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64 Cards in this Set

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which quad muscle originates from anterior inferior iliac spine?
straight head of rectus femoris--> hence it is a flexor at the hip joint
subependymal giant cell astrocytoma is pathognomonic for what neurocutaneous dz?
tuberous sclerosis; this astrocytoma is a peculiar astrocytic tumor that grows from the wall sof the lateral ventricles.
what oncogene is assoc'd with small cell lung cancer?
classic findings of Friedrich's ataxia?
(AR, defect in frataxin gene) onset usually in childhood--loss of reflexes, spasticity, extensor plantar response, imparied vibration and position sense; also characterized by progressive ataxia and severe dysarthria
median nerve passes through which muscle on entering forearm?
it passes between the 2 heads of the pronator teres
why would gamma-delta T cell levels be ~normal in a kid with DiGeorge syndrome?
this is the only T cell that does not require educationd and selection in thymus. even things like IgA would be reduced b/c Th2 cytokines needed for class switching!
what are the only cells in the body devoid of MHC class I molecules?
RBC; ergo, lysis by a cytotoxic cell (if intraerythrocytic parasite, for ex) would be possible only with NK cells (CD56)
what is the "threshold symptom" for mild-> moderate salicylate intoxication?
tinnitus (usually when plasma >300ug/ml)
major source of blood supply to nasal mucosa?
sphenopalatine artery--terminal branch of maxillary artery
dorsalis pedis can be best palpated between what 2 tendons?
b/t extensor hallucis longus and extensor digitorum longus tendons
basophilic stippling of erythrocytes represent?
aggregates of ribosomes and mitochondria
what kind of chromatin seen in mitotic figures?
heterochromatin--nucleic acids tightly packed around histones; (euchromatin--transcriptionally active)
which lung tumors can arise peripherally and cause coin lesions?
adenocarcinoma (assoc'd with lung scarring), bronchioalveolar carcinoma (NOT assoc'd with smoking), large cell carcinoma
significance of parathion
organophosphate insecticide that functions as acetylcholinesterase inhibitor; toxic sxs: Diarrhea, Urination, Miosis, Bronchospasm, Bradycardia, Excitation of sk mm, Lacrimation, Sweating, Salivation (DUMBBELSS)
how treat parathion toxicity?
atropine, pralidoxime
maternal levels of what hormone are dependent on a viable fetus?
estriol (produced by fetal adrenal cortex and liver; rising levels of estriol--best indicator of fetus well-being)
sickle cell anemia usually affects what part of hte kidney most severely?
medulla (can cause papillary necrosis)
renal papillary necrosis assoc'd with what 4 dzs/drugs?
DM, acute pyelonephritis, chronic phenacetin use (acetaminophen is deriv!), sickle cell anemia
what is hairy leukoplakia?
oral infective lesion seen almost exclusively in HIV infection. fluffy, white, hyperkeratotic lesion with destructive piling up of keratotic squames; assoc'd with viral infexn, does NOT progress to cancer
why do pts with dec'd C3 have inc'd susceptibility to type III hypersensitivity?
b/c C3b is important for the REMOVAl of immune complexes from bloodstream
partial vs. complete mole
partial--usually triploid, fertilization of nl egg by 1+ sperm, fetal parts, rarely-> choriocarcinoma; complete--diploid, androgenesis, no fetal parts, 2%-> choriocarcinoma
notochord formation begins about what day?
day 16
gluteus maximus inserts where?
gluteal tuberosity and iliotibial tract
severe reflex contraction injury of which muscle could cause avulsion of lesser trochanter of femur (in strong athlete)?
psoas muscle
Negri bodies most often found where in brain?
hippocampus and cerebellar cortex
which stage of Toxoplasma gondii can cross placenta?
tacyhzoite (acute maternal infection)
significance of CD14?
LPS R--binds endotoxin and required for LPS-induced macrophage activation (ex: multinucelated giant cells in leprosy would have this)
what is ecthyma gangrenosum?
lesions assoc'd with Pseudomonas septicemia, caused by Pseudomonas elastases (LasA and LasB) which degrade elastin and inhibit neutrophil chemotaxis and function
what is bivalirudin?
a direct thrombin inhibitor indicate for unstable angina, approved for use in persons who have had HIT
what is the term for enlarged abscessed lymph nodes?
buboes (seen in bubonic plague, chancroid (H.ducreyi), lymphogranumola venereum (C.trachomatis))
proximal vs distal lesser gastric curvature arterial supply
prox--L gastric; distal--R gastric
preeclampsia before 20th week is highly suggestive of?>
hydatidiform mole
pulmonary artery capillary measurements --balloon inflated vs not inflated
if inflated--"wedged", LA; if not inflated--pulmonary artery P (pulsatile, ~25/8mmHg)
H flu type b vaccine composed of?
polyribitol phosphate capsular polysaccharide coupled to a protein carrier molecule
immediate therapy of which 2 hormones should be instituted after pituitary apoplexy?
glucocorticoids and thyroid hormone b/c apparently deficiencies can produce life-threatening syndromes (the other hormones can be replaced less immediately)
typical presentation for acute interstitial nephritis
acute renal failure, fever, maculopapular rash, eosinophlia
tertiary hypothyroidism
hypothalamic defect causes hypothyroid
pathologic finding of post-infectious encephalomyelitis
perivenous microglial involvement with demyelination (can follow measles, mumps, varicella, rubella, flu infexn)
how distinguish Bruton's agammaglobulinemia from common variable immunodeficiency?
both would have absent plasma cells, nl T cell fxn, etc BUT common variable has ~nl number of B lymphocytes (abnl differentiation but near nl numbers)
what viruses have segmented genomes?
orthomyxo and reo (-->both can undergo genetic shift b/c of reassortment!)
pathophys of Werdnig-Hoffman dz
(SMA type I) abnl gene-->doesn't turn off perinatal programmed cell death.
sporadic episodes of severe muscle weakness following carb rich meals, severe exercise, or tension, etc--> ?
hypokalemic periodic paralysis; probably AD, due to defect in calcium channels
what is Homans sign?
pain that increases upon extension of foot (suggestive of DVT)
sensory neglect syndrome usually due to lesion in what lobe?
right parietal lobe
clinical significance of papillary fibroelastoma?
nothing usually. incidental finding on autopsy in LV usually
"blueberry muffin baby"
due to cutaenous hemorrhages seen in congenital CMV infection. (triad includes also deafness and periventricular CNS calcifications)
schizoid vs schizotypal personality
both cold, introverted; schizotypal also has oddities of thinking such as magical thinking, clairvoyance or paranoid ideation
most common cardiac adnormality seen in Lyme dz?
first degree AV block (PR int >0.21 sec but always followed by QRS complex)
what is prosopagnosia?
inability to recognize faces (usually caused by B/L lesion of visual assoc'n cortex--Br 18, 19
maternal diabetes assoc'd with what congenital cardiac defect?
transposition of great vessesl
DPC gene and DCC gene both on what csome?
18q (DCC--carcinoma of colon; DPC--pancreatic cancer)
triad of Wiskott Aldrich
thrombocytopenia, eczema, recurrent sinopulmonary infexns (XR; IgM low but other Igs are increased)
significance of nodular tumor masses involving serosa of small intestine?
distinctive metastatic pattern that suggests malignant melanoma
sharp knife like chest pain ~relieved by sitting and leaning forward suggests?
old man with pain in upper portion of neck on swallowing, occasionally regurgitates undigested food shortly after eating, halitosis
Zenker's diverticulum (false diverticulum--mucosal herniation)
posterior cord of brachial plexus supplies what nerves?
axillary and radial
decrease in outer membrane penetration that imparts resistance to ceftazidime is found in which bug, how
Pseudomonas, chromosome mediated trait
MOA of oncogenesis of HPV?
viral E6 and E7 inactivate p53 and p110 respectively
P450 system located in what zone of liver?
zone 3--pericentral vein zone (most sensitive to injury)
vit A stored where in liver?
Ito cells in space of Disse
tx for HIT?
lepirudin, bivalirudin, or other hirudin derivatives
most common causes of maternal death in preeclampsia?
cerebral hemorrhage and pulmonary complications (ARDS!)
M6 AML defined by?
marrow has >30%, more than 50% of which are erythroblasts
what percentage of patients with ischemic heart dz present with sudden death?
25 percent