Vet Gen Path Inflammation & Tissue Repair

Front 1

1. Which of the following statement is true about inflammatory process; (P49,50,52)
1. The presence of exudate implies significant alteration in the normal permeability of small blood vessels in the area of injury.
2. Vasodilation first involves the arterioles and opens new capillary beds in the area.
3. Vasodilation is quickly followed by increased blood flow.
4. Decreased hydrostatic pressure by the dilated vessels leads to a marked outflow of fluid.
5. Increased vascular permeability due to cytokine effect is delayed and shorter than that due to histamine effect.

A. 1,2
B. 1,2,3
C. 1,2,5
D. 2,3,4
E. 2,3,5

Back 1

(1:B)

Front 2

2. Which of the following work as actin-regulating protein in leukocyte filopodium; (P57)
1. filamin 2. myosin 3. gelsolin 4. profilin 5. calmodulin

A. 1,2
B. 1,3,4,5
C. 2,3,4
D. 3,4,5
E. All of above

Back 2

(2:B)

Front 3

3. Which of the following statement about cellular event is true; (P59)
A. Major opsonins, which are IgM antibodies, the C3a breakdown product, and MBL are recognized by specific receptors on leukocytes.
B. Mannose receptors bind and mediate endocytosis of oxidized or acetylated LDL particles that can no longer interact with the conventional LDL receptor.
C. Receptor-mediated endocytosis of small particles is dependent on polymerization of actin filaments.
D. IFN-γ secreted by NK-cells and antigen-activated T-cells is the major macrophage-activating cytokine.
E. CR1 (type 1 complement receptor) on leukocyte recognizes activated C1.

Back 3

(3:D)

Front 4

4. Which of the following statement about leukocyte function is true; (P60, 61)
A. In the oxygen-independent mechanisms, BPI in leukocyte granules hydrolyses the muramic acid-Niacetyl-glucosamine bond which is found in the glycopeptide coat of all bacteria.
B. H2O2generated by the NADPH oxidase system is able to kill microbes efficiently.
C. Chediak-Higashi syndrome is characterized by myeloperoxidase deficiency.
D. In resting neutrophils, different NADPH oxidase protein components are located in the lysosome.
E. MPO-deficient leukocytes are capable of killing bacteria.

Back 4

(4:B)

Front 5

5. All of the following combinations between leukocyte receptor and function can be correct EXCEPT;　　
A. Sialyl-Lewis X―Rolling of neutrophil, monocyte, lymphocyte
B. Mac-1―fibrinogen receptor
C. CD11b/CD18―Binding microbes for phagocytosis
D. CD31―Leukocyte adhesion to activated endothelium
E. L-selectin―Lymphocyte homing to high endothelial venules (P54,55,59,60)

Back 5

(5:D)

Front 6

6. Which of the following are cells resident in tissues, which serve important functions in initiating acute inflammation; (P62)
1. Neutrophil 2. Tissue macrophage 3. Mast cells

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 2 and 3
E. All of above

Back 6

(6:D)

Front 7

7. Which of the following are the plasma-derived chemical mediators; (P63)
1. Activated oxygen species 2. Serotonin 3. C3a 4. Bradykinin 5. Hageman factor

A. 1,2
B. 1,2,3
C. 2,3,4
D. 3,4,5
E. 1,3,4,5

Back 7

(7:D)

Front 8

8. Which of the following can be included in the activation of alternative pathway of complement system; (P66,214) 1. IgA 2. Factor D 3. Plasma collectin 4. Endotoxin 5. Properdin

A. 1,2,4,5
B. 1,3,5
C. 2,3,4
D. 2,4,5
E. 2,3,4,5

Back 8

(8:A)

Front 9

9. Which of the following is the clinical manifestation due to deficiency of C1 inhibitor; (P67)
A. Increased susceptibility to infections
B. Systemic lupus erythematosus
C. Chronic hemolytic anemia due to extravascular hemolysis
D. Hemoglobinuria due to intravascular hemolysis
E. Episodic edema accumulation in the skin

Back 9

(9:E)

Front 10

10. Which of the followings are inhibited by C1 inhibitor; (P67)
1. C1 2.C3 3. C3b 4. Kallikrein 5. Hageman factor

A. 1
B. 1,2
C. 1,3
D. 1,2,4,5
E. 1,4,5

Back 10

(10:E)

Front 11

11. All of the following statement about clotting system is true EXCEPT; (P65,67,68)
A. Thrombin is the major coagulation protease.
B. PARs (Protease-activated receptors) bind to thrombin and multiple trypsin-like serine proteases.
C. PARs are single G-protein-coupled receptors, which are expressed on platelets, endothelial and smooth muscle cells.
D. Binding of thrombin to PAR-1 (type 1 receptor) triggers inflammatory responses that include P-selectin mobilization and NO production.
E. Plasmin cleaves C3 to produce C3 fragments in inflammation.

Back 11

(11:C)

Front 12

12. All of the following statement about C5a is true EXCEPT; (P64,66,68)
A. Increase vascular permeability by stimulate histamine release from mast cells
B. Stimulate arachidonic acid release from cell membrane
C. Mediate chemotaxis for neutrophils, monocytes, eosinophils and basophils
D. Are inhibited by CD59 (membrane inhibitor of reactive lysis)
E. Are generated by immunologic reactions, plasmin and kallikrein

Back 12

(12:D)

Front 13

13. All of the following statement about arachidonic acid pathway is true EXCEPT; (P68,69,70)
A. When cells are activated by stimuli, cell membrane proteins are remodeled to generate eicosanoid.
B. Vascular endothelium lacks thromboxane synthetase but possesses prostacyclin synthetase.
C. Both COX-1 and COX-2 are responsible for the production of prostaglandins that are involved in inflammation.
D. Blocking adhesion between neutrophil and platelet inhibits lipoxin production.
E. Resolvins, which are arachidonic acid-derived mediators, inhibit leukocyte recruitment and activation.

Back 13

(13:A)

Front 14

14. All of the following statement about PAF is true EXCEPT; (P70)
A. PAF effects via a single G-protein-coupled receptor.
B. PAF is regulated by a family of inactivating PAF acetylhydrolases.
C. Platelets, basophils, neutrophils and monocytes can produce PAF in both secreted and cell-bound forms.
D. At extremely low concentration, PAF induces vasoconstriction.
E. PAF increases vascular permeability greater than histamine.

Back 14

(14:D)

Front 15

15. All of the following statement about chemokines is true EXCEPT; (P71,202)
A. IL-8 acts primarily on neutrophils.
B. MCP-1 (monocyte chemoattractant protein) selectively recruits monocytes.
C. C-C chemokines are produced largely by T cells.
D. C chemokines are relatively specific for lymphocytes.
E. Both surface-bound and membrane-bound fractalkines have potent chemoattractant activity for the same cells.

Back 15

(15:B)

Front 16

16. Which of the following cytokine or chemokines is called lymphotoxin; (P71)
A. TGB-β
B. TNF-β
C. INF-β
D. C-C chemokine
E. C chemokine

Back 16

(16:B)

Front 17

17. Which of the following statement about lysosomal constituents of leukocytes is true; (P73)
A. Azurophil granules are larger than specific granules.
B. The specific granules release their contents primarily within the phagosome.
C. The azurophil granules secrete their contents by low concentrations of agonists.
D. Acid proteases degrade extracellular component mainly, but neutral proteases degrade invasive component within the phagolysosomes.
E. Monocytes don’t contain phospholipase and plasminogen activator.

Back 17

(17:A)

Front 18

18. All of the following statement about acute or chronic inflammatory response is true EXCEPT; (P81,83,84)
A. Tissue destruction is the hallmarks of the chronic inflammation.
B. Uric acid from necrotic cells initiates the inflammatory response.
C. Foreign body granulomas typically do not cause immune response.
D. Caseous necrosis due to tuberculosis is an example of foreign body granulomas.
E. Acute-phase proteins act as opsonins and fix complement.

Back 18

(18:D)

Front 19

19. In the hypothalamus, which of the following substance mainly stimulate the production of neurotransmitters, which
functions to reset the temperature set-point at higher level in inflammation; (P84)
A. Histamine
B. Bradykinin
C. Leukotriene B4
D. Prostacyclin
E. Prostaglandin E2

Back 19

(19:E)

Front 20

1. SOX9 differentiates pluripotent stromal cells into; (P94)
A. Endothelial cells
B. Myotubes
C. Fat cells
D. Osteoblasts
E. Chondroblasts

Back 20

(1:E)

Front 21

2. All of the following are function of the PDGF EXCEPT; (P95)
A. Migration of monocyte
B. Proliferation of fibroblast
C. Platelet aggregation
D. Angiogenesis
E. Production of MMPs

Back 21

(2:C)

Front 22

3. Which of the following molecules use receptor without tyrosine kinase activity for signal transudations; (P99)
1. Epo 2. IFN-γ 3. G-CSF 4. IL-3 5. Growth-hormone

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,2,3,4
C. 2,3,4,5
D. 3,4,5
E. All of above

Back 22

(3:E)

Front 23

4. Which of the following statement about liver regeneration is true; (P89, 93, 101)
A. Restoration of liver mass is achieved with the regrowth of the lobes that were resected.
B. After partial hepatectomy, expression of the p53 corresponds to the immediate early gene phase of gene expression during liver regeneration.
C. Acute injury caused by a high dose of the chemical compound is followed by the repair by fibrosis.
D. Oval cell proliferation and differentiation are prominent in liver carcinogenesis and advanced liver cirrhosis.
E. In hepatic growth process after partial hepatectomy, hepatocytes themselves readily replicate and the stem cell compartment is fully activated.

Back 23

(4:D)

Front 24

5. Which of the following is the function of Ang1 binding to the Tie2 regarding to angiogenesis; (P109)
A. Enhance the ECM production
B. Mobilize smooth muscle cells
C. Mobilize periendothelial cells
D. Mobilize endothelial cells
E. Loosen endothelial cells

Back 24

(5:C)

Front 25

6. In the signal transduction pathway via receptor with intrinsic tyrosine kinase, PI3 kinase phosphorylates
membrane phospholipid with activating; (P99)
A. Phospholipase Cγ
B. Protein kinase A
C. Protein kinase B
D. Protein kinase C
E. Inositol triphosphate

Back 25

(6:C)

Front 26

7. In the signal transduction pathway via receptor with intrinsic tyrosine kinase, which of the following molecule
does the GRB-2 bind to; (P99)
A. Inactivated RAS
B. Activated RAS
C. SOS
D. RAF
E. Akt

Back 26

(7:C)

Front 27

8. All of the following statement is true EXCEPT; (P99, 100)
A. Receptors without intrinsic tyrosine kinase activity can activate MAP kinase pathways.
B. Steroid hormone receptors are located in the cytoplasm and less frequently in the nucleus.
C. The estrogen receptor is located in the cytoplasm.
D. Vitamin D and retionoids bind to steroid hormone receptor.
E. A group of steroid hormone receptor family is mentioned as peroxisome proliferator-activated receptors.

Back 27

(8:B)

Front 28

9. In the signal transduction pathway via seven transmembrane GPCRs, all of the following are the target of calcium
signal EXCEPT; (P100)
A. Cytoskeletal protein
B. Protein kinase A
C. Cl- and K- activated ion pump
D. Calpain
E. Calmodulin

Back 28

(9:B)

Front 29

10. Which of the following molecule mediate priming (G0→G1 transition) in hepatocyte replication during
liver generation; (P102)
1. HGF 2. TNF 3. TGF-α 4. IL-6 5. Insulin 6. Activin

A. 1,3
B. 2,4
C. 1,3,5
D. 2,4,6
E. 2,3,4,5

Back 29

(10:B)

Front 30

11. All of the following statement is true EXCEPT; (P105)
A. The integrin-cytoskeleton complexes trigger PI-3 kinase pathway.
B. Integrin and growth factor receptors interact to transmit environmental signals to the cells.
C. Cell-to-cell interactions mediated by cadherins and catenins account for the inhibition of cell proliferation.
D. Free β-catenin function as a regulator of nuclear transcription factors independently of cadherins in the Wnt signaling pathway.
E. SPARC, also called as osteopontin, function as an angiogenesis inhibitor.

Back 30

(11:E)

Front 31

12. Which of the following statement is true; (P104, 105, 106)
A. Collagen fibril formation is associated with the oxidation of specific lysine and hydroxylysine residues by the lysyl oxidase.
B. Integrin is the most abundant glycoprotein in the basement membrane and has binding domains for both ECM and cell surface receptors.
C. The tensile strength of the tissue is provided by elastic fibers.
D. Type IV is fibrillar and is the main component of the basement membrane.
E. Hyaluronic acid is found in the matrix of migrating and proliferating cells and facilitates cell-to-cell adhesion.

Back 31

(12:A)

Front 32

13. Which of the following are the functions of the TGF-β; 　 (P110, 111)1. Fibroblast migration/proliferation
2. Angiogenesis
3. Collagen synthesis
4. Collagenase secretion
5. Monocyte chemotaxis

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,2,3,5
C. 1,3,5
D. 2,4,5
E. All of above

Back 32

(13:B, TGF-β → VEGF → angiogenesis)

Front 33

14. Which of the following statement about tissue repair process is true; (P110-115)
A. Migration of fibroblasts to the site of injury are triggered by IL-1, TNF, PDGF, EGF and TGF-β.
B. ADAM-17 cleaves the precursors of TNF and TGF-β.
C. In the healing by first intension, permanent wound contraction requires the action of myofibroblasts.
D. Diabetes mellitus is associated with delayed healing due to inhibited collagen synthesis by protein deficiency.
E. Excessive amounts of granulation tissue, which blocks re-epithelialization in wound healing, is mentioned as desmoids.

Back 33

(14:A)

Front 34

15. Which of the following are the functions of the VEGF; (P52, 109)
1. Stimulate fibroblast migration
2. Induce hyperplasia of lymphatic vasculature
3. Increase endothelial expression of plasminogen activator
4. Decrease endothelial expression of plasminogen activator inhibitor-1
5. Increase the number of vesiculovacuolar organelle

A. 1,2,3,4
B. 1,3,4
C. 2,3,5
D. 2,3,4,5
E. All of above

Back 34

(15:C)

Front 35

1. All of the followings are mediators of fever EXCEPT:
A. IL-1
B. IL-6
C. IL-8
D. TNF
E. PGE2

Back 35

(1:C p.105, IL-8 is chemotaxis)

Front 36

2. Select preformed mediators of inflammation:
a. Histamine
b. Defensins
c. Lysosomal enzymes
d. Serotonin
e. Nitric oxide

A. a. b. c
B. a, b, c, d
C. a, c, d
D. a, c, d, e
E. a, b, c, d, e

Back 36

(2:C p.107)

Front 37

3. Mast cells synthesize all followings EXCEPT:
A. Leukotriene B4
B. Prostaglandin D2
C. Platelet-activating factor
D. Macrophage inflammatory protein (MIP) 1-α
E. Macrophage chemotactic protein (MCP) -1

Back 37

(3:A p.118, Leukotriene C4)

Front 38

4. All followings regarding substance P are correct EXCEPT:
A. Substance P is a tachykinin, which is synthesized by sensory affect nerve fibers of the lung and alimentary system.
B. Substance P can induce vasodilation and increased permeability changes leading to edema.
C. Substance P can induce vasoconstriction, leukocyte activation, and chemotaxis.
D. Substance P can induce proliferation of mast cells, basophils, and eosinophils.
E. Substance P can induce activation and degranulation of mast cells, basophils, and eosinophils.

Back 38

(4:D p.124)

Front 39

5. All following regarding complement factors are correct EXCEPT:
A. C3a increases vascular permeability by inducing histamine release from mast cells.
B. C3b is an important opsonin and enhances neutrophil phagocytosis.
C. C3b is an inducer of adhesion molecule expression by endothelial cells.
D. C5a is an anaphylatoxin.
E. The plasma enzyme carboxypeptidase can degrade both C3a and C5b.

Back 39

(5:C p.124, C5a is an inducer of adhesion molecule expression by endothelial cells.)

Front 40

6. Match the prostaglandins to the major cell type(s) which produce them:
A. PGI2
B. TXA2
C. PGD2
D. PGE2
E. PGF2
a. Mast cells
b. Platelets
c. Endothelial cells and epithelial cells
d. Endothelial cells
e. Many cell types

Back 40

(6. A:d; B:b; C:a; D:e; E:c p.127)

Front 41

7. Match the arachidonic acids and the producing cell types:
A. COX-2
B. Leukotorien B4
C. Leukotorien C4
D. Lipoxins
a. Endothelial cells
b. Eosinophils
c. Mast cells
d. Macrophages
e. Neutrophils
f. Platelets
g. Synovial fibroblasts

Back 41

(7. A:a,g; B:e>d; C:b,c>d; D:f p.128, COX-2: leukocytes as well)

Front 42

8. Match the cytokines and their functions:
A. Hematopoietic growth factors
B. Inflammatory mediators (acute phrase reactants and natural immunity)
C. Chemotactic cytokines
D. T-cell proliferation, activation, and differentiation cytokines
a. IL-1
b. IL-2
c. IL-3
d. IL-4
e. IL-5
f. IL-6
g. IL-7
h. IL-8
i. IL-9
j. IL-10
k. IL-11
l. IL-12

Back 42

(8. A:c,i,k; B:a,f; C:h; D:b,d,e,g,i,j,l, p.129)

Front 43

9. Which are involved with hypothalamic function in food aversion, hypophagia, anorexia, weight loss, and sickness behavior:
a. TNF
b. IL-1
c. IL-6
d. PGE2
e. HMGB-1 (high mobility group box protein-1)

A. a
B. a,b
C. a,b,c
D. a,b,c,d
E. All of them

Back 43

(9:E p.132)

Front 44

10. What is high mobility group box protein-1 (HMGB-1):
A. A product by macrophages
B. A nonhistone nuclear protein that has cytokine-like functions
C. A mediator of cell differentiation
D. A mediator of endotoxicemia
E. All of above

Back 44

(10:E p.131)

Front 45

11. All of the following are correct regarding free radicals, EXCEPT:
A. Damage to extracellular matrix
B. Inactivate cytokines
C. Increase adhesion molecule expression
D. Increase the formation of LTB4
E. Inactivate neurotransmitters (adrenaline and noradrenaline)

Back 45

(11:B p.133, B. enhance cytokine expression secondary to signaling changes and cell damages; A. Inactivate antiproteases, such as α1-antitrypsin, resulting in damage to extracellular matrix proteins)

Front 46

12. All followings are nonenzymatic dietary substances, which minimize the damage to tissue caused by free radicals EXCEPT:
A. Flavonoids
B. Genistein
C. Lycopenes
D. Reserpines
E. Melatonin

Back 46

(12:E p.133, Melatonin is nonenzymatic antioxidant, but not dietary substance. Ceruloplasmin and transferring are also nonenzymatic antioxidants.)

Front 47

13. All followings are correct regarding nitric oxide (NO) EXCEPT:
A. L-arginine molecular oxygen and NADPH are cofactors of NO synthesis
B. Inhibits platelet aggregation and adhesion
C. Activates mast cell-induced inflammation
D. Oxidizes lipids and other molecules
E. Regulates leukocyte chemotaxis

Back 47

(13:C p.134, NO inhibits mast cell-induced inflammation.)

Front 48

14. All followings are correct regarding PRRs (pattern-recognition receptors) and PAMP (pathogen associated molecular pattern) EXCEPT:
A. LPS-binding protein (LBP) is a secreted PRR
B. Toll-like receptors (TLRs) are intracellular PRRs
C. MARCO is a surface receptor for mannose and induce phagocytosis
D. CD14, a surface receptor for LPS and peptidoglycan, is a co-receptor for TLR
E. C-reactive protein (CRP) and serum amyloid protein (SAP) are secreted PRRs for microbial membranes

Back 48

(14:C p.134, C. Macrophage mannose receptor is a surface receptor for mannose; MARCO is a surface receptor for bacterial cell walls; both induce phagocytosis)

Front 49

15. All followings are correct regarding TLR4 EXCEPT:
A. CD-14 is a LPS binding protein receptor, and a co-receptor of TLR4
B. MD-2 is an accessory extracellular adaptor protein that binds TLR4
C. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) F protein has affinities to TLR4
D. Lipoteichoic acids G+ have affinities to TLR4
E. LPS of Leptospira has affinities to TLR4

Back 49

(15:E p.135, E. TLR4 is a receptor for LPS but not LPS of Leptospira – TLR1&2 and TLR2&6)

Front 50

16. Match the organs and color of the exudates:
A. Staphylococcus spp.
B. Streptococcus spp.
C. Serratia marcescens
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
a. Yellow
b. Green
c. Red

Back 50

(16: A:a; B:a; C:c; D:b p.156)

Front 51

17. All of the followings play roles in TH1 pathway EXCEPT:
A. IL-2
B. IL-4
C. IL-12
D. IFN-γ
E. TNF-β

Back 51

(17:B p.157,158, TH1: IL-2,12,18,23,27, IFN-γ, TNF-β; TH2: IL-4,5,10,13,17,19 etc)

Front 52

18. All of the followings play roles fibrosis in TH2 pathway EXCEPT:
A. Citrulline
B. Proline
C. TGF-β
D. IL-13
E. Arg-1

Back 52

(18:A p.161, In TH1-mediated responses, NOS2 converts L-hydroxy-arginine to citrulline, which is antifibrotic)

Front 53

19. All of the following factors inhibit macrophage activity in chronic inflammation EXCEPT:
A. Internalized oxidized low-density lipoprotein
B. Acetylcholine
C. IFN-γ
D. IL-10
E. α5β3-integrin

Back 53

(19:C p.163, IFN-γ is a activator; IFN-α and –β are inactivators)

Front 54

20. All of the following statements regarding peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor (PPAR) are true EXCEPT:
A. Macrophages activity can be reduced by PPAR.
B. PPARs are nuclear transcription factors.
C. Activated PPARs alter inflammatory responses by macrophages, dendritic cells, endothelial cells, and B cells.
D. PPARs can inhibit NF kappa B, STATs and AP-1, and the T-lymphocyte activator NFAT.
E. PPAR activity decreases iNOS expression, reduces macrophage survival, and inhibits IL-6 and IL-12 and VCAM-1 expression.

Back 54

(20:C p163, C. T cells but not B cells)

Front 55

21. All of the following statements regarding regulatory T lymphocytes (T reg cells) are true EXCEPT:
A. T reg cells can influence the strength and the balance of TH1 and/or TH2 responses.
B. T reg cells release IL-10.
C. T reg cells release TGF-β.
D. T reg activity inhibits dendritic cells.
E. T reg activity inhibits TH1 response and activates TH2 response.

Back 55

(21:E p.172, T reg activity inhibits both TH1 and TH2 responses.)

Front 56

22. Which following lymphoid organ expresses MAdCAM-1, a receptor for the α-4/β-7 adhesion molecule expressed by T and B cells:
A. Spleen
B. Thymus
C. Lymph nodes
D. Peyer’s patch
E. Mucosal lymphoid follicles in colon and cecum

Back 56

(22:D p.173)

Front 57

23. Which followings are tight junctions which interconnect endothelial cells:
A. Occludins
B. Claudin
C. JAMs (Junctional adhesion molecules)
D. A and B
E. All of above

Back 57

(23:E p.174, Endothelial cells are interconnected by tight junctions along with adherens junctions composed of vascular endothelial cadherin (VE-cadherin).)

Front 58

24. Match following leukocyte adhesion molecules and intercellular molecules:
A. VLA-4
B. LFA-1
C. MAC-1
a. JAM-A
b. JAM-B
c. JAM-C
d. VCAM-1

Back 58

(24: A:b,d; B:a; C:c p.174)

Front 59

25. All of followings are proteinases that degrade extracellular matrix (ECM) but not proteoglycan EXCEPT:
A. Matrix metalloproteins (MMPs)
B. Cathepsin G
C. Heparinases
D. Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)
E. Cysteine proteases

Back 59

(25:C p.179,181, ECM is also degraded by urokinase plasminogen activator (uPA) and serine protease; Proteoglycans are largely degraded by lysosomal enzymes such as heparinases and galactosidases.)

Front 60

26. Match collagen types and tissues following:
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
E. Type V and VI
F. Type VI
G. Type VIII
H. Type X and XI
a. skin and muscle
b. bone, skin, and tendon
c. near epithelia
d. near endothelial cells
e. interstitial tissue
f. basal lamina
g. cartilage and vitreous humor
h. cartilage

Back 60

(26: A:b; B:g; C:a; D:f; E:e; F:f; G:d; H:h p.180)

Front 61

27. All of followings are components of basal lamina EXCEPT:
A. Laminin
B. Integrin
C. Entactin
D. Heparin sulfate proteoglycan
E. Perlecan

Back 61

(27:B p.180, collagen IV is also a component)

Front 62

28. All of followings stimulate matrix metalloproteinase (MMP) activities EXCEPT:
A. IL-1
B. TNF
C. TGF-β
D. PDGF
E. EGF

Back 62

(28:C p.181, TGF-β inhibits MMP activities)

Front 63

29. Match the steps in wound healing and the growth factors associated with:
A. Fibroblast proliferation and migration
B. Induce fibroblasts to produce collagen
C. Induce endothelial cells to proliferate and migrate and produce basement membrane for formation of new capillaries
a. Mast cell tryptase
b. FGF, TGF-β, PDGF, EGF
c. FGF, TGF-β, PDGF, IL-13
d. FGF, TGF-β, VEGF
e. Angiopoietin

Back 63

(29: A:b; B:c, C:a,d,e p.182, 183)

Front 64

30. All following statements are true regarding TGF-β EXCEPT:
A. TGF-β is produced by platelets and macrophages.
B. TGF-β induces macrophage chemotaxis.
C. TGF-β induces fibroblast migration and proliferation.
D. TGF-β induces synthesis of collagen and ECM proteins.
E. TGF-β binds TGF-β receptor II, which activate SMAD7.

Back 64

(30:E p.183, TGF receptor phosphorylates R-SMAD and Co-SMAD to overcome inhibition of SMAD 7.)

Front 65

31. Newly formed endothelial cells and fibroblasts migrate into wound sites and bind to fibrinogen and proteins as well as newly deposited ECM substances. All of followings are ECM substances for angiogenesis EXCEPT:
A. Heparin sulfate
B. Laminin
C. Type IV collagen
D. Vitronectin
E. Fibronectin
F. Chondroitin sulfate

Back 65

(31:C p.187, Type III collagen)

Front 66

32. Match growth factors, the receptors, and roles in angiogenesis:
A. Endothelial cell proliferation
B. Vascular remodeling
a. VEGF A
b. VEGF B
c. VEGF C
d. VEGF R1
e. VEGF R2
f. VEGF R3
g. Angiopoietin 1
h. Angiopoietin 2
i. Tie 1
j. Tie 2
k. Ephrin B1
l. Ephrin B2
m. Ephrin B3
n. Ephrin B4

Back 66

(32: A:a&e, g&j; B:c&f, h&j, l&n p.186,187)

Front 67

33. All of followings are inhibitors of endothelial cell growth in angiogenesis EXCEPT:
A. Angiostatin
B. Endostatin
C. Thrombospondin
D. Prox 1 gene expression
E. Specialized CXC chemokines (lacking ELR motif)

Back 67

(33:D p.187, prox 1 gene expression plays a role in vascular remodeling)

Front 68

34. All followings are activators of epithelial differentiation in lung EXCEPT:
A. FGF-10
B. NF kappa B
C. GATA-6
D. Thyroid transcription factor-1 (TTF-1)
E. Sonic hedgehog

Back 68

(34:B p.189, NF kappa B is a inhibitor; FGF-10 binds FGF R IIIB → bone morphogenic protein 4, sonic hedgehog → GATA-6, TTF-1, HNF-β, HFH-4 →epithelial cell differentiation) (HNF-β: hepatocyte nuclear factor-β; HFH-4: hepatocyte factor homolog-4) (TTF-1 induces production of surfactant proteins A, B, and C; HFH-4: stimulates cilia formation)

Front 69

1) All are true regarding Chediak-Higashi syndrome EXCEPT:
A) An autosomal-recessive disease
B) Giant phagocyte lysosomal granules
C) Giant abnormal melanosomes in melanocytes
D) Ocular abnormalities
E) Sever bleeding tendency

Back 69

(1:E p.146,288; Mild bleeding tendency)

Front 70

2) All are true regarding bovine leukocyte adhesion deficiency (BLAD) EXCEPT:
A) Single point mutation of CD18 gene
B) Impaired expression of β2 integrin
C) Neutropenia
D) Loss of teeth
E) Mucosal ulcer

Back 70

(2:C p.146; J Vet Med Sci 66:1475-1482, 2004; Neutrophilia; β2 integrin = CD11a,b,c/CD18)

Front 71

3) Order the sequence events in acute inflammation:
1. Increased vascular permeability
2. Decreased speed of flow w/ margination of leukocytes along vessel walls
3. Vasodilation by histamine, nitric oxide, PGD2, and PGE2
4. Neurogenic transient vasoconstriction
5. Exudation
6. Increased volume of blood flow in the area
A) 3→4→6→1→2→5
B) 3→4→2→6→1→5
C) 4→3→6→1→2→5
D) 4→3→1→5→2→6
E) 4→6→3→2→1→5

Back 71

(3:C p.161 Table4-7)

Front 72

4) During the early phase of increased vascular permeability, all of the following preformed or rapidly synthesized mediators are involved EXCEPT:
A) Histamine
B) Leukotorienes C4, D4, E4
C) Platelet activating factor
D) Serotonin
E) Thromboxane A2

Back 72

(4:E p.164; TXA2 increases vascular permeability, but it must be synthesized in platelets and is not a “rapid release” product.)

Front 73

5) The most abundant mammalian proteinases are:
A) Aspartic proteinases
B) Cysteine proteinases
C) Metalloproteinases
D) Serine proteinases

Back 73

(5:D p.170)

Front 74

5) The most universal antiproteinase, synthesized in liver and inhibits all four classes of leukocyte proteinases, is:
A) α2-macroglobulin
B) α1-proteinase inhibitor
C) Antithrombin III
D) Plasminogen-activator inhibitor
E) Serpin

Back 74

(5:A p.171; Serpins: serine proteinase inhibitors including α1-proteinase inhibitor, antithrombin III, and plasminogen-activator inhibitor)

Front 75

6) Match the following enzymes and substrates:
A) Arylsulfatase B
B) Histaminase
C) MMP-1
D) Phospholipase D
1. Histamine
2. Collagen
3. PAF
4. LTC4

Back 75

(6: A=4, B=1, C=2, D=3; p.170,174)

Front 76

7) Match each leukocyte granule component with its specific action:
A) Lactoferrin
B) Major basic protein
C) Bactericidal permeability-increasing protein (BPI)
D) Defensins
E) Lysozyme
1. Phospholipase activation and phospholipid breakdown
2. Hydrolysis of muramic acid-N-acetylglucosamine bond
3. Iron-binding protein
4. Cytotoxic to parasites
5. Cytotoxic to microbes

Back 76

(7: A=3, B=4, C=1, D=5, E=2; p.201)

Front 77

8) Both azurophil and specific granules of neutrophils contain (2 answers):
A) Lactoferrin
B) Phospholipase A2
C) Myeloperoxidase
D) Defensins
E) Lysozyme

Back 77

(8:B,E p.169 Table4-9; Robbins p.73 Fig2-20; Azurophil/primary granules: myeloperoxidase, defensins; Specific/secondary granules: lactoferrin)

Front 78

9) Neutrophils are the source of all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Cytokines
B) Histamine
C) Nitric oxide
D) Lysosomal enzymes
E) Platelet-activating factors

Back 78

(9:B,C p.169; Robbins p.72; Specific granules contain histaminase; NO is produced by endothelial cells, macrophages, and some neurons in the brain)

Front 79

10) The second phase of vascular leakage is induced by which cytokines (choose 2):
A) IFNγ
B) IL-1
C) IL-4
D) TGFβ
E) TNFα

Back 79

(10:B,E p.164)

Front 80

11) All of the following are induced vasoconstriction, EXCEPT
A) LTC4, D4, E4
B) PAF
C) Nitric oxide
D) PGF2α
E) TXA2

Back 80

(11:C p.166 Fig4-17)

Front 81

12) All of the following are induced vasodilatation, EXCEPT
A) PGE2
B) PGI2
C) Histamine
D) Nitric oxide
E) Bradykinin

Back 81

(12:C p.166 Fig4-17; Histamin: increase vascular permeability)

Front 82

13) All of the following factors are containing neutrophilic azurophil granules, EXCEPT
A) Myeloperoxidase
B) Elastase
C) Defecins
D) α-mannosidase
E) MMP-8

Back 82

(13:E p.169 Table4-9; Collagenase MMP-8 in specific granules)

Front 83

14) Which factor does inhibit the MMPs
A) TIMPs
B) α2-macroglobulin
C) α1-proteinase inhibitor
D) Antithrombin III
E) Serine proteinase

Back 83

(14:A p.171; TIMPs=tissue inhibitors of metalloproteinases)

Front 84

15) Which factor is most important eosinophilic differentiation factor?
A) IL-8
B) IL-3
C) Eotaxin
D) IL-4
E) IL-5

Back 84

(15:E p.172)

Front 85

16) All of the following are containing eosinophils, EXCEPT
A) Major basic protein
B) Histaminase
C) Lysozyme
D) MMP-1, -8
E) Phospholipase D

Back 85

(16:C p.173,174)

Front 86

17) All of the following are specific granules of neutrophils, EXCEPT
A) Vitamin B12-bindning protein
B) Histaminase
C) Elastase
D) CD11b/CD18 β2-integrin
E) Urokinase plasminogen activator (uPA)
F) uPA receptor

Back 86

(17:C p.169 Table4-9; Elastase - azurophil granules)

Front 87

18) Leukocyte adhesion deficiency (LAD) in which leukocytes lack a related group functional adhesion molecules on the surface; which factor
A) CD11/CD18
B) CD31 (PCAM-1)
C) L-selectin
D) E-selectin
E) VLA-1

Back 87

(18:A p.146)

Front 88

19) Which kind of dogs is reported CLAD?
A) German shepherd
B) Beagle
C) Bassett hound
D) Irish setter
E) Akita

Back 88

(19:D JVIM 2002 16:518-523)

Front 89

20) All of the following are cytokines and other mediators synthesized by stimulated macrophages/monocytes, EXCEPT
A) IL-1
B) Interferon-inducible protein-10 (IP-10)
C) IFN-γ
D) Nitric oxide
E) Platelet-activating factor

Back 89

(20:C p.178; IFN-α and β, but not IFN-γ)

Front 90

21) β2-integrins bind to which?
A) ICAM
B) VCAM
C) PECAM
D) VLA-1
E) E-selectin

Back 90

(21:A p.182 Table4-13)

Front 91

22) Pairing
A) CD11a/CD18
B) CD11b/CD18
C) CD11c/CD18
D) CD11d/CD18
1. Enriched on lymphocyte
2. Enriched on myeloid cell
3. Enriched on monocytes
4. Primarily on monocytes

Back 91

(22:A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 p.182 Table4-13)

Front 92

23) Which the followings contain P-selectin, CHOOSE TWO
A) Alpha granules of platelets
B) Dense bodies/ δ granules of platelets
C) Weibel-Palade bodies of endothelial cells
D) Azurophil granules of neutrophils
E) Specific granules of neutrophils

Back 92

(23:A,C p.184; Robbins p.55,126)

Front 93

24) All of the following are products of platelets, EXCEPT
A) Platelet factor 4
B) Fibrinogen
C) Serotonin
D) Histamin
E) L-selectin

Back 93

(24:E p.184 Box4-4, P-selectin)

Front 94

25) Endothelial molecule PECAM adhere to which leukocyte receptor?
A) ICAM
B) Sialyl-Lewis X
C) E-selectin
D) GlyCAM-1
E) PECAM

Back 94

(25:E p.182 Table4-13; PECAM = CD31)

Front 95

26) L-selectin of lymphocytes has special combination of adhesion molecules on endothelial cells. Which adhesion molecules on the Payer’s patch?
A) GlyCAM-1
B) MadCAM-1
C) CD34
D) CD31
E) VCAM

Back 95

(26:B p.182; Peripheral lymph nodes – GlyCAM-1)

Front 96

27) All of the following are factors of the cell-mediated immunity, EXCEPT
A) IL-2
B) IFN-γ
C) IL-12
D) IL-4
E) IL-12

Back 96

(27:D p.208 Table4-16; IL-4: important for humoral immunity)

Front 97

28) Which cytokine is an eosinophil growth and differentiation factor
A) IL-3
B) IL-8
C) IL-18
D) IL-5
E) IL-1

Back 97

(28:D p.208 Table4-16)

Front 98

29) Which factor is producing the acute-phase inflammation response?
A) IL-3
B) IL-8
C) IL-18
D) IL-5
E) IL-1

Back 98

(29:E p.208 Table4-16; Also TNF-α and IL-6)

Front 99

30) In cachexia, which factor is over-expressed?
A) TNF-α
B) IFN-γ
C) IL-1
D) Cox-2
E) iNOS

Back 99

(30:A Robbins p.9)

Front 100

31) Mast cells contain abundant prostaglandin, which class?
A) PGE2
B) PGF2α
C) PGI2
D) PGD2
E) TXA2

Back 100

(31:D p.211, 214; PGI2: endothelial cells; TXA2: platelets; PGE2 and PGF2α: widely distribute)

Front 101

32) Which NOS is long-lasting release
A) iNOS
B) eNOS
C) nNOS

Back 101

(32:A p.222 Table4-21)

Front 102

33) Which NOS require Ca as cofactor for NOS activity, CHOOSE ALL?
A) iNOS
B) eNOS
C) nNOS

Back 102

(33:B,C p.222 Table4-21; cNOS (eNOS, nNOS): Ca++/calmodulin-dependent regulation)

Front 103

34) Which NOS is inhibited by corticosteroids?
A) Inducible NOS
B) Constitutive NOS

Back 103

(34:A p.222 Table4-21)

Front 104

35) Histamine induces the vascular leakage, which vessels?
A) All levels of the microcirculation
B) Venules
C) Capillaries
D) Arterioles

Back 104

(35:B Robbins p.64; Histamine causes dilation of the arterioles and increases the permeability of venules)

Front 105

36) All of the following factors have both vascular leakage and chemotaxis, EXCEPT
A) C5a
B) PAF
C) NO
D) LTB4

Back 105

(36:D Robbins p.74 Table2-5; LTB4 mediates chemotaxis but not vascular leakage)

Front 106

37) All are “positive” acute-phase proteins of inflammation (concentration increases), EXCEPT
A) Complement components (C3, C4, C9, and C1 inhibitor)
B) C-reactive protein
C) Ceruloplasmin
D) Serum amyroid P (SAP)
E) Albumin

Back 106

(37:E p.224 Table4-23; Albumin is a “negative” acute-phase protein)

Front 107

38) All are “negative” acute-phase proteins of inflammation, EXCEPT
A) Albumin
B) Transferrin
C) Haptoglobin
D) Factor XII
E) Insulin-like growth factor I

Back 107

(38:C p.224 Table4-23; Haptoglobin is a “positive” acute-phase protein)

Front 108

39) Which cytokines play the principal roles in acute phase response (CHOOSE THREE)
A) IL-1
B) IL-6
C) TNF-α
D) IFN-γ
E) IL-13

Back 108

(39:A,B,C p.224-5; Synthesis of IL-1 or TNF-α can induce synthesis of IL-6)

Front 109

40) All of the following are angiogenic growth factor, EXCEPT?
A) FGF
B) EGF
C) TGF-α
D) VEGF
E) Endostatin

Back 109

(40:E p.238 Table 4-24; Endostatin – antiangiogenesis)

Front 110

41) Which cells have receptor for VEGF, CHOOSE ALL?
A) Endothelial cells
B) Epidermis
C) Macrophages
D) Vascular smooth muscles
E) Fibroblasts

Back 110

(41:A p.238 Table4-24; Receptors for VEGF are found only on endothelial cells)

Front 111

42) All of the following coagulation-related proteins are increased in acute inflammation, EXCEPT
A) Fibrinogen
B) Plasminogen
C) Plasminogen activators
D) Plasminogen activator inhibitor
E) Factor XII

Back 111

(42:E p.224 Table4-23; Factor XII – a “negative” acute-phase protein)