• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/130

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

130 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
_______________ is specifically for prevention of coaguability
Prophylaxis
Prophylactic measures _____________
reduce venous stasis & coagulability of blood
How does a patient's activity level a prophylactic measure?
- Pt's who are mobile have reduced incidence of thromboembolism
What should surgical pt do?
Remain active

- Pre-hospital admission

- Resume walking/physical therapy exercises ASAP post-hospital
What are 4 ways prophylactic measures for stasis?
- Elevation

- Mechanical Pedaling

- Pneumatic Devices

- Elastic Compression
T or F:

Pt's should be positioned w/LE below right atrium
FALSE:

Positioned w/LE ABOVE right atrium
What does positioning a pt w/LE above right atrium do
Causes an increase in venous return
If venous return is increased than ______________
venous stasis is reduced
What reduces venous flow during surgery?
anesthesia
IF venous flow is reduced by anesthesia, then what is the best position during surgery?
Trendelenberg
T or F:

Pneumatic Devices is passive dorsiflexion of foot during surgery that reduces incidence of DVT
FALSE:

MECHANICAL PEDALING is passive dorsiflexion of foot during surgery that reduces incidence of DVT
Pneumatic Devices are an _________________ at the foot of the bed and have multiple ____________________
- Air pump

- Multiple diaphragm cuff that fits the whole calf
Why are elastic compressions used?
Elastic bandages are used to collapse the superficial veins
T or F:

Elastic compressions are used to increase flow into the superficial system
FALSE:

- The compressions collapse the superficial veins

* Increase flow in the DEEP system
T or F:

Compression should be minimal at the foot and maximal at the thigh
FALSE:

Compression should be MAXIMAL AT FOOT and MINIMAL AT THIGH
What are 4 types of prophylactic medications that are used to affect the coagulability of blood?
- ASA

- Heparin

- Warfarin

- Lovenox
T or F:

Aspirin dissolves clots
FALSE:

It decreases platelet aggregation >>> prevents more from forming

* Decreases thrombus formation >>> incidence of DVT
ASA is a ____________ agent
antiplatelet agent
T or F:

There is one general dosage range of ASA
FALSE:

SEVERAL different ASA dosage ranges
If a pt was already being anticoagulated would you expect them to also be on ASA?
No --- ASA thins blood

* Could make pt too anticoagulated
What are 2 comps of ASA?
- Thrombocytopenia

- GI bleeds
Thrombocytopenia is a comp of ASA because _____________
the platelet count lowers to dangerous levels
_________________ is one of the most widely used drugs for vascular pts
Heparin
How does Heparin make the blood thinner?
It augments the action of Antithrombin III
When given in adequate amts, Heparin can _____________
-prevent formation and/or extension of thrombus
What is standard tx if DVT is prox or in Pop V ?
Heparin
What is a loading dose>
A dose higher than the avg or maintenance doses
When is the loading dose used?
At the INITIATION of therapy to rapidly establish a desired level of the drug
If prophylactic measures are being taken then _______________
the loading dose & maintenance dose are equal
For DVT tx, Heparin is administered by IV loading bolus followed by _______________
maintenance doses given 2-3 times/day until pt is ambulatory
How long is therapy maintained for heparin?
5-7 days
What is important in avoiding comps of Heparin?
Monitoring of the pt's anticoagulant response
Prior to discharge a pt's heparin dosage is usually decreased and they are started on ____________
coumadin
T or F:

Coumadin is an IV therapy
FALSE:

Oral anticoagulation
The generic name for Coumadin is ___________-
Warfarin


* Coumadin is the brand name
Coumadin is indicated for use after ____________
heparin or thrombolytic therapy
Coumadin is indicated for use after heparin or thrombolytic therapy for what 5 things?
- DVT

- PE

- Prosthetic Heart valve replacements

- Chronic A-Fib

- Intermittent A-Fib
How does Coumadin work?
It inhibits the synthesis of vitamin K dependent clotting factors by the liver
Why is an effective dose a fine line?
- Fine line between preventing clotting w/o bleeding comps
Why would a pt have to be on coumadin long-term?
Pt's w/DVT or PE may require long-term therapy to prevent recurrent disease
If first episode then therapy may last
3-6 months in the absence of other risk factors

* ( cancer & stasis)
If pt presents w/recurring DVT _____________
prob have to be on coumadin for several years
If recurrent DVT & other risk factors involved _____________
Indefinite therapy may be indicated
What are 2 advantages of coumadin?
- Oral form

- Long term therapy
What are the 3 disadvantages of coumadin?
- Prolonged action time

- Must be discontinued 2-3 days before surg/dental procedures

- Pts need to be very compliant to safely take this drug
Prolonged action time because ______________
may take several days to reach therapeutic levels
What must it be discontinued 2-3 days prior to surg/dental procedures?
To assure normal clotting
Pt are compliant by _____________
having regular protimes >>> taking at same time everyday
What is another name for Lovenox?
Enoxaparin sodium
What is Lovenox?
A low-molecular weight Heparin
What does having a lower molecular weight mean?
It is less toxic than Heparin
It is a form of Heparin w/a ______________
longer biologic half-life
Smaller amounts of this preparation produced a ____________
greater effect than traditional forms
Lovenox has unique pharmacological properties and _____________
more predictable anticoagulant response
T or F:

An advantage of Lovenox is that it is long term therapy
FALSE:

That's an advantage of Coumadin
What is the advantage of Lovenox?
Advantage of allowing DVT to be treated in the home setting rather than in the hospital
It increases pt convenience and decreases ____________
health costs
Where is Lovenox injected?
subcutaneously
How often is Lovenox injected?
Every 8-12 HR
T or F:

The pt cannot inject themselves w/the Lovenox
FALSE:

Either by pt or caregiver primarily at home
Which anticoagulant is the safest for pregnancy patients?
Lovenox
How does protimes affect Coumadin & Levonox?
Doses may change frequenctly depending on protime
T or F:

Protime is decided by the pt
FALSE:

Protimes must be checked consistently as ordered by the physician
What are the signs to watch for when on Coumadin or Levonox?
- Watch for signs of bleeding: gums, stools, urine
What should be avoided while on Coumadin or Levonox?
Excessive injuries
What is used for assessment of coagulation?
A widely used test in the US is PT
What does PT stand for?
Prothrombin time

* Also called protime
How does PT test work?
Measurement of clotting time is evaluated
What is the normal plasma clotting time?
11-13 seconds
If a pt is on anticoagulation therapy, how should clotting time be affected?
It should take longer for the blood to clot
"target ranges" will vary depending on ______________
clinical diagnosis and use

Ex: A pt w/heart valve replacement may be adjusted to show PT of 18-20 seconds
T or F:

The INR variability is when the same test performed in different hospitals or labs can yield different results
FALSE:

PT INVARIABILITY
Why is PT invariability an issue?
These variations can lead to differing tx decisions
What was the standardized method developed to reduce this variability?
INR = standardized PT test (internationally)
What does INR stand for?
International Normalized Ratio
Pt has a 2.0-3.0 INR, what does this mean?
It takes 2-3 times longer to clot than the control (clotting time)
INR of 1.0 means _____________
Indicates no anticoagulant effect at all
What INR represents normal clotting time?
1.0
What INR is considered dangerous?

Why?
INR of 5.0

- Because the pt is bleeding 5 times as fast
T or F:

Most labs adjust anticoagulant level to the PT level
FALSE:

Most labs adjust anticoagulant level to the INR LEVEL, not the PT level
Therapeutic level prevents clotting w/o _________
causing excessive bleeding or bruising
What is a key sign of a pt being too anticoagulated?
Significant bruising
T or F:

PT & INR procedures can only be done by a DR in their office
FALSE:

Can be done in commercial lab or Dr's office by lab tech, nurse, or Dr
What is the difference between performing the PT vs the INR test?
PT: Needle stick

INR: Finger Prick
What is the reliability for INR & PT?
Good reliability-- both PT & INR are usually reported
What is another advantage of PT & IVR?
Inexpensive
What are the 3 factors that affect PT/INR?
- Alcohol

- ASA -- thins blood

- Vitamin K -- multivitamin or dietary intake
Why is vitamin K a factor for PT/INR tests?
Vitamin K is an antagonist to Warfarin


* Counteracts the effects of Warfarin
What are the goals of tx for DVT?
- Prevent propagation of thrombus

- Prevent postphlebetic syndrome & valve damage

- Prevent death from PE
What are the goals of tx for PE?
- Support & maintain life during acute episode

- Prevent reoccurrence
What is the more aggressive type of therapy?
Thrombolytic therapy
__________________ is dissolution of fibrin cloth by enzyme action
Fibrinolysis
What are 3 agents used for thrombolytic therapy?
- Streptokinase

- Urokinase

- Tissue Plasminogram Activator (tPA)
Why is thrombolytic therapy considered aggressive?
- There is a chance that the lytic agent will travel through the bloodstream

- It eats up clots & clotting factors in entire system
What would thrombolytic tx be indicated for?
- Acute massive pulmonary emboli

- Acute extensive DVT

- Acute arterial thrombosis
What is the goal of thrombolytic therapy?
To restore venous/arterial flow w/minimal damage to the pulmonary vascular bed, venous valves or vessel
What is important for drugs to work effectively?
- There is a time sensitive range

- Works best for lesions <7-10 days old and in larger vessels
What are the two clinical approaches for Thrombolytic therapy?
- Systemic

- Regional
How is the systemic approach administered?
IV administration of the drug via the peripheral vein
The goal is to achieve a _______________ that dissolves _________________
systemic lytic state

fibrin wherever deposited
What is a comp of the systemic approach?
Frequent comp of bleeding
How is the regional approach administered?
Locally targeted instillation by catheter-directed administration
What is the catheter-directed administered into/close to?
Thrombotic material for enhanced effectiveness
What is the regional approach particularly used for?
For severe inflow/outflow disease
What are some of the comps associated w/the regional approach?
Comps include (but not limited to) hemorrhage & embolization
What are the 4 contraindications for thrombolytic therapy?
- Recent surgical procedures

- Recent trauma

- Pregnancy--including immediate post delivery

- GI Bleeding
What are the 4 comps of thrombolytic therapy?
- Hemorrhage

- Sensitivity Reaction

- Expense

- Lytic agents are followed by intensive Heparin therapy
T or F:

Hemorrhage is more common in pts using thrombolytic therapy than pts using Heparin
TRUE:

2-5 times more common than in pts using Heparin
What is the cost difference between Streptokinase and Urokinase?
Streptokinase: $175/24hr tx

Urokinase: > $4000/24hr tx
Streptokinase is a protein derived from filtrates of _______________
Streptococcus bacteria
It combines w/plasminogen to form an ___________ which converts _____________
activator complex

more plasminogen to plasmin
What type of conversion is this?
Slower conversion

* Conversion & action takes place slowly
Given for ______________
24-72 HR
Which does is given first?
The loading dose and then the maintenance dose
Human plasma usually contains antibodies directed against streptococci so _________________
sufficient amounts of SK must be infused to neutralize the antibodies
T or F:

It is common to have an allergic reaction to SK
TRUE
T or F:

SK can be repeated after 3 months of last SK therapy
FALSE:

SK can't be repeated w/in 6 months
Urokinase is naturally produced by _________________
the kidneys and excreted in the urine
What does Urokinase convert?
Directly converts plasminogen to plasmin
UK is given for up to _________________--
48 HR


* dose administration is the same as SK---loading dose and then maintenance dosing
Why can UK be used repeatedly?
Because it doesn't form antibodies
Which thrombolytic therapy is used more widely?
UK -- but physician pref
tPA is ______________
plasminogen converted to enzyme plasmin (by tPA) to lyse the clot
tPA is given for ____________
variable shorter periods

* Approx 90 min in coronary application

* 2HR for PE
Why is there less likelihood of an allergic reaction w/tPA?
Because it has no antigenic properties
tPA is used most commonly in ______________
coronary's/stroke pts
Lytic agents ________________
accelerate lysis
When are lytic agents more beneficial than Heparin?
W/massive emboli or clot
Lytic agents are more beneficial w/ __________
cardiopulmonary insufficiency, PE
What are 2 benefits of Heparin?
- Safer

- Associated w/fewer comps