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20 Cards in this Set

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Does a partial agonist have alower potency than a full agonist? Does a partial agaonist always have a lower max efficacy than a full agonist?
partial agonist is more potent than a full agonist with less efficacy.
What are the symptoms of pheochromocytoma? What lab test can be used to dx it and what class of drugs is used for tx.
hyperadrenergic symtoms: 5Ps

pressure (htn)
pain (headache)
perspiration
palpitations
pallor

tx with alpha-antag (phenoxybenzamine)
What is Charcot's Triad?
triad of cholangitis:
jaundice, fever and RUQ pain
what is the function of MacConkey's agar?
for lactose fermenting enterics (pink colonies)
what infection is a/w polyarteritis nodosa?
necrotizing immune complex inflammation of med sized musc art

a/w Hep-B infections
What are potential outcomes of a primary tb infection? when is the typical cavitary lung lesion of tb seen; Primary or secondary?
primary: may heal, progressive lung disease, severe bacteremia or preallergic lymphatic or hematogeous dissemination.

cavitary lesion seen in secondary infection.
young man with internal struggle over a descion to join preisthood. reaveal he has thought of "being with other men". what is the defense mech used.
Reaction formation
what is the difference between a promoter region and an enhancer region on DNA?
promoter: site where RNA polymeras and multiple other transcription factors bind to DNA upstream from gen locus (AT rich sequence with TATA and CAAT boxes)

enhancer: stretch of DNA that alters gen expression by binding transcription factors. Located close to, far from or withing the gene
categorize the following as type I, II, III or IV hypersensitivity.
*asthma
*contact dermatitis
*Goodpastures
*Arthrus reaction
*anaphylaxis
*serum sickness
*autoimmune hemolytic anemia
*transplant rejection
*Rh incompatability
*TB skin test
asthma: I
contact dermatitis: IV
Goodpastures: II
Arthrus: III
anaphylaxis: I
serum sickness: III
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia: II
tansplant rejection: IV
Rh incompatability: II
TB skin test: IV
What pulmonary artery pressures indicate pulmonary htn?
normal : 10-14
pumonary htn: >25 or >35 during exercise.
What are the branches off of the right and left coronary arteries? What is the most commonly occluded artery of the heart? What is particularly dangerous about an occlusion of the RCA?
Right: acute marginal artery
Left: circumflex and the left anterior descending.

most common occlusion: LAD

occlusion of RCA: SA and AV nodes are supplied by RCA. It also supplies inferior portion of the LV via the posterior descending/interventricular
Wha are the three most common primary brain tumors in adults? in children
Gliobastoma multiforme, meningioma, and Schwannoma

children: pilocytic astrocytoma, medulloblastoma, ependymoma.
What symptoms are sen with excess administration/toxicity of an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor? What substances are knonw for causing this tox?
Diarrhea, Urination, Miosis, Bronchospasms, Brady, Excitiation of sk muslce and CNS, Lacrimation, Sweating and Salivation

Parathion and other organophosphates and irrev inhibitors.
What is pulse pressure? what is the equation for MAP?
PP = systolic - diastolic

MAP = 2/3 diastolic + 1/3 systolic
Which antibiotic fits the following description?
*drug of choice for gonorrhea
*drug class for Lyme dz or RMSF
*prophylaxis for those exposed to someone with H.influ type B
*Prophylaxis for hx of recurrent UTI
*tx Giardia
*tx MRSA as well as C. dif colitis
gonorrhea: Ceftriaxone
Lyme or RMSF: Tetracyclines
H. influ type B: Rifampin
recurrent UTIs: TMP-SMX
Giardia: Metronidazole
MRSA and C. diff colitis: Vancomycin
Different forms of Vit-D
D2- ergocalciferol - ingested from plants use as Rx agent
D3- cholecalciferol consumed in milk forme in sun exposed skin
25-OH D3 - storage form
1,25- (OH)2 D3 (calcitrol) = active form
what ratio indicates fetal lung maturity? what is the proper name for the main component of pulmonary surfactant?
A lectihin: shingomyelin ratio of >2.0 in amniotic fluid is indicative of fetal lung maturity.

surfactant (dipalmitoyl phosphatidylcholine)
What re the two most common complications after an MI? What is Dressler's syn?
complications: arrhythmias, LV failure, pulmonary edema, cardiogenic shock, ventricular free wall rupture --> tamponade; papillary muscle--> severe mitral regurg; interventricular spetal rupture --> VSD, aneurysm formation, fibrounous pericarditis, Dressler's syn- autoimmune phenomenon resulting in fibrinous pericarditis (weeks after MI)
Underlying prob in Wilson's dz? Characterisitics? tx?
Inadequate hepatic copper excretion and failure of copper to enter circ as ceruplasmin. Leads to Cu accum in liver, brain, cornea,kidney and jts.

characterized by: Asterixis, Basal gangia degerneration, Ceruloplasmin down, Cirrhosis, Corneal deposits, Cu accum, Carcinoma, Dementia, dyskinesia and dysarthria, hemolytic anemia

tx: penicillamine
What are the different zones of the adrenal cortex? What hormones are generated in each zone of the adrenal cortex and in the adrenal medulla?
zones: Glomerulosa, Fasciculata, Reticularis and medulla

Glomerulosa: Aldosterone
Fasciculata: cortisol, sex horm
Reticularis : Sex horm
medulla: catecholamines