Vet Public Health Final

Front 1

quantity of drug or chemical that remains or accumulates in cells is called what?

Back 1

tissue residue

Front 2

concentration of a drug or chemical that will be permitted in feed or food is called what?

Back 2

tolerance

Front 3

concentration of a drug or chemical that will not cause any adverse effect is called what?

Back 3

no effect level

Front 4

time requires for a drug or chemical to be metabolized or excreted from body systems before slaughter or consumption to reach tolerance levels is called what?

Back 4

withdrawal time

Front 5

any drug in cells above the acceptable level would be called what?

Back 5

tissue residue

Front 6

define "tissue residue"

Back 6

quantity of drug or chemical that remains or accumulates in cells

Front 7

define "tolerance" (with respect to residues)

Back 7

concentration of a drug or chemical that will be permitted in feed or food

Front 8

define "no effect level"

Back 8

concentration of a drug or chemical that will not cause any adverse effect

Front 9

define "withdrawal time"

Back 9

time requires for a drug or chemical to be metabolized or excreted from body systems before slaughter or consumption to reach tolerance levels

Front 10

what are six classes of drugs that could be found in animal-derived food

Back 10

1. antimicrobials and antibiotics
2. insecticides, herbicides, and fungicides
3. industrial or environmental pollutants
4. heavy metals
5. growth promotants, coccidiostats, and feed efficiency enhancers
6. hormones

Front 11

what are five reasons why we are concerned about antibiotic residue?

Back 11

1. allergic reactions - 10% public allergic to penicillin
2. adulterated product - public perception
3. loss of market - residue = nobody's going to buy your animal
4. inhibition of dairy processing - milk cultures; curdling to make cheese
5. removal of approved drugs / extra-label drug usage

Front 12

what are the top three reasons why residues are found in meat or milk?

Back 12

1. failure to observe withdrawal time (51% of the time)
2. unapproved drugs (18%)
3. poor medical records (12%)

Front 13

what are 3 reasons why there would be failure to observe withdrawal time and thus have a residue?

Back 13

1. more than one person treating or making culling or sale decisions
2. forced sale of sick and treated animals
3. withdrawal time not known

Front 14

what are four reasons why unapproved drugs may cause a residue problem in meat or milk?

Back 14

1. label directions not followed - different dose or route of administration
2. vet's directions not followed
3. improper feed mixing
4. extra-label drug usage

Front 15

what are three reasons why poor medical records may lead to drug residues in meat and milk?

Back 15

1. animal not identified properly
2. withdraw date not written down
3. treatment dates not recorded

Front 16

what are the top 3 parites responsible for residue occurrence?

Back 16

1. producers (76%)
2. unidentified (22%) - (probably the mayor's/sheriff's cousin and you can't fire him or rat him out because of that thing you did a few years ago, and you owe him)
3. veterinarians (1%) - (tell me it ain't so, Dr. Pelzer! Tell me it ain't so!)

Front 17

how does FSIS determine how many animals to test for residues?

Back 17

to detect a 1-3% prevalence of violations

Front 18

what things are submitted to the lab to be tested for residues in meat animals?

Back 18

- organs of excretion - liver and kidney
- organs of storage - fat
- edible products - meat, liver, kidney

Front 19

what are four subsets of the animal population that are tested for residues?

Back 19

1. animals suspected of being treated prior to marketing
2. animals originating from a farm that has had residue problems
3. random sample of loads of "normal" animals
4. high risk types of animals (cull cows, veal calves, swine)

Front 20

what are the top 3 animals commonly tested for residues because they are considered "high risk"?

Back 20

1. cull cows (45%)
2. veal calves (40%)
3. swine (6%)

Front 21

what are the three basic methodologies used to detect residues?

Back 21

1. bacteriologic testing - based on inhibition of bacterial growth
2. chemical tests - thin layer chromatography
3. immunologic tests

Front 22

what are the top 3 routes of administration that have led to drug residue violations?

Back 22

1. injected drugs (46%)
2. oral (29%)
3. intramammary (18%)

Front 23

what are 13 ways (yes, thirteen) to avoid having residues?

Back 23

1. proper usage of antibiotics and feed additives
2. designate one person responsible for treatment of animals
3. follow label directions
4. observe recommended withdrawal times
5. identification of treated animals
6. keep an accurate record
7. purchased animals should be regarded as treated until proven otherwise
8. flush feeding systems, mixers, and clean holding facilities
9. be aware of recycled feed - manure
10. discard milk from all quarters (i.e., if treating only one quarter for mastitis)
11. dry cow treatment preparations should be used only in dry cows and withdrawal recommendations followed
12. do not sell treated animals until withdrawal period has occurred
13. have animals tested prior to marketing

Front 24

what are two basic types of hormones used in animal production to increase yield?

Back 24

1. BST
2. hormonal growth implants

Front 25

what type of molecule is BST hormone?

Back 25

protein

Front 26

what is the mode of action of BST when injected into a cow?

Back 26

stimulates the liver to produce IGF-1, which regulates the conversion of dietary nutrients to milk.

Front 27

rBST:
- how is it produced?
- where and when is it administered to dairy cows?
- how much does it increas milk production?
- what is the drug vehicle?

Back 27

- produced by fermentation with scary genetically modified bacteria
- injected into tailhead of cows after 63 days in milk q 14 days
- 10% ↑ in milk production
- this is a depository, which is gradually released into the cow's bloodstream over time

Front 28

Milk from rBST-treated cows:
- how does the milk differ from non-BST cows' milk?
- how do you tell the difference between rBST and natural BST in cows' milk?

Back 28

- milk is identical except slight increase in IGF-1 levels
- you cannot tell the difference because they are identical molecules

Front 29

what is the public health significance of the use of BST to increase milk production in cows?

Back 29

none

Front 30

what are 3 hormones that are implanted into food animals as growth promotants?

Back 30

1. estrogen
2. progesterone
3. testosterone

Front 31

what is the delivery vehicle and route of administration of steroid hormones to be used as growth promotants in food animals?

Back 31

- implantable pellets
- implanted into the middle-third of the ear and the ears are discarded after slaughter

Front 32

how does the concentration of steroid hormones differ in meat from an animal treated with a hormonal growth implant versus one that is not treated?

Back 32

no difference

Front 33

what is the meat withdrawal time for animals treated with a steroid hormonal growth implant?

Back 33

none

Front 34

what are three synthetic growth hormones used in meat production?

Back 34

1. trenbolone acetate
2. zeranol
3. melengesterol

Front 35

what is the only legal way to administer steroidal growth hormones to a food anima?

Back 35

in the form of implants, with a specific dosage, and very specific route of administration (e.g., in the ear)

Front 36

name 8 drugs prohibited for extralabel use in food animals

Back 36

1. chloramphenicol
2. clenbuteral (a muscle enhancer)
3. diethylstilbesterol (synthetic esterogen; ↑ cervical cancer in women)
4. ipronidazole and other nitroimidazoles
5. furazolidone and nitrofurazone (antibacterials)
6. fluoroquinolones
7. glycopeptides (such as vancomycin, which is used in humans to treat MRSA)
8. phenylbutazone in female dairy cattle 20 months of age and older

Front 37

what are 9 animal record requirements for food animals, to document for food residues?

Back 37

1. Identify the animal
2. Animal species treated
3. Number of animals
4. Condition being treated
5. Name of drug and active ingredient
6. Dosage prescribed or used
7. Duration of treatment
8. Specified withdrawal, withholding or discard
9. Keep records for 2 years

Front 38

what are four major methods by which meat and poultry inspection provide consumer protection?

Back 38

1. eliminating diseased meat
2. esthetic factors - eliminate objectionable/undesirable meat
3. clean equipment and environment - strict hygiene protocols
4. labeling - prevent adulteration and misrepresentation of products

Front 39

what is contained in the Wholesome Meat Inspection Act of 1967?

Back 39

1. antemortem inspection of all slaughtered animals
2. disposition: passed, condemned, suspect
3. postmortem exam of viscera and carcass
4. destroy condemned carcasses
5. Secretary of Agriculture could destroy all unfit products
6. No deception of sales
7. sanitary regulations of the plant
8. applies to interstate and intrastate commerce
9. imported meat: same standards of inspection
10. state inspection must be at least equal to federal inspection
11. if states have their own inspection service, federal pays for half
12. interstate commerce of poultry is federal
13. inspection of processing plants that do not slaughter, but make products, such as sausage or boxed beef

Front 40

what is the definition of "custom slaughter"?

Back 40

privately owned animals that are slaughtered for the owner and owner's personal use

Front 41

comment on custom slaughter:
- who gets the meat?
- inspection
- labeling

Back 41

- owner must get the meat and cannot sell it
- the plant is still subject to sanitation and equipment inspection
- meat must be stamped with "not for sale" on the package

Front 42

comment on the exemption for small poultry farmers in the Wholesome Meat Act of 1967

Back 42

- farmers can market up to 250 turkeys or 1000 chickens or combinations thereof to sell uninspected, dressed birds directly to consumers
- small processors can handle up to 5000 turkeys or 10,000 chickens per year
- the plant is inspected, but each bird is not inspected

Front 43

what animals are not covered by the Humans Slaughter Act of 1978

Back 43

poultry

Front 44

what are three basic laws set forth in the Humane Slaughter act of 1978

Back 44

1. animals had to be slaughtered humanely
2. animals had to be handled humanely
3. imported animals had to be slaughtered humanely

Front 45

what are the 5 methods of humane slaughter?

Back 45

1. captive bolt
2. gunshot
3. carbon dioxide
4. electrical stunning
5. Kosher slaughter (shechita)

Front 46

slaughter by gunshot to head:
- types of bullets
- what head parts must be thrown away?

Back 46

- hollow points; frangible iron plastic composition bullets
- brains, cheek meat, and head meat are inedible

Front 47

stunning by carbon dioxide:
- concentration in air mixture
- time
- disadvantage

Back 47

- 60% CO2 with air
- 15 seconds
- expensive

Front 48

what is a complication of electrical stunning when used for slaughter?

Back 48

need to regulate voltage and amperage to avoid broken backs and hemorrhages

Front 49

electrical slaughter
- how does it work?
- what 3 typed of animals can you use it on?

Back 49

- stops heart
- hogs, sheep, calves

Front 50

how does Kosher slaughter work?

Back 50

a single, instantaneous cut to sever carotid and jugular vessels; blood cannot touch the carcass according to Kosher law

Front 51

inspection of the live animal prior to slaughter is called what?

Back 51

antemortem inspection

Front 52

the ultimate handling of an animal/carcass or its parts after it has been inspected is called what?

Back 52

disposition

Front 53

animal is deemed fit for slaughter (appears normal) is called what?

Back 53

passed for slaughter

Front 54

an animal possibly affected by a condition or disease that requires condemnation of the carcass, either wholly or in part, when slaughtered is called what?

Back 54

suspect animal

Front 55

animal that may not go to slaughter, judged as unfit for food at the antemortem inspection is called what?

Back 55

condemned animal

Front 56

when the seller (the farmer) and the buyer (the slaughter plant) agree on payment for that portion of the animal that passes inspection, thus the animal is purchased “subject” to passing inspection is called what?

Back 56

subject to inspection

Front 57

animals that are dead, dying, or drugged is called what?

Back 57

3D

Front 58

Define antemortem inspection

Back 58

inspection of the live animal prior to slaughter

Front 59

Define disposition

Back 59

the ultimate handling of an animal/carcass or its parts after it has been inspected

Front 60

Define passed for slaughter

Back 60

animal is deemed fit for slaughter (appears normal)

Front 61

Define suspect animal

Back 61

an animal possibly affected by a condition or disease that requires condemnation of the carcass, either wholly or in part, when slaughtered

Front 62

condemned animal

Back 62

animal that may not go to slaughter, judged as unfit for food at the antemortem inspection

Front 63

Define subject to inspection

Back 63

when the seller (the farmer) and the buyer (the slaughter plant) agree on payment for that portion of the animal that passes inspection, thus the animal is purchased “subject” to passing inspection

Front 64

Define 3D

Back 64

animals that are dead, dying, or drugged

Front 65

besides dead, dying, and drugged, what other condition of an animal is immediately condemned?

Back 65

down (recumbent and can't get up)

Front 66

what are five objectives of antemortem inspection?

Back 66

1. Remove animals having conditions undetectable on routine postmortem inspection.
2. Prevent unnecessary contamination of the slaughtering facility.
3. Obtain information on suspect animals for better PM disposition
4. Withhold animals exhibiting abnormal conditions that make them unfit for human food.
5. Cooperation with animal disease control agencies.

Front 67

what are the 3 types of Final Disposition of an animal for slaughter?

Back 67

1. Release for slaughter - Passed
2. U.S. Suspect
3. U.S. Condemned

Front 68

antemortem inspection procedures:
1. when must the animal be inspected
2. where shall the animal be inspected (if not poultry)
3. where shall poultry be inspected?
4. what should the animal be doing when it is inspected?
5. how do you make sure suspects and condemned are identified?
6. when are suspects killed?
7. what do you do with condemned animals
8. what if the farmer wants the animal back?

Back 68

1. Inspection must be made of all animals presented for slaughter on the day of slaughter.
2. Inspections are made in the animal’s holding pens or specially designed pens.
3. Poultry are inspected on the truck.
4. Animals are examined both at rest and in motion - horses are viewed from a 48 inch walk way for fistulous withers.
5. Suspects and condemned animals are tagged.
6. Suspects are killed at the end of the day and separately from the healthy animals.
7. Condemned animals are destroyed
8. Animals cannot go back home.

Front 69

how do you dispose of an animal with a localized lesion that is not indicative of a generalized condition?

Back 69

released for slaughter (passed)

Front 70

suspects
- when are they slaughtered?
- how must they be handled after slaughtered?
- how are they disposed?

Back 70

- tagged and killed at the end of the day
- these animals are subject to a PM inspection
- may be passed, may have a portion of the carcass rejected, or condemned entirely

Front 71

what is done with condemned animals?

Back 71

they never enter the abattoir. They are euthanized and either tanked or rendered

Front 72

antemortem inspection clinical signs:
- what is required to pass?
- what is declared a suspect?
- what two things condemn?

Back 72

- pass: nothing observable that will keep animal's carcass from being passed on PM exam
- suspect: localized or chronic pathological condition which may affect carcass being passed on PM exam
- (1) animals with signs that are injurious to human health; (2) animals showing signs of systemic illness

Front 73

on an antemortem exam, what disposition is given to an animal that has multiple abscesses?

Back 73

multiple abscesses indicates a generalized condition - condemn

Front 74

on an antemortem exam, what disposition is given to an animal that has an epithelioma or ocular SCC?

Back 74

- extensive and/or 2ndary infection, spread to LNN, or cachexia, condemn
- confined to eye, suspect

Front 75

on an antemortem exam, what disposition is given to an animal that has lumpy jaw (Actinomycosis)?

Back 75

- usually localized, suspect
- if cachectic, condemn

Front 76

on an antemortem exam, what disposition is given to an animal that is a downer cow?

Back 76

condemn. BSE risk

Front 77

on an antemortem exam, what disposition is given to an animal that has pneumonia?

Back 77

- if advanced and generalized, condemn
- if less severe (e.g. runny nose, but no fever), suspect

Front 78

on an antemortem exam, what disposition is given to an animal that has CNS damage?

Back 78

- active CNS infection, condemn
- chronic (e.g. head tilt), suspect

Front 79

on an antemortem exam, what disposition is given to an animal that has a retained placenta?

Back 79

slaughter after passage of placenta

Front 80

at what fever temperature do you condemn the following animals:
- cattle?
- swine?
- sheep?
- what needs to be taken into account with fever?

Back 80

- cattle: > 105 °F
- swine: > 106 °F
- sheep: > 105 °F
- need to take into account if there is high ambient temperature

Front 81

at antemortem inspection, what do you do with tuberculosis reactors?

Back 81

- classify as suspect; if no lesions, pass as restricted for cooking
- suspects with lesions postmortem, condemn
- animals with fever and/or dying antemortem, condemn and given a postmortem examination

Front 82

at antemortem inspection, what do you do with brucella reactors?

Back 82

- ID by ear tag and treat like any other animal
- goats are condemned because of B. melitensis

Front 83

at antemortem inspection, what do you do when you have an animal suspected to have a reportable disease?

Back 83

- notify state vet and they will advise
- if a FAD, animals are condemned and facility will be quarantined

Front 84

what are the four final postmortem dispositions?

Back 84

1. U.S. Passed
2. U.S. Condemned
3. U.S. Retained
4. Passed with restriction = cooking, refrigeration

Front 85

what are five basic reasons how a carcass or part of a carcass will be condemned at postmortem inspection?

Back 85

1. removal and condemn diseased abnormal tissue if lesion is local and minor
2. generalized lesions are condemned
3. body function abnormalities that are local, but produce a systemic effect (e.g. round worms → jaundice; worn teeth → emaciation) are condemned
4. conditions injurious to public health (e.g. drug residues) are condemned
5. offensive and repugnant odors (e.g. tumors, boar odor, bruises) are rejected for esthetic quality

Front 86

unwholesome products because of disease or severe contamination are called what?

Back 86

condemned products

Front 87

unwholesome products because they are usually not eaten and are not expected in food are called what?

Back 87

inedible products

Front 88

any substance that will change the appearance, taste, or smell of a product and thus destroy the product for food purposes is called what?

Back 88

denaturant

Front 89

changing the physical appearance of a product in order to discourage its use as human food is called what?

Back 89

decharacterize

Front 90

products that may not be sold without further processing such as cooking or freezing are called what?

Back 90

restricted products

Front 91

Define condemned products

Back 91

unwholesome products because of disease or severe contamination

Front 92

Define inedible products

Back 92

unwholesome products because they are usually not eaten and are not expected in food

Front 93

Define denaturant

Back 93

any substance that will change the appearance, taste, or smell of a product and thus destroy the product for food purposes

Front 94

Define decharacterize

Back 94

changing the physical appearance of a product in order to discourage its use as human food

Front 95

Define restricted products

Back 95

products that may not be sold without further processing such as cooking or freezing

Front 96

what is the purpose of decharacterization of meat? What are three things used to decharacterize meat?

Back 96

- used for products that are condemned for human consumption but could be used as an ingredient in animal food
- approved red and green dyes, charcoal

Front 97

what are four methods used to destroy inedible and condemned product?

Back 97

1. hashing
2. rendering
3. incineration
4. denaturing - application of a denaturing agent such as cresylic disinfectant

Front 98

what are three generalized diseases characterized by congestion, hyperemia, petechial hemorrhages, tissue edema, or lymphadenopathy that would cause a carcass to be condemned?

Back 98

1. septicemia
2. pyemia
3. toxemia

Front 99

what are the lesions post-mortem associated with septicemia, pyemia, or toxemia, that would cause condemnation of a carcass?

Back 99

congestion, hyperemia, petechial hemorrhages, tissue edema, lymphadenopathy

Front 100

tuberculosis:
- what tissues are examined post-mortem for this disease?
- what is the lesion?
- what body system is affected by this disease?

Back 100

- lymph nodes
- granulomatous inflammation
- respiratory

Front 101

what Mycobacterium species of bacteria most commonly infect swine? What system is affected? When can a carcass pass with granulomatous lymph nodes? When it is passed restricted for cooking?

Back 101

- M. avium serovars are most common
- this disease is associated with the digestive system (as opposed to respiratory with TB in cattle)
- if localized (e.g. only in mesenteric and cervical lymph nodes), carcass is passed and the GI tissues are condemned
- if diffuse (e.g., mesenteric and femoral lymph nodes), it is passed as restricted and must be cooked at standardized time and temperature

Front 102

what is the standardized temperature and time for cooking restricted passed meat (e.g., swine with granulomatous lymphadenitis)?

Back 102

170 °F for 30 minutes

Front 103

what final disposition is given to an animal, on postmortem exam, that has arthritis?

Back 103

not condemned unless there are associated systemic changes

Front 104

what final disposition is given to an animal, on postmortem exam, that has pneumonia

Back 104

if active (acute), determined by examining lymph nodes, condemn. Chronic passes

Front 105

what final disposition is given to an animal, on postmortem exam, that has pericarditis?

Back 105

- if localized, trim lesion and pass carcass
- if systemic (e.g. edema, organ congestion; and antemortem conditions such as congestive heart failure, cachexia), condemn

Front 106

what final disposition is given to an animal, on postmortem exam, that has caseous lymphadenitis?

Back 106

depending on degree of involvement, affect part or whole carcass is condemned

Front 107

what are three parasitic conditions that may cause condemnation or restricted passed in a postmortem inspection?

Back 107

1. Bovine tapeworms (taeniasis): Taenia saginata
2. Swine tapeworms (taeniasis): Taenia solium
3. Swine roundworms (trichinosis): Trichina

Front 108

Bovine taeniasis postmortem:
- 3 other names
- which muscles is it found
- disposition

Back 108

(Taenia saginata)
- cysticercus bovis, cysticercosis, measly beef
- heart and masseter muscles
- carcasses without extensive involvement are treated by excising apparent cysts and holding at -15 °F for 15 days or cooked at 140 °F

Front 109

Porcine taeniasis postmortem:
- 2 other names
- why is it a public health concern?
- disposition

Back 109

(Taenia solium)
- cysticercosis, measly pork
- humans are definitive host
- if not extensive, passed restricted for cooking or freezing

Front 110

all pork should be considered infected with what unless cooked or frozen at a very low temperature? Why do we consider all pork as infected?

Back 110

- Trichina; roundworms
- because they are not readily detected on PM exam

Front 111

how is Trichina in pork killed?

Back 111

- heating to 131 °F in pork meat
- processed pork: 137 °F
- can freeze to -40 °F

Front 112

besides pork, what other meat can contain Trichina (roundworms)?

Back 112

bear meat

Front 113

what are 8 liver conditions that may be found on a postmortem examination?

Back 113

1. milk spots - Ascaris suum
2. Cirrhosis
3. Carotenosis - enlarged yellow friable liver
4. Sawdust Liver - cattle - small areas of necrosis
5. Telangiectasis - young, well fattened beef - small purplish-black to blue areas on surface and throughout liver (associated with high grain diet)
6. pale liver
7. abscess(es)
8. fluke damage and/or presence of flukes

Front 114

liver postmortem examination: what do you do if you find milk spots?

Back 114

condemn the liver (esthetics)

Front 115

liver postmortem examination: what do you do if you find cirrhosis?

Back 115

condemn the liver; condemn the carcass if systemic changes present

Front 116

liver postmortem examination: what do you do if you find a sawdust liver (cattle)?

Back 116

condemn carcass

Front 117

liver postmortem examination: what do you do if you find carotenosis?

Back 117

condemn carcass

Front 118

liver postmortem examination: what do you do if you find pale liver

Back 118

pass if just fatty and from a near-term cow

Front 119

liver postmortem examination: what do you do if you find telangiectasis (young, well-fattened beef)

Back 119

condemn liver

Front 120

liver postmortem examination: what do you do if you find abscesses?

Back 120

- if ≤ 2 abscesses, trim out and pass the rest of the liver
- usually not done because liver is not worth much money

Front 121

liver postmortem examination: what do you do if you find fluke damage/flukes?

Back 121

condemn carcass

Front 122

why are animals with jaundice condemned?

Back 122

because jaundice usually indicates uremia. When uremic meat is cooked, it smells like urine

Front 123

what final disposition is given to an animal, on postmortem exam, that has skin conditions?

Back 123

- if localized, trim
- if systemic, condemn carcass

Front 124

what final disposition is given to an animal, on postmortem exam, that has abscesses?

Back 124

- usually are local and are trimmed out

Front 125

what final disposition is given to an animal, on postmortem exam, that has eosinophilic myositis?

Back 125

- usually seen in well-fattened cattle and has an unknown etiology
- lesions may be mistaken for sarcosporidiosis
- (like cysticercosis) carcasses without extensive involvement are treated by excising apparent cysts and holding at -15 °F for 15 days or cooked at 140 °F

Front 126

what final disposition is given to an animal, on postmortem exam, that has emaciation?

Back 126

condemned

Front 127

what final disposition is given to an animal, on postmortem exam, that has cachexia?

Back 127

usually antemortem, but regardless, condemned

Front 128

what final disposition is given to an animal, on postmortem exam, that has melanosis (aberrant melanin deposits)?

Back 128

- trim and pass
- must differentiate from melanoma

Front 129

on what tissues would you normally find melanosis?

Back 129

skin, brain, tongue, palate

Front 130

on what tissues do you detect icterus?

Back 130

- tissues that are normally white
- intima of large vessels, sclera, tendons, joint surfaces, connective tissue

Front 131

what final disposition is given to an animal, on postmortem exam, that has malignant melanoma?

Back 131

condemned

Front 132

what final disposition is given to an animal, on postmortem exam, that has epithelioma or SCC?

Back 132

- if there are mets, condemn (look at parotid lymph nodes)
- if tumor extends behind eye, condemn
- otherwise, can pass

Front 133

what final disposition is given to an animal, on postmortem exam, that has embryonal nephroma?

Back 133

- well-circumscribed, benign tumor commonly seen in swine
- if local, trim and pass carcass
- if secondary changes, condemn

Front 134

what final disposition is given to an animal, on postmortem exam, that has bruises

Back 134

trim off bruises and pass the carcass

Front 135

what final disposition is given to an animal, on postmortem exam, that has pale soft exudative pork (PSE)?

Back 135

pass

Front 136

what final disposition is given to an animal, on postmortem exam, that has nephrosis?

Back 136

depending on severity of lesions, may be a cause of uremia and therefore condemned

Front 137

what final disposition is given to an animal, on postmortem exam, that has chemical residues

Back 137

- hold and test; condemn if contaminated

Front 138

what final disposition is given to an animal, on postmortem exam, that has sexual odors (i.e. boar odor)

Back 138

can't be used as food, but can be used as part of comminuted product such as sausage

Front 139

what final disposition is given to an animal, on postmortem exam, that has bone taint

Back 139

condemn the affected area (e.g., condemn the taint)

Front 140

what is bone taint/sour bone/sour round/ham taint/sour ham?

Back 140

occurring in July and August, putrefactive bacteria that spoil heavily muscled areas due to improper slaughter and/or refrigeration

Front 141

which lymph nodes are inspected postmortem in the head?

Back 141

1. parotid
2. retropharyngeal (suprapharyngeal)
3. mandibular
4. atlantooccipital

Front 142

what is the order of a postmortem exam, with regards to the part of the body? (3)

Back 142

1. head
2. viscera
3. carcass

Front 143

on an antemortem exam, what disposition is given to an animal that has signs of mastitis?

Back 143

suspect animal

Front 144

on an antemortem exam, what disposition is given to an animal that has injected sclera?

Back 144

condemn

Front 145

on an antemortem exam, what disposition is given to an animal that has a prolapsed vagina?

Back 145

suspect animal

Front 146

swelling on the ventrum of a boar antemortem - disposition?

Back 146

suspect

Front 147

down cow that recently calved; farmer wants to send to market. What do you tell the farmer?

Back 147

wait until cow is ambulatory, then send to market

Front 148

bull sitting like a dog antemortem - disposition?

Back 148

condemn

Front 149

SCC on the eye of a cow antemortem - disposition?

Back 149

suspect - if evidence of metathesis (parotid lymph node) or tumor grows behind the eye

Front 150

sheep that is lambing, can you sell her?

Back 150

do nothing until she lambs; don't bring her to slaughter

Front 151

cow that has lumps on the dorsum and lymphoma of the eye antemortem - disposition?

Back 151

condemn; esthetics

Front 152

sow with a head tilt antemortem - disposition?

Back 152

suspect

Front 153

sow with a head tilt and a fever antemortem - disposition?

Back 153

condemn

Front 154

pig carcass with diamond skin lesions PM - disposition?

Back 154

condemn (NB, acute systemic disease)

Front 155

cow with lumpy jaw on postmortem - disposition?

Back 155

- if just confined to head, condemn head and pass the rest
- if carcass is cachectic (lack of pericardial fat, or fat that is edematous, watery, and gray, in the coronary groove of the heart; also lack of fat/serous atrophy of fat around kidney), condemn

Front 156

lungs with disperse pneumonia on PM - disposition?

Back 156

- if hemorrhagic lymph nodes condemn
- if chronic pneumonia, pass

Front 157

lungs with petechial hemorrhages on a young animal on PM - disposition?

Back 157

may be ascarids; condemn lungs and if milk spots on the liver, condemn the liver

Front 158

guts with fibrin tags on the serosa, with hemorrhages on PM - disposition?

Back 158

- Salmonella
- condemn

Front 159

on PM, muscles are dark, have a butyric acid smell on PM - disposition?

Back 159

blackleg; condemn

Front 160

sow on PM with a shattered femur on postmortem; was able to walk in antemortem - disposition?

Back 160

pass rest of carcass and condemn or trim hind quarter - bone fragments can cause injury

Front 161

lungs with multiple large masses in lungs PM exam - disposition?

Back 161

- if tumors, mets, condemn (esthetic)

Front 162

pig with parasitic cysts PM - disposition?

Back 162

- Taenia solium (tapeworms) - (Taenia saginata in Brazil)
- humans are definitive host; trim out cysts if there are only a few and freeze or cook (pass restricted); if too many cysts, condemn

Front 163

heart with vegetative endocarditis PM exam - disposition?

Back 163

systemic - condemn the cow
- cow would have intermittent fevers; because of breaking off of emboli; cows would have a murmur

Front 164

pig with a huge abscess on the leg postmortem - disposition?

Back 164

- condemn the leg
- if no CHACHEXIA and lymph nodes ok, pass the rest

Front 165

bull with swollen prepuce on antemortem - disposition?

Back 165

"water belly" = rupture of the urethra
- suspect
- burn the fat. If it smells like urine, condemn

Front 166

PM kidneys are hemorrhagic - disposition?

Back 166

- condemn kidneys
- check if uremic (burn fat)

Front 167

cow with fatty liver on PM - disposition?

Back 167

condemn liver

Front 168

in which geographical locations in the US have Hantavirus occurred? (4)

Back 168

- SW US
- 4 corner states
- Northwest
- VA on Appalachian Trail

Front 169

how is hantavirus transmitted to humans

Back 169

inhalation of aerosolized rodent excreta

Front 170

hantavirus:
- reservoir hosts?
- by what routes is the virus shed?

Back 170

- deer mouse, rodents
- feces, urine, and saliva

Front 171

what is the morbidity and mortality of hantavirus in humans?

Back 171

- low morbidity
- high mortality (50%) in humans

Front 172

how do humans die of hantavirus?

Back 172

acute respiratory failure

Front 173

what are symptoms of hantavirus infections in people?

Back 173

- flu-like → viral pneumonia
- fever, fatigue, chills, myalgia, headache
- cough that leads to rapidly progressive bilateral pneumonia and respiratory failure

Front 174

what are the clinical signs of hantavirus in animals?

Back 174

none

Front 175

what is the incubation period for hantavirus?

Back 175

2 weeks or more

Front 176

how do you control the risk of contracting hantavirus? (3)

Back 176

- eliminate rodents inside of homes
- reduce rodent shelter and food sources around homes
- when cleaning rodent-infested areas, spray area with water to reduce dust aerosolization

Front 177

what are six zoonotic arboviral infections?

Back 177

1. St. Louis encephalitis
2. West Nile Virus
3. EEE
4. WEE
5. VEE
6. LaCrosse Encephalitis

Front 178

what type of virus is St. Louis encephalitis?

Back 178

flavivirus

Front 179

St. Louis encephalitis:
- where in the US?
- what time of year?

Back 179

- endemic in rural west, clusters in low socioeconomic and older neighborhoods, which promote breeding areas for mosquitos
- occurs in 2nd half of summer and early autumn
(- man is accidental host)

Front 180

how is St. Louis encephalitis transmitted to humans?

Back 180

mosquito bite

Front 181

what are the reservoir hosts for St. Louis encephalitis?

Back 181

passerine birds (e.g. sparrows)

Front 182

what are symptoms of clinical St. Louis encephalitis?

Back 182

- fever, headache, aseptic meningitis, encephalitis

Front 183

comment on the morbidity and mortality of St. Louis encephalitis?

Back 183

- morbidity: only 1% of infections are symptomatic
- mortality: 7% of symptomatic cases are fatal

Front 184

which people are most susceptible to die from St. Louis encephalitis?

Back 184

older people

Front 185

how do you control the risk of contracting St. Louis encephalitis?
- surveillance
- at home

Back 185

- serological monitoring with sentinel chickens
- eliminate mosquito breeding areas
- mosquito control
- put goldfish in water troughs and bird baths

Front 186

what type of virus is West Nile Virus?

Back 186

flavivirus

Front 187

what environmental conditions lead to bigger outbreaks of west nile virus?

Back 187

drought conditions, when mosquito populations are more concentrated, especially in areas where people leave sources of standing water

Front 188

how is west nile virus transmitted to people? (3)

Back 188

- mosquito bite
- blood transfusions
- infected mother breastfeeding → child

Front 189

what are the reservoir hosts for west nile virus?

Back 189

birds

Front 190

west nile virus:
- what % of infections are symptomatic
- what proportion of infection become severe?
- what is the name of the severe form?

Back 190

- 20% of infections result in mild symptoms
- 1:150 infections become severe
- severe form is called the "neuro-invasive form"

Front 191

what are the symptoms of the mild form of west nile virus in people?

Back 191

fever, headache, sore throat, backache, myalgia, lymphadenopathy

Front 192

what are the symptoms of the severe "neuro-invasive form" of west nile virus?

Back 192

high fever, stiff neck, headache, muscle weakness, disorientation, coma, tremors, vision loss, numbness, and paralysis; symptoms last several weeks and may be permanent

Front 193

what are clinical signs of west nile virus in horses?

Back 193

fever and encephalitis

Front 194

what type of birds are susceptible to west nile virus disease?

Back 194

crows

Front 195

how do you prevent west nile virus?

Back 195

- serological surveillance
- mosquito control
- insect repellant and stay indoors at night
- fans in barns

Front 196

what type of viruses are EEE, WEE, and VEE?

Back 196

alphaviruses

Front 197

what is the normal life cycle of EEE virus

Back 197

cycle occurs between passerine birds (e.g., sparrows) and mosquitos; humans and horses are accidental hosts

Front 198

what type of environment is associated with EEE?

Back 198

fresh water swamps

Front 199

what is the mortality rate for
- EEE?
- WEE?
- VEE?

Back 199

- EEE: 35%
- WEE: 3-14%
- VEE: < 1%

Front 200

what are the common clinical signs of EEE, WEE, and VEE?

Back 200

- fever, headache, vomiting, lethargy, encephalitis
- severe cases: mental retardation, paralysis, death

Front 201

in what two basic ways are EEE and WEE controlled?

Back 201

1. serological monitoring of sentinel chickens
2. mosquito control

Front 202

what age groups of people are most susceptible to:
- EEE?
- WEE?

Back 202

- EEE: < 15 years; > 50 years
- WEE: < 1 year and young adults

Front 203

Venezuelan Equine Encephalitis
- vectors
- reservoir hosts

Back 203

- vectors: mosquitos and biting flies
- reservoir hosts: rodents

Front 204

how is VEE transmitted to humans?

Back 204

- horse → mosquito → human
- human → mosquito → human
- ± direct human to human

Front 205

in what two basic ways is VEE controlled?

Back 205

1. mosquito control
2. vaccination of horses

Front 206

what type of virus is LaCrosse Encephalitis/California Encephalitis?

Back 206

bunyavirus

Front 207

what age groups of people are most susceptible to LaCrosse/California Encephalitis?

Back 207

children and adolescents

Front 208

what time of year do outbreaks of LaCrosse/California Encephalitis occur?

Back 208

July-End of September; associated with chipmunks and squirrels eating acorns and other shit from the trees

Front 209

what type of environment is associated with California/LaCrosse Encephalitis?

Back 209

oak forests

Front 210

how does mosquito transmission of LaCrosse/California Encephalitis virus differ from that of EEE, WEE, VEE, and West Nile?

Back 210

the mosquito associated with this virus feeds in the day time

(the little bastards. I hate mosquitos)

Front 211

what are the two types of reservoir hosts of LaCrosse/California encephalitis?

Back 211

1. mosquitos: they have transovarian transmission
2. chipmunks and squirrels

Front 212

what are the symptoms of LaCrosse/California encephalitis in humans?

Back 212

mild fever, headache, stiff neck, nausea, diarrhea, encephalitis

Front 213

how do you control LaCrosse/California encephalitis?

Back 213

mosquito control when in the woods

Front 214

what type of virus is Orf?

Back 214

parapox virus

Front 215

comment on the environmental stability of parapox virus (Orf)

Back 215

resistant to desiccation and can survive in a scab (on the animal) for months

Front 216

what are the two major ways people get Orf?

Back 216

1. virus enters through broken skin or abrasions
2. iatrogenic accidental inoculation with the live vaccine

Front 217

what is the reservoir host for Orf?

Back 217

small ruminants and camelids

Front 218

what are the symptoms of Orf in humans?

Back 218

painful pustules and dark scab lesions on fingers, or wherever fingers touched

Front 219

what is the incubation period for Orf?

Back 219

3-7 days

Front 220

what are the lesions of Orf on animals?

Back 220

proliferative lesions (thick brown scabs) on the lips, eyes, chin, teats, udder, and vulva

Front 221

what are two ways to control Orf?

Back 221

1. wear gloves
2. vaccinate animals

Front 222

what type of virus is Newcastle Disease?

Back 222

paramyxovirus

Front 223

what is the major clinical sign of Newcastle Disease in people?

Back 223

conjunctivitis

Front 224

what are clinical signs of Newcastle Disease in birds?

Back 224

respiratory and GI disease

Front 225

which people are at most risk of contracting Newcastle Disease?

Back 225

- poultry slaughterhouse workers
- people vaccinating chicks with Newcastle vaccine

Front 226

how is Newcastle Disease transmitted to humans? Route of transmission?

Back 226

contact with infected animals; enters through the conjunctiva

Front 227

how do you control Newcastle Disease?

Back 227

- good hygiene
- vaccination

Front 228

what is Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis?
- type of virus
- hosts
- CS in humans
- severity

Back 228

an arenavirus contracted from mice, hamsters, and guinea pigs, that causes inapparent to fatal cases of influenza-like symptoms and meningitis

Front 229

what are the reservoir hosts of Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis?

Back 229

mice

Front 230

what are the clinical signs of Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis in mice?

Back 230

generally, no clinical signs

Front 231

describe the epidemiology of Lymphocytic choriomeningitis in mice.

Back 231

- generally no clinical signs
- endemic via PI mice that contract the virus transovarially and congenitally

Front 232

why should pregnant women not keep/care for pet mice?

Back 232

because the wild mice in the house visit their buddies (pet mice) and transmit Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis to women. Can cause encephalitis, hydrocephaly, and chorioretinitis in the fetus

Front 233

what is an endemic viral disease of mice that can cause severe neurological defects in the unborn fetuses of women?

Back 233

Lymphocytic choriomeningitis

Front 234

what is a deadly disease associated with rhesus monkeys?

Back 234

Macacine herpesvirus 1 (Herpes B virus)

Front 235

how is Macacine herpesvirus 1 (Herpes B virus) transmitted to humans?

Back 235

- bites or abrasions contaminated with monkey saliva
- possibly by aerosols entering conjunctiva, nose, or pharynx
- when they fling their poop and it hits you in the eye, nose, or mouth, or you wipe your eyes, nose, or mouth after having flung poop on your hands

Front 236

Macacine herpesvirus 1:
- case fatality rate
- incubation period
- clinical signs in humans

Back 236

- CFR: 15%
- incubation 1-5 weeks
- fever, headache, abdominal cramps and diarrhea, muscular pain, vertigo, diaphragmatic spasms, and flaccid paralysis of the penis and respiratory muscles

Front 237

what are clinical signs of Macacine herpesvirus 1 in monkeys?

Back 237

like herpes simplex in humans: cold sores, fever blisters

Front 238

what are four ways to control Macacine herpesvirus 1?

Back 238

1. Quarantine monkeys for 6-8 weeks
2. Monkeys with herpetiform lesions should be culled
3. House monkeys in small groups to ↓ chances of transmission
4. wear gloves, protective clothing, clean bites and scratches thoroughly, and become proficient at dodging projectile feces

Front 239

what are the two forms of BSE and the N. American/European countries where outbreaks have been found?

Back 239

1. spontaneous form: USA
2. Infectious form: Canada and England

Front 240

what is the "incubation period" of BSE (in cattle)?

Back 240

2-8 years; 3-5 years on average

Front 241

name some prion diseases and their associated hosts (5)

Back 241

- vCJD and Kuru in humans
- BSE in cattle
- scrapie in sheep
- CWD in elk and deer
- feline spongiform encephalopathy in cats (England and Norway)

Front 242

how do humans get prion diseases?

Back 242

1. eating brains of other humans
2. eating BSE infected beef
3. blood transfusions

Front 243

how much infected blood does it take to cause vCJD in humans (e.g. in a transfusion)?

Back 243

0.2 mL; a freaking small amount. DON'T GET A BLOOD TRANSFUSION UNDER ANY CIRCUMSTANCE FROM A PERSON THAT LIKES TO EAT OTHER PEOPLE'S BRAINS!!

Front 244

how are prion diseases prevented from entering the food supply?

Back 244

1. Ban on offal feeding
2. restriction of imports from countries with outbreaks
3. surveillance (cattle brains)
4. ban on feeding of all mammalian derived protein to ruminants
5. downer animals not allowed in food chain (or cosmetics)
6. remove specified risk materials (SRMs) from all animal feed, pet food

Front 245

what are SRMs?

Back 245

- specified risk materials (of prion disease)
- brain, skull, eyes, and spinal cord of cattle ≥ 30 months
- a portion of the SI and tonsils from all cattle regardless of age

Front 246

what are two ways to check for jaundice on a postmortem at slaughter?

Back 246

1. look for yellow discoloration in arteries, sclera, and other white surfaces
2. boil a piece of meat or fat in water; if it turns yellow, it is jaundice

Front 247

which type of influenza is Avian Influenza

Back 247

H5N1

Front 248

which type of influenza is The Swine Flu

Back 248

H1N1

Front 249

what types of influenza are most common in humans? (3)

Back 249

H1N1, H1N2, H3N2

Front 250

H5N1 Avian Influenza zoonotic transmission to humans:
- morbidity
- mortality

Back 250

- low morbidity
- high (50%) mortality

Front 251

where have most H5N1 Avian Influenza human deaths occurred?

Back 251

Asia, Africa, Middle East

Front 252

how is H5N1 Avian Influenza acquired in humans?

Back 252

contact with infected animals or objects contaminated with secretions/excretions from infected birds

Front 253

how is H5N1 Avian Influenza transmitted between birds?

Back 253

saliva, nasal secretions, feces

Front 254

if morbidity is so low, why are we concerned with H5N1 Avian Influenza?

Back 254

if it mutates to become more virulent in humans, it wipe out civilization as we know it.

Front 255

how is H5N1 Avian Influenza controlled?

Back 255

1. restrict movement of poultry
2. slaughter surveillance

Front 256

comment on the reassortment that took place to cause the virulent H1N1 swine flu in 2009-2010.

Back 256

- 2 genes from swine
- 1 gene from avian
- 1 gene rom human
- this was a quadruple reassortment

Front 257

H1N1 Swine Flu of 2009-2010:
- morbidity
- mortality

Back 257

- high morbidity
- low mortality

Front 258

who was most susceptible to the H1N1 Swine Flu of 2009-2010?

Back 258

immunocompromised/sick people, young children, pregnant women

Front 259

comment on the transmission of the H1N1 Swine Flu of 2009-2010

Back 259

- people to people major route of transmission
- swine were probably infected by humans
- swine do not appear to have infected humans

Front 260

how do you control H1N1 influenza?

Back 260

personal hygiene: wash hands frequently

Front 261

what type of virus is monkeypox?

Back 261

Orthopox virus

Front 262

2003 outbreak of Monkey Pox in the US:
- primary case
- location in the US
- reservoir host

Back 262

- primary case was a sick Gambian rat, distributed through an animal dealer, that came into contact with prairie dogs
- Midwest
- prairie dogs

Front 263

how is monkeypox transmitted to humans?

Back 263

- contact with infected animals (prairie dogs)
- human-to-human, but did not occur in the 2003 US outbreak

Front 264

what are the symptoms of Monkey pox in humans?

Back 264

- vesicular and pustular rash similar to smallpox
- prior to lesions, fever, headaches, non-productive cough
- pustular rash → vesicle → pustule → crust

Front 265

what are symptoms of monkey pox in prairie dogs and other animals?

Back 265

cough, fever, blepharoconjunctivitis, lymphadenopathy, nodular rash

Front 266

how do you control monkey pox?

Back 266

- vaccinate people with smallpox vaccine
- wash hands after handling animals
- import restrictions and good record-keeping of sales of imported animals

Front 267

what type of virus is Equine Hendra Virus?

Back 267

Henipavirus (paramyxovirus)

Front 268

what is the reservoir host of Equine Hendra Virus?

Back 268

bats

Front 269

where did a zoonotic transmission of Equine Hendra Virus occur?

Back 269

Australia

Front 270

public health significance of Equine Hendra Virus:
- reservoir host and epidemiology
- why do horses get it?
- how do humans get it?

Back 270

- endemic in bats
- horses are accidental hosts
- humans get it from horses, not bats or other humans

Front 271

what is a really nasty Hendra-like virus?

Back 271

Nipah Virus (Henipavirus)

Front 272

what type of virus is Nipah Virus?

Back 272

Henipavirus (Hendra-like virus)

Front 273

Nipah Virus in humans
- symptoms
- mortality

Back 273

- fever, headache, myalgia, and encephalitis
- high mortality: CFR = 40%

Front 274

where did a major outbreak of Nipah Virus occur in 1999?

Back 274

Malaysia and Singapore

Front 275

how is Nipah Virus transmitted to humans?

Back 275

- from swine with respiratory disease
- no human-to-human was reported

Front 276

in which animals has Nipah virus caused a public health risk and by what routes of transmission does this virus occur between them and to humans?

Back 276

- pigs with respiratory disease
- bodily fluids of pigs; aerosol transmission or urinary secretions

Front 277

how is Nipah Virus controlled?

Back 277

eliminate infected swine populations

Front 278

what type of virus is Rabies?

Back 278

rhabdovirus

Front 279

what is the incubation of rabies in humans?

Back 279

2-8 weeks, but up to a year

Front 280

after the onset of symptoms, how long does it take a person to die from rabies?

Back 280

2-6 days

Front 281

what are symptoms of rabies in humans?

Back 281

anxiety, headache, hyperesthesia, photophobia, can't swallow, spasms of respiratory muscles, generalized convulsions

Front 282

what are symptoms of rabies in cattle?

Back 282

persistent straining and urination, prolapsed vagina, abnormal bellowing

Front 283

what are symptoms of rabies in horses?

Back 283

signs of encephalitis, neurologic deficits

Front 284

what are symptoms of rabies in dogs and cats?

Back 284

aggression, incoordination, CNS signs

Front 285

what are four wild reservoir hosts for rabies, each of which can carry different strains of the virus?

Back 285

fox, skunk, raccoon, bat

Front 286

what is the reservoir host for rabies in:
- Texas?
- New York?
- Atlantic Coast?
- Central US?
- all of US?

Back 286

- Texas: fox
- New York: fox
- Atlantic Coast: raccoon
- Central US: skunk
- all of US: bats

Front 287

what geographic locations in the US do you find the rabies strains associated with:
- bats?
- foxes?
- raccoons?
- skunks?

Back 287

- bats: all of US
- foxes: TX and NY
- raccoons: Atlantic Coast
- skunks: Central US

Front 288

what is the quarantine period for an animal that has bitten, but does not show clinical signs of rabies? Why this specific length of time?

Back 288

- 10 days
- because virus can be shed for 10 days prior to the animal showing clinical signs

Front 289

how long is the viremic phase of rabies?

Back 289

there is no viremia in rabies

Front 290

how is rabies acquired? What are routes of transmission?

Back 290

- contact with infected saliva; contact with CNS and peripheral nervous tissue
- transmitted through bites, cuts, or conjunctival membranes

Front 291

what are four ways to control rabies?

Back 291

1. vaccinate domestic animals
2. control of stray animals
3. vaccination of veterinary health providers
4. caution of animals with neurologic signs

Front 292

how is exposure to bats, when considering rabies, different than other animals?

Back 292

since bat bites are easily missed, anybody that has had direct contact with a bat is potentially infected; or if you can't tell if a person has been exposed or not (e.g. infant, senile person, unconscious adult), you should consider them exposed

Front 293

what are 3 non-carnivorous high-risk animals for rabies?

Back 293

1. opossums
2. groundhogs (woodchucks)
3. beavers

Front 294

what type of domestic animals are considered high-risk animals for carrying rabies?

Back 294

the direct offspring of subsequent generations of domestic animals bred to wild animals (e.g., wolf hybrids, Savannah and Bengal cats)

Front 295

what are two types of mammals that are low risk of having rabies?

Back 295

1. small rodents (mice, rats, chipmunks, voles, guinea pigs, gerbils, hamsters)
2. lagomorphs (rabbits, hares)

Front 296

define "potentially rabid animal"

Back 296

A potentially rabid animal is a mammal that is considered high risk for rabies with or without compatible signs or a low risk mammal with compatible signs.

Front 297

what are six diseases in people associated with exposure to inhalent anesthetics?

Back 297

1. premature delivery in pregnant women
2. hepatic disease
3. renal disease
4. cancer
5. depression
6. headache

Front 298

in what are two ways that long exposure of low-dose radiation can affect women?

Back 298

1. menstrual irregularities
2. spontaneous miscarriages

Front 299

how does chronic low-dose radiation exposure affect the skin?

Back 299

epithelialization of exposed areas as well as dry, thickened skin, which may lead to SQ fibrosis and neoplasia

Front 300

how does chronic low-dose radiation exposure affect the eyes?

Back 300

cataracts (with the old hand-held fluoroscopes)

Front 301

how does chronic low-dose radiation exposure affect the blood?

Back 301

leukemia

Front 302

limits of radiation exposure in the work environment:
- minimum age
- max yearly dosage
- max dosage for pregnant women

Back 302

- must be 18 years or older
- 5 rem/year for whole body
- pregnant women < 500 mrem

Front 303

how must pregnant women working with x-rays wear badges?

Back 303

one on the waist and one on the neck

Front 304

what are five practical ways to limit radiation exposure?

Back 304

1. invest in high-quality x-ray equipment
2. check for scatter radiation periodically
3. limit number of retakes
4. body and hand shields; radiation badge
5. don't fold gowns or else the lead may crack

Front 305

in modern times, what type of pesticide residues are most common? What were the most common ones in the past?

Back 305

- today: pyrethrins
- past: OP and carbamates

Front 306

burning sensation and numbness are associated with what type of pesticide?

Back 306

pyrethrins

Front 307

what are side effects of OP/carbamate occupational exposure?

Back 307

- GI distress
- salivation
- peripheral and central CNS dysfunction

Front 308

what are 3 ways to prevent occupational pesticide exposure?

Back 308

1. use in a well-ventilated area
2. wear gloves, aprons, and protective eyewear
3. remove wet clothes and wash skin with water and mild soap

Front 309

what are the two most common biologic occupational exposures?

Back 309

1. needle sticks
2. exposure to foreign bacteria

Front 310

how to you avoid sticking yourself with a needle? (sigh… yes, this is a real flashcard)

Back 310

- properly restrain animal
- do not recap needle
- dispose of needle in sharps container

Front 311

how do killed vaccines pose an occupational hazard?

Back 311

accidental sticks have potential for anaphylaxis, but reaction is usually local due to adjuvants or dirty needle

Front 312

why don't you want to get accidentally injected with Blackleg vaccine?

Back 312

because it contains formalin

Front 313

new castle disease vaccine accidentally injected into a person can cause what conditions?

Back 313

conjunctivitis

Front 314

ovine ecthyma vaccine accidentally injected into a person can cause what conditions?

Back 314

localized reaction progressing to papules, vesicular, and pustular stages

Front 315

measles vaccine accidentally injected into a person can cause what conditions?

Back 315

not thought to be a health risk, but probably should not be used during pregnancy

Front 316

feline chlamydial vaccine accidentally injected into a person can cause what conditions?

Back 316

none

Front 317

bordatella vaccine accidentally injected into a person can cause what conditions?

Back 317

may infect immunocompromised individuals

Front 318

brucella strain 19 vaccine accidentally injected into a person can cause what conditions?

Back 318

severe cellulitis at site of injection

Front 319

RB 51 vaccine accidentally injected into a person can cause what conditions?

Back 319

may cause cellulitis, but not thought to be as pathogenic as Strain 19 vaccine

Front 320

what antiseptic is considered to be potentially teratogenic, mutagenic, or carcinogenic?

Back 320

ethyl alcohol

Front 321

what agent used in chemical sterilization is considered to be potentially teratogenic, mutagenic, or carcinogenic?

Back 321

ethylene oxide

Front 322

what preservative used in the veterinary lab is considered to be potentially teratogenic, mutagenic, or carcinogenic?

Back 322

formaldehyde

Front 323

what disinfectant used in the veterinary hospital is considered to be potentially teratogenic, mutagenic, or carcinogenic?

Back 323

hexachlorophene

Front 324

what chemotherapeutics are considered to be potentially teratogenic, mutagenic, or carcinogenic?

Back 324

vincristine, vinblastine, and others

Front 325

what chemical dyes used in the veterinary lab are considered to be potentially teratogenic, mutagenic, or carcinogenic?

Back 325

magenta, aniline red

Front 326

what two types of antibiotics are known to cause anaphylaxis?

Back 326

1. penicillin
2. sulfa

Front 327

which antibiotic, commonly used in poultry operations, is cardiotoxic in humans?

Back 327

tilmicosin (Micotil™)

Front 328

by what mechanism of action is the commonly used poultry antibiotic, tilmicosin, cardiotoxic in humans (and other mammals)?

Back 328

- calcium channel blockade
- induces tachycardia and negative inotropy
- can be exacerbated by β-adrenergics such as epinephrine

Front 329

which antibiotic causes aplastic anemia in humans?

Back 329

chloramphenicol

Front 330

what are two ways in which prostaglandins, used as veterinary meds, can be hazardous to humans?

Back 330

1. potentiate asthma attacks
2. abortifacients in pregnant women

Front 331

how do long work hours affect pregnant women?

Back 331

women working > 45 hours per week were at increased for early delivery

Front 332

what are five confinement housing gases and their sources?

Back 332

1. ammonia - urine
2. hydrogen sulfide - manure pits
3. nitrogen oxide - silos
4. carbon monoxide - heaters
5. hog dust - endotoxins (headaches and nausea)

Front 333

what two neoplastic diseases are linked to working in the sun?

Back 333

1. melanoma
2. SCC

Front 334

at what ambient temperatures do workers typically get hypothermia?

Back 334

30 - 50 °F