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258 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What does Candida albicans do that distinguishes it from other fungi?
It forms a germinal tube at 37°C.
What protozoal parasite results in dysentery with blood and pus in the stool, is transmitted via fecal-oral route, is diagnosed by cysts or trophozoites in the stool, and forms liver abscesses and inverted flask-shaped lesions in the large intestine?
Entamoeba histolytica (treat with metronidazole)
What is the most likely causative organism for a patient with folliculitis after spending time in a hot tub?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
What two viruses get their envelope not from budding but from coding?
HIV and poxvirus
Which type of hepatitis can cause hepatocellular carcinoma?
Hepatitis B
Gas gangrene is associated with which Clostridium species?
Clostridium perfrigens
Which dimorphic fungus is found as hyphae with nondescript conidia in rotting wood in the Upper Great Lakes, Ohio, Mississippi, eastern seaboard of the United States, and southern Canada?
Blastomyces dermatitidis
Which parasitic organism, when it crosses the placenta, results in intracerebral calcifications, chorioretinitis, microcephaly, hydrocephaly, and convulsions?
Toxoplasma gondii
What staphylococcal species is positive for Beta-hemolysis and coagulase?
Staphylococcus aureus
What vector is associated with malaria?
Anopheles mosquito
What is the term for hyphae with constrictions at each septum that are commonly seen in Candida albicans?
Pseudohyphae
Which cestode infection results in alveolar hydatid cyst disease?
Echinococcus multilocularis
Which hepatitis virus is in the Flaviviridae family?
Hepatitis C
What nonmotile gram-negative, non–lactose-fermenting facultative anaerobic rod uses the human colon as its only reservoir and is transmitted by fecal-oral spread?
Shigella
What is the only Rickettsia that is stable in the environment?
Coxiella burnetii
Regarding the viral growth curve, is the internal virus present before or after the eclipse period?
After the eclipse period
What Ab is an indication of recurrent disease for hepatitis?
HBc Ab
What small gram-positive, non–spore-forming rod is a facultative intracellular parasite that grows in the cold and is associated with unpasteurized milk products?
Listeria monocytogenes
What is the only DNA virus that is not icosahedral?
Poxvirus
Which organism causes trench mouth?
Fusobacterium
True or false? All of the following are inactivated vaccines available in the United States: influenza, Vibrio cholera, hepatitis A, rabies, and adenovirus.
False. Adenovirus vaccine is a live pathogenic virus in an enteric coated capsule. All of the others are inactivated vaccines.
Name the Plasmodium species based on the following information:
No persistent liver stage or relapse; blood smear shows multiple ring forms and crescent-shaped gametes; irregular febrile pattern; associated with cerebral malaria
Plasmodium falciparum
Name the Plasmodium species based on the following information:No persistent liver stage or relapse; blood smear shows rosette schizonts; 72-hour fever spike pattern
Plasmodium malariae
Name the Plasmodium species based on the following information:Persistent hypnozoite liver stage with relapses; blood smear shows amoeboid trophozoites with oval, jagged infected RBCs; 48-hour fever spike pattern
Plasmodium ovale
Name the Plasmodium species based on the following information:
Persistent hypnozoite liver stage with relapses; blood smear shows amoeboid trophozoites; 48-hour fever spike pattern; the most prevalent form worldwide
Plasmodium vivax
True or false? A positive PPD skin test indicates the patient has active pulmonary disease.
False. The PPD tests exposure to TB.
What viral infection is known to cause intracerebral calcifications?
CMV; Toxoplasma also causes intracerebral calcifications but it is a parasite.
What viruses are associated with cervical carcinoma?
HPVs 16 and 18
What motile, gram-negative spiral bacillus with flagella is oxidase positive, urease positive, and associated with gastritis, peptic ulcer disease, and stomach cancer?
Helicobacter pylori
What glycoprotein in the HIV virus is used for fusion?
GP41
What Ag is needed to diagnose an infectious patient with hepatitis B?
HBeAg
Which organism causes multiple infections by antigen switching?
Borrelia recurrentis
What is the first Ag seen in an individual with hepatitis?
HBsAg (incubation period)
With which DNA virus are Guarnieri bodies associated?
Variola (smallpox)
What nematode is known as pinworms? What is the treatment?
Enterobius vermicularis; the treatment is albendazole.
What protein allows Mycoplasma to attach to the respiratory epithelium?
P1 protein
What organism is associated with the following types of diarrhea?
Day care–associated diarrhea in infants
Rotavirus
What organism is associated with the following types of diarrhea?
Watery diarrhea from beef, poultry, or gravies
Clostridium perfringens
What organism is associated with the following types of diarrhea?
Rice water stools
Vibrio cholera
What organism is associated with the following types of diarrhea?
Diarrhea associated with raw or undercooked shellfish
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
What organism is associated with the following types of diarrhea?
Bloody diarrhea associated with hamburger ingestion
Enterohemorhagic Escherichia coli
Which fungus is found worldwide on plants, is a cigar-shaped yeast in tissue form, and results in rose gardener's disease?
Sporothrix schenckii
Which type of hepatitis is a picornavirus?
Hepatitis A (infectious)
What gram-positive rod is distinguished by its tumbling motility?
Listeria
What is the vector for Leishmania infections?
The sandfly
What is the term of the viral growth period when no viruses can be found intracellularly?
Eclipse period
What organism causes Q fever?
Coxiella burnetii
What are the three naked RNA viruses?
1. Picornavirus
2. Calicivirus
3. Reovirus


(Remember PCR)
HIV's capsid, core nucleocapsid, and matrix proteins are products of what structural gene?
gag gene
What facultative intracellular fungus is associated with hepatosplenomegaly?
Histoplasma capsulatum infects the cells of the RES and can result in hepatosplenomegaly.
What type of hepatitis has the highest mortality rate among pregnant women?
Hepatitis E
Which gram-negative diplococcus ferments maltose?
Meningococcus (Gonococcus does not)
Are antibiotics helpful in treating a disease caused by a prion?
No. Prions are infectious proteins, so antibiotics are useless.
What bacterium is responsible for woolsorter's disease?
Bacillus anthracis
What picornavirus is associated with hand-foot-and-mouth disease?
Coxsackie A
What is the only trematode that is not hermaphroditic?
Schistosoma have separate males and females.
What water-associated organism is a weakly stained gram-negative rod that requires cysteine and iron for growth?
Legionella (think air conditioners)
With what virus are Downey type II cells associated?
EBV
True or false? Interferons are eukaryotic proteins that inhibit viral replication by being virus specific.
False. Interferons are produced by virally infected cells to inhibit viral replication via RNA endonucleases. They do not act directly on the virus, nor are they virus specific.
What is the vector for yellow fever?
Aedes mosquito
What small, facultative gram-negative intracellular rod's transmission is associated with unpasteurized dairy products and undulant fever?
Brucella
True or false? All Proteus species are urease positive.
True
Which genus of dermatophytes is associated with the following sites of infection?
• Nails and skin only
Epidermophyton
Which genus of dermatophytes is associated with the following sites of infection?
• Hair and skin only
Microsporum
Which genus of dermatophytes is associated with the following sites of infection?
• Skin, hair, and nails
Trichophyton
What protein of the HIV virus does ELISA detect to determine whether a patient is HIV positive?
P24
What genus of bacteria is described by catalase-positive, gram-positive cocci in clusters?
Staphylococcus
True or false? Vibrio parahaemolyticus require NaCl in its growth medium.
True. Staphylococcus aureus and group D enterococci also grow in high-salt media.
What virus causes small pink benign wartlike tumors and is associated with HIV-positive patients?
Molluscum contagiosum
What two bacteria are associated with drinking unpasteurized milk?
Brucella and Listeria (has tumbling motility)
What cestode causes cysticercosis?
Taenia solium
What DNA virus is associated with exanthem subitum (roseola)?
HHV 6
Which acid-fast rod is an obligate intracellular parasite?
Mycobacterium leprae
What form of the Plasmodium species is ingested by mosquitoes?
Gametocytes
What small gram-negative aerobic rod requires Regan-Lowe or Bordet- Gengou medium for growth?
Bordetella pertussis
True or false? Streptococci have catalase.
False. Staphylococci have catalase; streptococci do not.
What three bacteria are positive to quellung reactive test?
1. Neisseria meningitidis
2. Haemophilus influenzae
3. Streptococcus pneumoniae
A patient goes to the ER with abdominal cramps, vomiting, diarrhea, and sweating less than 24 hours after eating potato salad at a picnic; what is the most likely responsible organism?
Staphylococcus aureus
True or false? All spore formers are gram positive.
True
What is the only DNA virus that has the reverse transcriptase enzyme?
Hepadnavirus
What enzyme does HIV use to integrate the proviral dsDNA into the host?
Integrase
What are the two hepatitis viruses that can be chronic and can lead eventually to hepatocellular carcinoma?
Hepatitis B and hepatitis C
What gram-positive spore-forming anaerobic rod blocks the release of ACh at the NMJ, resulting in reversible flaccid paralysis?
Clostridium botulinum
Name three products of HIV's pol gene.
Protease, integrase, and reverse transcriptase
What form of Plasmodium species affects the liver?
Hypnozoite
What small coagulase-positive, gram-negative rod with bipolar staining is a facultative intracellular parasite resulting in buboes?
Yersinia pestis
What hemoflagellate species is the cause of Chagas disease?
Trypanosoma cruzi
To what host cell receptor does the rabies virus attach?
ACh receptor
Which hepatitis virus is in the Picornaviridae family?
Hepatitis A
Abs to what hepatitis B Ag provide immunity?
Abs to HBsAg
What type of spore is defined as an asexual budding daughter yeast cell?
Blastoconidia
Which of the following characteristics accurately describe fungi, bacteria, viruses, or parasites?
• Eukaryotic cell, 15 to 25 microns, 80S ribosomes, no cell walls, replicates via cytokinesis with mitosis and meiosis
Parasites
Which of the following characteristics accurately describe fungi, bacteria, viruses, or parasites?
• Small prokaryotic cells; no histones; 70S ribosomes; no sterols in cell membrane; peptidoglycans in cell wall; replicate by binary fission
Bacteria
Which of the following characteristics accurately describe fungi, bacteria, viruses, or parasites?
• Eukaryotic cell; 3 to 10 microns; 80S ribosomes; chitinous cell wall; ergosterol in cell membrane; replicate via cytokinesis with mitosis and meiosis
Fungi
Which of the following characteristics accurately describe fungi, bacteria, viruses, or parasites?
• Acellular; some are enveloped; replicate within the host cell; no cell walls
Viruses
What mosquito is the vector for dengue fever?
Aedes (the same for yellow fever)
True or false? Gonococcus is encapsulated.
False. Meningococcus is encapsulated; Gonococcus is not.
What virus is associated with Guarnieri bodies?
Variola virus (Smallpox)
Regarding the viral growth curve, is the external virus present before or after the latent period?
After the latent period
What aerobic branching rod that is gram positive and partially acid-fast is associated with cavitary bronchopulmonary disease in immunosuppressed patients?
Nocardia asteroides
What obligate extracellular fungus is silver stain–positive and is associated with pneumonia in patients with AIDS?
Pneumocystis carinii
What Vi-encapsulated gram-negative motile anaerobic rod that produces H2S is associated with enteric fever, gastroenteritis, and septicemia?
Salmonella typhi
What is the most likely organism causing cellulitis in a patient who was cut by an oyster shell?
Vibrio vulnificus
What virus is associated with the Norwalk agent?
Calicivirus
Describe the organism based on the following information:
• Beta-Hemolytic Streptococcus; positive cAMP test; hydrolyzes hippurate
Streptococcus agalactiae
Describe the organism based on the following information:
• Alpha-Hemolytic Streptococcus; lysed by bile; sensitive to Optochin
Pneumococcus (Streptococcus pneumoniae)
Describe the organism based on the following information:
• Alpha-hemolytic Streptococcus; not lysed by bile; not sensitive to Optochin
Streptococcus viridans
Describe the organism based on the following information:
• Beta-hemolytic Streptococcus sensitive to bacitracin
Streptococcus pyogenes
What is the only nonmotile pathogenic Clostridium species?
Clostridium perfringens
If a virus has positive sense RNA, can it be used as mRNA or is a template needed?
Positive sense RNA can be used as mRNA. Negative sense RNA cannot be used as mRNA; it requires special RNA-dependent RNA polymerases.
Where do adult tapeworms develop, in the intermediate or definitive host?
Adult tapeworms develop in the definitive host, whereas cysticerci or larvae develop in the intermediate host.
Which streptococcal species is characterized by being catalase negative, turning bile esculin agar black, producing a positive PYR test, and resulting in biliary and urinary tract infections?
Enterococcus (Streptococcus faecalis)
What three carcinomas are associated with EBV?
1. Burkitt's lymphoma
2. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
3. Thymic carcinoma
Which organism causes trench fever?
Rochalimaea quintana (now called Bartonella quintana)
Based on the onset of the symptoms, how are bacterial conjunctivitis from Neisseria and Chlamydia differentiated?
The onset of symptoms for Neisseria gonorrhea conjunctivitis is 2 to 5 days, whereas onset of symptoms for Chlamydia trachomatis is 5 to 10 days.
What toxin, produced by Clostridium tetani, binds to ganglioside receptors and blocks the release of glycine and GABA at the spinal synapse?
Tetanospasmin (also called tetanus toxin)
True or false? All of the following are live attenuated vaccines available in the United States: measles, mumps, varicella zoster, and Francisella tularensis.
True. So are rubeola, smallpox, yellow fever, and the Sabin polio vaccine.
What family do the following viruses belong to?
• Ebola
Filovirus
What family do the following viruses belong to?
• California encephalitis
Bunyavirus
What family do the following viruses belong to?
• Hantavirus
Bunyavirus
What family do the following viruses belong to?
• Rabies
Rhabdovirus
What family do the following viruses belong to?
• RSV
Paramyxovirus
What family do the following viruses belong to?
• Measles
Paramyxovirus
What microaerophile is a motile gram-negative curved rod with polar flagella that causes infectious diarrhea at low doses (<500)?
Campylobacter jejuni
What bacterium is diagnosed using the Dieterle silver stain?
Legionella
How many strains of Pneumococcus capsular polysaccharides are present in the vaccine?
The vaccine contains 23 capsular polysaccharides.
What nematode is known as whipworms? What is the treatment?
Trichuris trichiura is treated with albendazole.
Which Streptococcus pyogenes toxin is immunogenic?
Streptolysin O
A urethral swab of a patient shows gram-negative diplococci in PMNs; what organism do you diagnose?
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
A suspected dermatophyte infection is stained with KOH. What spore type do you expect to see?
Arthroconidia with hyphae
What negative sense RNA virus is associated with cough, coryza, and conjunctivitis with photophobia?
Measles (rubeola)
Which M-protein strain of Streptococcus pyogenes is associated with acute glomerulonephritis?
M12 strains
What are the three C's of measles?
1. Cough
2. Coryza
3. Conjunctivitis
What is the term given to arthropod-borne viruses?
Arboviruses (bunyavirus, flavivirus, and togavirus)
Which organism causes Weil's disease?
Leptospira
What form of the Plasmodium species are injected into humans by mosquitoes?
Sporozoites
What ssDNA virus must make dsDNA before it makes mRNA?
Parvovirus (it is the only ssDNA virus)
What is the vector of African sleeping sickness?
The tsetse fly
What HIV enzyme produces a dsDNA provirus?
Reverse transcriptase
What non–spore-forming gram-positive aerobic rod produces bull neck, sore throat with pseudomembranes, myocarditis, and sometimes respiratory obstructions?
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
What organism is associated with megaloblastic anemia?
Diphyllobothrium latum
What is the most serious form of tinea capitis, which results in permanent hair loss and is highly contagious?
Tinea favosa (favus)
What are the first intermediate hosts for trematodes?
Snails
What are the four capsular polysaccharides used in the Neisseria meningitides vaccine?
Y, W-135, and C and A capsular polysaccharides
What is the only encapsulated fungal pathogen?
Cryptococcus
What type of spore is asexual and formed of hyphae?
Conidia
What is the only Plasmodium that is quartan?
Plasmodium malariae; the others are tertian.
Which bacteria are associated with the following pigment production?
• Red pigmentation
Serratia
Which bacteria are associated with the following pigment production?
• Black-gray pigmentation
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Which bacteria are associated with the following pigment production?
• Pyocyanin (blue-green)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Which bacteria are associated with the following pigment production?
• Yellow pigmentation
Staphylococcus aureus
Which carcinoma—Burkitt's lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma, hepatocellular carcinoma, or thymic carcinoma—is not associated with EBV?
Hepatocellular carcinoma is associated with hepatitis B and C infections, not with EBV.
What capsular serotype is associated with Escherichia coli– induced meningitis?
K1 capsule
What two Ags must be positive for a patient to have chronic active hepatitis?
HBsAg and HBeAg
In the window phase of a hepatitis B infection, which Abs do you see?
HBcAb and HBeAb. You see the antibodies c and e.
True or false? All streptococci are catalase-negative
True
In what trimester is the fetus most vulnerable to congenital rubella syndrome?
The first trimester
What virus causes hoof-and-mouth disease?
Vesicular stomatitis virus
Which gram-negative diplococcus grows on chocolate agar? Thayer- Martin medium?
Meningococcus grows on chocolate agar, and Gonococcus grows on Thayer-Martin medium.
Which protozoal parasitic vaginal infection produces a positive whiff test with KOH staining?
Trichomonas vaginalis (treat with metronidazole)
Name the DNA virus
• Linear dsDNA; enveloped; virion-associated polymerases; replicates in the cytoplasm :
Poxvirus
Name the DNA virus
• Linear dsDNA; nuclear envelope; icosahedral; replicates in the nucleus
Herpes virus
Name the DNA virus:
• Linear dsDNA; naked; replicates in the nucleus
Adenovirus
Name the DNA virus:
• ssDNA; naked; icosahedral; replicates in the nucleus
Parvovirus
Name the DNA virus:
• Partially dsDNA circular; enveloped; virion-associated polymerases; has RNA intermediate; replicates in the nucleus
Hepadnavirus
Name the DNA virus:
• Circular dsDNA; naked; icosahedral; replicates in the nucleus
Papovavirus
What fungus is urease positive?
Cryptococcus
What bacterium is characterized by large boxcar-shaped gram-positive rods and is spore-forming, aerobic, and associated with cutaneous infections and woolsorter's disease?
Bacillus anthracis
Is the Salk polio vaccine inactivated?
Yes
True or false? All negative sense RNA viruses are enveloped.
True. They all have helical nucleocapsids and virion-associated polymerases too.
What urease-positive non–lactose-fermenting gram-negative rod with swarming-type motility is associated with staghorn renal calculi?
Proteus
What two viruses are associated with Reye's syndrome?
Varicella virus and influenza virus
Which organism releases endotoxins prior to cell death?
Neisseria meningitidis
Clue cells are associated with which organism that causes vaginal discharge?
Gardnerella vaginalis
What is the name of the bullet-shaped virus?
Rhabdovirus
What fungus is characterized by India ink staining of the CSF that produces colorless cells with a halo on a black background?
Cryptococcus neoformans
What does hepatitis D virus need from hepatitis B virus to be infective?
HBsAg as its envelope
Which type of hepatitis is a calicivirus?
Hepatitis E (enteric)
What genus is known as the smallest free living bacteria? (hint: has no cell wall and has sterols in the membrane)
Mycoplasma
What three organs can be affected by Trypanosoma cruzi?
Heart, esophagus, and colon. Remember, you get megas: cardiomegaly, megaesophagus, and megacolon.
Which serotypes of HPV are associated with plantar warts?
HPV serotypes 1 and 4
What facultative gram-negative anaerobic rod is motile, ferments lactose, and is the MCC of UTIs?
Escherichia coli
What is the only dsRNA virus?
Reovirus
What are the four segmented RNA viruses?
1. Bunyavirus
2. Orthomyxovirus
3. Arenavirus
4. Reovirus

Remember BOAR
What type of Plasmodium affects
• Only mature RBCs?
Plasmodium malariae
What type of Plasmodium affects
• Only reticulocytes?
Plasmodium vivax
What type of Plasmodium affects
• RBCs of all ages?
Plasmodium falciparum
What is the major cell membrane sterol found in fungi?
Ergosterol
What Ab is an indication of low transmissibility for hepatitis?
HBeAb
What is the term for RNA-dependent DNA polymerase?
Reverse transcriptase
Which gram-positive bacteria infection of infancy is associated with ingestion of honey?
Clostridium botulinum
Which trematode is associated with bladder carcinoma in Egypt and Africa?
Schistosoma haematobium
Which encapsulated fungus is found in soil enriched with pigeon droppings?
Cryptococcus neoformans
What virus lies dormant in the
• Trigeminal ganglia?
Herpes I
What virus lies dormant in the
• Dorsal root ganglia?
Varicella
What virus lies dormant in the
• Sensory ganglia of S2 and S3?
Herpes II
What is the name of the exotoxin Shigella dysenteriae produces, which interferes with the 60S ribosomal subunit and results in eukaryotic protein synthesis inhibition?
Shiga toxin (enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli produces Vero toxin, which is quite similar to shiga toxin)
What protozoal parasite forms flasked-shaped lesions in the duodenum, is transmitted via fecal-oral route, and is commonly seen in campers who drank stream water?
Giardia lamblia (treat with metronidazole)
What color do fungi stain with PAS? Silver stain?
Hot pink with PAS and grey to black with silver stain
A tropical fish enthusiast has granulomatous lesions and cellulitis; what is the most likely offending organism?
Mycobacterium marinum
Which dimorphic fungus is found as Arthroconidia in desert sand of the southwestern United States (e.g., San Joaquin Valley)?
Coccidioides immitis
Which mycoplasma species is associated with urethritis, prostatitis, and renal calculi?
Ureaplasma urealyticum
What tick is the vector for babesiosis?
Ixodes (also the vector for Lyme disease)
What is the only DNA virus that does not replicate its DNA in the nucleus of the host cell?
Poxvirus replicates its DNA in the cytoplasm.
What organism would you suspect in a patient with diarrhea after eating rice?
Bacillus cereus
What small gram-negative facultative intracellular rod is transmitted to human host by Dermacentor tick bite?
Francisella tularensis
True or false? Cestodes have no GI tract.
True. They absorb nutrients from the host's GI tract.
What negative sense RNA virus is associated with parotitis, pancreatitis, and orchitis?
Mumps
What is the size of a positive PPD test for the following? (Reactive)
• IV drug abuser
>10 mm
What is the size of a positive PPD test for the following? (Reactive)
• Patient with AIDS
>5 mm
What is the size of a positive PPD test for the following? (Reactive)
• Recent immigrant from India
>10 mm
What is the size of a positive PPD test for the following? (Reactive)
• Healthy suburban male without any medical illnesses
>15 mm
What is the size of a positive PPD test for the following? (Reactive)
• Posttransplantation patient taking immunosuppressive agents
>5 mm
What are the only two picornaviruses that do not lead to aseptic meningitis?
Rhinovirus and hepatitis A virus
Which cestode in raw or rare beef containing cysticerci results in intestinal tapeworms?
Taenia saginata
What DNA viral disease is associated with aplastic crisis in patients with sickle cell anemia?
Parvovirus B-19
What glycoprotein in the HIV virus attaches to CD4?
GP120
What Enterobacteriaceae are prone to produce osteomyelitis in sickle cell patients?
Salmonella
What organism is commonly associated with a cellulitis from an animal bite?
Pasteurella multocida
What fungus is seen as colored cauliflower lesions?
Chromomycosis
What is the reservoir for the togavirus?
Birds
What are the two exceptions to the rule "all cocci are gram positive"?
Both Neisseria and Moraxella are gram-negative cocci.
What nematode is known as hookworms? What is the treatment?
Necator americanus is treated with mebendazole and iron therapy.
What HIV structural gene produces GP120 and GP41?
env structural protein
Which hemoflagellate species causes kala azar?
Leishmania donovani (kala azar is also known as visceral leishmaniasis)
What DNA virus is associated with heterophile-negative mononucleosis?
CMV; remember, EBV is associated with heterophile-positive mononucleosis.
What negative sense RNA virus is associated with intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies called Negri bodies?
Rabies
What large, spore-forming, gram-positive anaerobic rod is associated with infections due to puncture wounds and trauma?
Clostridium tetani
What is the vector for Chagas disease?
The reduviid bug
What is the polarity (i.e., 5'-3' or 3'-5') of a positive sense RNA?
Positive sense RNA means it can serve as mRNA and therefore has 5'-3' polarity
What viral infection is associated with black vomit?
Yellow fever (flavivirus)
What encapsulated gram-negative, lactose-fermenting rod is associated with pneumonia in patients with alcoholism, diabetes, and chronic lung disease?
Klebsiella pneumoniae
What is the essential reservoir host for Toxoplasma gondii?
The cat
What gram-positive anaerobic rod with branching filaments is a component of the normal flora of the mouth and female genital tract and is responsible for draining abscesses with sulfur granules in the exudates?
Actinomyces israelii
What is the term for Candida infection of the oral mucosa?
Thrush
What is the term for fungi that can convert from hyphal to yeast forms?
Dimorphic
To what viral family does the polio virus belong?
Picornaviridae
Name at least three bacteria that use capsules to prevent immediate destruction from the host's defense system.
Streptococcus pneumoniae, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Neisseria meningitidis; also Cryptococcus neoformans, a fungus
True or false? There are no persistent infections with naked viruses?
True. They lyse the host cell
What virus is associated with progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy?
JC virus
What bacterium is a gram-negative, oxidase-positive aerobic rod that produces a grapelike odor and pyocyanin pigmentation?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Which three organisms cause heterophilic negative mononucleosis?
CMV, Toxoplasma gondii, and Listeria
What bacterium found in poorly preserved canned food causes flaccid paralysis?
Clostridium botulinum
Which two negative sense RNA viruses have neuraminidase enzymes?
Mumps and influenza virus
What Staphylococcus aureus protein inhibits phagocytosis?
Protein A
Which four bacteria require cysteine for growth?
Pasteurella, Brucella, Legionella, and Francisella (all of the-ellas)
What fungus causes endocarditis in IV drug users?
Candida albicans
What viruses are associated with Cowdry type A intranuclear inclusions?
Herpes virus I and II
Which streptococcal species is associated with dental caries and infective endocarditis in patients with poor oral hygiene?
Streptococcus viridans
What is the term for cestode-encysted larvae found in intermediate hosts?
Cysticerci
What fungus is characterized by hypopigmented spots on the thorax, spaghetti-and-meatball KOH staining, and pityriasis or tinea versicolor?
Malassezia furfur (treat with selenium sulfide)
What nematode is known as threadworms? What is the treatment?
Strongyloides stercoralis is treated with thiabendazole.
What are known as jumping genes?
Transposons
What virus produces koilocytic cells on a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear?
HPV
Which dimorphic fungus is endemic in the Ohio, Mississippi, Missouri, and Eastern Great Lakes, is found in soil with bird and bat feces, and is associated with infections in spelunkers and chicken coop cleaners?
Histoplasma capsulatum
Which of the following Enterobacteriaceae family members—Yersinia, Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Escherichia, Proteus, and Citrobacter— do not ferment lactose?
All are lactose fermenters except Yersinia and Proteus.
What two HIV regulatory genes down-regulate MHC class I expression in the host?
nef and tat genes
What size ribosomes do fungi have?
80S ribosomes (because they are eukaryotic)