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208 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
MC cause of death from Acute Renal Failure
75% Infection
Prerenal ARF
Olliguria
High BUN/Cr ratio >20:1
High Urine osm >500
Low FeNa <1%
Hyaline casts
Renal ARF
Low BUN/Cr ratio <20:1
Low Urine osm < 350 (water resorption impaired)
High FeNa >2%
Nephrotoxins
Aminoglycosides
Radiocontrast
NSAID
Myoglobin
Cisplatin
Kappa/Gamma light chains
Tests of postrenal failure
physical - palpate bladder
U/S - obstruction, hydronephrosis
catheter - check for urine
MC deadly complication of early phase ARF
hyperkalemic cardiac arrest + pulmonary edema
Level of symptomatic uremia
BUN > 60
Uremia features
Hypertension
CHF
Pericarditis
Nausea, Vomiting
Loss of apetite
Lethargy
Restless legs
Asterixis
Normocytic anemia
Bleeding (low platelets)
CRF Calcium/Phosphate
HYPOcalcemia
HYPERphosphatemia
High PTH
What is calciphylaxis
Hyperphosphatemia may cause calcium and phosphate to precipitatevwhich causes vascular calcifications that may result in necrotic skin
lesions.
Major cause of mortality in CRF
Infections
Diet in CRF
LOW protein
LOW salt (if HTN, CHF)
LOW K, PO4, Mg
HIGH Ca, Vit D
Ace Inhibitors in CRF
Used early on in CRF, may worsen hyperkalemia!!!
Treatment of hyperphosphatemia in CRF
calcium citrate (phosphate binder)
Treatment of pruritus in CRF
capsaicin cream
cholestyramine + UV light
Life threatening complications in CRF
Hyperkalemia - get ECG
Pulmonary edema due to volume overload - check for weight gain
Infection
Indications for dialysis
Acidosis
Electrolytes - High K presists
Intoxication - Methanol, Ethylene glycol, lithium, aspirin
Overload - hypervolemia
Uremia - pericarditis
AV fistula for dialysis
B/t radial artery and veins in forearm
How do you know AV fistula is ready to be used
Audible bruit present
Benefits of hemodialysis
More efficient
Initiated more quickly
Disadvantages of hemodialysis
Hypotension (fluid removed)
Hypoosmolarity (solute removed)
Req vascular access
Req anticoagulation with heparin
Advantages of peritoneal dialysis
Patient can learn to do on own
Mimics kidney physiology more
Disadvantages of peritoneal dialysis
Hyperglycemia/ Hypertriglyceridemia (high glucose load)
Peritonitis
Req high motivation
Increased abdominal girth
Patients on dialysis are lacking in what?
Erythropoietin
Vit D
Complications hemodialysis
Hypotension - ischemia
Hypoosmolarity - N/V, seizures
First use syndrome
Hemorrahge/Hematoma
Infection
Amyloidosis of B2 microglobulin
Complications of peritoneal dialysis
Peritonitis
Abdo/Inguinal hernia
Hyperglycemia
Protein malnutrition
What is First Use Syndrome
Back pain, chest pain and reare anaphylaxis immediately when a new dialysis machine is used
MC cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults
Membranous nephropathy
MC cause of nephrotic syndrome in kids
Minimal change disease
Treatment of asymptomatic transient proteinuria
No treatment/tests
Asymptomatic persistent protenuira
Further workup required
First step is BP check and urine sediment examination
Urine dipstick for protein false negative
Only detects albumin, will not detect globulins (light chains in myeloma)
Proteinuria on dipstick, next test to order?
Urinalysis
Urinalysis confirms protein, next test to order?
24 hour Urine collection for albumin/cr
Level of protein for microalbuminuria
30 - 300 mg
NOT detected by dipstick
Most sensitive and specific test for microalbuminuria
radioimunoassay
Best test of renal function
Creatnine clearance
Best test to detect renal obstruction, masses and cysts
Renal ultrasound
Test to detect chronic pyelonephritis
Intravenous pyelogram
When to do renal biopsy?
No cause identified by less invasive tests
Symptomatic proteinuria what vaccinations are recommended
Influenza and Pneumococcus due to increased infections
Best test to detect bladder cancer
Cystoscopy = perform if suspicion is high even if cytology is negative on urine specimen
What cancer is associated with Minimal Change disease
Hodkin's and non Hodkins lymphoma
Treatment of Minimal Change disease
Steroids 4-8 weeks
Treatment of Poststreptococcal GN
Supportive - antihypertensives, loop diuretics
Meds causing interstitial nephritis
NSAIDs
penicillins
furosemide, thazide
sulfonamides
phenytoin
Treatment Type I RTA
Sodium Bicarb (acidsosis0
Phosphate salt (excrete acid)
Treatment Type II RTA
Sodium restriction (increases Na and Bicarb reabsorption)
Hartnup disease defect
Auto recessive
Decreased neutral aa absorption - tryptophan (nicotinamide deficiency)
Hartnup disease features
dermatitis
diarrhea
ataxia
psychiatric disturbance
Fanconi syndrome pathogenesis
proximal tubule defect (one of the causes of type 2 RTA)
Fanconi syndrome features
glycosuria
phosphaturia (rickets, osteomalacia)
proteinuria
polyuria
dehydration
hypokalemia
Treatment of Fanconi anemia
Phophate
Potassium
Alkali
Salt Supplements
Hydration
Confirmation test for polycystic kidney disease
U/S kidneys
CT/MRI alternative
Diagnosis of medullary sponge kidney
Intravenous Pyelogram
Treatment of simple renal cysts
No Treatment (asymptomatic)
Gold standard test for Renovascular HTN
Renal arteriogram - CONTRAINDICATED in renal failure
In Renovascular HTN what test can be done in a patient with renal failure
MRA (dye is not nephrotoxic)
Noninvasive study for renovascular HTN in people with good renal function
Captopril renal scintigram (scan)
Diagnostic test for renal vein thrombosis
renal venography (definitive study) or IVP
Treatment in renal vein thrombosis
Anticoagulation to prevent PE
Risk Factors for Kidney stones
Low fluid intake (MC and preventable risk factor)
Fm Hx
Gout, High PTH, type 1 RTA
Loops, acetazolamide
Chemo
Male
UTI
Which stones cannot be detected by KUB
Uric acid - radiolucent
What imaging is ordered for uric acid stone
CT
U/S kindneys
IVP
What stones are MC in people with chronic UTI
Struvite (staghorn) due to PESK
Proteus
Klebsiella
Serratia
Enterobacter
Hexagon stone
Cysteine
Envelope stone
Uric acid
What vitamin defciency causes calcium oxalate stones
Pyridoxine
Best initial test for kidney stones
KUB x ray
Best test for kidney stones
CT (even radiolucent stones)
Best test for defining degree of urinary tract obstruction
IVP - good for deciding if patient needs procedural therapy
Treatment of kidney stones
1st - Analgesia (Morphine, Ketorolac)
Fluid hydration
Ab's if infected/UTI
When to admit someone with kidney stone?
Pain not controlled with oral med
Anuria (one kidney)
Renal colic + UTI and or Fever
Large > 1cm stone
Best method of treatment for stones >0.5cm but < 2cm
ESWL
Best method for treatment of stones >2cm
Percutanous nephrolithotomy
Best initial test for urinary tract obstruction
Kidney Ultrasound
What patients is IVP contraindicated in?
Pregnant
Allergies to contrast
Renal Failure
Best test for lower urinary tract obstruction
Voiding cystourethrography
When is Transrectal Ultrasound of Prostate indicated?
PSA > 10, regardless of DRE
Abnormal DRE, regardless of PSA
How often would you follw up someone with PSA <4 and Negative DRE
Annually
If you can palpate a cancer on DRE what is the likelihood it has spread outside of the prostate
70-80%
Treatment of localized prostatic cancer
Radical prostatectomy EXCEPT those < 10 years of life left, watchful waiting
Treatment of locally invasive prostate cancer
Radiation + Androgen deprivation (non curative)
Treatment of metastatic prostate cancer
Decrease testosterone (orchiectomy, antiandrogens, LH agonists)
Treatment of RCC
radical nephrectomy - remove kidney, adrenal, Gerota fascia, and nodes along hilum
Best test for diagnosing Transitional Cancer of the bladder
Cystoscopy + Biopsy
Treatment of Stage 0 TCC of bladder
Intravesical Chemotherapy
Treatment of Stage A TCC of bladder (involves lamina propria)
Transurethral resection of tumor
Treatment of Stage B and C TCC of bladder (muscle invasion/perivesicular fat invasion)
Radical cystectomy + LN dissection + Remove prostate/uterus/ovaries/vaginal wall
Germ cell tumor subtypes (95%)
Seminoma - radiosensitive
Nonseminoma - Embryonal, Choriocarcinoma, Teratoma, Yolk Sac
Non Germ cell testicular tumor subtypes
Leydig cell - most benign,if not surgical resection
Sertoli cell - benign
Which testicular tumor has high B-HCG
Choriocarcinoma
Which testicular tumor has high AFP
Embryonal
Treatment of testicular cancer
Surgical removal of testicle (orchiectomy) via transinguinal approach (avoid seeding via scrotal approach)
Seminoma treatment
Inguinal orchiectomy + radiation (very sensitive)
Nonseminoma treatment
Orchiectomy + retroperitoneal LN dissection
What reduces risk of penile cancer
Circumcision
What increases risk of penile cancer
HSV
HPV 18
Treatment of testicular torsion
Surgery < 6hours, BILATERAL orchioplexy to the scrotum if viable
Orchiectomy if nonviable testicle
MC organisms causing epidydimitis in children and elderly?
E. Coli
MC oraganism causing epidydymitis in young males
Chlamydia and Gonorrhea
Treatment of subclavian steal
Surgical bypass
Definitive test for identyfing stenosis of vessels in head and neck
Magnetic resonance arteriogram
Contraindications to TPA
Uncontrolled HTN
Bleeding
Anticoagulation
Recent trauma/surgery
What medication should be avoided 24 hours post tPA
Aspirin
What is the agent of choice for lowering BP in a stroke patient
Nitroprusside
- treat if >160-180/>105
When do you use mannitol in a stroke situation?
with increased ICP
NEVER prophylactically
When do you use steroids in a stroke situation?
NEVER, harmful not helpful
2 types of hemorrhagic stroke
Intracerebral hemmorhage - bleed into the parenchyma
Subarachnoid hemmorhage - bleed into CSF outside parenchyma
What is the association between cocaine and stroke
Young patients
ICH, SAH and Ischemic Stroke
Best initial test for SAH
CT non contrast
Best definitive test for SAH
Lumbar Puncture
What is the best test for identifying site of bleeding in SAH
Cerebral Angiogram
What psychiatric diagnosis is Tourette's associated with
OCD and ADHD
Treatment of Tourette's
1st - Pimozide, Haloperidol
2nd - Clonidine
Most important risk factor for dementia
Increasing age
What area of the brain is affected by Biswanger disease (vascular dementia)
Subcortical white matter degeneration
Why is donezepil preferred over tacrine in Alzheimers Disease
1x/day dosing
more improvement in congitive and behavioral domains
less SE
How many times a day is Tacrine dosed
4x/day
Has ginko and lecithin been proven to be effective in Alzheimers
NO
What vitamin may be beneficial in Alzheimers
Megadose >2000 units Vitamin E
Is HRT good for Alzheimers?
Associated with lower risk of developing Alzheimers
What medication class exacerbates symptoms of Dementia with Lewy bodies
Neuroleptics
Features of Delirium
Rapid deterioration of MS (hour-days)
Fluctuating LOC
Abnormal vital signs
What time of day is delirium the worst?
Sundowning - night
What can you test with the Doll's Eye reflex
Check if brainstem is intact - also intact if respiraiton is normal
Cause of bilateral fixed + dialated pupils
Sever anoxia
Cause of unilateral fixed + dialated pupil
Herniation with CNIII compression
Cuase of pinpoint pupils
Narcotics
Intracerebral hemmorhage
GCS - Eye opening categories (out of 4)
No Opening - 1
Open to PAIN - 2
Open to VOICE - 3
Open Spontanously - 4
GCS - Motor response categories (out of 6)
No movement - 1
Decerebrate (extension) - 2
Decorticate (flexion) - 3
Withdraw to pain - 4
Localize to pain - 5
Obeys command - 6
GCS - Verbal response categories (out of 5)
No sound - 1
Inconmprehensible - 2
Inappropriate words - 3
Appropriate confused - 4
Appropriate orientated - 5
Describe locked in syndrome
Fully aware
Capable of feeling pain
Completely Paralyzed
What area is affected in Locked In syndrome
Ventral pons
Features of Uncal (transtentorial) Herniation
- uncus compresses midbrain
CN III compression - Ipsilateral anisocoria, sluggish pupil, dialated
Contralateral hemiparesis
Features of Tonisllar herniation
- cerebellar tonsils compress medulla
compression of cardiorespiratory centres - rapid death
Braindeath criteria
Irreversible abscence of brain and brainstem function (apnea)
No brainstem reflex (gag, caloric, cornea, doll's eye)
Core temp > 32
Clinical or Imaging evidence of cause of braindeath
x2 repeated exams or EEG (isoelectric activity - silence)
Who has right to turn off life support in braindeath
Physician (in most states)
What is vegetative state
Complete coma
Eyes Open and appear aawke
Random head/limb movements
Most common presenting complaint in MS
Decreased sensation or parasthesias
Fatigue
Features of Optic Neuritis in MS
monoocular vision loss
pain on eye movement
central scotoma
decreased light reaction
Features of Internuclear Opthalmoplegia
Ipsilateral medial rectus palsy (adduction defect)
Horizontal nystagmus of abducting eye
What is needed for MS diagnosis
2 episodes of symptoms
2 white matter lesions
Laboratory diagnosis of MS
2 episodes of symptoms
At least 1 white matter lesion on MRI
Abnormal CSF
Which variant of MS appears later in life > 40 years old
Primary Progressive
Test of choice for MS diagnosis
MRI - number of lesions not necessarily proportional to severity or speed of disease progression
EMG of MS patients what do you see
Evoked potentials show slow conduction due to demyelination
Treatment of Acute MS attack
High dose IV corticosteroids shorten duration but not alter disease course
How long does an untreated MS attack take to resolve
approx. 6 weeks
What is the most effective MS treatment
Interferon B-1a
What should be used for primary progressive
Immunosuppresants like MTX or Cyclophosphomide
What is seen on CSF of patients with Guillian Barre
Elevated Protein with NORMAL cell count
Rx of Guillian Barre
IV Immunoglobulin or Plasmapheresis

No STEROIDS, harmful
MC adult primary CNS tumor
Glioma
Meningioma 2nd
Features of Myelofibrosis
Teardrop cells
Splenomegaly
Bleeding, Infections
What does myelofibrosis often progress to?
AML, poor prognosis
Rx of Myelofibrosis
Multiple transfusions
EPO
Splenectomy (pain paliation)
BM transplant
Define Essential Thrombocytosis
Plt > 600,000
Features of Essential Thrombocytosis
Thrombosis (VVA)
Bleeding (defective platelets)
Splenomegaly
Pseudohyperkalemia
Increased Bleed Time
What is erythromelalgia
Burning pain and erythema of extremities due to microvascular occlusions
- feature of essential thrombocytosis
Rx of Essential Thrombocytosis
Antiplatelet Drugs - Anagrelide or Low dose ASA
Hydroxyurea (severe disease)
Causes of Myelodysplastic Syndromes
Idiopathic MC
Radiation
Immunosuppresants
What is seen in a Myelodysplastic BM
Dysplastic cells with blasts or ringed sideroblasts
What is seen in a Myelodysplastic peripheral smear?
Normal MCV
Low Retic
Howell Jolly bodies
Basophilic Stippling
Large agranular platelets
Rx of Myelodysplastic syndromes
RBC/Plt transfusions
EPO
G-CSF (adjunct)
VIt supplements B6, B12, Folate
Immunosuppresants
BM transplat (only cure)
Major Criteria of Polycythemia Vera
Elevated RBC mass
O2 Sat >92%
Splenomegaly
(2 major + 2 minor for dx)
Minor Criteria of Polycythemia Vera
Thrombocytosis >400
Leukocytosis >12 x 10 (9)
LAP >100
B12 > 900
(2 major + 2 minor for dx)
Clinical features of PV
Headache,Pruritus, Dizzy, Weak, Dyspneic (all due to hyperviscosity)
DVT, CVA, MI, Portal V thrombosis
Bleeding (GI/GU, ecchymoses)
Spleno/Hepatomegaly
Hypertension
Lab features of PV
Elevated RBC count, Hb, Hct
Thrombocytosis, Leukocytosis
Low EPO
High B12
Hyperuricemia
How do you confirm diagnosis of PV
BM Biopsy
Rx of Polycythemia Vera
Repeat phlebotomy
Hydroxyurea or Rec Interferon ALFA (for myelosuppresion)
Subtypes of Hodgkins Lymphoma
Nodular Sclerosing MC, women
Mixed Cellularity (lots of RS cells)
Lymphocyte predominant (few RS cells)
Lymphocyte depleted (worst prognosis)
What is Ann Arbor Staging (Hodgkins lymphoma)
- B symptoms worsen prognosis
Stage 1 - single node
Stage 2 - >2 node, same side of diaphram
Stage 3 - both sides of diaphram
Stage 4 - disseminated
Hodgkin's Features
Painless lymphadenopathy
Continuous spread
Dx of Hodgkin's Lymphoma
LN Biopsy with RS cells + presence of inflammatory cell infiltrates (NOT seen in Non-Hodgkin's)
Rx of Hodkin's Lymphoma
Stage 1, 2, 3A - Radiotherapy
Stage 3B, 4 - Radiotherapy + Chemotherapy
Risk factors for Non Hodgkin's Lymphoma
HIV/AIDS
Immunosuppresion (organ transplant recipients)
EBV, HTLV-1 infection
H. Pylorii gastritis (gastric lymphoma)
Hashimoto's/Sjorgens (assoc with MALToma)
Immune causes of platelet destruction
ITP
HIT 2
Drugs
SLE
HIV assoc
Non Immune causes of platelet destruction
HUS
TTP
DIC
HIT 1
Features of HIT1
<48 hours, direct platelet aggregation
Treatment of HIT 1
No treatment necessary
Features of HIT 2
3-12 days, Ab mediated platelet injury
Treatment of HIT 2
Stop Heparin asap
Mechanism of ITP
IgG against platelets
Acute form of ITP features
Children
Preceeded by viral infections
Self limited 80%
Chronic form of ITP features
Adults (MC women 20-40)
Rarely remits spontanously
What do you see in bone marrow in patients with ITP
Increase megakaryocytes and platelet assoc-Ig G
Rx of ITP
Corticosteroids
IV Immune Globulin (binds IgG)
Splenectomy (chronic ITP)
Mechanism of TTP
Hayline microthrombi occlude small vessels and cause mechanical damage to RBC
TTP Prognosis
Life threatning if untreated within MONTHS
Lab features of TTP
normal PT and PTT (no consumption of clotting factor)
Features of TTP
Fever
Anemia (hemolytic)
Renal failure
Thrombocytopenia
Neuro sx transiently
Rx of TTP
Large volume Plasmapheresis ASAP
2nd line - steroids + splenectomy
Role of transfusions in TTP
CONTRAINDICATED
Features of Bernard Soulier syndrome
Auto RECESSIVE
def GP1b-IX (platelet adhesion)
Features of Glanzmann's Thromboasthenia
Auto RECESSIVE
def GPIIb-IIIa (platelet aggregation)
Features of Von Willebrand
Auto DOMINANT
def vWF factor (platelet aggregation and adhesion)
MC inherited bleeding disorder
Cliniical features of Von Willebrand
epistaxis
easy bruising
scratches/cuts
gingival bleeds
menorrhagia
Random causes of impaired platelet function
Uremia
NSAID
Aspirin
Laboratory features of Von Willebrand
Inc Bleeding Time
Inc aPTT (but can be N)
Low ristocetin platelet aggregation
Low fVIII
Rx of Von Willebrand
DDAVP - induces vWF secretion
Factor VIII concentrate
Do you use cryoprecipitate in Von Willebrand
NO - risk of viral transmission
Clincal features of Hemophilia
Hemarthosis (MC knee)
Intracranial bleed (must evaluate all head trauma urgently)
Hematomas
Hematuria
Hemospermia
How do you detect presence of Factor VIII Inhibitor
Mix normal plasma with hemophiliac - PTT should normalize if not an INHIBITOR is present
Lab features of hemophilia
Inc aPTT
Rx hemophilia acute hemarthosis
Analgesia with codeine/acetaminophen
Immobilize, ice, non weight bearing
Rx hemophilia A
Factor VIII concentrate
DDVAP in mild disease
Is DDVAP treatment helpful in hemophilia B?
No, only helps fVIII release