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679 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

4 categories of child abuse.

physical
sexual
psychological
neglect
What's a dead giveaway of child abuse?
history is discordant with physical findings

or

if there is a delay in obtaining appropriate medical care
What 3 signs are dead giveaways of sexual abuse?
genital:

trauma
bleeding
discharge
What are sx of vaginal foreign body?
foul-smelling vaginal d/c, bleeding, pain
What can be easily mistaken for physical abuse?
mongolian spots
(common in first few years of life)
Vaginal d/c that is cultured positive for an organism can suggest sexual abuse. Between G and C, which one is definitive evidence for sexual abuse?
Neisseria gonorrhea
definitive evidence of sexual abuse

Chlamydia trachomatis
can be acquired from the mother during delivery and can persist for up to 3 years
Risk factors for child abuse.
parents with a hx of alcoholism or drug use

children with MR, handicap, repeated hospitalizations
Clinical presentation of child abuse in infants.
abuse or neglect in infants:

apnea
sz
feeding intolerance
somnolence
FTT
Clinical presentation of child abuse in older children.
poor hygiene

behavioral abnormalities
Physical Exam

Child Abuse
bruises
burns
fractures
Describe the burns that represent child abuse.
the burn marks are geometric patterns, like:

cigarette burns
belt marks
stocking-glove burns

found in atypical places
(face, thighs)
Describe the fractures that represent child abuse.
Spiral fractures of the humerus and femur

epiphyseal-metaphyseal "bucket fractures"
shaking or jerking child's limbs
(highly diagnostic)

posterior rib fractures
(caused by squeezing chest)
Name some conditions that mimic bruising.
bleeding d/o
Mongolian spots
Name some conditions that mimic fractures.
osteogenesis imperfecta
Name some conditions that mimic burns.
bullous impetigo

"coining"
(like what they do in asian cultures)
How do you diagnose bone fractures in child abuse?
x-ray skeletal survey
may not show up in x-ray until 1-2 weeks after injury

bone scan
shows fractures in various stages of healing, as early as 48 hrs
What lab tests do you get if suspect sexual abuse?

How fast should you get these tests?
gonorrhea
chlamydia
syphilis
HIV
sperm

get within 72 hrs of assault
How do you r/o shaken baby syndrome?
opthalmologic exam for retinal hemorrhages

non-contrast CT for subdural hematomas

head MRI to visualize white matter changes assoc with violent shaking and bleedings
Tx

Child Abuse
document injuries
(location, size, shape, color, etc)

notify Child Protective Services for possible removal of child from home

hospitalize if necessary to tx and protect child
CONGENITAL HEART DISEASE

Describe the general idea behind acyanotic conditions.
"pink babies"

have L to R shunts

in which oxygenated blood from lungs is shunted back into pulm circulation
CONGENITAL HEART DISEASE

Describe the general idea behind cyanotic conditions.
"blue babies"

have R to L shunts in which deoxygenated blood is shunted into the systemic circulation
CONGENITAL HEART DISEASE

The 5 T's that have R to L shunts and briefly describe each one.
HINT: 1-2-3-4-5
Truncus Arteriosus
ONE arterial vessel arising from both ventricles

Transposition of the great vessels
TWO arteries switched

Tricuspid atresia
THREE

Tetralogy of Fallot
FOUR

Total anomalous pulmonary venous return
FIVE words
Of the 5 T's of congenital heart disease, which one causes severe cyanosis and presents within the first few hours of life?
Transposition of the great vessels
CONGENITAL HEART DISEASE

Name 3 noncyanotic heart defects.
The 3 Ds

VSD
ASD
PDA
Most common congenital heart disease.
VSD
What conditions commonly feature a VSD?
fetal alcohol syndrome
TORCH

Apert's syndrome
cri du chat

ALL THE TRISOMIES THAT SURVIVE
Down syndrome
Trisomies 13
Trisomies 18
What is Apert's syndrome?
cranial deformities
fusion of the fingers and toes
Clinical Presentation

VSD at Birth
(HINT: depends on small vs large defects)
FOR SMALL DEFECTS
usually asymptomatic at birth

FOR LARGE DEFECTS
frequent respiratory infections
dyspnea
FTT
CHF
Physical Exam

VSD at Birth
(HINT: depends on small vs large defects)
FOR SMALL DEFECTS
harsh holosystolic murmur
LLSB

FOR LARGE DEFECTS
soft holosystolic murmur that is more blowing
accompanied by systolic thrill, crackles, hepatomegaly, narrow S2 with an increased P2, mid-diastolic apical rumble reflecting increased flow across mitral valve
Diagnosis

VSD
ECHO
is diagnostic

EKG
LVH and maybe RVH

CXR
cardiomegaly
increased pulm vascular markings
Tx

VSD
(HINT: depends on small vs large defect)
SMALL DEFECTS
close spontaneously
monitor with echo
abx during procedures if the VSD was previusly repaired with prosthetic material

LARGE DEFECTS
surgery if symptomatic or fail medical mgmt, < 1yo w/ signs of pulm HTN, older children whose VSD did not change in size
Tx for VSD sx
CHF SX

diruetics
inotropes
ACEIs
ASDs are associated with what conditions?
Holt-Oram syndrome
fetal alcohol syndrome
Down syndrome
Name 3 findings in Holt-Oram syndrome.
ASD
first-degree heart block
absent radii
(radius bone not developed)
There are two types of endocardial cushion defects:
Ostium primum ASD
Ostium secundum ASD

Describe what ostium primum ASD is.
less common than ostium secundum ASD

it is a defect in the atrial septum that is located at the level of the mitral/tricuspid valve

it is also very close to where the atrial and ventricular septum meet

this area is called the endocardial cushion where valves and septum meet
There are two types of endocardial cushion defects:
Ostium primum ASD
Ostium secundum ASD

Describe what ostium secundum ASD is.
more common than ostium primum ASD
most common type of ASD
An ostium primum ASD is also known as:
atrioventricular septal defect
Which one is the ostium primium and secundum ASD?
3
ostium secundum

5
ostium primum
Sx of ASD
(both ostium primum and secundum)
easy fatigability
frequent respiratory infections
FTT

frequently asymptomatic
At what age do ostium primum and secundum sx appear?
OSTIUM PRIMUM
early childhood

OSTIUM SECUNDUM
late childhood early adulthood
PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

ASD
RV heave

wide adn fixed, split S2

systolic ejection murmur at LUSB
(from increased flow across pulm valve)

may also be mid-diastolic rumble at LLSB
DIAGNOSIS

ASD
ECHO with color flow Doppler
- reveals blood flow between atria
- paradoxical ventricular wall motion
- dilated RV

EKG
RVH
RAE
PR prolongation is common

CXR
cardiomegaly
increased pulm vascular markings
TX

ASD
90% of defects close spontaneously and do not require tx

SURGERY
surgical or catheter closure is indicated in infants with CHF and in pts with a 2:1 ratio of pulmonary to systemic blood flow
Complications of ASD if left uncorrected.
Arrythmias
RV dysfunction
Eisenmenger's syndrome
Do ASDs and VSDs normally present at birth?
rarely, unless Eisenmenger's syndrome has developed
(R to L and cyanosis)

remember ASD, VSD, PDA are acyanotic conditions
Mechanism behind the sx of PDA.
failure of the ductus arteriosus to close

leads to L to R shunt
(aorta to pulmonary artery)
Risk factors of PDA.
1st trimester Rubella infection
prematurity
female gender
Clinical Presentation

PDA
SMALL DEFECTS
asymptomatic

LARGE DEFECTS
FTT
recurrent lower respiratory tract infections
lower extremity clubbing
CHF
PHYSICAL EXAM

PDA
continuous "machinery murmur"
2nd intercostal, left sternal border

loud S2
wide pulse pressure
bounding peripheral pulses
What causes bounding peripheral pulses?
high LV stroke volume

or

low diastolic pressure as blood runs off the systemic into the pulmonary circulation
What is wide pulse pressure?

Give some examples that causes this.
difference systolic and diastolic pressure

wide pulse pressure is usually caused by:
HTN
hardening of arteries/plaques/athero
shunting
aortic regurg
increased HR
DIAGNOSIS

PDA
color flow Doppler
shows blood flow from aorta into pulm artery is diagnostic

ECHO
larger PDAs show LAE, RVE

EKG
LVH

CXR
cardiomegaly
(if PDA is large)
Tx

PDA
MEDICAL MGMT
INDOMETHACIN
- unless the PDA is needed for survival
- or if there's a contraindication

SURGICAL CLOSURE
- if indomethacin FAILS
- or if child > 6-8 mo
Mnemonic for PDA tx with indomethacin.
Come IN and CLOSE the door.

Give INdomethacin to CLOSE a PDA
PEDIATRIC HEART CONDITIONS AND THEIR DISEASE ASSOCIATIONS

What disease is associated with:
ASD and endocardial cushion defects
Down syndrome
PEDIATRIC HEART CONDITIONS AND THEIR DISEASE ASSOCIATIONS

What disease is associated with:
PDA
congenital rubella
PEDIATRIC HEART CONDITIONS AND THEIR DISEASE ASSOCIATIONS

What disease is associated with:
coarctation of the aorta
Turner's syndrome
PEDIATRIC HEART CONDITIONS AND THEIR DISEASE ASSOCIATIONS

What disease is associated with:
coronary artery aneurysms
Kawasaki disease
PEDIATRIC HEART CONDITIONS AND THEIR DISEASE ASSOCIATIONS

What disease is associated with:
Congenital heart block
neonatal lupus
PEDIATRIC HEART CONDITIONS AND THEIR DISEASE ASSOCIATIONS

What disease is associated with:
supravalvular aortic stenosis
Williams syndrome
PEDIATRIC HEART CONDITIONS AND THEIR DISEASE ASSOCIATIONS

What disease is associated with:
conotruncal abnormalities
Tetralogy of Fallot
(overriding aorta)

Truncus arteriosus

DiGeorge syndrome
(Tetralogy)

Velocardiofacial syndrome
PEDIATRIC HEART CONDITIONS AND THEIR DISEASE ASSOCIATIONS

What disease is associated with:
bicuspid aortic valve
Turner's syndrome
PEDIATRIC HEART CONDITIONS AND THEIR DISEASE ASSOCIATIONS

What disease is associated with:
Ebstein's anomaly
maternal lithium use during pregnancy
PEDIATRIC HEART CONDITIONS AND THEIR DISEASE ASSOCIATIONS

What disease is associated with:
Heart failure
neonatal thyrotoxicosis
PEDIATRIC HEART CONDITIONS AND THEIR DISEASE ASSOCIATIONS

What disease is associated with:
asymmetric septal hypertrophy and transposition of the great vessels
maternal diabetes
What are 4 things that can cause a shock-like state within the first few weeks of life?
1 - sepsis
2 - inborn errors of metabolism
3 - ductal-dependent congenital heart disease
4 - congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Coarctation of the aorta is associated with 3 conditions:
1 - Turners
2 - berry aneurysms
3 - male gender
More than 2/3 of pts with coaractation of the aorta also have what other finding?
bicuspid aortic valve
In what conditions is a PDA needed for survival?
transposition of the great vessels
tetralogy of Fallot
hypoplastic left heart

IN CRITICAL COARCTATION OF AORTA
When is indomethacin contraindicated?
intraventricular hemorrhage
98% of coarctation of aorta is located where?
just distal to the left subclavian artery
Clinical Presentation

Coarctation of the Aorta
asymptomatic HTN
(upper extremity HTN)

lower extremity claudication
syncope
epistaxis
HA
Classical Physical Exam

Coarctation of the Aorta
upper extremity HTN than lower extremity

different L and R arm BP indicates the position of the coarctation
Additional Physical Exam

Coarctation of the Aorta
murmur btw scapulae
weak femoral pulses
radiofemoral delay
short systolic murmur in the left axilla
forceful apical impulse
Coarctation of the Aorta

Describe the differential cyanosis in the limbs.
the left arm and lower extremities have a LOWER O2 SATURATION than the lower extremities

the right arm is preductal, whereas the left and lower extremities are postductal
DIAGNOSIS

Coarctation of the Aorta
ECHO AND COLOR FLOW DOPPLER
diagnostic

CXR
cardiomegaly
pulm congestion
"3" sign
(pre- and postdilatation of the coaractation with aortic wall indentation)
"rib notching"
(due to collateral circulation thru the intercostal arteires)
Tx

Coarctation of the Aorta
FOR SEVERE COARCTATION IN INFANCY
keep the ductus arteriosus open with prostaglandin E1 (PGE1)

SURGICAL CORRECTION OR BALLOON ANGIOPLASTY
is controversial

MONITOR FOR:
restenosis
aneurysm development
aortic dissection
What is a secondary cause of hypertension in children?
coarctation
What is the most common CYANOTIC congenital heart lesion in the newborn?
transposition of the great vessels
Describe the transposition of the great vessels.
aorta --> RV
pulm artery --> LV

this creates a parallel pulmonary and systemic circulation
In transposition of the great vessels, what is required to keep the infant alive?
ASD
VSD
PDA
Risk factors for transposition of the great vessels.
diabetic mothers
DiGeorge syndrome
Clinical Presentation

transposition of the great vessels
cyanosis within the first few hrs of life
Physical Exam

transposition of the great vessels
FROM TRANSPOSITION
tachpynea
progressive hypoxemia
extreme cyanosis

FROM CHF
single loud S2

FROM OTHER DEFECTS
VSD systolic murmur at left sternal border
Diagnosis

transposition of the great vessels
Echo

CXR
"egg-shaped silhouette"
- narrow heart base
- absence of main pulm artery segment
- increased pulm vascular markings
Tx

transposition of the great vessels
Open the PDA with IV PGE1

If cannot open PDA and surgery is not feasible, perform balloon atrial septostomy to create/enlarge an ASD

Surgical correction is definitive
DiGeorge syndrome

Mnemonic
CATCH 22
Cardiac abnormalities (transposition and tetralogy)
Abnormal facies
Thymic aplasia
Cleft palate
Hypocalcemia
22q11 deletion
What is the most common cyanotic heart diseae of childhood?
tetralogy of fallot
Briefly, the tx for transposition of the great vessels and tetralogy of Fallot are treated the same way. Describe the tx.
both are initially treated with PGE1, but are definitively treated with surgical correction
Name 4 elements of Tetralogy of Fallot.
pulmonary stenosis
overriding aorta
RVH
VSD
What is the cause of the early cyanosis in tetralogy?
R to L shunt across the VSD
Risk factors for tetralogy of fallot.
maternal PKU
DiGeorge syndrome
Clinical Presentation

Tetralogy of Fallot
begins in early CHILDHOOD
(not infancy)

dyspnea
fatigability

cyanosis is frequently absent at birth
The degree of cyanosis in tetralogy of fallot is related to what?
severity of cyanosis is related to extent of pulmonary stenosis

as right-sided pressures decrease in the first few weeks after birth (pulm stenosis decreases), shunt direction reverses and cyanosis decreases

if pulm stenosis is severe, right-sided pressures may remain high and cyanosis worsens over lifetime
Clinical Presentation

Tetralogy of Fallot

Why do children squat?
to relieve hypoxemic episodes called "tet" spells

squatting increases systemic vascular resistance --> increases aortic wave reflection -->
increasing pressure on the left side of the heart -->
decreasing the right to left shunt -->
thus decreasing the amount of deoxygenated blood entering the systemic circulation
Clinical Presentation

Tetralogy of Fallot

Long-term hypoxemia may lead to what?
FTT
mental status changes
Physical Exam

Tetralogy of Fallot
systolic ejection murmur at LUSB
(RV outflow obstruction)

RV heave

single S2
Diagnosis

Tetralogy of Fallot
ECHO and Catherization

CXR
"boot-shaped heart"
decreased pulmonary vascular markings
(but remember that a VSD may result in increased pulm vascular markings)

EKG
RVH
right-axis deviation
Tx

Tetralogy of Fallot
PGE1 to keep PDA open if stenosis is severe

O2
(to treat hypercapnic tet spells)
propanolol
phenylephrine
knee-chest positoin
fluids
morphine

TEMPORARY PALLIATION
create an artificial shunt (balloon atrial septostomy)

DEFINITIVE
surgical correction
Definitive surgical correction of Tetralogy of Fallot is named after who?
Blalock-Taussig shunt
What are 4 areas of developmental milestones?
gross motor
fine motor
language
social/cognitive
DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES
GROSS MOTOR

Age: 2 months
lifts head/chest when prone
DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES
GROSS MOTOR

Age: 4-5 months
rolls front to back and back to front
DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES
GROSS MOTOR

Age: 6 months
sits unassisted
DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES
GROSS MOTOR

Age: 9-10 months
crawls
pulls to stand
DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES
GROSS MOTOR

Age: 12 months
walks alone
throws object
DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES
GROSS MOTOR

Age: 2 years
walks up/down steps
jumps
DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES
GROSS MOTOR

Age: 3 years
rides tricycle
climbs stairs with alternating feet
DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES
GROSS MOTOR

Age: 4 years
hops
DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES
GROSS MOTOR

Age: 5 years
skips
walks backward for long distances
DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES
FINE MOTOR

Age: 2 months
tracks past midline
DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES
FINE MOTOR

Age: 4-5 months
grasps rattle
DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES
FINE MOTOR

Age: 6 months
demonstrates raking grasp
transfers objects from hand to hand
DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES
FINE MOTOR

Age: 9-10 months
uses 3-finger pincer grasp
(immature grasp)
DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES
FINE MOTOR

Age: 12 months
uses 2-finger pincer grasp
(mature grasp)
DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES
FINE MOTOR

Age: 2 years
builds tower of 6 cubes
DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES
FINE MOTOR

Age: 3 years
copies a circle
uses utensils
DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES
FINE MOTOR

Age: 4 years
copies a cross
(square at 4.5 years)
DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES
FINE MOTOR

Age: 5 years
copies a triangle
ties shoelaces
knows L and R
prints letters
DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES
LANGUAGE

Age: 2 months
alerts to sound
coos
DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES
LANGUAGE

Age: 4-5 months
laughs and squeals
orients to voice
begins to make consonant sounds
DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES
LANGUAGE

Age: 6 months
babbles
(talking but no one understands)
DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES
LANGUAGE

Age: 9-10 months
says "mama/dada"
says first word at 11 months
DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES
LANGUAGE

Age: 12 months
uses 1-3 words

follows 1-step commands
DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES
LANGUAGE

Age: 2 years
uses 2-word phrases

follows 2-step commands
DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES
LANGUAGE

Age: 3 years
uses 3-word sentences
DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES
LANGUAGE

Age: 4 years
knows colors and some numbers
DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES
LANGUAGE

Age: 5 years
uses 5-word sentences
DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES
SOCIAL/COGNITIVE

Age: 2 months
smile and recognize parents
DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES
SOCIAL/COGNITIVE

Age: 4-5 months
laugh and look around
DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES
SOCIAL/COGNITIVE

Age: 6 months
demonstrates stranger anxiety
DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES
SOCIAL/COGNITIVE

Age: 9-10 months
waves bye-bye
plays pat-a-cake
DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES
SOCIAL/COGNITIVE

Age: 12 months
imitates actions

exhibits separation anxiety
DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES
SOCIAL/COGNITIVE

Age: 2 years
removes clothes
DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES
SOCIAL/COGNITIVE

Age: 3 years
brushes teeth with help

washes/dries hands
DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES
SOCIAL/COGNITIVE

Age: 4 years
exhibits cooperative play

plays board games
DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES
SOCIAL/COGNITIVE

Age: 5 years
exhibits domestic role playing

plays dress-up
How much weight do newborns lose right-away?

How fast do they regain that weight?
they lose up to 10% of their weight

regains this weight by 2 weeks of life
Signs of autism in terms of not meeting developmental milestones.
(4)
no babbling and/or gesturing by 12 months

no single words by 16 months

no 2-word phrases by 24 months

failure to make eye contact

other deficits in language/social skills
In a child with FTT, what do the growth curves look like?

WEIGHT curve
HEIGHT curve
HEAD CIRCUMFERENCE curve
first they will fall off the weight curve

then the height curve

then the head circumference curve
Each well-child check should include plotting of what values?
height
weight
head circumference
Increased head circumference indicates what?
hydrdocephalus
tumor
Decreased head circumference indicates what?
microcephaly
(TORCH infections)
What is the pattern of weight changes in the first year of life?
lose 10% of birth weight (BW) in first few days

regains BW in 14 days

doubles weight in 4-5 months

triple weight in 1 year

quadruple weight in 2 years
Define FTT in two different ways.
(1)
persistent weight less than the 5th percentile for age

(2)
"falling-off the growth curve"
crossing 2 major percentile lines on a growth chart
What is organic FTT?
due to an underlying medical condition:

cystic fibrosis
congenital heart disease
celiac sprue
pyloric stenosis
chronic infection (HIV)
GERD
What is non-organic FTT?
psychosocial factors:

maternal depression
neglect
abuse
DIAGNOSIS

FTT
get a careful dietary history

close observation of maternal-infant interactions
(esp preparation of formula and feeding)

BOTH OF THESE ARE CRITICAL
Tx

Children who are neglected or severely malnourished
hospitalize the child

calorie counts

supplemental nutrition
(if breastfeeding is inadequate)
Major Milestones in Language Development

When should they meet the following milestone?
1-word, 1-step commands
12 months
Major Milestones in Language Development

When should they meet the following milestone?
5 words
15 months
Major Milestones in Language Development

When should they meet the following milestone?
8 words
18 months
Major Milestones in Language Development

When should they meet the following milestone?
2-word phrases, 2-step commands
2 years
Major Milestones in Language Development

When should they meet the following milestone?
3-word phrases
3 years
Describe the 4-step process of normal sexual development in a girl.
1 - thelarche (breast buds)
2 - pubarche (pubic hair)
3 - growth spurt
4 - menarche (menses)
Describe the 4-step process of normal sexual development in a boy.
1 - gonadarche (testicles enlarge)
2 - pubarche (pubic hair)
3 - adrenarche (axillary/facial hair, voice changes)
4 - growth spurt
Average age of puberty in girls in US.
10.5 yo
(5th-6th grade)
Average age of menarche in girls in US.
12.5 yo
(roughly middle school)
Average age of puberty in boys.
11.5 yo
(roughly middle school)
Define delayed puberty in boys.
no testicular enlargement in boys by 14
Define delayed puberty in girls.
no breast development or pubic hair by 13
What is constitutional growth delay?
normal variant

growth curve lags behind others of the same age, but is consistent

+ family history

children will often catch up and reach their target height potential
What are some pathologic causes of delayed puberty?

HINT:
systemic (2)
congenital/genetic (2)
endocrine (5)
SYSTEMIC DISEASES
IBD
malnutrition (anorexia)

CONGENITAL
gonadal dysgenesis
(Klinefelter, Turners)

ENDOCRINE ABNORM
hypopituitarism
hypothyroidism
Kallmann's syndrome
androgen insensitivity
Prader-Willi syndrome
GENETIC ABNORMALITY

Down syndrome
meiotoic nondisjunction
(95%)

robertsonian translocation
(4%)

mosaicism
(1%)
GENETIC ABNORMALITY

Edwards' syndrome
Trisomy 18
GENETIC ABNORMALITY

Patau's syndrome
Trisomy 13
GENETIC ABNORMALITY

Klinefelter's syndrome (male)
47,XXY

presence of an inactivated X chromosome
(Barr body)
GENETIC ABNORMALITY

Turner's syndrome (female)
45,XO
missing 1 X chromosome
no Barr body
GENETIC ABNORMALITY

Double Y males
47,XYY
COMMON CHARACTERISTICS OF GENETIC ABNORMALITIES

What is associated with increased incidence of Down syndrome?
advanced maternal age
COMMON CHARACTERSITICS OF GENETIC ABNORMALITIES

Physical Exam of Down Syndrome
(8)
MR
flat facial profile
upslanted eyes
epicanthal folds
simian crease
general hypotonia
atlantoaxial instability
extra neck folds
(nuchal folds sometimes seen on prenatal US)
COMMON CHARACTERSITICS OF GENETIC ABNORMALITIES

What are diseases commonly found in Down syndrome?
duodenal atresia
Hirschsprung's disease
congenital heart disease
(most commonly AV canal defects - 60%; ASD, VSD, PDA - 20%)
COMMON CHARACTERSITICS OF GENETIC ABNORMALITIES

Down syndrome is associated with increased risk of what other diseases?
ALL
hypothyroidism
early-onset Alzheimer's
GENETIC ABNORMALITY

Pheylketonuria (PKU)
AR

decreased pheylalanine hydroxylase
- or -
decreased tetrahydrobiopterin cofactor
GENETIC ABNORMALITY

Fragile X Syndrome
X-linked dominant

affects the methylation and expression of the FMR1 gene
COMMON CHARACTERISTICS OF OF GENETIC ABNORMALITIES

Clinical Presentation of Edwards' sydrome
severe MR
COMMON CHARACTERISTICS OF GENETIC ABNORMALITIES

Physical Exam of Edwards' syndrome
rocker-bottom feet
low-set ears
micrognathia
clenched hands
(overlapping 4th and 5th digits)
prominent occiput
COMMON CHARACTERISTICS OF GENETIC ABNORMALITIES

Edwards' syndrome is assoc with what other findings?
congenital heart disease
horseshoe kidneys
COMMON CHARACTERISTICS OF GENETIC ABNORMALITIES

How long do pts with Edwards' syndrome have to live?
within 1 year of birth
COMMON CHARACTERISTICS OF GENETIC ABNORMALITIES

Clinical Presentation of Patau's syndrome
severe MR
COMMON CHARACTERISTICS OF GENETIC ABNORMALITIES

Physical Exam of Patau's syndrome
micropthalmia
microcephaly
cleft lip/palate
"punched-out" scalp lesions
polydactyly
COMMON CHARACTERISTICS OF GENETIC ABNORMALITIES

What internal organ malformations are present in Patau's syndrome?
holoprosencephaly
omphalocele
What is holoproscencephaly?
during embryogenesis, the brain fails to split into R and L hemispheres
COMMON CHARACTERISTICS OF GENETIC ABNORMALITIES

What other diseases are associated with Patau's syndrome?
congenital heart disease
COMMON CHARACTERISTICS OF GENETIC ABNORMALITIES

How long do pts with Patau's syndrome have to live?
death within 1 year of birth

lots die in utero bc the holoprosencephaly is so severe and incompatible with life
COMMON CHARACTERISTICS OF GENETIC ABNORMALITIES

What increases the chances of giving birth to a baby with Klinefelter's syndrome?
advanced maternal age
COMMON CHARACTERISTICS OF GENETIC ABNORMALITIES

What reproductive abnormality is commonly found in Klinefelter's syndrome?
hypogonadism
dysfunctional testes or ovaries

leads to low testosterone production (hypoandrogenism) or low estrogen production (hypoestrogenism)

also leads to impaired spermatogenesis and ovulation
(infertility)
COMMON CHARACTERISTICS OF GENETIC ABNORMALITIES

Physical Exam of Klinefelter's syndrome
testicular atrophy
eunuchoid body shape
(castrated male)
tall stature
long extremities

ANDROGEN DEFICIENCY
gynecomastia
female hair distribution
COMMON CHARACTERISTICS OF GENETIC ABNORMALITIES

Tx of Klinefelter's syndrome
give testosterone:

- to prevent gynecomastia
- improve secondary sexual characterstics
COMMON CHARACTERISTICS OF GENETIC ABNORMALITIES

Is Turner's associated with advanced maternal age?
NO
COMMON CHARACTERISTICS OF GENETIC ABNORMALITIES

Turner's syndrome is the most common cause of what condition and why?
primary amenorrhea

due to ovarian dysgenesis
(decreased estrogen)
COMMON CHARACTERISTICS OF GENETIC ABNORMALITIES

Internal organ malformations of Turners syndrome
coarctation of the aorta
bicuspid aortic valve
may have horseshoe kidney
COMMON CHARACTERISTICS OF GENETIC ABNORMALITIES

Physical Exam
Turner's syndrome
short stature
shield chest
widely spaced nipples
webbed neck
decreased femoral pulses
(due to coarctation of the aorta)

NEONATAL PERIOD
lymphedema of hands and feet
horseshoe kidney
COMMON CHARACTERISTICS OF GENETIC ABNORMALITIES

What is the most likely patient population that has double Y (47, XYY)?
inmates
COMMON CHARACTERISTICS OF GENETIC ABNORMALITIES

Physical Exam
Double Y males
phenotypically normal!

very tall
severe acne
antisocial behavior
(1-2% of XYY males)
COMMON CHARACTERISTICS OF GENETIC ABNORMALITIES

Pathogenesis of phenylketonuria (PKU)
tyrosine becomes essential and phenylalanine builds up excess phenyl ketones
COMMON CHARACTERISTICS OF GENETIC ABNORMALITIES

At what age do sx appear in PKU?
asymptomatic at birth

presents within first few months of life
COMMON CHARACTERISTICS OF GENETIC ABNORMALITIES

Clinical Presentation
PKU
MR
COMMON CHARACTERISTICS OF GENETIC ABNORMALITIES

Physical Exam
PKU
fair hair and skin (light)
eczema
blond hair
blue eyes
musty urine ordor
COMMON CHARACTERISTICS OF GENETIC ABNORMALITIES

What kind of diseases are PKU pts at most risk of developing?
heart disease
COMMON CHARACTERISTICS OF GENETIC ABNORMALITIES

Tx
PKU
remove phenylalanine from diet
(aka artificial sweeteners)

add tyrosine to diet
COMMON CHARACTERISTICS OF GENETIC ABNORMALITIES

Special instructions to mother who has PKU
a mother with PKU must restrict diet as stated earlier, before conception
COMMON CHARACTERISTICS OF GENETIC ABNORMALITIES

Clinical Presentation
Fragile X syndrome
2nd most common cause of genetic MR

autistic behaviors
COMMON CHARACTERISTICS OF GENETIC ABNORMALITIES

Physical Exam
Fragile X syndrome
large jaw, testes, ears
COMMON CHARACTERISTICS OF GENETIC ABNORMALITIES

Karyotype of Fragile X syndrome may show what?
a triplet repeat disorder may show genetic anticipation
What is genetic anticipation?
a phenomenon whereby the symptoms of a genetic disorder become apparent at an earlier age as it is passed on to the next generation
GENETIC ABNORMALITIES

Cystic Fibrosis
What is the genetic abnormality?
And what is the inheritance pattern?
AR
mutations in CFTR gene
on chromosome 7
Pathogenesis of cystic fibrosis
widespread exocrine gland dysfunction
How do you differentiate cystic fibrosis based upon the sx you get as an infant vs older?
INFANT
predominantly GI sx

LATER IN LIFE
pulmonary sx
What is the first sign of cystic fibrosis?
meconium ileus
What is meconium ileus?
a mechanical obstruction in the ileum caused by meconium

the meconium becomes thick and congested
Clinical Presentation

Cystic Fibrosis
AGE: infancy
meconium ileus
Clinical Presentation

Cystic Fibrosis
AGE: childhood and later
FTT
chronic sinopulmonary disease
recurrent pulmonary infections

*chronic cough*
dyspnea
hemoptysis
chronic sinusitis
What are the organisms involved in CF recurrent pulmonary infections?
Pseudomonas
S. aureus
Pulmonary Physical Exam

CF
AGE: childhood and later
cyanosis
*digital clubbing*
bronchiectasis
rhonchi
rales
hyperresonance to percussion
**NASAL POLYPOSIS**
GI Physical Exam

CF
AGE: childhood and later
**greasy stools**
flatulence
What are systemic findings in CF?
pancreatitis
rectal prolapse
hypoproteinemia
biliary cirrhosis
jaundice
esophageal varices
Electrolyte disturbances in CF.
unexplained hyponatremia
"salty-tasting" skin
type 2 DM
Malabsorption sx in CF.
fat-soluble vitamin deficiency
A, D, E, K

so any manifestations in the deficiencies of these vitamins
Fertility status of CF.
male infertility

due to agenesis of the vas deferens
Diagnosis

CF
sweat chloride test > 60 mEq/L
if < 20 yo

sweat chloride test > 80 mEq/L
in adults
How do you confirm a diagnosis of CF?
genetic testing
ABG results in CF.
hypochloremic alkalosis
How do you distinguish between carrier state for CF and actually having the disease?
do a sweat test

also, one good copy of the CFTR gene is all you need to prevent this disease, so CF is AR
Medical Mgmt

CF
PULMONARY SX
chest physical therapy
bronchodilators
corticosteroids
abx (to cover Psudomonas)
DNase

GI / MALABSORPTION SX
pancreatic enzymes
fat-soluble vitamins A-D-E-K
Diet recommendations for CF
high-calorie
high-protein
Surgical Tx

CF
lung or pancreas transplants
Life expectancy for CF
used to be ~ 20 years

with newer treatments past ~30 years
LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISEASE

MODE OF INHERITANCE

Fabrys Disease
X-linked recessive
LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISEASE

MODE OF INHERITANCE

Krabbe's Disease
AR
LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISEASE

MODE OF INHERITANCE

Gaucher's Disease
AR
LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISEASE

MODE OF INHERITANCE

Niemann-Pick Disease
AR
LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISEASE

MODE OF INHERITANCE

Metachromatic Leukodystrophy
AR
LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISEASE

MODE OF INHERITANCE

Hurler's Syndrome
AR
LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISEASE

MODE OF INHERITANCE

Hunter's Syndrome
X-linked recessive

Hunters need to see (no corneal clouding) to aim for the X.

corneal clouding is seen in Hurler's syndrome
LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISEASE

ETIOLOGY

What causes Fabrys disease?
deficiency of alpha-galactosidase A

leads to accumulation of ceramide trihexoside in heart, brain, kidneys
LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISEASE

Clinical Presentation
Fabrys Disease
**severe neuropathic limb pain**
joint swelling
skin rash (angiokeratomas)

may have a family hx of:
renal failure
MI
Stroke
LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISEASE

Physical Exam
Fabrys Disease
ANGIOKERATOMAS
benign cutaneous lesion of capillaries, resulting in small marks of red to blue color and characterized by hyperkeratosis

TELANGIECTASIAS
small dilated blood vessels near the surface of the skin or mucous membranes
LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISEASE

Fabrys disease can lead to what conditions?
renal failure
MI and stroke
(thromboembolic events)
LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISEASE

ETIOLOGY
Krabbe's disease
galactosylceramidase deficiency leads to absence of galactosylceramide and galactoside

leads to accumulation of GALACTOcerebroside in the brain
LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISEASE

Characteristics
Krabbe's disease
**progressive CNS degeneration**
optic atrophy
spasticity
death within first 3 yrs of life
LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISEASE

ETIOLOGY
Gaucher's disease
deficiency of *glucocerebrosidase*

leads to accumulation of GLUCOcerebroside in brain, liver, spleen, and bone marrow
LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISEASE

What are the appearance of Gaucher's cells?
(from a skin bx)
"crinkled paper"
enlarged cytoplasm
LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISEASE

Labs
Gaucher's disease
anemia
thrombocytopenia
LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISEASE

Presentation of Infantile Form
Gaucher's disease
early, rapid neurologic decline
LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISEASE

Presentation of Adult Form
Gaucher's disease
(more common form)

compatible with normal life span
does not affect the brain
LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISEASE

ETIOLOGY
Neimann-Pick disease
deficiency of sphingomyelinase leads to buildup fo SPHINGOmyelin cholesterol in reticuloendothelial and parenchymal cells and tissues

No man PICKs his nose with his sphinger.
LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISEASE

Life span of Niemann-Pick disease
patients with type A die by age 3
LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISEASE

Physical Exam
Niemann-Pick disease
cherry-red spot
hepatosplenomegaly
LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISEASE

ETIOLOGY
Tay-Sachs Disease
absence of hexosaminidase that leads to GM2 GANGLIOside accumulation
LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISEASE

Clinical Presentation in Infants
Tay-Sachs disease
infants appear normal until 3-6 months of age

when weakness begins and development slows and regresses

exaggerated startle response
What is the startle response and at what age do you lose this reflex?
startle response
lifetime reflex

brainstem reflex to protect the back of the neck (whole-body startle), or the eye (eyeblink), and facilitates escape from sudden stimuli
LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISEASE

Life span of tay-sachs disease.
death by 3 yo
LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISEASE

Physical Exam
Tay-Sachs Disease
cherr-red spot
NO hepatosplenomegaly
LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISEASE

Tay-Sachs carrier rate
1 in 30 Jews of European descent
(1 in 300 for others)
LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISEASE

ETIOLOGY
Metachromatic leukodystorphy
deficiency of arylsulfatase A that leads to accumulation of SULFAtide in the brain, kidney, liver, and peripheral nerves
LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISEASE

What causes the sx in metachromatic leukodystrophy?
demyelination leads to progressive ataxia and dementia
LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISEASE

ETIOLOGY
Hurler's syndrome
deficiency of alpha-L-iduronidase
LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISEASE

Characteristics
Hurler's Syndrome
corneal clouding
MR
gargoylism
(coarse facial features)
LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISEASE

ETIOLOGY
Hunter's syndrome
deficiency of iduronate sulfatase
LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISEASE

Characteristics
Hunter's syndrome
Hunter is a milder form of Hurlers

no corneal clouding
mild MR

Hunters need to see (no corneal clouding) to aim for the X (X-linked recessive).
What is the most common cause of bowel obstruction in the first 2 years of life?
intussusception
Risk factors for intussusception.
potential lead points
(Meckel's diverticulum)

intestinal lymphoma
Henoch-Schonlein purpura
parasites
polyps
adenovirus
rotavirus
celiac disease
cF
Whats the most common site for intussusception?
proximal to the ileocecal valve
Intussusception

Clinical Presentation
abrupt-onset, colicky abdominal pain
flexed knees
vomiting
bloody mucus in stool
("currant jelly stool")
hemoccult positive
Intussusception

Physical Exam
positive stool guaiac

palpable "sausage-shaped" RUQ abdominal mass

absence of bowel in RLQ
("empty" on palpation)
Diagnosis

Intussusception
air-contrast barium enema is both diagnostic and therapeutic
Imaging

Intussusception
abdominal plain films
- normal in early setting
- later shows SBO, performation, soft tissue mass

US
"target sign"
Other Tx

Intussusception
fluids
lytes

CBC for leukocytosis
NG tube for decompression
Emergent Tx

Intussusception
if child is unstable or has peritoneal signs or if enema reduction is unsuccessful -->

surgical reduction and resection of gangrenous bowel
Classic metabolic derangement in pyloric stenosis.
hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis

(due to persistent emesis of HCl)
What is pyloric stenosis?
hypertrophy of the pyloric sphincter

leads to gastric outlet obstruction
What conditions are associated with pyloric stenosis?
tracheoesophageal fistula

a maternal hx of pyloric stenosis

erythromycin ingestion
Clinical Presentation

Pyloric Stenosis
non-bilious emesis begins at 3 weeks of age

progresses to projectile emesis after feedings

may suffer from malnutrition and dehydration
Physical Exam

Pyloric Stenosis
palpable olive-shaped,mobile, non-tender epigastric mass

visible gastric peristaltic waves
Diagnosis

Pyloric Stenosis
ABDOMINAL US
hypertrophic pylorus
(US is the top choice)

BARIUM STUDIES
narrow pyloric channel
"string sign"
pyloric beak
Tx

Pyloric Stenosis
pyloromyotomy

fluids
lytes
Meckel's rule of 2's.
children under 2
2x more common in males
2 types of tissue (pancreatic/gastric)
2 inches long
within 2 feet of ileocecal valve
2% of population
What is the cause of meckel's diverticulum?
failure of the omphalomesenteric (or vitelline) duct to obliterate

the resulting heterotopic gastric tissue causes ulcers and bleeding
Meckel's Diverticulum

Clinical Presentation
asymptomatic, discovered incidentally

CLASSICAL PRESENTATION
sudden, intermittent, painless rectal bleeding
Complications

Meckel's Diverticulum
intestinal obstruction
diverticulitis
(may mimic acute appendicitis)
volvulus
intussusception
Diagnosis

Meckel's Diverticulum
DIAGNOSTIC
Meckel scintigraphy scan
(technetium-99m pertechnetate)
detects ectopic gastric tissue

PLAIN FILMS
limited use, but can help visualize obstruction or perforation
Tx

Meckel's Diverticulum
in presence of active bleeding, surgical excision of diverticulum together with adjacent ileal segment

(ulcers frequently develop in the adjacent ileum)
What causes Hirschsprung's Disease?
congenital lack of ganglion cells in the distal colon

leads to uncoordinated peristalsis and decreased motility
What is associated with Hirschsprung's disease?
male gender
Down sydnrome
Waardenburg's syndrome
MEN 2
Name 3 characteristics of Waardenburg's syndrome.
genetic d/o

varying degrees of deafness
iris pigment (two eyes different color)
hair hypopigmentation (white forelock)

and of course, Hirschsprung's
Clinical Presentation

Hirschsprung's Disease

In Neonate
failure to pass meconium within 48 hrs of birth

bilious vomiting

FTT
Clinical Presentation

Hirschsprung's Disease

In children with less severe lesions
chronic constipation
Physical Exam

Hirschsprung's Disease
abdominal distention

explosive discharge of stool following a rectal examination

lack of stool in the rectum

abnormal sphincter tone
Diagnosis

Hirschsprung's Disease
(4 modalities)
INITIAL IMAGING
barium enema
shows narrowed distal colon with proximal dilation

X-RAYS
distended bowel loops with a paucity of air in the rectum

ANORECTAL MANOMETRY
detects failure of the internal sphincter to relax after distention of the rectal lumen

DEFINITIVE
rectal bx
shows absence of myenteric (Auerbach's) plexus and submucosal (Meissner's) plexus along with hypertrophied nerve trunks enhanced with acetylcholinesterase stain
Tx

Hirschsprung's Disease
2-STAGE SURGICAL REPAIR

1 - create a diverting colostomy at time of diagnosis

2 - several weeks later perform a definitive "pull-through" procedure connecting the remaining colon to the rectum
What is malrotation with volvulus?
congenital malrotation of the midgut results in abnormal positioning of the small intestine
What are the two characteristics of malrotation?
cecum in the right hypochondrium
(ie below the ribs on the right side, where the liver is)
ligament of Treitz

formation of fibrous bands
(Ladd's bands)
What effect do the fibrous bands of malrotation have?
predisposes to obstruction and constriction of blood flow
Clinical Presentation

Malrotation With Volvulus
presents in 1st month of life with:

bilious emesis
crampy abdominal pain
abdominal distention
blood or mucus in stool
Diagnosis

Malrotation With Volvulus
AXR
"bird-beak" appearance
air-fluid levels
could also be normal

UPPER GI SERIES
shows abnormal location of the ligament of Treitz
Tx

Malrotation With Volvulus
SURGERY
- emergent surgical repair when volvulus is gastric
- surgery or endoscopy when volvulus is intestinal

MGMT
NG tube insertion to decompress the intesting

IV fluids
Post-surgical Complications of Malrotation
postsurgical adhesions can lead to obstruction and volvulus at any point in life
What is the most common GI emergency in neonates?
necrotizing entercolitis
Necrotizing Enterocolitis

Seen in what patient population?
premature infants

but can occur in full-term infants
Clinical Presentation

Necrotizing Enterocolitis
present within first few days or weeks of life

feeding intolerance
delayed gastric emptying
abdominal distention
bloody stools
Complications

Necrotizing Enterocolitis
intesitnal perforation
peritonitis
abdominal erythema
shock
Diagnosis

Lab Results
Necrotizing Enterocolitis
LABS ARE NONSPECIFIC
hyponatremia
metabolic acidosis
leukopenia/leukocytosis w left shift
thrombocytopenia
coagulopathy

DIC with prolonged PT/aPTT
+ D-Dimer
Diagnosis

Imaging
Necrotizing Enterocolitis
AXR (ABDOMINAL XR)
- dilated bowel loops
- *pneumatosis intestinalis*
- portal venous gas
- abdominal free air
- take serial abdominal plain films q6hrs

US
helps in discerning free air, areas of loculation or walled-off abscesses, bowel necrosis
What is pneumatosis intestinalis?
intramural air bubbles representing gas produced by bacteria within the bowel wall
Surgical Indications

Necrotizing Enterocolitis
perforation
(free air under diaphragm)

worsening radiographic signs on serial abdominal plain films
Surgical Procedure

Necrotizing Enterocolitis
ileostomy with mucous fistula

reanastomosis later
MEDICAL MANAGEMENT

Necrotizing Enterocolitis
NPO

orogastric tube for gastric decompression

fluids
lytes
TPN
IV abx
Complications

Necrotizing Enterocolitis
intestinal strictures
short-bowel syndrome
What is short-bowel syndrome?
a malabsorption disorder caused by the surgical removal of the small intestine

sx usually do not develop unless more than 2/3 of short bowel are removed

some cases are congenital short bowel, you're born with it
What is pathognomonic for NEC in neonates?
pneumatosis intestinalis on plain films
Bruton's agammaglobulinemia

Mode of Inheritance and Patient Population
X-linked recessive B-cell deficiency

found only in boys
Bruton's agammaglobulinemia

Clinical presentation and When do sx begin?
recurrent sinopulmonary, GI adn UTIs with encapsulated organisms

after 6 mo of age
(when maternal IgG -- transferred transplacentally -- is no longer active)
Bruton's agammaglobulinemia

What is the infection risk?
encapsulated:
Pseudomonas
S pneumoniae
Haemophilus

infections usually happen after 6 mo of age
Bruton's agammaglobulinemia

How do you diagnose?
get quantitative immunoglobulin levels:
- if low, confirm with B and T cell subsets (B cells are absent; T cells are often high)
- absent tonsils and other lymphoid tissue
Bruton's agammaglobulinemia

Tx
IVIG
prophylactic abx
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

Give a brief description
combined B and T cell defect

all Ig levels are low
(20s and 30s)

normal B-cell numbers
decreased plasma cells
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

When do sx appear?
around 15-35 yo
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

What infections are these pts at risk of?
increased pyogenic upper and lower respiratory infections
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

What other diseases are these pts at risk of developing?
increased risk of lymphoma and autoimmune disease
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

Diagnosis
get quantitative Ig levels

confirm with B adn T cell subsets
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

Tx
IVIG
IgA Deficiency

Give a brief description
the most common immunodeficiency

decreased IgA only
IgA Deficiency

Clinical Presentation
usually asymptomatic
(this is a mild disease)

may develop recurrent respiratory or GI infections
IgA Deficiency

What is anaphylactic transfusion reaction?
recipient IgE/IgG antibodies directed against IgA

leads to hypotension and shock
(ie anaphylactic)
IgA Deficiency

Diagnosis
quantitative IgA
treat infections
IgA Deficiency

Tx
DO NOT GIVE IVIG

(it can lead to production of anti-IgG antibodies)
Thymic aplasia
(DiGeorge syndrome)

Clinical Presentation and age at onset of sx
SX
tetany
(secondary to hypocalcemia)

ONSET
first few days of life
Thymic aplasia
(DiGeorge syndrome)

Increased infection risk of what type?
increased infections with:
viruses
fungi
Pneumocystis jiroveci PNA
Thymic aplasia
(DiGeorge syndrome)

Chest X-Ray Findings
absent thymic shadow
Thymic aplasia
(DiGeorge syndrome)

Diagnosis
get absolute lymphcyte count
(CBC with% --> low in these pts)

mitogen stimulation response

delayed hypersensitivity skin testing
Thymic aplasia
(DiGeorge syndrome)

What is the mitogen stimulation response?
in patients with no thymus, there are no T-cells, and therefore no response to mitogens

if there is no response, we categorize this as complete DiGeorge syndrome

on the other hand, some patients may have some remnant thymic tissue or ectopic thymus tissue and may respond to mitogen and release T cells
Thymic aplasia
(DiGeorge syndrome)

Describe the delayed hypersensitivity response in this disease?
patients have no T cells and therefore have no delayed hypersensitivity response
Thymic aplasia
(DiGeorge syndrome)

Tx
bone marrow transplant

IVIG for antibody deficiency
PCP ppx

ALTERNATIVE
thymus transplantation
QUICK REVIEW

B-cells make immunoglobulins that are responsible for immunity against what?
extracellular bacteria
QUICK REVIEW

T cells are responsible for immunity against what?
intracellular bacteria

viruses
fungi
Ataxia-telangiectasia

What causes this?
a DNA repair defect
Ataxia-telangiectasia

Clinical Presentation
cerebellar ataxia

oculocutaneous telangiectasias
Ataxia-telangiectasia

Predisposes to increased risk for what?
malignancies:

non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
leukemia
gastric carcinoma
Ataxia-telangiectasia

Diagnosis is based on what clinical features?
MORE OF A CLINICAL DIAGNOSIS

ataxia
abnormal control of eye mvmt
postural instability
telangiectasias
Ataxia-telangiectasia

Tx
no specific tx

may require IVIG depending on severity of Ig deficiency
What is ataxia?
poor coordination

lack of voluntary muscle coordination
What is telangiectasia?
small dilated blood vessels near the surface of the skin or mucous membranes

looks like a red spider web
Severe combined immunodeficiency
(SCID)

Briefly describe what the cause of this disease is.
severe lack of B and T cells due to a defect in stem cell maturation and decreased adenosine deaminase
Severe combined immunodeficiency
(SCID)

Why is this also called the "bubble boy disease"?
bc children are confined to an isolated, sterile environment
Severe combined immunodeficiency
(SCID)

Predisposes to increased infection from what?
severe, frequent infections with:

bacteria
candidiasis
opportunistic
Severe combined immunodeficiency
(SCID)

Tx
bone marrow or stem cell transplant

IVIG for antibody deficiency

PCP ppx
Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

Mode of Inheritance
X-linked recessive disorder

seen only in males
Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

When do sx begin?
at birth
Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

Classical Clinical Presentation
bleeding
eczema
recurrent otitis media
Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

Quantitative Immunoglobulin and Platelet Levels
increased IgE/IgA
decreased IgM
thrombocytopenia
Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

Mnemonic
WIPE
Wiskoktt-Aldrich
Infections
Purpura (thrombocytopenic)
Eczema
Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

Patients are at increased risk of what malignancies?
lymphoma/leukemia
Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

Patients are at increased risk of what infections?
S pneumoniae
S aureus
H influenzae type b
(encapsulated; bc of decreased IgM)
What is atopy? Or atopic disorders?
someone who is hyperallergic
usually hereditary

SX
eczema (atopic dermatitis)
allergic rhinits (hay fever)
allergic conjunctivitis
allergic asthma
sometimes food allergies
Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

Tx
supportive
(IVIG and abx)

SEVERE INFECTIONS
bone marrow transplantation
Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

Life Expectancy
rarely survive to adulthood
Chronic Granulomatous Disease

Mode of Inheritance
X-linked (2/3)
AR (1/3)
Chronic Granulomatous Disease

Whats the mechanism behind this disease?
defected NADPH oxidase means deficient superoxide production by PMNs and macrophages

can engulf bacteria but cannot kills it
Chronic Granulomatous Disease

Clinical Presentation
chronic skin, lymph node, pulmonary, GI and urinary tract infections

osteomyelitis
hepatitis
lympadenopathy

granulomas of the skin and GI/GU tracts
Chronic Granulomatous Disease

Labs
anema
hypergammaglobulinemia
Chronic Granulomatous Disease

Increased risk of infections to what?
catalase + organisms:
S aureus
E coli
Candida
Klebsiella
Pseudomonas
Aspergillus
Chronic Granulomatous Disease

Diagnosis
nitroblue tetrazolium test
diagnostic for CGD

absolute neutrophil count with neutrophil assays
How do you interpret the nitroblue tetrazolium test?
it assesses a cell's viability by its redox potential

the higher the blue score, the better the cell is at making reactive oxygen species to kill bacteria
Chronic Granulomatous Disease

Tx
daily TMP-SMX

IFN-gamma can decrease the incidence of serious infection

NEWER THERAPIES
bone marrow transplantation and gene therapy
Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency

Describe the defect
defect in the chemotaxis of leukocytes
Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency

Clinical Presentation
recurrent skin, mucosal, and pulmonary infections
Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency

How does this present in newborns?
omphalitis
(infection of the umbilical cord stump)

delayed separation of the umbilical cords
Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency

How do wounds appear in pts with this disease?
no pus with minimal inflammation

(due to a chemotaxis defect)
Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency

Diagnosis
extremely high levels of neutrophils because they cannot leave the blood vessel

ie HIGH WHITE COUNT
Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency

Tx
bone marrow transplantation is curative
Chediak-Higashi syndrome

Mode of Inheritance
AR
Chediak-Higashi syndrome

What is the defect?
defect in neutrophil chemotaxis / microtubule polymerizationi
Chediak-Higashi syndrome

Clinical Presentation
partial oculocutaneous albinism
peripheral neuropathy
neutropenia
What is oculocutaneous albinism?
pigmentation problem

results in fair skin, hair and eyes
(ie white hair)

greatly increases the risk of having skin cancer
Chediak-Higashi syndrome

At increased risk of what kind of infections?
pyogenic infections:
S pyogenes
S aureus
Pseudomonas
Chediak-Higashi syndrome

Diagnosis
bone marrow smears:
look for giant granules in neutrophils
Chediak-Higashi syndrome

Tx
bone marrow transplantation
Job's syndrome

What is the defect?
defect in neutrophil chemotaxis
Job's syndrome

Mnemonic
FATED
Coarse Facies
Abscesses (S aureus)
Retained primary Teeth
Hype-IgE (eosinophilia)
Dermataologic (severe eczema)
Job's syndrome

Increased risk of what infections?
recurrent S aureus infections and abscesses
Job's syndrome

Tx
penicillinase-resistant abx
IVIG
C1 esterase deficiency
(hereditary angioedema)

Mode of Inheritance
AD
C1 esterase deficiency
(hereditary angioedema)

What is the defect?
deficiency of C1 inhibitor
C1 esterase deficiency
(hereditary angioedema)

Clinical Presentation
airway edema
recurrent angioedema
lasting 2-72 hrs
provoked by stress / trauma

can lead to life-threatening
C1 esterase deficiency
(hereditary angioedema)

Diagnosis
Total hemolytic complement (CH50) to assess quantity and function of complement
*decreased*
C1 esterase deficiency
(hereditary angioedema)

Tx
purified C1 esterase

FFP
(bc it contains C1-INH)
Terminal complement deficiency
(C5-C9)

What is the defect?
inability to form membrane attack complex (MAC)
Terminal complement deficiency
(C5-C9)

Increased risk of what infections?
recurrent:
Neisseria
(meningococcal or gonococcal)
Terminal complement deficiency
(C5-C9)

What other conditions can this cause?
lupus
glomerulonephritis
Terminal complement deficiency
(C5-C9)

Tx
meningococcal vaccine

abx
Do not confuse bruton's agammaglobinulimema with transient hypogammaglobinulinemia of infancy.

How do you tell the difference?
SIMILARITIES
increased susceptibility to infections at 6 mo of age

DIFFERENCES
B cells are decreased in Bruton's, whereas those in THI are normal
How do you tell the difference between Bruton's and CVID? Both have similar sx.
Brutons is found in males around 6 mo of age

CVID is seen in older males and females 15-35 yo and sx are less severe
Difference between when onset of sx occur between T and B cell deficiencies.
T cell deficiencies occur earlier than B cell

typically around 1-3 mo old
Name 3 characteristics of phagocyte deficiencies.
1 - mucous membrane infections
2 - abscesses
3 - poor wound healing
Complement deficiencies are found in children with what condition?
congenital asplenia or splenic dysfunction (ie sickle cell disease)
Untreated Kawasaki disease can lead to what?
coronary aneurysms

MI
80% of patients with Kawasaki disease are what age?
< 5 yo
Kawasaki Disease
3 Phases

Describe
Phase 1 - Acute Phase
- how long it lasts
- what are the sx
lasts for 1-2 weeks

SX
F for 5+ days, plus 4 more from this list:
- b/l, nonexudative, painless conjunctivitis sparing the limbic area

- a polymorphous rash
primarily truncal

- cervical lymphadenopathy
often painful and *unilateral*, with at least 1 node > 1.5 cm

- diffuse mucous membrane erythema (eg strawberry tongue);
dry, red, chapped lips

- erythema of the palms and soles;
indurative edema of the hands and feet;
late desquamation of the fingertips

- other: sterile pyuria, gallbladder hydrops, hepatitis, arthritis
Kawasaki Disease
3 Phases

Describe
Phase 2 - SubAcute Phase
- how long it lasts
- what are the sx
lasts for an additional 2-3 weeks

thrombocytosis
elevated ESR
coronary artery aneurysms
Kawasaki Disease
3 Phases

Describe
Phase 3 - Chronic Phase
- when does the chronic phase start
- how long does it last
begins when all clinical sx have disappeared

lasts until ESR returns to baseline
Kawasaki Disease

Diagnosis
echo at time of diagnosis to assess coronary artery aneurysms
Kawasaki Disease

Tx
high-dose ASA
for inflammation and fever

IVIG
prevent aneurysms
corticosteroids if IVIG refractory

low-dose ASA for 6 weeks

+coronary aneurysms+
chronic anticoagulation with ASA and other antiplatelets
Kawasaki Disease

Mnemonic
CRASH and BURN
Conjunctivitis
Rash
Adenopathy (unilateral)
Strawberry tongue
Hands and feet (red, swollen, flaky skin)

BURN
(fever > 40C for 5 days)
Kawasaki disease and scarlet fever may both present with "strawberry tongue", rash, desquamation of the hands and feet, and erythema of the mucous membranes.

So how do you tell the difference clinically?
children with scarlet fever have normal lips and no conjunctivitis
Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis

also known as what?
juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis

Clinical Presentation
"morning stiffness"

gradual loss of motion present for 6 weeks in a pt < 16 yo
Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis

There are 3 basic form.
What is pauciarticular (oligoarthritis)?
this is the most common form

affects 4 or fewer joints
(usually weight-bearing)

ANA+
RF-

involves young females
+uveitis
(requires slit-lamp exam)

NO SYSTEMIC SX
Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis

There are 3 basic form.
What is the polyarthritis form?
5 or more joints
symmetric
RF+ is rare
(indicates severe disease)

RARELY HAVE SYSTEMIC SX
Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis

There are 3 basic form.
What is the systemic-onset (Still's Disease) form?
recurrent high fever
> 39C

HSM
salmon-colored macular rash

RF- and ANA-
Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis

Tx
NSAIDs

strengthening exercises

corticosteroids for carditis

2ND LINE AGENTS
immunosuppressive meds
(methotrexate, anti-TNF agents like etancercept)
Acute Otitis Media

Common Pathogens
S pneumonia
nontypable H influenzae
Moraxella catarrhalis

VIRUSES
Influenza A
RSV
Parainfluenza
Acute Otitis Media

Clinical Presentation
F
ear pain
crying
irritability
difficulty feeding
difficulty sleeping
vomiting
diarrhea
Acute Otitis Media

Whats one thing children do when they have this?
tug on their ears
Acute Otitis Media

Diagnosis
(4 things on otoscopic exam)
otoscopic exam

erythematous TMs
bulging or retraction of the TM
loss of TM light reflex
decreased TM mobility
(test with an insufflator bulb)
Acute Otitis Media

Tx
high-dose amoxicillin
(80-90 mg/kg/day)
x10 days

RESISTANT CASES
amoxicillin/clavulanic acid
Acute Otitis Media

Complications
TM performation
mastoiditis
meningitis
cholesteatomas
chronic OM

hearing loss --> leading to speech and language delay
(if recurrent)
Acute Otitis Media

Tx for Chronic OM
tympanostomy tubes
6 mo to 2 years

tube inserted into the TM to prevent fluid accumulation
What is bronchiolitis?
acute inflammation of the small airways
Patient population of bronchiolitis.
infants and children < 2 yo

fall and winter mostly
What is the most common cause of bronchiolitis?
*RSV*

OTHERS
parainfluenza
influenza
metapneumovirus
Risk factors for severe RSV.
age < 6 mo
males
prematurity
heart/lung disease
immunodeficiency
Bronchiolitis

Clinical Presentation
low-grade F
rhinorrhea
cough
apnea
(young infants)
Bronchiolitis

When do sx generally peak?
by day 3 or 4
Bronchiolitis

Physical Exam
tachypnea
wheezing
intercostal retractions
crackles
prolonged expiration
hyperresonance to percussion
Bronchiolitis

What is the earliest and most sensitive vital sign change?
increased respiratory rate
Bronchiolitis

Diagnosis
clinical diagnosis

CXR
r/o PNA
hyperinflation of lungs
flat diaphragms
interstitial infiltrates
atelectasis
Bronchiolitis

What is a highly sensitive and specific test for RSV bronchiolitis?
nasopharyngeal aspirate to test for RSV

has little effect on management

tx infants for bronchiolitis whether it comes back + for RSV or not
Bronchiolitis

Outpatient Tx
primarily supportive
fluids
nebulizers
Bronchiolitis

Inpatient Tx
contact isolation
hydration
O2

trial of aerosolized albuterol
continue if effective

corticosteroids are not indicated
Bronchiolitis

Should you tx with ribavirin?
this is an antivirual drug that has a controversial role in bronchiolitis tx

used in high-risk infants with underlying heart, lung, or immune disease
Bronchiolitis

RSV PPX
injectable poly or monoclonal antibodies
RespiGam
Synagis

do this in winter months for high-risk patients < 2 yo

or those with hx of prematurity, chronic lung disease or congenital heart disease
Bronchiolitis

Complications
respiratory failure

can be fatal
What is croup?

What other name does it go by?
laryngo-tracheo-bronchitis

acute viral inflammation of the larynx
(esp the subglottic space)
What causes croup?
parainfluenza type 1, 2, 3
1 is most common

RSV
influenza
adenovirus

bacterial superinfection causes tracheitis
CROUP

Clinical Presentation
prodomal URI sx, followed by:

low-grade F
mild dyspnea
inspiratory stridor
hoarse voice
*barking cough*
(usually at night)
CROUP

Diagnosis
clinical impression
based on degree of inspiratory stridor and respiratory distress
CROUP

AP Neck Film Findings
"steeple sign" from subglottic narrowing

this finding is neither sensitive or specific
CROUP

What is steeple sign?
it is an inverted "V" shape on AP neck film

it indicates subglottic tracheal narrowing
CROUP

Tx
Mild Cases
(Outpatient)
cool mist therapy
fluids
CROUP

Tx
Moderate Cases
O2
oral/IM corticosteroids
nebulized racemic epinephrine
CROUP

Tx
Severe Cases
SEVERE MEANS
respiratory distress at rest
inspiratory stridor

Hospitalize
nebulized racemic epinephrine
What are causes of epiglottitis?
prior to immunization, Hib

NOW
Streptococcus species
nontypable H influenzae
viruses
Epiglottitis

Clinical Presentation
acute-onset high F (39-40)
dysphagia
drooling
muffled voice
inspiratory retractions
cyanosis
soft stridor
Epiglottitis

Physical Exam
pts sit with neck hyperextended and the chin protruding
"sniffing dog position"

lean forward in a "tripod" position to maximize air entry
Epiglottitis

Complications if left untreated
life-threatening

airway obstruction
respiratory arrest
Epiglottitis

Diagnosis
Clinical Impression

In light of potential laryngospasm and airway compromise, DO NOT examine the throat unless an anesthesiologist or otolaryngologist is present
Epiglottitis

Definitive Diagnosis
direct fiberoptic visualization of a cherry-red swollen epiglottis and arytenoids
Epiglottitis

Lateral XR Findings
swollen epiglottis obliterating the valleculae

"thumbprint sign"
Epiglottitis

Tx
true emergency!

secure the airway before a definitive diagnosis can be made
- endotracheal intubation
- tracheostomy

THEN GIVE IV ABX
(CTX or Cefuroxime)
Croup
Epiglottitis
Tracheitis

Which one presents with stridor the most?
Croup by far
80% have stridor
Most common pathogen in:

Croup
Parainfluenza virus
Most common pathogen in:

Epiglottitis
H influenzae
Most common pathogen in:

Tracheitis
S aureus

commonly follows viral URI
Fever Severity

Croup
Epiglottitis
Tracheitis
Croup
Low Grade

Epiglottitis
High Grade

Tracheitis
Intermediate Grade
Major Sx

Croup
barking cough
Major Sx

Epiglottitis
respiratory distress
toxic appearance
inspiratory stridor
drooling
Which one responds to racemic epinephrine?
Croup

the stridor improves
Most common cause of bacterial meningitis in neonates.
GBS
Listeria
E coli
Most common cause of bacterial meningitis in infants/children.
S pneumoniae
N meningitidis
H influenzae
Most common cause of viral meningitis in children of all ages.
Enteroviruses
Clinical presentation of bacterial meningitis.
HA
F
nuchal rigidity
Clinical presentation of viral meningitis.
preceded by a prodromal illness:
F
sore throat
fatigue
Physical Examination

List two manuevers that suggest meningitis.
Kernig's sign
hurts to straighten the leg when the leg is flexed at the hip

Brudzinski's sign
pain with passive neck flexion
Other physical exam findings in meningitis.
INCREASED ICP
papilledema
CN palsies

petechial rash
N meningitidis
Other physical exam findings in meningitis in neonates.
poor tone
bulging fontanelle
vomiting
Diagnosis

Meningitis
Head CT to r/o increased ICP
(risk of brainstem herniation)

LP
Tx for Neonates

Meningitis
ampicillin and cefotaxime
or
gentamicin

acyclovir for herpes encephalitis
(or if mother had HSV lesions at time of birth)
Tx for Older Children

Meningitis
CTX and Vanco
Retropharyngeal Abscess vs Peritonsillar Abscess

Which one affects the age group > 10 years of age?
peritonsillar abscess
Retropharyngeal Abscess vs Peritonsillar Abscess

What is the age group affected in retro?
6 mo to 6 yo
What causes retropharyngeal abscess?
**Group A strep**
S aureus
Bacteroides
What causes peritonsillar abscess?
**Group A strep**
S aureus
S pneumoniae
anaerobes
Retropharyngeal Abscess

Clinical Presentation
*acute-onset high fever*
sore throat
muffled "hot potato" voice
trismus
drooling
Retropharyngeal Abscess

Physical Exam
cervical lymphadenopathy

mass may be seen in the posterior pharyngeal wall on visual inspection
What is trismus?
inability to open the mouth
Peritonsillar Abscess

Clinical Presentation
sore throat
"hot potato" voice
trismus
drooling
Peritonsillar Abscess

Physical Exam
uvula displaced to opposite side
Preferred position

Retropharyngeal Abscess
supine with neck extended

(sitting up or flexing neck worsens sx)
Diagnosis

Retropharyngeal Abscess
lateral XR

Contrast CT
helps differentiate btw abscess from cellulitis
Diagnosis

Peritonsillar Abscess
usually clinical
Tx

Retropharyngeal Abscess
aspiration or I&D

abx
Tx

Peritonsillar Abscess
I&D
+/- tonsillectomy
abx
Why is it harder to recognize meningitis in neonates and young children?
they rarely have meningeal signs on exam
Why should you avoid giving ceftriaxone to neonates for meningitis?
risk of biliary sludging and kernicterus
What is pertussis?
(whooping cough)
highly infectious form of bronchitis
What causes pertussis?
gram negative bacillus
Bordetella pertussis
What vaccine protects against pertussis?

How long does it last?
DTaP
given in 5 doses as a child

immunity dies off by adolescence
Who are the primary reservoirs for pertussis?
adolescents and young adults
How is pertussis transmitted?
aerosol droplets
Describe the 3 stages of pertussis.
1 - catarrhal
mild URI sx
lasts 1-2 weeks

2 - paroxysmal
paroxysms of cough with inspiratory whoop and posttussive emesis
lasts 2-3 months

3 - convalescent
sx wane
Which stage of pertussis is most contagious?
catarrhal
(first stage)
Which stage do patients usually present to the doctors office?
paroxysmal
(second stage - they've already been spreading it)
Classic presentation of pertussis in an infant < 6 mo.
posttussive emesis
(vomiting after a cough)

apnea
Pertussis

Diagonsis
GOLD STANDARD
culture

LABS
elevated WBC w/
lymphocytosis (> 70%)
Pertussis

Tx
INFANTS < 6 MO
hospitalize

MEDS
erythromycin x 14 days
to patient and close contacts!
include day-care contacts
VIRAL EXANTHEMS

Cause

Erythema infectiosum
(Fifth Disease)
Parvovirus B19
VIRAL EXANTHEMS

Describe Characteristics
(Prodrome and Rash)

Erythema infectiosum
(Fifth Disease)
PRODROME
none
low-grade F or no fever

RASH
"slapped cheek"
pruritic
maculopapular
erythematous rash
starts on the arms and spreads to the trunk and legs
worsens with F and sun exposure
VIRAL EXANTHEMS

Complications

Erythema infectiosum
(Fifth Disease)
Arthropathy

Aplastic crisis
esp in children with:
-- increased RBC turnover -- sickle cell anemia, hereditary spherocytosis,
--decreased RBC turnover -- severe iron deficiency, anemia
VIRAL EXANTHEMS

Congenital Infection Complications

Erythema infectiosum
(Fifth Disease)
fetal hydrops
death
What is hydrops fetalis?
edema in at least 2 compartments:

- subcutaneous tissue/scalp
- pleura (pleural effusion)
- pericardium (pericardial effusion)
- abdomen (ascites)
What does hydrops fetalis suggest?
prenatal heart failure

the edema is secondary to anemia which causes the heart to pump a greater volume of blood to deliver the same amount of oxygen
VIRAL EXANTHEMS

Causes

Measles
Paramyxovirus
VIRAL EXANTHEMS

Characterstics
(Prodrome and Rash)

Measles
PRODROME
low-grade fever
Cough, Coryza, Conjunctivitis
Koplik's spots on buccal mucosa after 1-2 days

RASH
erythematous maculopapular rash spreads from head to toe
VIRAL EXANTHEMS

Complications

Measles
COMMON
OM
PNA
laryngothtracheitis

RARE
subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
What is subacute sclerosing panencephalitis?
measles complication
no cure but can be managed by meds

CLINICAL PRESENTATION
measles before 12
asymptomatic for 6-15 yrs!
then gradual, progressive psychoneurological deterioration, consisting of personality change, seizures, myoclonus, ataxia, photosensitivity, ocular abnormalities, spasticity, and coma
VIRAL EXANTHEMS

Cause

Rubella
("3-day measles")
Rubella virus
VIRAL EXANTHEMS

Characteristics
(Prodrome and Rash)

Rubella
("3-day measles")
PRODROME
asymptomatic or tender generalized lymphadenopathy
(clue posterior auricular lymphadenopathy)

RASH
erythematous, tender, maculopapular rash that also spreads from head to toe
Difference between Measles and Rubella.
children with rubella often have only a low-grade fever and do not appear as ill

in adolescents may see polyarthritis
VIRAL EXANTHEMS

Complications

Rubella
encephalitis
thrombocytopenia
VIRAL EXANTHEMS

Congenital Manifestations

Rubella
congenital anomalies:
PDA
deafness
cataracts
MR
VIRAL EXANTHEMS

Cause

Roseola infantum
HHV-6 and -7
VIRAL EXANTHEMS

Characteristics
(Prodrome and Rash)

Roseola infantum
PRODROME
acute onset of high fever > 40C
no other sx for 3-4 days

RASH
maculopapular rash appears as fever breaks

begins on trunk and quickly spreads to th face and extremities

lasts < 24 hrs
VIRAL EXANTHEMS

Cause

Varicella
(Chickenpox)
varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
VIRAL EXANTHEMS

Characteristics
(Prodrome and Rash)

Varicella
PRODROME
mild fever
anorexia
malaise
(all precede the rash by 24 hrs)

RASH
generalized, pruritic, "teardrop" vesicular periphery

lesions at different stages of healing

appears on face and spreads to rest of body, spares palms and soles

contagious from 24 hrs before eruption until lesions crust over
VIRAL EXANTHEMS

Complications

Varicella
progressive varicella with meningoencephalitis, pneumonia and hepatitis in the immunocompromised

skin lesions may develop secondary bacterial infections

Reye's syndrome (associated with ASA use)
What is Reye's syndrome?
potentially fatal
(brain and liver damage)

STAGE 1
rash on palms and soles
F / vomiting / HA
confusion

STAGE 2
encephalitis / stupor
hyperactive reflexes

STAGE 3-5
coma
sz
VIRAL EXANTHEMS

Cause

Varicella zoster
VZV
VIRAL EXANTHEMS

Characteristics
(Prodrome and Rash)

Varicella zoster
PRODROME
reactivation of varicella infection
starts as pain along an affected sensory nerve

RASH
pruritic "teardrop" vesicular rash in a *dermatomal* distribution

uncommon unless pt is immunocompromised
VIRAL EXANTHEMS

Complications

Varicella zoster
encephalopathy
aseptic meningitis
pneumonitis
TTP
guillain-barre syndrome
cellulitis
arthritis
VIRAL EXANTHEMS

Cause

Hand-Foot-and-Mouth disease
Coxsackie A
VIRAL EXANTHEMS

Characteristics
(Prodrome and Rash)

Hand-Foot-and-Mouth disease
PRODROME
F
anorexia
oral pain

RASH
oral ulcers
maculopapular vesicular rash on hands and feet and sometimes on the buttocks
What does "exanthem" mean?
widespread rash
Whats the purpose of APGAR scoring?
assess need for neonatal resuscitation
Describe APGAR scoring.
APGAR (0, 1, 2 in each cateogry)
taken at 1 and 5 min after birth

APPEARANCE
blue/pale, pink trunk, all pink

PULSE
0, < 100, > 100

GRIMACE W/STIMULATION
0, grimace, grimace and cough

ACTIVITY
limp, some, active

RESPIRATORY EFFORT
0, irregular, regular
Describe the indication based on the APGAR scoring.
8-10
no resuscitation needed

4-7
possible need for resuscitation

0-3
resuscitate immediately
In general, what two general mechanisms lead to neonatal jaundice?
increased hemolysis

decreased excretion
Physiologic or Pathologic?

conjugated hyperbilirubinemia
(direct)
always pathologic
Physiologic or Pathologic?

unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
(indirect)
may be physiologic or pathologic
What is kernicterus?
a complication of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia

irreversible bilirubin deposition in the basal ganglia, pons and cerebellum

occurs when > 25-30 mg/dL

can be fatal
Risk factors for kernicterus.
prematurity
asphyxia
sepsis
Whats the differential for conjugated hyperbilirubinemia?
EXTRAHEPATIC CHOLESTASIS
(biliary atresia, choledochal cysts)

INTRAHEPATIC CHOLESTASIS
(neonatal hepatitis, inborn errors of metabolism, TPN cholestasis)

Dubin-Johnson
Rotor's
TORCH
Whats the differential for unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia?
physiologic jaundice
hemolysis
breast milk jaundice

increased enterohepatic circulation
(eg GI obstruction)

disorders of bilirubin metabolism
hemolysis
sepsis
Crigler-Najjar
Gilbert's
Physical Exam

Neonatal Jaundice
signs hepatic or GI dysfunction
(abdominal distention, delayed passage of meconium, light-colored stools, dark urine)

infection

hemoglobinopathies
(cephalohematomas, bruising, pallor, petechiae, hepatomegaly)
Clinical Presentation

Kernicterus
lethargy
poor feeding
high-pitched cry
hypertonicity
sz

(jaundice may follow a cephalopedal progression as bilirubin increases)
Diagnosis

Lab Tests for Indirect Hyperbilirubinemia

Neonatal Jaundice
CBC
peripheral blood smear

blood type mother/infant
(for ABO or Rh incompatibility)

Coomb's test
bilirubin levels
Diagnosis

Imaging studies if you suspect cholestasis

Neonatal Jaundice
US and/or HIDA scan
Diagnosis

Lab Tests for Direct Hyperbilirubinemia

Neonatal Jaundice
LFTs
bile acids
blood cultures
sweat test
tests for aminoacidopathies
alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency
Diagnosis

Neonate who is jaundiced, febrile, hypotensive, and tachypneic.
most likely sepsis

needs NICU monitoring
Tx

Neonatal Jaundice
treat underlying condition
(ie infection)

UNOCNJUGATED HYPERBILIRUBINEMIA
phototherapy (mild)
exchange transfusion (severe > 20)

IF PRETERM INFANT
start phototherapy at a lower threshold (10-15 mg/dL)

CONJUGATED
phototherapy not indicated and can lead to skin bronzing
Respiratory distress syndrome is also known as what?
hyaline membrane disease
What causes respiratory distress syndrome?

What is the pathogenesis?
surfactant deficiency

leads to:
poor lung compliance
alveolar collapse
atelectasis
Risk factors for respiratory lung disease.
maternal DM
male gender
2nd born of twins
Clinical Presentation

Respiratory Distress Syndrome
presents in the first 48-72 hrs of life

usually in preterm infants
Physical Exam

Respiratory Distress Syndrome
RR > 60
progressive hypoxemia
cyanosis
nasal flaring
intercostal retractions
expiratory grunting
CXR Findings

Respiratory Distress Syndrome
ground-glass appearance
diffuse atelectasis
air bronchograms
CXR Findings

Transient tachypnea of the newborn
retained amniotic fluid results in prominent perihilar streaking in interlobular fissues

resolves with O2 adminitration
CXR Findings

meconium aspiration
coarse, irregular infiltrates
hyperexpansion
pneumothoraces
Diagnosis and CXR Findings

Congenital pneumonia
nonspecific patchy infiltrates
neutropenia
tracheal aspirate
gram stain
Tx

Respiratory Distress Syndrome
CPAP or intubation and mechanical ventilation

administer artificial surfactant
Tx for mothers before giving birth

Respiratory Distress Syndrome
for preterm deliveries < 30 weeks:
corticosteroids

if > 30 weeks:
assess need for steroids with L:S ratio and presence of phosphatidylglycerol
How do you assess fetal lung maturity?
L:S ratio is a marker of fetal lung maturity

perform an amniocentesis to obtain amniotic fluid

L:S > 2 means fetal lungs are mature

L:S < 1.5 is not mature and has a high risk of getting RDS
Whats another way to assess fetal lung maturity?
phosphatidylglycerol is found in pulmonary surfactant

do amniocentesis

> 0.3 of phosphatidylglycerol indicates fetal lung maturity
Complications

RDS
persistent PDA
bronchopulmonary dysplasia
retinopathy of prematurity
barotrauma from PPV
intraventricular hemorrhage
NEC
What other defects are associated with a tracheoesophageal fistula?
esophageal atresia

VACTERL
Vertebral
Anal
Cardiac
Tracheal
Esophageal
Renal
Limb
Clinical Presenation

tracheoesophageal fistula
(in utero and after birth)
polyhydramnios in utero
increased oral secretions
inability to feed
gagging
aspiration pna
respiratory distress
Diagnosis and Confirmatory Test

tracheoesophageal fistula
CXR showing an NG tube coiled in the esophagus identifies esophageal atresia

presence of air in the GI tract

CONFIRMATION
bronchopscopy
Clinical Presentation

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
respiratory distress
(from pulmonary hypoplasia and pulm HTN)
Physical Exam

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
bowel sounds over the left hemithorax

sunken abdomen!
Diagnosis and Confirmatory Test

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
US in utero

confirmed by postnatal CXR
What is gastroschisis?
herniation of the intestine only lthrough the abdominal wall next to the umbilicus (usually on the right)

usually with no sac (the GI tract is exposed!)
Clinical Presentation
(in utero and after birth)

gastroschisis
polyhydramnios in utero

often premature
What conditions are associated with gastroschisis?
GI stenoses or atresia
Tx

gastroschisis
surgical emergency!

single-stage closure
(possible in only 10% of cases)
What is an omphalocele?
herniation of abdominal viscera through the abdominal at the umbilicus into a sac covered by peritoneum and amniotic membrane
Clinical Presentation
(in utero and after birth)

omphalocele
polyhydramnios in utero

often premature
What is omphalocele also associated with?

Name one specific syndrome.
other GI and cardiac defects

Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome and trisomies
Tx

omphalocele
C-section can prevent sac rupture

if sac is intact, postopne surgical correction until the patient is fully resuscitated

keep the sac covered/stable with petroleum and gauze

intermittent NG suction to prevent abdominal distention
What is duodenal atresia?
complete or partial failure of the duodenal lumen to recanalize during gestational weeks 8-10
Clinical Presentation
(in utero and after birth)

duodenal atresia
polyhydramnios in utero

bilious emesis within hours after the first feeding
What other conditions is duodenal atresia associated with?
Downs and other cardiac/GI anomalies

(eg annular pancreas, malrotation, imperforate anus)
Diagnosis

duodenal atresia
AXRs show the "double bubble" sign (air bubbles in the stomach and duodenum) proximal to the site of atresia
Tx

duodenal atresia
surgical repair
When is the onset of physiologic jaundice?
about 72 hrs after brith
What is the onset of pathologic jaundice?
in the first 24 hrs of life!
Bilirubin normally increases at what rate in physiologic jaundice?
less than 5 mg/dL/day
Bilirubin increases at what rate in pathologic jaundice?
> 0.5 mg/dL/hr
or
> 6 mg/dL/day
Peak bilirubin level in physiologic jaundice.
< 14-15
Peak bilirubin level in pathologic jaundice.
> 15
Direct bilirubin makes up what percentage of total in physiologic jaundice?
< 10% of total
Direct bilirubin makes up what percentage of total in pathologic jaundice?
> 10%
How long does it take to resolve physiologic jaundice?
within 1 week for term infants

2 weeks in preterm infants
How long does it take to resolve pathologic jaundice?
persists beyond 1 week in term infants

> 2 weeks in preterm infants
Is cerebral palsy inherited?
NO!
What is cerebral palsy?
nonhereditary and nonprogressive d/o of movement and posture
What causes cerebral palsy?
perinatal neurologic insult

in most cases though its unknown
Risk factors for cerebral palsy?
low birth weight

intrauterine exposure to maternal infection

prematurity
perinatal asphyxia
trauma
brain malformation
neonatal cerebral hemorrhage
Describe the two categories of cerebral palsy.

Start with pyramidal (spastic).
spastic paresis of any or all limbs

accounts for 75% of cases
MR in 90% of cases
Describe the two categories of cerebral palsy.

Now how about extrapyramidal (dyskinetic).
damage to extrapyramidal tracts

abnormal mvnts worsen with stress and disappear during sleep

have trouble standing, sitting or walking
Describe the 3 subtypes of dyskinetic/extrapyramidal CP.
ATAXIA
difficulty coordinating purposeful mvmts

CHOREOATHETOID
non-smooth mvnts
involuntary grimacing/tongue thrusting
muscles alternate between loose/flexed

DYSTONIC
uncontrollable jerking, writhing, posturing
CP may lead to other conditions in life. What are they?

(this is also how they may present)
sz disorders
behavioral d/o
hearing/vision impairment
learning disabilities
speech deficits
Physical Exam

Cerebral Palsy
affected limbs:
hyperreflexia
pathologic reflexes (eg Babinski)
increased tone/contractures
weakness
underdevelopment

toe walking
scissor gait
hip dislocations
scoliosis
Diagnosis

Cerebral Palsy
clinical impression

US to identify intracranial hemorrhage or structural malformations

MRI is diagnostic in older children

EEG for sz
Tx

Cerebral Palsy
no cure for CP

special ed
physical therapy
braces
surgical release of contratures

SPASTICITY
diazepam
dantrolene
baclofen

(baclofen pumps and rhizotomy may alleviate severe contractures)
What is rhizotomy?
a neurosurgical procedure that selectively destroys problematic nerve roots in the spinal cord to relieve spasms
What is the most common presenting sx of cerebral palsy?
delayed motor development
At what ages are febrile seizures prevalent?
6 mo to 5 yo
Risk factors for febrile sz.
rapid rise in temp

hx of febrile sz in a close relative
Clinical Presentation

Febrile Sz
sz usually during onset of fever

may also be the first sign of an underlying illness
(eg OM, roseola)
What are simple febrile sz?
short duration < 15 min
generalized tonic-clonic sz
only 1 sz in a 24-hr period
high F > 39C

*F onset within hrs of a sz*
What are complex febrile sz?
long-duration > 1 min
can be a focal sz
multiple sz in a 24 hr period

*low-grade F for several days before sz onset*
Diagnosis

Febrile Sz
find any sources of infection
LP if suspect CNS infection
r/o ICP

FOR FIRST-TIME SIMPLE FEBRILE SZ:
no other workup/labs are necessary
What is the workup if febrile sz occur earlier than 6 mo?
if child is > 18 mo, no workup is required

but if less than 6 mo, ened a sepsis workup
CBC
UA
blood/urine/CSF cx
Tx

Simple Febrile Sz
ANTIPYRETICS
acetaminophen, no ASA
(risk of Reyes)

*antipyretics does not reduce the recurrence of febrile sz*
Tx

Complex Febrile Sz
EEG
MRI

chronic anticonvulsant may be necessary
(eg diazepam or phenobarbital)
What are the complications of febrile size (both simple vs complex)?
SIMPLE
risk of recurrence 30% in first year

COMPLEX
may lead to full on epilepsy
developmental delay
(esp if +fam hx or have an abnormal neurological exam)
Leukemia is associated with what other conditions?
Trisomy 21
Fanconi's anemia
prior radiation
SCID

congenital bone marrow failure
Clinical Presentation

Leukemia
(mostly ALL)
abrupt in onset

initial sx are nonspecific
(anorexia, fatigue)

bone pain with limp
refusal to bear weight
fever (from neutropenia)
Physical Exam

Leukemia
(mostly ALL)
fever (from neutropenia)
aneima
ecchymoses
petechiae
hepatosplenomegaly
Physical Exam if brain mets

Leukemia
HA
vomiting
papilledema
AML can present with what type of tumor?
chloroma

a greenish soft-tissue tumor on the skin or spinal cord
Diagnosis

Leukemia
CBC
WBC can be low, normal, or high

coag studies
peripheral blood smear

**shows high number of blasts --> lymphoblasts are found in 90% of cases**
Confirmatory Diagnosis

Leukemia
BONE MARROW ASPIRATE
for immunophenotyping --> TdT assay and a panel of monoclonal antibodies to T and B cell antigens)

GENETIC ANALYSIS

DIAGNOSTIC IF:
BM is hypercellular with increased lymphoblasts!!!
How do you r/o mets in leukemia?
CXR
Tx

Leukemia
chemo
(induction, consolidation and maintenance phases)
Whats a complication of chemotherapy?
TUMOR LYSIS SYNDROME
hyperkalemia
hyperphosphatemia
hyperuricemia
Leukemia is associated with what other conditions?
Trisomy 21
Fanconi's anemia
prior radiation
SCID

congenital bone marrow failure
Clinical Presentation

Leukemia
(mostly ALL)
abrupt in onset

initial sx are nonspecific
(anorexia, fatigue)

bone pain with limp
refusal to bear weight
fever (from neutropenia)
Physical Exam

Leukemia
(mostly ALL)
fever (from neutropenia)
aneima
ecchymoses
petechiae
hepatosplenomegaly
Physical Exam if brain mets

Leukemia
HA
vomiting
papilledema
AML can present with what type of tumor?
chloroma

a greenish soft-tissue tumor on the skin or spinal cord
Diagnosis

Leukemia
CBC
WBC can be low, normal, or high

coag studies
peripheral blood smear

**shows high number of blasts --> lymphoblasts are found in 90% of cases**
Confirmatory Diagnosis

Leukemia
BONE MARROW ASPIRATE
for immunophenotyping --> TdT assay and a panel of monoclonal antibodies to T and B cell antigens)

GENETIC ANALYSIS

DIAGNOSTIC IF:
BM is hypercellular with increased lymphoblasts!!!
How do you r/o mets in leukemia?
CXR
Tx

Leukemia
chemo
(induction, consolidation and maintenance phases)
Whats a complication of chemotherapy?
TUMOR LYSIS SYNDROME
hyperkalemia
hyperphosphatemia
hyperuricemia
How do you treat tumor lysis syndrome?
fluids
diruetics
allopurinol
urine alkalinIzation
reduction of phosphate intake

CORTICOSTEROIDS ARE CONTRAINDICATED BC THEY CAN PRECIPITATE TUMOR LYSIS SYNDROME
Neuroblastomas are derived from what kind of cells?
neural crest
What other conditions are associated with neuroblastomas?
neurofibromatosis
Hirschsprung's disease
N-myc oncogene
Clinical Presentation

Neuroblastomas
most children at < 2 yo
> 70% have distant mets

nontender abdominal mass
may cross the midline

Horner's syndrome
HTN
cord compression from a paraspinal tumor
Physical Exam

Neuroblastomas
50% have mets at diagonsis

SIGNS OF:
bone marrow suppression
proptosis
hepatomegaly
subcutaneous nodules
opsoclonus/myoclonus
What is opsoclonus?
uncontrolled eye movement

rapid, involuntary, multivectorial (horizontal and vertical), unpredictable, conjugate fast eye movements without intersaccadic intervals
Diagnosis

Neuroblastomas
CT
FNA of tumor

histologically appears as:
small, round, blue tumor cells with a characteristic rosette pattern

elevated 24-hr urinary catecholamines (VMA and HVA)

OTHERS
CBC, LFTs, coag panel, BUN/Cr
Tx

Neuroblastomas
local excision
chemo
radiation
Age at which you see a wilms' tumor.
2-5 yo
What is wilms tumor associated with?
Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
Neurofibromatosis
WAGR syndrome
What is Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome?
hemihypertrophy, macroglossia, visceromegaly
What is WAGR syndrome?
Wilms tumor
Aniridia
Genitourinary abnorm
MR
Clinical Presentation

Wilms Tumor
asymptomatic, nontender, smooth abdominal mass

**does not cross the midline**

abdominal pain
Physical Exam

Wilms Tumor
F
HTN
hematuria
Diagnosis

Wilms Tumor
CBC, BUN, Cr, UA

abdominal US to detect mass

CT abdomen and chest to find mets
Tx

Wilims Tumor
local resection
nephrectomy
chemo
radiation
Whats the embryonic origin of Ewing's sarcoma?
neuroectoderm

associated with chromosome 11:22 translocation
Whats the embryonic origin of osteosarcoma?
osteoblasts (mesenchyme)
Patient population of Ewing's sarcoma.
Caucasian male adolescents
Patient population of osteosarcoma.
male adoelscents
Clinical Presentation

Ewing's Sarcoma
local pain and swelling

SYSTEMIC SX
F
anorexia
fatigue
Clinical Presentation

osteosarcoma
local pain and swelling

systemic sx are rare
Location of Ewing's sarcoma.
midshaft of long bones

(femur, pelvis, fibula, humerus)
Location of osteosarcoma.
metaphyses of long bones

distal femur
proximal tibia
proximal humerus

mets to lungs in 20%
Diagnosis

Ewing's sarcoma
X-Ray
"onion skin" periosteal reaction

leukocytosis
increased ESR
Diagnosis

osteosarcoma
X-RAY
"sunburst" lytic bone lesion

increased alk phos

chest CT to r/o pulm mets
Tx

Ewing's sarcoma
local excision
chemo
radiation
Tx

osteosarcoma
local excision
chemo
What is leukocoria?
abnormal white reflection from the retina of the eye
What does leukocoria suggest?
(3 things)
retinoblastoma
congenital cataracts
retinopathy of prematurity
PREVENTIVE CARE IN PEDIATRICS

Water should be no more than what temperature?
< 48.8C or 120 F
PREVENTIVE CARE IN PEDIATRICS

How should babies sleep?
on their backs

no stuffed animals or toys in the crib

TO DECREASE SIDS
PREVENTIVE CARE IN PEDIATRICS

Describe how car safety seats should be placed.
they should be REAR FACING and placed in the BACK OF THE CAR

seats can face forward if child is > 1 yo or weighs > 20 lb
PREVENTIVE CARE IN PEDIATRICS

When should solids be introduced?
> 6 mo

introduce gradually and one at a time
PREVENTIVE CARE IN PEDIATRICS

When should cow's milk be introduced?
> 12 mo
PREVENTIVE CARE IN PEDIATRICS

When should you use ipecac syrup?
ipecac syrup is an emetic

NOT RECOMMENDED for accidental poisoning

call poison control
Strabismus is normal in pediatrics patient up until a certain age. What age is that?
normal up until 3 mo
What are you trying to prevent when trying to treat strabismus?
amblyopia

suppression of retinal images in a misaligned eye

leading to permanent vision loss
When should the red reflex be checked?
right at birth

leukocoria is a white reflex and is abnormal
When should hearing be screened?
right before discharge after birth
How is hearing screened?
otoacoustic emissions

or

auditory brainstem response
What are contraindications to vaccines in general?
severe allergy to a vaccine component

encephalopathy within 7 days of a prior pertussis vaccination
What are contraindications to vaccines in IC and pregnant patients?

What exceptions can be made for HIV patients?
AVOID LIVE VACCINES
oral polio
varicella
MMR

HIV PATIENTS
may receive MMR and varicella
What are contraindications to the MMR and influenza vaccine?
allergies to eggs
Under what conditions should you exercise precaution when giving vaccines, but are not contraindications?
current illness
(with or without F)

prior reactions to pertussis
(F > 40.5C)

shock-like state

persistent crying for > 3 hrs within 48 hrs of vaccination

sz within 3 days of vaccination
What are not contraindications to vaccination?
mild illness
low grade F
current abx therapy
prematurity

pneumococcal vaccine should be given to high-risk groups
(sickle cell disease, splenectomy, immunodeficient)
What is the recommended screening for lead?
12 and 24 mo

for patients living in high-risk areas
(pre-1950s)

universal screening is not recommended
Clinical Presentation

Lead Poisoning
irritability
HA
hyperactivity or apathy
anorexia

*intermittent abdominal pain*

constipation
intermittent vomiting

*peripheral neuropathy*
(wrist or foot drop)
Lead Poisoning

What are sx of acute encephalopathy?
increased ICP
vomiting
confusion
sz
coma
Diagnosis

Lead Poisoning
fingerstick test as an initial screen

serum lead level

CBC / BLOOD SMEAR
microcytic, hypochromic anemia
basophilic stippling
What is basophilic stippling?
small dots at the periphery of RBCs
In what conditions do you see basophilic stippling?
lead/arsenic poisoning
sideroblastic anemia
alpha/beta thalassemia
Tx

Leading Poisoning
IF < 45 ug/dL AND ASYMPTOMATIC
retest at 1-3 mo
remove sources of lead

IF 45-69 ug/dL
chelation therapy --> inpatient EDTA or outpatient oral succimer DMSA

IF > 70
chelation therapy --> inpatient EDTA + BAL (IM dimercaprol)