIV B) IBD C) FIP D) Toxoplamosis |
A
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The branch of dentistry concerned with irregularities of teeth and malocclusion is:
A) Periodontics B) Endodontics C) Restorative dentistry D) Orthodontics |
D
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The neoplasia which can affect the bone tissue of the jaws is:
A) Osteosarcoma B) Malignant melanoma C) Fibrosarcoma D) Squamous cell carcinoma |
A
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The branch of dentistry dealing with the study and treatment of diseases of the periodontium - tissues supporting the teeth, including the periodontal ligament, alveolar bone, and gingival is:
A) Periodontics B) Restorative dentistry C) Orthodontics D) Endodontics |
A
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The second and third digits in the modified Triadan system denotes the___________.
A) Tooth position B) Animal species C) Canine teeth D) Quadrant |
A
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In the Modified Triadan system, 404 represents:
A) Upper right 4th premolar B) Lower right canine C) Upper left 4th premolar D) Lower left 4th molar |
B
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In veterinary dentistry, chlorhexidine solutions are used because they:
A) Have antibacterial properties B) To treat benign oral tumors C) Remove enamel stains and whitens teeth D) Prevent cemtoenamel erosion |
A
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The dental instrument that has a sharp, pointed tip and is used for the supragingival removal of calculus is a:
A) Root tip pick B) Periodontal probe C) Curette D) Scaler |
C
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The dental instrument that has a rounded back and tip and is used for the subgingival (and supragingival) removal of calculus is a:
A) Root tip pick B) Periodontal probe C) Scaler D) Curette |
D
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The first digit of the modified Triadan system denotes the ____________.
A) Animal species B) Canine teeth C) Tooth position D) Quadrant |
D
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In the Modified Triadan system, 208 represents:
A) Lower right canine B) Upper right 4th premolar C) Lower left 4th molar D) Upper left 4th premolar |
D
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When performing dental prophylaxis, minimal safety equipment should include:
A) Gloves B) Mask C) Safety glasses D) A and B E) All of the above |
E
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Dental scaling is followed by polishing to:
A) Remove plaque-disclosing agents B) Remove microscopic grooves left by the scaling process C) Remove stubborn tartar below the gum line D) Polish out minor decay areas |
B
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Which of the following statements about using an ultrasonic scaling is false? The ultrasonic scaler with the supragingival scaler tip:
A) Should not be on the tooth for longer than 20 seconds at a time to prevent thermal damage to the pulp B) Should be held using the side of the instrument rather than the tip against the tooth. C) Can be used for supragingival and subgingival scaling D) Should be grasped like a pencil |
C
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What topically administered medication is contraindicated when a corneal ulcer is present?
A) Corticosteroids (prednisone, dexamethasone, etc.) B) Saline C) Triple antibiotic ophthalmic ointment D) Gentamicin |
A
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The nictitating membrane is also known as the:
A) Iris B) Cornea C) 3rd eyelid D) Sclera E) Conjunctiva |
C
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What test is used to help detect corneal ulcers?
A) Tonometry B) STT C) Fluorescein D) CERF |
C
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The medical term used for “Dry Eye” is:
A) KCS B) Entropion C) Epiphora D) Distichiasis E) Glaucoma |
A
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What test measures the intraocular pressure?
A) CERF B) Tonometry C) STT D) Fluorescein |
B
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The oil layer of the tear film is produced by the _________ glands:
A) Conjunctival B) Meibomian C) Lacrimal D) Nasolacrimal duct |
B
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What test measures the aqueous portion of the tears?
A) CERF B) Tonometry C) STT D) Fluorescein |
C
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The structure within the eye which allows the image to focus on the retina and is affected by cataracts is the:
A) Lens B) Tapetum C) Sclera D) Choroid E) Cornea |
A
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The condition where eyelashes emerge from a structure in the eyelid which does not normally produce hairs and these extra eyelashes often rub on the surface of the eye and may cause irritation is:
A) KCS B) Epiphora C) Entropion D) Distichiasis E) Ectropion |
D
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A dry, brown-black (“coffee ground”) ear discharge is often produced as a result of:
A) Grass awn B) Food allergy C) Ear mites D) Atopy |
C
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Underlying causes of otitis externa include which of the following?
A) Allergic skin disease B) Tumors in ear canal C) Ear mites D) Trauma due to foreign body E) A and D F) All of the above |
F
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Clinical signs of otitis externa include
A) Discharge / odor B) Ear scratching / rubbing C) Head shaking D) Redness E) All of the above |
E
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The outer ear canal is separated from the middle ear by a thin tissue called the __________ membrane or ear drum:
A) Auricle B) tympanic C) Eustachian D) Nictitating |
B
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List in order the technique of examining and cleaning an infected ear. 1) remove formed debris from the ear canal using an ear loop 2) otoscopic exam - determine if the ear drum is intact; foreign bodies? Etc. 3) apply topical medication 4) flush the ear with sterile saline 5) examine the internal and external pinna for redness, discharge, excoriation 6) collect diagnostic samples
A) 5,2,6,1,4,3 B) 3,4,1,6,2,5 C) 1,3,5,4,6,2 D) 4,6,3,5,2,1 |
A
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The narrow tube that connects the middle ear with the nasopharynx is called the ________ tube:
A) Eustachian B) Nictitating C) Auricle D) Tympanic |
A
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Another name for ear wax is:
A) Otodectes B) Lacrimal C) Labyrinth D) Cerumen |
D
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What is the test that is used to measure the extent of hearing loss and uses computers to record the electrical activity of the brain in response to sound stimulation?
A) BAER B) CERF C) STT D) Fluorscein |
A
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