Usmle Step 1 Flashcards - Microbiology

Front 1

How do you distinguish strep pneumoniae from viridans (both alpha hemolytic)?

Back 1

S. pneumoniae is optochin sensitive. Viridans (S. mutans, sanguis) are optochin resistant.

Front 2

How do you distinguish group A strep from group B (both beta hemolytic)?

Back 2

Group A is bacitracin sensitive. Group B is bacitracin resistant.

Front 3

Bacteria that can cause bacteremia and subacute endocarditis in colon cancer patients

Back 3

S. bovis (group D streptococci, non-enterococci)

Front 4

Gram positive bacteria with endotoxin?

Back 4

Listeria

Front 5

What do actinomyces, bacteroides, and clostridium have in common?

Back 5

They are all obligate anaerobes.

Front 6

E. coli heat stable vs heat labile toxin?

Back 6

Stable increases cGMP. Labile increases cAMP. Net result is secretion and inhibited reabsorption of NaCl from gut epithelium.

Front 7

How do you distinguish N. meningitidis from N. gonorrhoeae?

Back 7

N. meningitidis: metabolizes maltose. N. gonorrhoeae does not metabolize maltose.

Front 8

What happens if you scrape off the pseudomembrane of a patient with diphtheria?

Back 8

It will bleed and the exotoxin will be systemically absorbed.

Front 9

Which exotoxin is considered a "human antibiotic"?

Back 9

Diphtheria toxin: inactivates elongation factor (EF2) (A subunit), B subunit provides entry into cardiac and neural tissue

Front 10

Which organism shows a tumbling motility?

Back 10

Listeria

Front 11

What do you NOT do after a cat or dog bite?

Back 11

Don't close the wound with sutures (creates an environment good for Pasteurella multocida growth). Treat with penicillin or doxycycline.

Front 12

What 3 organisms do you want treatment to cover in a patient with urethritis?

Back 12

Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Chlamydia trachomatis, Ureaplasma urealyticum (tx: Ceftriaxone, Azithromycin)

Front 13

2 organisms transmitted by lice?

Back 13

Rickettsia prowazekii (epidemic typhus) and Bartonella quintana (trench fever)

Front 14

Treatment for the rickettsial infections?

Back 14

Doxycycline

Front 15

What are the 3 types of tertiary syphilis?

Back 15

Gummatous, Cardiovascular (aortitis), and Neurosyphilis (asymptomatic, subacute meningitis, meningovascular, or tabes dorsalis)

Front 16

What do Treponema pallidum endemicum, pertenue, and carateum cause?

Back 16

Bejel (endemicum), Yaws (pertenue) (gangosa = disfiguring lesions), Pinta (carateum) (red/blue lesions)

Front 17

4 organ systems affected with early disseminated Borrelia burgdorferi?

Back 17

Skin (ECM), nervous system (Bell's palsy, meningitis), heart (AV block), and joints (migratory arthritis)

Front 18

What is the more severe form of Leptospira infection?

Back 18

Weil's disease: infectious jaundice, renal failure, hepatitis, mental status changes, hemorrhage

Front 19

How does Borrelia recurrentis cause relapsing fever?

Back 19

By antigenic variation (outer membrane Vmp lipoproteins)

Front 20

Which organism has a non-polysaccharide capsule?

Back 20

Bacillus anthracis (D-glu polymer)

Front 21

What tests can detect the presence of a capsule?

Back 21

India Ink (mucicarmine - turns red) or Quellung reaction (capsule swells w/ anticapsular antisera)

Front 22

What is the cell membrane of mycoplasma made of?

Back 22

Sterols! (NO cell wall)

Front 23

How can treponema be visualized?

Back 23

Darkfield microscopy or fluorescent antibody staining (they're too thin/small for gram stain)

Front 24

What is a PAS stain used for?

Back 24

To diagnose Whipple's disease (Tropheryma whippelii). It stains glycogen and mucopolysaccharides.

Front 25

Which organisms are visualized with a Giemsa stain?

Back 25

Borrelia, Plasmodium, trypanosomes, Chlamydia

Front 26

Urease-positive bugs?

Back 26

Proteus, Klebsiella, H. pylori, Ureaplasma

Front 27

Examples of obligate aerobes?

Back 27

Nocardia, Pseudomonas, Mycobact TB, Bacillus

Front 28

Obligate anaerobes?

Back 28

Clostridium, Bacteroides, Actinomyces (lack SOD and catalase)

Front 29

Medium to culture M. TB?

Back 29

Lowenstein-Jensen agar

Front 30

Medium to culture B. pertussis?

Back 30

Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar ("Bordet" for Bordetella)

Front 31

Medium to culture M. pneumoniae?

Back 31

Eaton's agar (round, bumpy "mulberry" colonies)

Front 32

Medium to culture fungi?

Back 32

Sabouraud's agar

Front 33

Medium to culture C. diphtheriae?

Back 33

Tellurite plate, Loeffler's media

Front 34

Is endotoxin or exotoxin fatal at a lower dose?

Back 34

EXOtoxin (about several hundred times lower concentration needed than endotoxin)

Front 35

What cytokines does endotoxin induce?

Back 35

TNF-alpha and IL-1 (also stimulates NO, C3a, C5a, and Hageman factor/XII)

Front 36

Streptolysin O vs S?

Back 36

O is antigenic (ASO Abs). S is oxygen-stabile.

Front 37

Toxins transmitted by lysogenic phage?

Back 37

ABCDE:
ShigA-like toxin
Botulinum toxin
Cholera toxin
Diphtheria toxin
Erythrogenic toxin (GAS)

Front 38

Beta hemolytic bacteria?

Back 38

S. aureus, S. pyogenes (GAS), S. agalactiae (GBS), Listeria (tumbling motility)

Front 39

How are Staph saprophyticus and epidermidis distinguished?

Back 39

Saprophyticus is novobiocin resistant.
Epidermidis is sensitive.

Front 40

S. pneumoniae is the most common cause of what 4 conditions?

Back 40

Meningitis, Otitis media (in children), Pneumonia, Sinusitis

Front 41

What are spores chemically composed of?

Back 41

Dipicolinic acid, keratin-like coat

Front 42

Where does tetanus toxin (tetanospasmin) act?

Back 42

At the Renshaw cells in the spinal cord. It blocks glycine and GABA release.

Front 43

What do C. diphtheria look like?

Back 43

Gram positive rods with metachromatic (blue and red) granules

Front 44

Which aspect of S. pyogenes is related to the development of rheumatic fever?

Back 44

Antibodies to the M protein

Front 45

Which bacteria exhibit a tumbling motility?

Back 45

Listeria monocytogenes

Front 46

Lepromatous vs tuberculoid leprosy?

Back 46

Lepromatous: presents diffusely over skin, communicable, lack good cell-mediated immunity
Tuberculoid: few skin nodules, intact T-cell response

Front 47

2 toxins that inhibit EF-2?

Back 47

Pseudomonas and Diphtheria

Front 48

Which type of E. coli doesn't produce a toxin?

Back 48

EPEC

Front 49

What is Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome and what causes it?

Back 49

Bilateral adrenal gland hemorrhage. Caused by fulminant meningococcemia.

Front 50

Gram negative comma shaped oxidase positive organisms?

Back 50

Campylobacter (grows at 42C) and cholera (grows in alkaline media)

Front 51

Gram negative rods: lactose nonfermenter, oxidase (+)?

Back 51

Pseudomonas

Front 52

Gram negative rods: lactose nonfermenter, oxidase (-)?

Back 52

Salmonella, Shigella, Proteus

Front 53

Gram negative rods: lactose fermenters?

Back 53

Klebsiella, E. coli (grows at 45C), Enterobacter, Citrobacter, Serratia, & more

Front 54

Features of secondary syphilis?

Back 54

Maculopapular rash (palms and soles), constitutional symptoms, condyloma lata

Front 55

Triple therapy for H. pylori?

Back 55

PPI, Clarithromycin, and Amoxicillin or Metronidazole

Front 56

What can Yersinia enterocolitica infection mimic?

Back 56

Mesenteric adenitis --> can mimic Crohn's or appendicitis

Front 57

Which GI infection can be an antecedent to Guillain-Barre syndrome?

Back 57

Campylobacter

Front 58

How is a rickettsial rash distinguished from a typhus rash?

Back 58

RMSF (R. rickettsii): starts on hands and feet, Typhus (R. typhi or prowazekii): starts on trunk and spares palms & soles

Front 59

How is Coxiella different from the other Rickettsia?

Back 59

No rash, no vector, no Weil-Felix rxn, and can survive outside for a long time

Front 60

List 3 beta-lactamase inhibitors.

Back 60

Clavulanic acid, sulbactam, tazobactam

Front 61

What does a Tzanck prep reveal and indicate?

Back 61

Shows multinuclear giant cells and intranuclear inclusion bodies. Indicates HSV1/2 or VZV infection.

Front 62

What does HHV-6 cause?

Back 62

Roseola (exanthum subitum): high fever for 3-5 days followed by rash on trunk for 1-2 days

Front 63

Which DNA virus replicates in the cytoplasm?

Back 63

Poxviridae

Front 64

Timing of lesion development in chickenpox vs smallpox?

Back 64

Chickenpox: see lesions at different stages of development
Smallpox: synchronous lesions (all develop at the same time)

Front 65

Key finding of lesions in molluscum contagiosum?

Back 65

White bumps, 1-2mm in diameter, with central dimple/induration (umbilicated)

Front 66

Cause of erythema infectiosum (fifth disease)?

Back 66

Parvovirus, strain B19 (get fever and "slapped cheek" appearance)

Front 67

Which virus causes epidemic keratoconjunctivitis (pink eye)?

Back 67

Adenovirus

Front 68

Which virus causes a transient aplastic anemic crisis?

Back 68

Parvovirus, strain B19

Front 69

Outcome of congenital rubella?

Back 69

Heart (PDA, VSD, PA stenosis), Eye (cataracts, chorioretinitis), and CNS (mental retardation, microcephaly, deafness)

Front 70

Leading cause of epidemic viral encephalitis in the US?

Back 70

St. Louis encephalitis (flavivirus)

Front 71

What does "break-bone fever" refer to?

Back 71

Dengue fever, because of the severe painful backache, muscle/joint pain, and severe headache

Front 72

What cells can poliovirus infect?

Back 72

Peyer's patches in the intestine and motor neurons --> explains fecal-oral transmission and paralytic disease

Front 73

Most common cause of aseptic meningitis in the US?

Back 73

Enteroviruses (picornaviruses)

Front 74

Most deadly virus?

Back 74

Rabies: highest case fatality of any infectious disease (Naegleria is also an extremely deadly organism)

Front 75

What causes the intermittent fevers by trypanosoma?

Back 75

variable surface glycoproteins (VSGs) (thousands of different ones)

Front 76

What is xenodiagnosis used to diagnose?

Back 76

Trypanosoma cruzi (Chagas disease). Reduviid bugs feed on the patient, and the bugs' intestinal contents are examined one month later for the presence of the parasite.

Front 77

Which 3 worms involve a cough/swallow life cycle?

Back 77

Necator americanus, Strongyloides stercoralis, Ascaris lumbricoides

Front 78

What is autoinfection?

Back 78

Strongyloides stercoralis: filariform larvae penetrate intestine directly (without leaving) and then go to the lung to continue the cycle.

Front 79

Which parasites do NOT produce eosinophilia?

Back 79

Enterobius and Trichuris

Front 80

Stain to detect PCP?

Back 80

Methenamine silver stain of lung tissue.

Front 81

HIV infections with CD4 < 50?

Back 81

CMV retinis, esophagitis, disseminated MAI, cryptococcal meningoencephalitis

Front 82

HIV infections with CD4 < 100?

Back 82

Candidal esophagitis, toxo, histo

Front 83

HIV infections with CD4 < 200?

Back 83

Reactivation HSV, cryptosporidia, Isospora, disseminated coccidioidomycosis, PCP

Front 84

HIV infections with CD4 < 400?

Back 84

Oral thrush, tinea pedis, reactivation VZV, reactivation TB, bacterial infections (H. inf, S. pneumo, Salmonella, etc)

Front 85

Bugs that don't stain well on gram stain?

Back 85

Treponema, Rickettsia, Mycobacteria, Mycoplasma, Legionella, Chlamydia

Front 86

What organisms does a silver stain show?

Back 86

Fungi (eg: Pneumocystic), Legionella

Front 87

How can lactose fermenting organisms be detected?

Back 87

MacConkey agar: turn pink, EMB (for E. coli, turns metallic blue-black)

Front 88

Facultative intracellular organisms?

Back 88

Salmonella, Neisseria, Brucella, Mycobacterium, Listeria, Francisella, Yersinia

Front 89

C. perfringens toxin?

Back 89

alpha toxin (a lecithinase): acts as phospholipase that cleaves cell membranes and causes gas gangrene

Front 90

Which bacteria are especially good at transformation?

Back 90

S. pneumo, H. influenzae (type B), Neisseria (SHiN)

Front 91

Bile solubility of Strep pneumo vs Viridans?

Back 91

S. pneumoniae is bile soluble (but doesn't grow in bile). Viridans is NOT bile soluble.

Front 92

Which speces of Strep Viridans causes dental caries and which causes subacute endocarditis?

Back 92

S. mutans causes dental caries. S. sanguis causes endocarditis.

Front 93

Hypersensitivity types of immunologic consequences of group A strep?

Back 93

Rheumatic fever: type II hypersens (Abs to M protein)
Acute glomerulonephritis: type III

Front 94

What does CAMP factor of group B strep do?

Back 94

It enlarges the area of hemolysis formed by staph aureus.
* Different than cAMP

Front 95

Cause of granulomatosis infantiseptica?

Back 95

Listeria. (pyogenic granulomas all throughout body)

Front 96

Treatment for nocardia and actinomyces?

Back 96

Sulfa for Nocardia. Actinomyces --> use Penicillin. (SNAP)

Front 97

Gram negative "coccoid" rods?

Back 97

Haemophilus influenzae, Pasteurella, Brucella, Bordetella pertussis

Front 98

What are cord factor and sulfatide and what do they do?

Back 98

Both are virulence factors of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Sulfatide inhibits phagosome/lysosome fusion. Cord factor allows growth in a cord/serpent-like manner.

Front 99

Prophylaxis for MAI?

Back 99

Azithromycin

Front 100

Triad of findings in HUS?

Back 100

Thrombocytopenia, anemia, and acute renal failure

Front 101

How can EHEC be distinguished from other E. coli?

Back 101

EHEC does not ferment sorbitol (and is glucuronidase negative).

Front 102

Disorder? Saber shins, saddle nose, CN VIII deafness, Hutchinson's teeth, mulberry molars

Back 102

Congenital syphilis

Front 103

Babesia can often co-exist with what other infection?

Back 103

Lyme disease (Borrelia burgdorferi) (also transmitted by Ixodes tick)

Front 104

List 3 spirochetes.

Back 104

Borrelia, Leptospira, Treponema

Front 105

Symptoms of what bacteria can be prolonged with antibiotic treatment?

Back 105

Salmonella

Front 106

Classic triad of rickettsiae signs/symptoms?

Back 106

Fever, headache, and rash (vasculitis)

Front 107

What causes undulating fever?

Back 107

Brucella species

Front 108

Saucer shaped yeast forms?

Back 108

Pneumocystis jiroveci

Front 109

Cigar-shaped yeast forms with unequal budding?

Back 109

Sporothrix schenckii

Front 110

Potassium iodide is treatment for...?

Back 110

Sporothrix schenckii ("plant a rose in the pot")

Front 111

What is the more specific test to detect the capsule of cryptococcus?

Back 111

Latex agglutination (detects polysaccharide capsular antigen)

Front 112

How do mucor and rhizopus enter the brain?

Back 112

Through the cribiform plate. Often form rhinocerebral and frontal lobe abscesses. Naegleria also enter through the cribiform plate.

Front 113

What can be seen in the cytoplasm of entamoeba?

Back 113

RBCs

Front 114

What is trichomonas sometimes confused with?

Back 114

Gardnerella vaginalis (vaginosis). Discharge in trichimonas (vaginitis) is greenish and foul smelling.

Front 115

Findings in visceral leishmaniasis?

Back 115

Hepatosplenomegaly, pancytopenia, and spiking fevers

Front 116

DIfferent treatments for Trypanosoma brucei (African sleeping sickness)?

Back 116

Suramin for blood-borne disease. Melarsoprol for CNS penetration.

Front 117

Which worm can be seen crawling in the conjunctiva?

Back 117

Loa loa (tissue nematode)

Front 118

Which worm can ulcerate through the skin?

Back 118

Dracunculus medinensis (treat with Niridazole)

Front 119

Which worm can cause biliary tract inflammation, pigmented gallstones, and lead to cholangiocarcinoma?

Back 119

Clonorchis sinensis (trematode/fluke)

Front 120

Which parasitic organism can lead to secondary bacterial infection of the lung and hemoptysis?

Back 120

Paragonimus westermani (trematode/fluke)

Front 121

Which DNA viruses have circular genomes?

Back 121

Polyoma, hepadna, and papilloma

Front 122

Naked virus classes?

Back 122

Calicivirus, Picornavirus, Reovirus, Parvovirus, Adenovirus, Papilloma, and Polyoma

Front 123

Live attenuated vaccines?

Back 123

Smallpox, yellow fever, chickenpox, Sabin's polio virus, MMR

Front 124

Killed vaccines?

Back 124

Rabies, influenza, Salk polio, HAV

Front 125

Segmented viruses?

Back 125

Bunya, Orthomyxo, Arena, Reo

Front 126

Mosquito that transmits yellow fever?

Back 126

Aedes mosquito.

Front 127

What family are lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus and lassa fever encephalitis in?

Back 127

Arenaviruses (neg ssRNA enveloped)

Front 128

What does Pavalizumab do to help treat paramyxoviruses?

Back 128

It neutralizes the F protein, which causes respiratory epithelial cells to fuse and form multinucleated cells.

Front 129

3 kinds of prion disease?

Back 129

Sporadic (Creutzfeldt-Jakob), inherited (Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker), acquired (kuru)

Front 130

Neonatal manifestations of congenital CMV?

Back 130

Hearing loss, seizures, and petechial rash

Front 131

Neonatal manifestations of congenital Rubella?

Back 131

PDA (or pulmonary artery hypoplasia), cataracts, and deafness, +/- "blueberry muffin" rash

Front 132

NNRTIs?

Back 132

Nevirapine, Efavirenz, Delavirdine

Front 133

NRTIs?

Back 133

Zidovudine (ZDV/AZT), Didanosine (ddI), Stavudine (d4T)

Front 134

Protease inhibitors?

Back 134

Saquinavir, Ritonavir, Indinavir, Nelfinavir

Front 135

Toxicity of ganciclovir (used for CMV)?

Back 135

Leukopenia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, renal toxicity (more toxic to host enzymes than acyclovir)

Front 136

Rimantidine has fewer of what type of side effect than amantadine?

Back 136

Fewer CNS effects. Amantadine can cause ataxia, dizziness, and slurred speech.

Front 137

Treatment for cryptococcal meningitis?

Back 137

FLUconazole (because it can cross the blood-brain barrier)

Front 138

"4 R's" of Rifampin?

Back 138

RNA polymerase inhibitor, Revs up P450, Red/orange body fluids, Rapid resistance if used alone

Front 139

How is HBV a risk for cancer?

Back 139

HBV incorporates its genome into the genome of hepatocytes and produces growth promoting genes.

Front 140

What will prevent babies from getting tetanus in utero?

Back 140

Tetanus vaccine for pregnant women! IgG Abs are created and cross the placenta.

Front 141

What infection are people in DKA particularly susceptible to?

Back 141

Mucormycosis, because of the extra glucose and ketones. Nonseptate, 90 degree branching.

Front 142

What do edema factor (anthrax) and exotoxin (B. pertussis) both have in common?

Back 142

Both increase cAMP and inhibit neutrophil function.

Front 143

Component of gram (+) and gram (-) that induce TNF and IL-1?

Back 143

Gram (+): teichoic acid
Gram (-): Lipid A

Front 144

What does the Ziehl-Neelsen stain show?

Back 144

Acid fast organisms

Front 145

What is VPN?

Back 145

Vancomycin (inhibit gm+)
Polymyxin (inhibit gm-)
Nystatin (inhibit fungi)

Used to culture N. gonorrhoeae

Front 146

Examples of encapsulated bugs?

Back 146

S. pneumoniae
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae type B
Neisseria meningitidis
Salmonella
Group B Strep

Front 147

Obligate intracellular bugs? Why are they that way?

Back 147

Rickettsia & Chlamydia

Can't make their own ATP

Front 148

Why are aminoglycosides ineffective against anaerobes?

Back 148

AGs require O2 to enter bacterial cells

Front 149

Characteristics of obligate anaerobes?

Back 149

Foul smelling (short chain FAs)
Difficult to culture
Produce gas in tissue (CO2, H2)

Front 150

Difference between Bacillus anthracis and other cAMP inducers?

Back 150

Anthrax edema factor IS an adenylate cyclase.

Cholera, pertussis, and E. coli toxins act to activate endogenous adenylate cyclase to increase cAMP.

Front 151

Bacteria with AB toxins?

Back 151

C. diphtheriae
Vibrio cholerae
E. coli
B. pertussis

Front 152

What does C. perfringens do on blood agar?

Back 152

Causes a double zone of hemolysis

Front 153

4 stages of bacterial growth curve?

Back 153

Lag
Log
Stationary (sometimes w/ spore formation)
Death

Front 154

"ABCDEFG" of C. diphtheria?

Back 154

ADP ribosylation
Beta-prophage
Corynebacterium
Diphtheria
Elongation
Factor-2
Granules

Front 155

Causes of negative PPD/anergy?

Back 155

Steroids
Malnutrition
Immunocompromise
Sarcoidosis

Front 156

Fast vs slow gram (-) lactose fermenters?

Back 156

Fast: Klebsiella, E. coli, Enterobacter

Slow: Citrobacter, Serratia, etc

Front 157

Pseudomonas treatment?

Back 157

Aminoglycoside plus extended-spectrum penicillin (piperacillin, ticarcillin)

Front 158

"PSEUDO" of pseudomonas?

Back 158

Pneumonia (esp CF)
Sepsis (black skin lesions)
External otitis media (malignant in DM)
UTI
Drug use
Diabetic
Osteomyelitis

Front 159

Key E. coli virulence factors for cystitis, pyelonephritis, pneumonia, neonatal meningitis, and septic shock?

Back 159

Cystitis& pyelonephritis: fimbriae
Pneumonia & neonatal meningitis: K capsule
Septic shock: LPS endotoxin

Front 160

What beta lactam are gram negative bacilli sensitive to?

Back 160

Ampicillin & other penicillin derivatives

Resistant to penicillin G and vancomycin

Front 161

What is Rifampin given as prophylaxis for?

Back 161

Neisseria meningitidis and Haemophilus influenzae

Front 162

In what skin lesions are many treponemes present?

Back 162

Chancres of primary syphilis
Condylomata lata of secondary

Front 163

What species is Salmonella typhi found in?

Back 163

Only humans (no animal reservoir)

Other Salmonella have an animal reservoir

Front 164

Immune response to salmonella infection?

Back 164

Monocytic response

Front 165

Yersinia enterocolitica toxin?

Back 165

Enterotoxin like E coli ST (increases cGMP)

Front 166

Disease common among surfers and in the tropics?

Back 166

Leptospirosis
- Question mark-shaped bacteria found in water contaminated with animal urine

Front 167

Disease acquired from tick feces and cattle placenta?

Back 167

Q fever (Coxiella burnetii)
- atypical pn, myocarditis, granulomatous hepatitis

Front 168

Granulocytes with berry cluster organisms. Disease?

Back 168

Ehrlichiosis (tick-borne). Ehrlichia.
- One of the Rickettsial diseases but does NOT have a rash

Front 169

Transmission of Coxiella vs other Rickettsiae?

Back 169

Coxiella: transmitted by aerosol

Other Rickettsiae: transmited by arthropod vector

Front 170

Transmission of Borrelia burgdorferi vs recurrentis?

Back 170

Borrelia burgdorferi: tick bite (Ixodes ticks on deer and mice)

Borrelia recurrentis: louse

Front 171

Yersinia pestis transmission?

Back 171

Flea bite (rodents, prairie dogs)

Front 172

Francisella tularensis transmission?

Back 172

tick bite (rabbits, deer)

Front 173

Lab diagnosis of chlamydia?

Back 173

Cytoplasmic inclusions seen on Giemsa or fluorescent antibody-stained smear

Front 174

Dermatophytes?

Back 174

Microsporum
Trichophyton
Epidermophyton

Front 175

Treatment for tinea versicolor?

Back 175

Miconazole or Selenium sulfide (Selsun)

- caused by Malassezia furfur

Front 176

Life form of Candida, Aspergillus, Cryptococcus, and Mucor/Rhizopus?

Back 176

Candida: yeast (20C), germ tubes (37C)
Aspergillus: mold
Cryptococcus: yeast
Mucor/Rhizopus: mold

Front 177

Diethylcarbamazine is treatment for what 3 parasites?

Back 177

Loa loa
Wuchereria bancrofti
Toxocara canis

Front 178

Treatment for Taenia solium and Diphyllobothrium latum?

Back 178

Praziquantel

Exception: -bendazoles for neurocysticercosis

Front 179

Where do DNA and RNA viruses usually replicate and what are the exceptions?

Back 179

DNA: in nucleus (except poxvirus)

RNA: in cytoplasm (except influenza and retroviruses)

Front 180

Purified nucleic acids of which dsDNA viuses are NOT infectious?

Back 180

Poxviruses and HBV

Front 181

Where do herpesviruses acquire their envelopes from?

Back 181

From the nuclear membrane (as opposed to plasma membrane like most enveloped viruses do)

Front 182

Where does CMV remain latent?

Back 182

Mononuclear cells

Front 183

Symptoms of mumps virus?

Back 183

Parotitis
Orchitis
aseptic Meningitis

Front 184

Rash of Rubella (German measles) vs Rubeola (measles)?

Back 184

Rubella: truncal rash
Measles: includes hands and feet

Both begin at head and move downward

Front 185

Progression of rabies disease?

Back 185

Fever, malaise --> agitation, photophobia, hydrophobia --> paralysis, coma --> death

Front 186

3 structural genes of HIV genome?

Back 186

gag (p24)
pol (reverse transcriptase)
env (gp120 and gp41)

Front 187

Normal flora of the nose, oropharynx, and dental plaques?

Back 187

Nose: S. epidermidis (colonized by S. aureus)
Oropharynx: Strep viridans
Dental plaque: Strep mutans

Front 188

Traumatic open wound --> infection?

Back 188

C. perfringens

Front 189

Neutropenic patients are especially susceptible to what?

Back 189

Systemic Candida albicans, Aspergillus