Usmle Comprehensive

Front 1

What gland is found in the muscular triangle of the neck?

Back 1

Thyroid gland

Front 2

Is an afferent or efferent pupillary defect described as B/L pupillary constriction when light is shined in the unaffected eye and B/L paradoxical dilation when light is shined in the affected eye?

Back 2

Afferent pupillary defect (CN II lesion); in an efferent pupillary defect (CN III), B/L constrict when light is shined in the unaffected eye and consentual pupil constriction occurs when light is shined in the affected eye.

Front 3

What is the name of the spinal cord passing within the subarachnoid space and forming the spinal nerves that exit the lumbar and sacral foramina?

Back 3

Cauda equina

Front 4

Name the laryngeal muscle described by the following: • Pulls the arytenoids cartilages closer to the thyroid, relaxing the vocal ligaments and thereby decreasing the pitch

Back 4

Thyroarytenoid muscles

Front 5

Name the laryngeal muscle described by the following: • Tenses the vocal ligaments, increasing the distance between the cartilages, thereby increasing the pitch

Back 5

Cricothyroid muscles

Front 6

Name the laryngeal muscle described by the following: • Adducts the vocal ligaments, closes the air passageway during swallowing, and allows phonation

Back 6

Lateral cricoarytenoid muscles

Front 7

Name the laryngeal muscle described by the following: • Only muscle to abduct the vocal cords

Back 7

Posterior cricoarytenoid muscles

Front 8

Where does the parotid (Stensen's) duct enter the oral cavity?

Back 8

Opposite the second upper molar tooth

Front 9

From what aortic arch are the following structures derived? • Common and internal carotid arteries

Back 9

Third aortic arch MS CARD is my mnemonic for the aortic arch derivatives

Front 10

From what aortic arch are the following structures derived? • Degenerates

Back 10

Fifth MS CARD is my mnemonic for the aortic arch derivatives

Front 11

From what aortic arch are the following structures derived? • Stapes artery

Back 11

Second MS CARD is my mnemonic for the aortic arch derivatives

Front 12

From what aortic arch are the following structures derived? • Maxillary artery

Back 12

First MS CARD is my mnemonic for the aortic arch derivatives

Front 13

From what aortic arch are the following structures derived? • Arch of the aorta and right subclavian artery

Back 13

Fourth MS CARD is my mnemonic for the aortic arch derivatives

Front 14

From what aortic arch are the following structures derived? • Right and left pulmonary arteries and the ductus arteriosus

Back 14

Sixth MS CARD is my mnemonic for the aortic arch derivatives

Front 15

What abdominal muscle contributes to the anterior layer of the rectus sheath, forms the inguinal ligament, and in men gives rise to the external spermatic fascia of the spermatic cord?

Back 15

External abdominal oblique

Front 16

Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its movements. • Adduct the thigh and flex the hip

Back 16

Medial compartment of the thigh, obturator nerve

Front 17

Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its movements. • Plantar flex the foot, flex the toes, and invert the foot

Back 17

Posterior compartment of the leg, tibial nerve

Front 18

Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its movements. • Dorsiflex the foot, extend the toes, and invert the foot

Back 18

Anterior compartment of the leg, deep peroneal nerve

Front 19

Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its movements. • Flex the hip and extend the knee

Back 19

Anterior compartment of the thigh, femoral nerve

Front 20

Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its movements. • Extend the hip and flex the knee

Back 20

Posterior compartment of the thigh, tibial nerve

Front 21

Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its movements. • Plantar flex the foot and evert the foot

Back 21

Lateral compartment of the leg, superficial peroneal nerve

Front 22

What are the five branches of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus?

Back 22

STARS 1. Upper Subscapularis 2. Thoracodorsal 3. Axillary 4. Radial 5. Lower Subscapularis

Front 23

Name the correct artery. • The right recurrent laryngeal nerve passes around it.

Back 23

Right brachiocephalic artery

Front 24

Name the correct artery. • The left recurrent laryngeal nerve passes around it.

Back 24

Arch of the aorta

Front 25

The inferior mesenteric artery drains into it.

Back 25

The splenic vein

Front 26

Are the quadrate and caudate lobes of the liver functionally part of the left or right lobe?

Back 26

Functionally they are part of the left lobe of the liver because they receive their blood supply from the left hepatic artery. Anatomically they are considered part of the right lobe of the liver.

Front 27

What bones make up the acetabulum?

Back 27

Pubis, ilium, and ischium

Front 28

What is the anatomic positioning of the right and left gastric nerve plexus of the esophagus as they pass through the diaphragm?

Back 28

LARP: Left goes Anterior and Right goes Posterior (because of the rotation of the gut; remember your embryology!)

Front 29

What vessel is lacerated in an epidural hematoma?

Back 29

Middle meningeal artery

Front 30

True or false? Below the arcuate line, all the aponeurotic fibers run anterior to the rectus abdominis.

Back 30

TRUE

Front 31

What ocular muscle • Adducts the eyeball and is involved in horizontal conjugate gaze?

Back 31

Medial rectus (CN III) (LR6 SO4)3

Front 32

What ocular muscle • Elevates and adducts the eyeball?

Back 32

Superior rectus (CN III) (LR6 SO4)3

Front 33

What ocular muscle • Depresses and abducts the eyeball?

Back 33

Superior Oblique (CN IV) (LR6 SO4)3

Front 34

What ocular muscle • Elevates and abducts the eyeball?

Back 34

Inferior Oblique (CN III) (LR6 SO4)3

Front 35

What ocular muscle • Abducts the eyeball and is involved in horizontal conjugate gaze?

Back 35

Lateral rectus (CN VI) (LR6 SO4)3

Front 36

What ocular muscle • Depresses and adducts the eyeball?

Back 36

Inferior rectus (CN III) (LR6 SO4)3

Front 37

Which muscles of the eye are under parasympathetic control?

Back 37

Constrictor pupillae and ciliary muscles

Front 38

Which direction does the uvula deviate in a left vagus nerve lesion?

Back 38

A left CN X lesion results in the uvula deviating to the right. (Uvula points away from the affected side.)

Front 39

Is a subdural hematoma an arterial or venous bleed?

Back 39

Subdural hematoma is a rupture of the cerebral veins where they enter the superior sagittal sinus.

Front 40

Which CNs are found in the midline of the brainstem?

Back 40

CN I, II, III, VI, and XII Add 1 + 1 = 2, 1 + 2 = 3, 1 + 2 + 3 = 6, 1 + 2 + 3 + 6 = 12

Front 41

What muscles insert in or on the intertubercular groove of the humerus?

Back 41

"Lady between two Majors": latissimus dorsi, pectoralis major, and teres major

Front 42

What nerve supplies taste sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?

Back 42

Chorda tympani of CN VII

Front 43

What part of the heart forms • The right border?

Back 43

Right atrium

Front 44

What part of the heart forms • Left border?

Back 44

Left ventricle and auricle of left atrium

Front 45

What part of the heart forms • Apex?

Back 45

Tip of the left ventricle

Front 46

What part of the heart forms • Base?

Back 46

Left atrium and tip of the right atrium

Front 47

What part of the heart forms • Superior border?

Back 47

Conus arteriosus of the right ventricle and right and left auricles

Front 48

What part of the heart forms • Anterior wall?

Back 48

Right ventricle

Front 49

What part of the heart forms • Posterior wall?

Back 49

Left atrium

Front 50

What part of the heart forms • Diaphragmatic wall?

Back 50

Left ventricle and tip of right ventricle

Front 51

What nerves carry the sensory and motor components of the blink reflex?

Back 51

CN V1 carries the sensory and CN VII carries the motor component of the blink reflex.

Front 52

What muscle keeps the stapes taut against the oval window?

Back 52

Stapedius muscle

Front 53

Name the components of the femoral canal, working laterally to medially.

Back 53

NAVEL: Femoral Nerve, Artery, Vein, Empty space, and Lymphatics/Lacunar ligament

Front 54

What muscle is most superior in the orbit?

Back 54

Levator palpebrae superioris

Front 55

What portion of the pericardium adheres to the tunica adventitia of the great vessels?

Back 55

Fibrous pericardium

Front 56

What two veins form the portal vein?

Back 56

The superior mesenteric vein and the splenic vein (after it receives the inferior mesenteric vein) join to form the portal vein.

Front 57

What CNs are responsible for the sensor and motor components of the light reflex?

Back 57

CN II is the sensory limb and CN III is the motor component through parasympathetic stimulation.

Front 58

Arrange the following layers in the correct sequence through which a needle must pass in a lumbar puncture. • Skin • Subarachnoid space • Interspinous ligament • Dura mater • Deep fascia • Epidural space • Superficial fascia • Interlaminar space • Supraspinous ligament • Arachnoid mater

Back 58

During a lumbar puncture the needle passes through the interlaminar space in the midline of L3–L4, with the tip of the iliac crest in the flexed position as the landmark. Order of puncture: 1. Skin 2. Superficial fascia 3. Deep fascia 4. Supraspinous ligament 5. Interspinous ligament 6. Interlaminar space 7. Epidural space 8. Dura mater 9. Arachnoid mater 10. Subarachnoid space. (They ask this in some variation every year, so know it.)

Front 59

What ocular ganglion is affected if the pupil on the affected side sluggishly responds to light with normal accommodation?

Back 59

Ciliary ganglion producing a tonic pupil

Front 60

What is the name for the most prominent spinous process?

Back 60

Vertebra prominens (C7 in 70% of cases, C6 in 20%, T1 in 10%)

Front 61

What muscles make up the rotator cuff?

Back 61

SITS—Subscapularis, Infraspinatus, Teres minor, Supraspinatus

Front 62

What is the function of white rami communicantes?

Back 62

They are preganglionic sympathetic axons. They are white because they are myelinated.

Front 63

What muscle or muscles are innervated by the following nerves? • Suprascapular nerve

Back 63

Supraspinatus and infraspinatus

Front 64

What muscle or muscles are innervated by the following nerves? • Upper subscapularis nerve

Back 64

Subscapularis

Front 65

What muscle or muscles are innervated by the following nerves? • Thoracodorsal nerve

Back 65

Latissimus dorsi

Front 66

What muscle or muscles are innervated by the following nerves? • Long thoracic nerve

Back 66

Serratus anterior

Front 67

What nerve is associated with the following functions? • Flex the wrist and digits, pronate the wrist and the LOAF (Lumbricales, Opponens pollicis, Abductor pollicis brevis, Flexor pollicis brevis) muscles of the hand

Back 67

Median nerve

Front 68

What nerve is associated with the following functions? • Flex the shoulder, flex the elbow, and supinate the elbow

Back 68

Musculocutaneous nerve

Front 69

What nerve is associated with the following functions? • Innervation of the flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor digiti profundus (pinky and ring fingers), and the intrinsic muscles of the hand

Back 69

Ulnar nerve

Front 70

What nerve is associated with the following functions? • Supinate the wrist, extend the wrist and digits, extend the shoulder and elbow

Back 70

Radial nerve

Front 71

What abdominal muscle runs horizontally, contributes to the posterior rectus sheath, and contributes to form the conjoint tendon?

Back 71

Transverse abdominis

Front 72

Which CNs act as the sensory and motor components of the gag reflex?

Back 72

The sensory limb is via CN IX, and the motor limb is from CN X.

Front 73

Which kidney is lower? Why?

Back 73

The right kidney is lower in the abdominal cavity because of the amount of space the liver occupies.

Front 74

What two regions of the vertebral column are considered primary curvatures?

Back 74

Thoracic and sacral

Front 75

What vein drains the lower third of the thoracic wall?

Back 75

Hemiazygous vein

Front 76

At what point does the axillary artery become the brachial artery?

Back 76

When it crosses the teres major

Front 77

What direction would the tongue protrude in a left CN XII lesion?

Back 77

Left CN XII lesion would result in the tongue pointing to the left (points at the affected side).

Front 78

At what vertebral level does the common carotid artery bifurcate?

Back 78

C4 (the upper border of the thyroid cartilage)

Front 79

True or false? Males are more likely to develop femoral hernias than females.

Back 79

False. Females are more likely to develop femoral hernias then males (remember Female's Femoral).

Front 80

In what compartment of the thigh is the profundus femoris artery found?

Back 80

Anterior compartment (it's the blood supply to the posterior compartment)

Front 81

Where is the cupola of the lung in relation to the subclavian artery and vein?

Back 81

The cupola of the lung is posterior to the subclavian artery and vein. It is the reason one must be cautious when performing subclavian venipuncture.

Front 82

True or false? The first cervical vertebra has no vertebral body.

Back 82

True. The odontoid process of C2 acts as the vertebral body of C1 allowing lateral rotation of the head.

Front 83

What is the largest muscle in the body?

Back 83

Gluteus maximus

Front 84

At what vertebral levels does the aortic arch begin and end?

Back 84

It both begins and ends at T4 (sternal angle [of Louis]).

Front 85

What artery travels with the following veins? • Great cardiac vein

Back 85

Left anterior descending artery

Front 86

What artery travels with the following veins? • Middle cardiac vein

Back 86

Posterior interventricular artery

Front 87

What artery travels with the following veins? • Small cardiac vein

Back 87

Right coronary artery

Front 88

The ophthalmic artery is a branch of what vessel?

Back 88

Internal carotid artery

Front 89

What structure or structures cross the diaphragm at • T8 level?

Back 89

IVC Remember: 1 at T8, 2 at T10, and 3 at T12

Front 90

What structure or structures cross the diaphragm at • T10 level?

Back 90

Esophagus and esophageal nerve plexus (CN X) Remember: 1 at T8, 2 at T10, and 3 at T12

Front 91

What structure or structures cross the diaphragm at • T12 level?

Back 91

Aorta, azygos vein, and thoracic duct Remember: 1 at T8, 2 at T10, and 3 at T12

Front 92

Is the carotid sinus sensitive to pressure or oxygen?

Back 92

The carotid sinus is a pressure-sensitive (low) receptor, while the carotid body is an oxygen-sensitive (low) receptor. (Remember "Sinus Pressure").

Front 93

What nerve or nerves supply general sensation and taste to the posterior third of the tongue?

Back 93

CN XI and X

Front 94

Which muscle of the eye is under sympathetic control?

Back 94

Dilator pupillae muscle

Front 95

True or false? both the left and right lungs have an oblique fissure?

Back 95

True. on the right lung the oblique fissure divides the middle from the inferior lobe and the horizontal fissure further divides the middle from the upper lobe. On the left the oblique divides the superior from the inferior lobe.

Front 96

What are the three branches of the lateral cord of the brachial plexus?

Back 96

1. Lateral pectoral 2. Lateral head of the median 3. Musculocutaneus

Front 97

What is the major difference between the veins in the face and the veins in the rest of the body?

Back 97

There are no valves and no smooth muscle in the walls of the veins in the face.

Front 98

Name the bony articulations of the following sites. Be specific. • Shoulder

Back 98

Clavicle, acromion, and glenoid fossa of the scapula and the humerus

Front 99

Name the bony articulations of the following sites. Be specific. • Elbow

Back 99

Humerus with ulna (major) and radius (minor)

Front 100

Name the bony articulations of the following sites. Be specific. • Wrist

Back 100

Radius with scaphoid and lunate and ulna with triquetrum and pisiform (Remember, for major articulations, wrist/radius and humerus/ulna = elbow)

Front 101

What is the only laryngeal muscle innervated by the external laryngeal nerve?

Back 101

Cricothyroid muscle; all other laryngeal muscles are innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve.

Front 102

What seven structures are found in more than one mediastinum?

Back 102

Esophagus, SVC, vagus nerve, azygos vein, thoracic duct, thymus, and phrenic nerve

Front 103

How many bronchopulmonary segments are on the right lung? Left lung?

Back 103

There are 10 bronchopulmonary segments on the right and 8 on the left.

Front 104

The duodenal–jejunal flexure is suspended from the posterior abdominal wall by what?

Back 104

Ligament of Treitz

Front 105

What is the only tongue muscle innervated by CN X?

Back 105

Palatoglossus muscle is innervated by CN X; all other tongue muscles are innervated by CN XII.

Front 106

What abdominal muscle runs in a posteroinferior direction, splits to contribute to the rectus sheath, contributes to the formation of the conjoint tendon, and in men gives rise to the middle spermatic fascia and the cremasteric muscle of the spermatic cord?

Back 106

Internal abdominal oblique

Front 107

What are the five branches of the superior mesenteric artery?

Back 107

Inferior pancreaticoduodenal, middle colic, right colic, ileocolic, and 10 to 15 intestinal arteries

Front 108

What spinal nerves contribute to the pelvic splanchnic (parasympathetic) nerves that innervate the detrusor muscle of the urinary bladder?

Back 108

S2, S3, S4—keeps the pee-pee off the floor!

Front 109

What connects the third and the fourth ventricles?

Back 109

Cerebral aqueduct

Front 110

What nerve and artery could be affected in a humeral neck fracture?

Back 110

Axillary nerve and posterior humeral artery

Front 111

What type of hernia is described as passing through the deep lateral ring of the inguinal canal?

Back 111

Indirect hernia passes in the inguinal canal; a direct hernia passes directly through Hesselbach's triangle.

Front 112

What two vessels come together to form the external jugular vein?

Back 112

1. Posterior auricular vein 2. Posterior division of the retromandibular vein

Front 113

What is the only vein in the body with a high O2 content?

Back 113

The pulmonary vein, which carries oxygenated blood from the lung to the left atrium.

Front 114

What are the three branches of the celiac trunk?

Back 114

The left gastric, splenic, and common hepatic arteries

Front 115

What region of the pharynx does the eustachian tube enter?

Back 115

Nasopharynx

Front 116

What is the only muscle of the soft palate that is innervated by CN V3?

Back 116

The tensor veli palatine is innervated by the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve; all others are innervated by CN X.

Front 117

How many pairs of spinal nerves exit from the spinal cord?

Back 117

31 pairs

Front 118

What artery turns into the dorsalis pedis when it crosses the extensor retinaculum?

Back 118

Anterior tibial artery

Front 119

What is the term for pupils that react normally to accommodation but have bilateral loss of constriction in response to light?

Back 119

Argyll Robertson pupils

Front 120

What connects the lateral ventricles to the third ventricle?

Back 120

Foramen of Monro

Front 121

What nerve supplies general sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?

Back 121

Lingual nerve of CN V3

Front 122

What type of pleura is adherent to the surface of the organ?

Back 122

Visceral pleura

Front 123

What artery supplies the left ventricle, left atrium, and interventricular septum?

Back 123

Left coronary artery

Front 124

Where are the tonsillar tissues?

Back 124

Waldeyer's ring

Front 125

What is the name of the superficial subcutaneous fascia of the abdomen containing fat?

Back 125

Camper's fascia; Scarpa's fascia is devoid of fat. (Remember campers are fat.)

Front 126

What are the three anatomic characteristics that differentiate the large bowel from the small bowel and the rectum?

Back 126

1. Tinea coli 2. Haustra 3. Epiploic appendages

Front 127

What area of the posterior aspect of the eye has no photoreceptors?

Back 127

The optic disk is the blind spot.

Front 128

At the level of rib 6, the internal thoracic artery divides into what two arteries?

Back 128

Musculophrenic and superior epigastric arteries

Front 129

What is the name of inflammation of the prepatellar bursa?

Back 129

Housemaid's knee

Front 130

What nerve roots constitute the cervical plexus?

Back 130

C1 through C4

Front 131

Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Heart and pericardium

Back 131

Middle

Front 132

Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Descending aorta

Back 132

Posterior

Front 133

Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Thymus

Back 133

Superior and anterior

Front 134

Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Phrenic nerve

Back 134

Superior and middle

Front 135

Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Esophagus

Back 135

Superior and posterior

Front 136

Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Trachea

Back 136

Superior

Front 137

Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Ascending aorta

Back 137

Middle

Front 138

Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Thoracic duct

Back 138

Superior and posterior

Front 139

Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Azygos vein

Back 139

Superior and posterior

Front 140

Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • SVC

Back 140

Superior and middle

Front 141

Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Splanchnic nerves

Back 141

Posterior

Front 142

Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Aortic arch

Back 142

Superior

Front 143

Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • IVC

Back 143

Middle

Front 144

Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Vagus nerve

Back 144

Posterior

Front 145

Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Brachiocephalic vein

Back 145

Superior

Front 146

Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Pulmonary artery and veins

Back 146

Middle

Front 147

Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Left common carotid artery

Back 147

Superior

Front 148

Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Left subclavian artery

Back 148

Superior

Front 149

What is the only organ in the body supplied by preganglionic sympathetic fibers?

Back 149

Adrenal medulla

Front 150

The left subclavian artery is a branch of what artery?

Back 150

The left is a branch of the aortic arch, while the right is a branch of the brachiocephalic trunk.

Front 151

What are the four muscles of mastication?

Back 151

1. Masseter 2. Temporalis 3. Medial pterygoid 4. Lateral pterygoid

Front 152

With what thoracic vertebra or vertebrae does rib 7 articulate?

Back 152

Rib 7 articulates with T7 and T8. Each rib articulates with the corresponding numerical vertebral body and the vertebral body below it.

Front 153

What are the three branches of the inferior mesenteric artery?

Back 153

Left colic, superior rectal, and sigmoidal arteries

Front 154

What is the only valve in the heart with two cusps?

Back 154

Mitral (bicuspid) valve

Front 155

What are five clinical signs of portal HTN?

Back 155

Caput medusa, internal hemorrhoids, esophageal varices, retroperitoneal varices, and splenomegaly

Front 156

What three muscles constitute the erector spinae?

Back 156

1. Iliocostalis 2. Longissimus 3. Spinalis ("I Love Science" muscles)

Front 157

What nerve is compromised in carpal tunnel syndrome?

Back 157

Median nerve

Front 158

What vascular injury may result from a supracondylar fracture of the femur?

Back 158

The popliteal artery, the deepest structure in the popliteal fossa, risks injury in a supracondylar fracture of the femur.

Front 159

What nerve and artery could be affected in a midshaft humeral fracture?

Back 159

Radial nerve and the profunda brachii artery

Front 160

Name the 10 retroperitoneal organs.

Back 160

. Duodenum (all but the first part) 2. Ascending Colon 3. Ureters 4. Pancreas 5. Supra renal glands (adrenals) 6. Descending colon 7. Aorta 8. Kidneys 9. Rectum 10. IVC D CUPS DAKRI is the mnemonic, everything else is covered with peritoneum

Front 161

Ventral rami of what cervical nerves constitute the phrenic nerve?

Back 161

C3, C4, and C5 keep the diaphragm alive!

Front 162

What is the region of the fallopian tube where fertilization most commonly occurs?

Back 162

Ampulla

Front 163

What foramen must be traversed for entry into the lesser peritoneal sac?

Back 163

Foramen of Winslow

Front 164

Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: • Foramen magnum

Back 164

CN XI, vertebral arteries

Front 165

Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: • Foramen spinosum

Back 165

Middle meningeal artery

Front 166

Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: • Foramen rotundum

Back 166

CN V2

Front 167

Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: • Foramen ovale

Back 167

CN V3 and the lesser petrosal nerve

Front 168

Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: • Jugular foramen

Back 168

CN IX, X, and XI; sigmoid sinus

Front 169

Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: • Carotid canal

Back 169

Internal carotid artery and sympathetic plexus

Front 170

Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: • Stylomastoid foramen

Back 170

CN VII

Front 171

Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: • Hypoglossal canal

Back 171

CN XII

Front 172

Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: • Internal auditory meatus

Back 172

CN VII and VIII

Front 173

Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: • Optic canal

Back 173

CN II and ophthalmic artery

Front 174

Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: • Cribriform plate

Back 174

CN I

Front 175

What vessel can be found atop the scalene anterior?

Back 175

Subclavian vein

Front 176

What component of the corneal reflex is lost in a CN VII deficit?

Back 176

Motor aspect

Front 177

A motor lesion to the right CN V results in deviation of the jaw to which side?

Back 177

A right CN V lesion results in weakened muscles of mastication, and the jaw deviates to the right.

Front 178

What two arteries join to form the superficial and deep palmar arches of the hand?

Back 178

Ulnar and radial arteries (ulnar is the main supplier)

Front 179

What two ligaments of the uterus are remnants of the gubernaculum?

Back 179

Round and ovarian ligaments

Front 180

What segments of the lumbosacral plexus form the following nerves? • Tibial nerve

Back 180

L4 to S3 (L2 to L4, thigh; L4 to S3, leg)

Front 181

What segments of the lumbosacral plexus form the following nerves? • Common peroneal nerve

Back 181

L4 to S3 (L2 to L4, thigh; L4 to S3, leg)

Front 182

What segments of the lumbosacral plexus form the following nerves? • Femoral nerve

Back 182

L2 to L4 (L2 to L4, thigh; L4 to S3, leg)

Front 183

What segments of the lumbosacral plexus form the following nerves? • Obturator nerve

Back 183

L2 to L4 (L2 to L4, thigh; L4 to S3, leg)

Front 184

What three structures are in contact with the left colic flexure? With the right colic flexure?

Back 184

Left: stomach, spleen, and left kidney; right: liver, duodenum, and right kidney

Front 185

What three muscles constitute the pes anserinus?

Back 185

1. Sartorius 2. Gracilis 3. Semitendinous

Front 186

What is the only pharyngeal muscle not innervated by CN X?

Back 186

Stylopharyngeus muscle is innervated by CN IX; all other pharyngeal muscles are innervated by CN X.

Front 187

What vessels carry deoxygenated blood into the lungs from the right ventricle?

Back 187

The right and left pulmonary arteries, the only arteries that carry deoxygenated blood

Front 188

Fracture of the fibular neck, resulting in foot drop, is an injury of what nerve?

Back 188

Common peroneal nerve

Front 189

What vein is formed by the union of the right and left brachiocephalic veins?

Back 189

Superior vena cava

Front 190

If inserting a needle to perform a pleural tap or insertion of a chest tube, do you use the inferior or the superior border of a rib as your landmark? Why?

Back 190

The superior border of the inferior intercostal rib is your landmark for a pleural tap because along the inferior border of each rib is the neurovascular bundle, and you would risk injury if you went below the rib.

Front 191

What muscle laterally rotates the femur to unlock the knee?

Back 191

Popliteus

Front 192

What chamber of the eye lies between the iris and the lens?

Back 192

Posterior chamber

Front 193

What artery supplies the right atrium, right ventricle, sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes?

Back 193

Right coronary artery

Front 194

What four branches of the brachial plexus arise prior to the first rib?

Back 194

1. Dorsal scapular 2. Suprascapular 3. Long thoracic 4. Nerve to subclavius

Front 195

What vertebral level is marked by the xiphoid process?

Back 195

T9

Front 196

What lower extremity nerve is described by the following motor loss? • Loss of eversion; inversion, dorsiflexion, and plantarflexion of the foot

Back 196

Common peroneal nerve

Front 197

What lower extremity nerve is described by the following motor loss? • Loss of flexion of the knees and toes, plantarflexion, and weakened inversion

Back 197

Tibial nerve

Front 198

What lower extremity nerve is described by the following motor loss? • Loss of knee extension, weakened hip flexion

Back 198

Femoral nerve

Front 199

What lower extremity nerve is described by the following motor loss? • Loss of abduction of the hip resulting in Trendelenburg gait

Back 199

Superior gluteal nerve

Front 200

What lower extremity nerve is described by the following motor loss? • Loss of flexion of the knee and all function below the knee, weakened extension of the thigh

Back 200

Sciatic nerve

Front 201

What lower extremity nerve is described by the following motor loss? • Loss of adduction of the thigh

Back 201

Obturator nerve

Front 202

What nerve lesion presents with ape or simian hand as its sign?

Back 202

Median nerve lesion

Front 203

What muscle acts in all ranges of motion of the arm?

Back 203

Deltoid

Front 204

What is the first branch of the abdominal artery?

Back 204

Inferior phrenic artery

Front 205

What vessel does the right gonadal vein drain into?

Back 205

The right gonadal vein drains into the inferior vena cava directly, and the left gonadal vein drains into the left renal vein.

Front 206

What two muscles do you test to see whether CN XI is intact?

Back 206

Trapezius and sternocleidomastoid

Front 207

What two CNs are responsible for the carotid body and sinus reflexes?

Back 207

CN IX and X

Front 208

At what vertebral level does the trachea bifurcate?

Back 208

T4 vertebral level posteriorly and anteriorly at the sternal angle (angle of Louis).

Front 209

What is the function of the arachnoid granulations?

Back 209

Resorb CSF into the blood

Front 210

Damage to what nerve will give you winged scapula?

Back 210

Long thoracic nerve. To avoid confusing long thoracic nerve and lateral thoracic artery: long has an n for nerve; lateral has an a for artery.

Front 211

What portion of the intervertebral disk is a remnant of the notochord?

Back 211

Nucleus pulposus

Front 212

What component of the pelvic diaphragm forms the rectal sling (muscle of continence)?

Back 212

Puborectalis

Front 213

What are the five branches of the median cord of the brachial plexus?

Back 213

Four Ms and a U 1. Median 2. Medial antebrachial 3. Medial pectoral 4. Medial brachial cutaneus 5. Ulnar

Front 214

What bone houses the ulnar groove?

Back 214

Humerus (between the medial epicondyle and the trochlea)

Front 215

What CN is associated with the sensory innervation of • Nasopharynx?

Back 215

Maxillary division of CN V and glossopharyngeal nerves

Front 216

What CN is associated with the sensory innervation of • Oropharynx?

Back 216

Glossopharyngeal nerve

Front 217

What CN is associated with the sensory innervation of • Laryngopharynx?

Back 217

Vagus nerve

Front 218

What protective covering adheres to the spinal cord and CNS tissue?

Back 218

Pia mater

Front 219

What is the name of the urinary bladder where the ureters enter and the urethra exits?

Back 219

Urinary trigone

Front 220

What is the term when the brachial artery is compressed, resulting in ischemic contracture of the hand?

Back 220

Volkmann's contracture

Front 221

What attaches the cusps of the valves to the papillary muscles in the heart?

Back 221

Chordae tendineae

Front 222

What is the lymphatic drainage of the pelvic organs?

Back 222

Internal iliac nodes

Front 223

What bursa is inflamed in clergyman's knee?

Back 223

Infrapatellar bursa

Front 224

What muscle is the chief flexor of the hip?

Back 224

Psoas major

Front 225

What component of the ANS, when stimulated, results in bronchoconstriction?

Back 225

Parasympathetic stimulation, via the vagus nerve, results in bronchoconstriction, whereas sympathetic stimulation results in bronchodilation.

Front 226

What muscles in the hand adduct the fingers?

Back 226

The Palmar interosseus ADducts, whereas the Dorsal interosseus ABducts (PAD and DAB)

Front 227

What type of cerebral bleed is due to a rupture of a berry aneurysm in the circle of Willis?

Back 227

Subarachnoid hematoma

Front 228

What are the five terminal branches of the facial nerve?

Back 228

1. Temporal 2. Zygomatic 3. Buccal 4. Mandibular 5. Cervical (Two Zebras Bit My Clavicle.)

Front 229

What structure of the knee is described thus? • C-shaped shock absorber; aids in attachment of the tibia to the femur via the medial collateral ligament

Back 229

Medial meniscus

Front 230

What structure of the knee is described thus? • Prevents posterior displacement and has medial-to-lateral attachment on the tibia

Back 230

Posterior cruciate ligament

Front 231

What structure of the knee is described thus? • Prevents adduction

Back 231

Lateral collateral ligament

Front 232

What structure of the knee is described thus? • Prevents anterior displacement and has lateral-to-medial attachment on the tibia

Back 232

ACL

Front 233

What structure of the knee is described thus? • Prevents abduction

Back 233

Medial collateral ligament

Front 234

What branches of CN X are the sensory and motor components of the cough reflex? Be specific.

Back 234

The sensory component is through the superior laryngeal nerve, and the motor limb is via the recurrent laryngeal nerve.

Front 235

What nerves provide sensory innervation above the vocal cords? Below the vocal cords?

Back 235

The internal laryngeal nerve supplies sensory information from above the vocal cords while the recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies sensory information below.

Front 236

From what pharyngeal groove is the external auditory meatus derived?

Back 236

First pharyngeal groove; all others degenerate.

Front 237

What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure? • Corpus cavernosus, corpus spongiosum, and glans and body of the penis

Back 237

Phallus

Front 238

What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure? • Scrotum

Back 238

Labioscrotal swelling

Front 239

What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure? • Urinary bladder, urethra, prostate gland, bulbourethral gland

Back 239

Urogenital sinus

Front 240

What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure? • Testes, seminiferous tubules, and rete testes

Back 240

Gonads

Front 241

What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure? • Ventral part of the penis

Back 241

Urogenital folds

Front 242

What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure? • Gubernaculum testes

Back 242

Gubernaculum

Front 243

What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure? • Epididymis, ductus deferens, seminal vesicle, and ejaculatory duct

Back 243

Mesonephric duct

Front 244

Which PG is associated with maintaining a PDA?

Back 244

PGE and intrauterine or neonatal asphyxia maintain patency of the ductus arteriosus. Indomethacin, ACh, and catecholamines promote closure of the ductus arteriosus.

Front 245

When does the primitive gut herniate out of the embryo? When does it go back into the embryo?

Back 245

6 weeks 10 weeks

Front 246

What results when the palatine prominences fail to fuse with the other side?

Back 246

Cleft palate

Front 247

What is the term for a direct connection between the intestine and the external environment through the umbilicus because the vitelline duct persists?

Back 247

Vitelline fistula

Front 248

Where do the primordial germ cells arise?

Back 248

From the wall of the yolk sac

Front 249

What disorder is due to a 5--reductase deficiency, resulting in testicular tissue and stunted male external genitalia?

Back 249

Male pseudo-intersexuality (hermaphrodite); these individuals are 46XY.

Front 250

Does the zygote divide mitotically or meiotically?

Back 250

The zygote divides mitotically; only germ cells divide meiotically.

Front 251

During what embryonic week does the intraembryonic coelom form?

Back 251

Third week

Front 252

Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Cerebral hemispheres

Back 252

Proencephalon

Front 253

Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Midbrain

Back 253

Mesencephalon

Front 254

Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Cerebellum

Back 254

Rhombencephalon

Front 255

Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Medulla

Back 255

Rhombencephalon

Front 256

Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Diencephalon

Back 256

Proencephalon

Front 257

Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Metencephalon

Back 257

Rhombencephalon

Front 258

Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Telencephalon

Back 258

Proencephalon

Front 259

Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Thalamus

Back 259

Proencephalon

Front 260

Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Eye

Back 260

Proencephalon* *diencephalon derivative

Front 261

Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Pons

Back 261

Rhombencephalon

Front 262

Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Myelencephalon

Back 262

Rhombencephalon

Front 263

Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Pineal gland

Back 263

Proencephalon* *diencephalon derivative

Front 264

Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Cerebral aqueduct

Back 264

Mesencephalon

Front 265

Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Neurohypophysis

Back 265

Proencephalon* *diencephalon derivative

Front 266

Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Third ventricle

Back 266

Proencephalon

Front 267

Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Hypothalamus

Back 267

Proencephalon* *diencephalon derivative

Front 268

Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Lateral ventricles

Back 268

Proencephalon

Front 269

What malignant tumor of the trophoblast causes high levels of hCG and may occur after a hydatidiform mole, abortion, or normal pregnancy?

Back 269

Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN or choriocarcinoma)

Front 270

What syndrome is due to a deficiency of surfactant?

Back 270

Respiratory distress syndrome; treatment with cortisol and thyroxine can increase production of surfactant.

Front 271

How many oogonia are present at birth?

Back 271

None; they are not formed until a girl reaches puberty.

Front 272

What right-to-left shunt occurs when the aorta opens into the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk opens into the left ventricle?

Back 272

Transposition of the great vessels arises from a failure of the aorticopulmonary septum to grow in a spiral.

Front 273

What are the adult remnants of the following structures? • Left umbilical vein

Back 273

Ligament teres

Front 274

What are the adult remnants of the following structures? • Foramen ovale

Back 274

Fossa ovale

Front 275

What are the adult remnants of the following structures? • Right and left umbilical arteries

Back 275

Medial umbilical ligaments

Front 276

What are the adult remnants of the following structures? • Ductus arteriosus

Back 276

Ligamentum arteriosum

Front 277

What are the adult remnants of the following structures? • Ductus venosus

Back 277

Ligamentum venosum

Front 278

Mandibular hypoplasia, down-slanted palpebral fissures, colobomas, malformed ears, and zygomatic hypoplasia are commonly seen in what pharyngeal arch 1 abnormality?

Back 278

Treacher Collins syndrome

Front 279

What is the tetrad of tetralogy of Fallot?

Back 279

SHIP: Shifting of the aorta, Hypertrophy of the right ventricle, Interventricular septal defect, Pulmonary stenosis

Front 280

What is the term for the external urethra opening onto the ventral surface of the penis?

Back 280

Hypospadia

Front 281

What CN is associated with the • First pharyngeal arch?

Back 281

CN V

Front 282

What CN is associated with the • Second pharyngeal arch?

Back 282

CN VII

Front 283

What CN is associated with the • Third pharyngeal arch?

Back 283

CN IX

Front 284

What CN is associated with the • Fourth pharyngeal arch?

Back 284

CN X

Front 285

What CN is associated with the • Fifth pharyngeal arch?

Back 285

None; it degenerates.

Front 286

What CN is associated with the • Sixth pharyngeal arch?

Back 286

CN X

Front 287

What disease results in a failure of neural crest cells to migrate to the myenteric plexus of the sigmoid colon and rectum?

Back 287

Hirschsprung's disease (colonic gangliosus)

Front 288

What immunologic syndrome is due to a pharyngeal pouch 3 and 4 failure?

Back 288

DiGeorge's syndrome

Front 289

What embryonic structure, around day 19, tells the ectoderm above it to differentiate into neural tissue?

Back 289

The notochord

Front 290

What is the term for failure of the testes to descend into the scrotum?

Back 290

Cryptorchidism; normally the testes descend into the scrotum within 3 months of birth.

Front 291

Is a membranous septal defect more commonly interventricular or interatrial?

Back 291

Membranous septal defects are interventricular; a persistent patent ovale results in an interatrial septal defect.

Front 292

What pharyngeal pouch and groove persist when a pharyngeal fistula is formed?

Back 292

The second pharyngeal pouch and groove

Front 293

How early can a pregnancy be detected by hCG assays in the blood? In urine?

Back 293

hCG can be detected in the blood by day 8 and in the urine by day 10.

Front 294

From what pharyngeal pouch is the following structure derived? • Middle ear

Back 294

First M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives

Front 295

From what pharyngeal pouch is the following structure derived? • Superior parathyroid gland and ultimobranchial body of the thyroid

Back 295

Fourth M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives

Front 296

From what pharyngeal pouch is the following structure derived? • Inferior parathyroid gland and thymus

Back 296

Third M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives

Front 297

From what pharyngeal pouch is the following structure derived? • Palatine tonsil

Back 297

Second M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives

Front 298

What is the term for the external urethra opening onto the dorsal surface of the penis?

Back 298

Epispadia

Front 299

True or false? In females, meiosis II is incomplete unless fertilization takes place.

Back 299

True. The elimination of the unfertilized egg is menses.

Front 300

What adult structures are derived from preotic somites?

Back 300

Muscles of the internal eye

Front 301

What disorder is associated with jaundice, white stools, and dark urine due to biliary duct occlusion secondary to incomplete recanalization?

Back 301

Extrahepatic biliary atresia

Front 302

What hormone, produced by the syncytiotrophoblast, stimulates the production of progesterone by the corpus luteum?

Back 302

hCG

Front 303

How many mature sperm are produced by one type B spermatogonium?

Back 303

Four

Front 304

All primary oocytes in females are formed by what age?

Back 304

They are all formed by the fifth month of fetal life.

Front 305

From what embryonic structure are the following structures derived? • The ascending aorta and the pulmonary trunk

Back 305

Truncus arteriosus

Front 306

From what embryonic structure are the following structures derived? • The sinus venarum, coronary sinus, and the oblique vein of the left atrium

Back 306

Sinus venosus

Front 307

From what embryonic structure are the following structures derived? • The right and left ventricles

Back 307

Primitive ventricle

Front 308

From what embryonic structure are the following structures derived? • The aortic vestibule and the conus arteriosus

Back 308

Bulbus cordis

Front 309

From what embryonic structure are the following structures derived? • The right and left atria

Back 309

Primitive atrium

Front 310

After a longstanding left-to-right shunt reverses, causing cyanosis, and becomes a right-to-left shunt, what is it termed?

Back 310

Eisenmenger's syndrome

Front 311

True or false? The thyroid gland is an embryologic foregut derivative.

Back 311

True. The thyroid gland, the lungs, and the pharyngeal pouches are foregut derivatives that are not a component of the gastrointestinal system.

Front 312

What embryonic structure forms the following adult structures? • Collecting ducts, calyces, renal pelvis, and ureter

Back 312

Mesonephric duct (ureteric bud)

Front 313

What embryonic structure forms the following adult structures? • Urinary bladder and urethra

Back 313

Urogenital sinus

Front 314

What embryonic structure forms the following adult structures? • External genitalia

Back 314

Phallus, urogenital folds, and labioscrotal swellings

Front 315

What embryonic structure forms the following adult structures? • Nephrons, kidney

Back 315

Metanephros

Front 316

What embryonic structure forms the following adult structures? • Median umbilical ligament

Back 316

Urachus

Front 317

True or false? The epithelial lining of the urinary bladder and the urethra are embryologic hindgut derivatives.

Back 317

TRUE

Front 318

Name the four ventral mesentery derivatives.

Back 318

1. The lesser omentum (consisting of the hepatoduodenal and hepatogastric ligaments) 2. Falciform ligament 3. Coronary ligament of the liver 4. Triangular ligament of the liver Liver is ventral; all other ligaments are dorsal mesentery derivatives.

Front 319

Projectile nonbilious vomiting and a small knot at the right costal margin (olive sign) are hallmarks of what embryonic disorder?

Back 319

Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis due to hypertrophy of the muscularis externa, resulting in a narrowed pyloric outlet

Front 320

The separation of 46 homologous chromosomes without splitting of the centromeres occurs during what phase of meiosis?

Back 320

Meiosis I; disjunction with centromere splitting occurs during meiosis II.

Front 321

Blood and its vessels form during what embryonic week?

Back 321

Third week; they are derived from the wall of the yolk sac.

Front 322

What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures? • Glans clitoris, corpus cavernosus, and spongiosum

Back 322

Phallus

Front 323

What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures? • Gartner's duct

Back 323

Mesonephric duct

Front 324

What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures? • Ovary, follicles, rete ovarii

Back 324

Gonads

Front 325

What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures? • Uterine tube, uterus, cervix, and upper third of the vagina

Back 325

Paramesonephric ducts

Front 326

What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures? • Labia majora

Back 326

Labioscrotal swelling

Front 327

What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures? • Labia minora

Back 327

Urogenital folds

Front 328

What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures? • Ovarian and round ligaments

Back 328

Gubernaculum

Front 329

What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures? • Urinary bladder, urethra, greater vestibular glands, vagina

Back 329

Urogenital sinus

Front 330

What direction does the primitive gut rotate? What is its axis of rotation?

Back 330

The gut rotates clockwise around the superior mesenteric artery.

Front 331

What syndrome occurs when a 46XY fetus develops testes and female external genitalia?

Back 331

Testicular feminization syndrome (Dude looks like a lady!)

Front 332

Preeclampsia in the first trimester, hCG levels above 100, 00 mIU/mL, and an enlarged bleeding uterus are clinical signs of what?

Back 332

Hydatidiform mole

Front 333

True or false? The foramen ovale closes just prior to birth.

Back 333

False. It closes just after birth because the change in pulmonary circulation causes increased left atrial pressure.

Front 334

At ovulation, in what stage of meiosis II is the secondary oocyte arrested?

Back 334

Metaphase II

Front 335

What is the name for failed recanalization of the duodenum resulting in polyhydramnios, bile-containing vomitus, and a distended stomach?

Back 335

Duodenal atresia

Front 336

What remains patent in a hydrocele of the testis, allowing peritoneal fluid to form into a cyst?

Back 336

A patent processus vaginalis

Front 337

True or false? The respiratory system is derived from the ventral wall of the foregut.

Back 337

True. The laryngotracheal (respiratory) diverticulum is divided from the foregut by the tracheoesophageal septum. --------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Front 338

What is the name for failure of the allantois to close, resulting in a urachal fistula or sinus?

Back 338

Patent urachus

Front 339

What structure is derived from the prochordal plate?

Back 339

The mouth

Front 340

What is the only organ supplied by the foregut artery that is of mesodermal origin?

Back 340

Spleen

Front 341

What tumor is derived from primitive streak remnants and often contains bone, hair, or other tissue types?

Back 341

Sacrococcygeal teratoma

Front 342

What two pathologic conditions occur when the gut does not return to the embryo?

Back 342

Omphalocele and gastroschisis

Front 343

True or false? For implantation to occur the zona pellucida must degenerate.

Back 343

True. Remember, it degenerates 4 to 5 days post fertilization, and implantation occurs 7 days post fertilization!

Front 344

What results when the maxillary prominence fails to fuse with the medial nasal prominence?

Back 344

Cleft lip

Front 345

What is the direction of growth for the primitive streak, caudal to rostral or rostral to caudal?

Back 345

The primitive streak grows caudal to rostral.

Front 346

During what embryonic week do somites begin to form?

Back 346

Third week

Front 347

In men, at what embryonic week do the primordial germ cells migrate to the indifferent gonad?

Back 347

Week four, and they remain dormant there until puberty.

Front 348

What embryonic week sees the formation of the notochord and the neural tube?

Back 348

Third week

Front 349

What right-to-left shunt occurs when only one vessel receives blood from both the right and left ventricles?

Back 349

Persistent truncus arteriosus

Front 350

What three embryonic cell layers form the chorion?

Back 350

1. Cytotrophoblast 2. Syncytiotrophoblast 3. Extraembryonic mesoderm

Front 351

Where are the preganglionic neuron cell bodies, the CNS or the PNS?

Back 351

They are in the grey matter of the CNS.

Front 352

Which three CNs send sensory information to the solitary nucleus?

Back 352

CN VII, IX, and X; taste and general sensation for the tongue is sent to the solitary nucleus.

Front 353

What syndrome is associated with the following brainstem lesions? • Vertebral artery or anterior spinal artery occlusion, resulting in contralateral corticospinal tract and medial lemniscus tract deficits and an ipsilateral CN XII lesion

Back 353

Medial medullary syndrome

Front 354

What syndrome is associated with the following brainstem lesions? • Contralateral corticospinal and medial lemniscus tract deficits and an ipsilatera medial strabismus secondary to a lesion in CN VI

Back 354

Medial pontine syndrome

Front 355

What syndrome is associated with the following brainstem lesions? • Slow-growing acoustic neuroma producing CN VII deficiencies

Back 355

Pontocerebellar angle syndrome

Front 356

What syndrome is associated with the following brainstem lesions? • Occlusion of the PICA, resulting in ipsilateral limb ataxia, ipsilateral facial pain and temperature loss, contralateral pain and body temperature loss, ipsilateral Horner's syndrome, and ipsilateral paralysis of the vocal cords, palate droop, dysphagia, nystagmus, vomiting, and vertigo

Back 356

Lateral medullary (Wallenberg's) syndrome

Front 357

What syndrome is associated with the following brainstem lesions? • AICA or superior cerebellar artery occlusion, resulting in ipsilateral limb ataxia, ipsilateral facial pain and temperature loss, contralateral loss of pain and temperature to the body, ipsilateral Horner's syndrome, ipsilateral facial paralysis, and hearing loss

Back 357

Lateral pontine syndrome

Front 358

What syndrome is associated with the following brainstem lesions? • Posterior cerebral artery occlusion resulting in a contralateral corticospinal tract signs, contralateral corticobulbar signs to the lower face, and ipsilateral CN III palsy

Back 358

Medial midbrain (Weber's) syndrome

Front 359

What CNs are affected if there is a lesion in • The midbrain?

Back 359

CN III and IV

Front 360

What CNs are affected if there is a lesion in • The upper medulla?

Back 360

CN IX, X, and XII

Front 361

What CNs are affected if there is a lesion in • Pontomedullary junction?

Back 361

CN VI, VII, and VIII

Front 362

What CNs are affected if there is a lesion in • The upper pons?

Back 362

CN V

Front 363

What is the only CN nucleus found in the cervical spinal cord?

Back 363

Accessory nucleus

Front 364

What component of the trigeminal nuclei • Supplies the muscles of mastication?

Back 364

Motor nucleus of CN V

Front 365

What component of the trigeminal nuclei • Receives sensory input (all but pain and temperature) from the face, scalp, dura, and the oral and nasal cavities?

Back 365

Spinal trigeminal nucleus

Front 366

What component of the trigeminal nuclei • Forms the sensory component of the jaw jerk reflex?

Back 366

Mesencephalic nucleus

Front 367

What deep cerebellar nuclei receive Purkinje cell projections in • The flocculonodular lobe?

Back 367

The lateral vestibular nucleus

Front 368

What deep cerebellar nuclei receive Purkinje cell projections in • The vermis?

Back 368

The fastigial nucleus

Front 369

What deep cerebellar nuclei receive Purkinje cell projections in • The lateral cerebellar hemispheres?

Back 369

The interposed nucleus

Front 370

What deep cerebellar nuclei receive Purkinje cell projections in • The intermediate hemispheres?

Back 370

The dentate nucleus

Front 371

What is the only excitatory neuron in the cerebellar cortex, and what is its neurotransmitter?

Back 371

The granule cell is the only excitatory neuron in the cerebellar cortex, and it uses glutamate as its neurotransmitter. All the other cells in the cerebellum are inhibitory neurons, and they use GABA as their neurotransmitter.

Front 372

What three CNs are associated with conjugate eye movements?

Back 372

CN III, IV, and VI

Front 373

What is the term to describe the soft, flabby feel and diminished reflexes seen in patients with acute cerebellar injury to the deep cerebellar nuclei?

Back 373

Hypotonia (rag doll appearance)

Front 374

What bedside test is used to differentiate a dorsal column lesion from a lesion in the vermis of the cerebral cortex?

Back 374

The Romberg sign is present if the patient sways or loses balance when standing with eyes open. In a dorsal column lesion, patients sway with eyes closed. (Don't forget this one.)

Front 375

Which one of the cerebellar peduncles is mainly responsible for outgoing (efferent) information?

Back 375

Superior cerebellar peduncle; the inferior and the middle consist mainly of incoming (afferent) tracts and fibers.

Front 376

What tract carries unconscious proprioceptive information from the Golgi tendon organs and muscle spindles to the cerebellum, helping monitor and modulate muscle movements?

Back 376

Lower extremity and lower trunk information travels in the dorsal spinocerebellar tract. The upper trunk and extremity information travels in the cuneocerebellar tract. (Cuneocerebellar and fasciculus cuneatus both apply to upper extremities.)

Front 377

What reflex, seen in lesions of the corticospinal tract, is an extension of the great toe with fanning the of remaining toes?

Back 377

The Babinski reflex is present in UMN lesions. Muscle atrophy due to disuse, hyperreflexia, spastic paralysis, increased muscle tone, and weakness are commonly seen in UMN lesions.

Front 378

What is the triad of Horner's syndrome?

Back 378

Ptosis (eyelid drooping), miosis (pupillary constriction), and anhydrosis (lack of sweating) occur when the preganglionic sympathetic fibers from T1-to T4 are obstructed.

Front 379

What component of the inner ear • Contains perilymph and responds to angular acceleration and deceleration of the head?

Back 379

Semicircular canal

Front 380

What component of the inner ear • Contains endolymph and responds to head turning and movement?

Back 380

Semicircular duct

Front 381

What component of the inner ear • Contains endolymph and gravity receptors monitoring linear acceleration and deceleration of the head, noting changes in head position?

Back 381

Utricle and saccule

Front 382

What is the name of demyelination of the corticospinal tract and the dorsal column in the spinal cord due most commonly to a vitamin B12 deficiency?

Back 382

Subacute combined degeneration, which is bilateral below the level of the lesion.

Front 383

What encephalopathy causes ocular palsies, confusion, and gait abnormalities related to a lesion in the mammillary bodies and/or the dorsomedial nuclei of the thalamus?

Back 383

Wernicke's encephalopathy

Front 384

Which thalamic nucleus receives auditory input from the inferior colliculus?

Back 384

MGB

Front 385

Where are the postganglionic neuron cell bodies, the CNS or the PNS?

Back 385

They are in ganglia in the PNS.

Front 386

What disease is a cavitation of the spinal cord causing bilateral loss of pain and temperature at the level of the lesion?

Back 386

Syringomyelia

Front 387

What nucleus of the hypothalamus receives visual input from the retina and helps set the circadian rhythm?

Back 387

Suprachiasmatic nucleus

Front 388

Are white rami preganglionic or postganglionic fibers?

Back 388

White rami are preganglionic fibers, whereas grey rami are postganglionic fibers.

Front 389

What area of the hypothalamus is responsible for recognizing a decrease in body temperature and mediates the response to conserve heat?

Back 389

Posterior hypothalamic zones; lesions here result in poikilothermy (environmental control of one's body temperature).

Front 390

What CN transmits sensory information from the cornea?

Back 390

CN V1, the occulomotor division of the trigeminal nerve, is the sensory component of the corneal reflex.

Front 391

What preganglionic sympathetic fibers are responsible for innervating the smooth muscle and glands of the pelvis and the hindgut?

Back 391

Lumbar splanchnics

Front 392

Where are the cell bodies for the DCML and spinothalamic sensory systems?

Back 392

The first sensory neuron is in the dorsal root ganglia. It carries ascending sensory information in the dorsal root of a spinal nerve, eventually synapsing with second sensory neuron. In the brainstem (DCML) and the spinal cord (spinothalamic) the second neuron cell body sends its axons to synapse in the thalamus. The third sensory neuron cell body is a thalamic nuclei that sends its fibers to the primary somatosensory cortex.

Front 393

What term describes the reflex that increases the curvature of the lens, allowing near vision?

Back 393

Accommodation

Front 394

What CN carries preganglionic parasympathetic fibers that innervate the viscera of the neck, thorax, foregut, and midgut?

Back 394

CN X (Remember, the vagus nerve supplies the parasympathetic information from the tip of the pharynx to the end of the midgut and all between.)

Front 395

What area of the hypothalamus is responsible for recognizing an increase in body temperature and mediates the response to dissipate heat?

Back 395

Anterior hypothalamic zone; lesions here result in hyperthermia.

Front 396

What excitatory fibers arise from the inferior olivary nuclei on the contralateral side of the body?

Back 396

Climbing fibers;, they are monosynaptic input on Purkinje cells. Mossy fibers, also excitatory, are axons of all other sources and synapse on granule cells.

Front 397

What four CN carry preganglionic parasympathetic fibers?

Back 397

CN III, VII, IX, and X

Front 398

Name the form of spina bifida. • Meninges and spinal cord project through a vertebral defect

Back 398

Meningomyelocele All except occulta cause elevated-fetoprotein levels.

Front 399

Name the form of spina bifida. • Meninges project through a vertebral defect

Back 399

Meningocele All except occulta cause elevated-fetoprotein levels.

Front 400

Name the form of spina bifida. • An open neural tube lying on the surface of the back

Back 400

Myeloschisis All except occulta cause elevated-fetoprotein levels.

Front 401

Name the form of spina bifida. • Defect in the vertebral arch

Back 401

Occulta All except occulta cause elevated-fetoprotein levels.

Front 402

Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. • Input from the optic tract; output projects to the primary visual cortex of the occipital lobe

Back 402

LGB (think EYES)

Front 403

Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. • Input from the trigeminal pathways; output to primary somatosensory cortex of the parietal lobe

Back 403

Ventral posteromedial nucleus

Front 404

Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. • Input from globus pallidus and the cerebellum; output to the primary motor cortex

Back 404

Ventral lateral nucleus

Front 405

Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. • Input from medial lemniscus and the spinocerebellar tracts; output to the primary somatosensory cortex

Back 405

Ventral posterolateral nucleus

Front 406

Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. • Input from globus pallidus and substantia nigra; output to primary motor cortex

Back 406

Ventral anterior nucleus

Front 407

Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. • Input from the amygdala, prefrontal cortex, and temporal lobe; output to the prefrontal lobe and the cingulated gyrus

Back 407

Medial nuclear group (limbic system)

Front 408

Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. • Input from inferior colliculus; output to primary auditory cortex

Back 408

MGB (think EARS)

Front 409

Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. • Input from the mammillary bodies via the mammillothalamic tract and the cingulated gyrus; output to the cingulated gyrus via the anterior limb of the internal capsule

Back 409

Anterior nuclear group (Papez circuit of the limbic system)

Front 410

What is the name of a thin brown ring around the outer edge of the cornea, seen in Wilson's disease?

Back 410

Kayser-Fleischer ring

Front 411

What do UMNs innervate?

Back 411

They innervate LMNs.

Front 412

What area of the brain serves as the major sensory relay center for visual, auditory, gustatory, and tactile information destined for the cerebral cortex, cerebellum, or basal ganglia?

Back 412

The thalamus (I like to think of the thalamus as the executive secretary for the cerebral cortex. All information destined for the cortex has to go through the thalamus.)

Front 413

Which of the colliculi help direct the movement of both eyes in a gaze?

Back 413

Superior colliculus (Remember S for Superior and Sight). The inferior colliculus processes auditory information from both ears.

Front 414

How do the corticobulbar fibres of CN VII differ from the rest of the CNs?

Back 414

Normally corticobulbar fiber innervation of the CNs is bilateral (the LMN receives information from both the left and right cerebral cortex), but with CN VII the LMN of the upper face receives bilateral input but the lower facial LMNs receive only contralateral input. --------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Front 415

What syndrome is described by a lesion in the angular gyrus (area 39) resulting in alexia, agraphia, acalculia, finger agnosia, and right-left disorientation?

Back 415

Gerstmann's syndrome; spoken language is usually understood.

Front 416

How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with • Cervical vertebrae?

Back 416

Eight pairs through seven cervical vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.

Front 417

How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with • Thoracic vertebrae?

Back 417

Twelve pairs through twelve thoracic vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.

Front 418

How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with • Lumbar vertebrae?

Back 418

Five pairs through five lumbar vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.

Front 419

How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with • Sacral vertebrae?

Back 419

Five pairs through five sacral vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.

Front 420

How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with • Coccygeal vertebrae?

Back 420

One pair with three to five coccygeal vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.

Front 421

What are the three sites where CSF can leave the ventricles and enter the subarachnoid space? (Name the lateral and the medial foramina.)

Back 421

Two Lateral foramina of Luschka and 1 Medial foramen of Monroe (L for Lateral and M for Medial)

Front 422

What CNs arise from • The midbrain?

Back 422

CN III and IV

Front 423

What CNs arise from • The pons?

Back 423

CN V, VI, VII, and VIII

Front 424

What CNs arise from • The medulla?

Back 424

CN IX, X, and XII CN XI arises from the cervical spinal cord.

Front 425

What disconnect syndrome results from a lesion in the corpus callosum secondary to an infarct in the anterior cerebral artery, so that the person can comprehend the command but not execute it?

Back 425

Transcortical apraxia; Wernicke's area of the left hemisphere cannot communicate with the right primary motor cortex because of the lesion in the corpus callosum.

Front 426

True or false? Glucose readily diffuses across the blood-brain barrier.

Back 426

False. Water readily diffuses across the blood-brain barrier, but glucose requires carrier-mediated transport.

Front 427

What encapsulated group of nerve endings seen at the muscle-tendon junction responds to an increase in tension generated in that muscle? (This is dropping a box that is too heavy to carry.)

Back 427

Golgi tendon organs are stimulated by Ib afferent neurons in response to an increase in force or tension. The inverse muscle reflex protects muscle from being torn; it limits the tension on the muscle.

Front 428

What chromosome 4, AD disorder is a degeneration of GABA neurons in the striatum of the indirect pathway of the basal ganglia?

Back 428

Huntington's chorea; patients have chorea, athetoid movements, progressive dementia, and behavioral problems.

Front 429

What syndrome is described as bilateral lesions of the amygdala and the hippocampus resulting in placidity, anterograde amnesia, oral exploratory behavior, hypersexuality, and psychic blindness?

Back 429

Klüver-Bucy syndrome

Front 430

By asking a patient to close the eyes while standing with feet together, what two pathways are you eliminating from proprioception?

Back 430

When a patient closes the eyes while standing with feet together, the visual and cerebellar components of proprioception are removed, so you are testing the dorsal columns. Swaying with eyes closed is a positive Romberg's sign indicating a lesion in the dorsal columns. The cold water caloric test mimics a brainstem lesion by inhibiting the normal reflex response. (COWS: Cold Opposite Warm Same)

Front 431

What is the name of bilateral flaccid paralysis, hyporeflexia, and hypotonia due to a viral infection of the ventral horn of the spinal cord?

Back 431

Poliomyelitis; it is a bilateral LMN lesion.

Front 432

What branch off the vertebral artery supplies • The ventrolateral two-thirds of the cervical spinal cord and the ventrolateral part of the medulla?

Back 432

Anterior spinal artery

Front 433

What branch off the vertebral artery supplies • The cerebellum and the dorsolateral part of the medulla?

Back 433

PICA

Front 434

What syndrome causes inability to concentrate, easy distractibility, apathy, and regression to an infantile suckling or grasping reflex?

Back 434

Frontal lobe syndrome (lesion in the prefrontal cortex)

Front 435

True or false? The presence of PMNs in the CSF is always abnormal.

Back 435

True. Although the CSF normally contains 0 to 4 lymphocytes or monocytes, the presence of PMNs is always considered abnormal.

Front 436

What cells lining the ventricles have cilia on their luminal surface to move CSF?

Back 436

Ependymal cells

Front 437

What is the most common site for an aneurysm in cerebral circulation?

Back 437

The junction where the anterior communicating and anterior cerebral arteries join. As the aneurysm expands, it compresses the fibers from the upper temporal fields of the optic chiasm, producing bitemporal inferior quadrantanopia

Front 438

What fissure of the cerebral cortex runs perpendicular to the lateral fissure and separates the frontal and the parietal lobes?

Back 438

Central sulcus (sulcus of Rolando)

Front 439

What is the name of violent projectile movements of a limb resulting from a lesion in the subthalamic nuclei of the basal ganglia?

Back 439

Hemiballismus

Front 440

What is the term for the type of pupil seen in neurosyphilis, and what ocular reflexes are lost?

Back 440

Argyll Robertson pupils accompany a loss of both direct and consensual light reflexes, but the accommodation-convergence reaction remains intact. It can also be seen in patients with pineal tumors or multiple sclerosis.

Front 441

True or false? Intrafusal fibers form muscle spindles.

Back 441

True. Muscle spindles are modified skeletal muscle fibers. They are the sensory component of the stretch reflexes.

Front 442

What Brodmann area is associated with • Broca's area?

Back 442

Areas 44 and 45

Front 443

What Brodmann area is associated with • Primary auditory cortex?

Back 443

Areas 41 and 42

Front 444

What Brodmann area is associated with • Primary somatosensory cortex?

Back 444

Areas 1, 2, and 3

Front 445

What Brodmann area is associated with • Somatosensory association cortex?

Back 445

Areas 5 and 7

Front 446

What Brodmann area is associated with • Primary motor cortex?

Back 446

Area 4

Front 447

What Brodmann area is associated with • Premotor cortex?

Back 447

Area 6

Front 448

What Brodmann area is associated with • Visual association cortex?

Back 448

Areas 18 and 19

Front 449

What Brodmann area is associated with • Frontal eye fields?

Back 449

Area 8

Front 450

What Brodmann area is associated with • Primary visual cortex?

Back 450

Area 17

Front 451

What Brodmann area is associated with • Wernicke's area?

Back 451

Area 22 and occasionally 39 and 40

Front 452

What is the fluid of the posterior compartment of the eye?

Back 452

Vitreous humor

Front 453

What aphasia produces a nonfluent pattern of speech with the abilty to understand written and spoken language seen in lesions in the dominant hemisphere?

Back 453

Expressive aphasia

Front 454

In a topographical arrangement of the cerebellar homunculus map, what area or lobe • Controls the axial and proximal musculature of the limbs?

Back 454

The vermis

Front 455

In a topographical arrangement of the cerebellar homunculus map, what area or lobe • Is involved in motor planning?

Back 455

Lateral part of the hemispheres

Front 456

In a topographical arrangement of the cerebellar homunculus map, what area or lobe • Controls balance and eye movements?

Back 456

Flocculonodular lobe (one of my favorite words in all of medicine!)

Front 457

In a topographical arrangement of the cerebellar homunculus map, what area or lobe • Controls distal musculature?

Back 457

Intermediate part of the hemispheres

Front 458

What glial cell is derived from mesoderm and acts as a scavenger, cleaning up cellular debris after injury?

Back 458

Microglia (Microglia and mesoderm both begin with M)

Front 459

What direct-pathway basal ganglia disease is described by masklike facies, stooped posture, cogwheel rigidity, pill-rolling tremor at rest, and a gait characterized by shuffling and chasing the center of gravity?

Back 459

Parkinson's disease (I can't underestimate all of the buzzwords in this question. Remember it.)

Front 460

What artery supplies most of the lateral surfaces of the cerebral hemispheres?

Back 460

Middle cerebral artery

Front 461

What hypothalamic nucleus is responsible for the production of ADH?

Back 461

Supraoptic nuclei; lesions here result in diabetes insipidus.

Front 462

True or false? High-frequency sound waves stimulate hair cells at the base of the cochlea.

Back 462

True. High-frequency sound waves stimulate the hair cells at the base of the cochlea, whereas low-frequency sound waves stimulate hair cells at the apex of the cochlea.

Front 463

What nucleus of the hypothalamus is the satiety center, regulating food intake?

Back 463

Ventromedial nucleus; lesions here result in obesity.

Front 464

What cells of the retina sees in color and needs bright light to be activated?

Back 464

Cones (C for color and cones)

Front 465

What cell's axons are the only ones that leave the cerebellar cortex?

Back 465

The Purkinje cell

Front 466

What splanchnic carries preganglionic parasympathetic fibers that innervate the hindgut and the pelvic viscera?

Back 466

Pelvic splanchnics (They all begin with P.)

Front 467

Is nystagmus defined by the fast or slow component?

Back 467

Nystagmus is named by the fast component, which is the corrective attempt made by the cerebral cortex in response to the initial slow phase.

Front 468

Name the ocular lesion; be specific. • Left optic nerve lesion

Back 468

Left eye anopsia (left nasal and temporal hemianopsia)

Front 469

Name the ocular lesion; be specific. • Right calcarine cortex lesion

Back 469

Left homonymous hemianopsia

Front 470

Name the ocular lesion; be specific. • A right LGB lesion (in the thalamus)

Back 470

Left homonymous hemianopsia

Front 471

Name the ocular lesion; be specific. • Optic chiasm lesion

Back 471

Bitemporal heteronymous hemianopsia

Front 472

Name the ocular lesion; be specific. • A right lateral compression of the optic chiasm (as in aneurysms in the internal carotid artery)

Back 472

Right nasal hemianopsia

Front 473

Name the ocular lesion; be specific. • Left Meyer's loop lesion of the optic radiations.

Back 473

Left homonymous hemianopsia

Front 474

What is the function of the cerebellum?

Back 474

Planning and fine-tuning of voluntary skeletal muscle contractions. (Think coordination.) Remember, the function of the basal ganglia is to initiate gross voluntary skeletal muscle control.

Front 475

What is the name for inability to stop a movement at the intended target?

Back 475

Dysmetria; this is seen in a finger-to-nose test.

Front 476

If a lesion occurs before the onset of puberty and arrests sexual development, what area of the hypothalamus is affected?

Back 476

Preoptic area of the hypothalamus; if the lesion occurs after puberty, amenorrhea or impotence will be seen.

Front 477

What sulcus divides the occipital lobe horizontally into a superior cuneus and inferior lingual gyrus?

Back 477

Calcarine sulcus

Front 478

Do alpha-or gamma-motor neurons innervate extrafusal muscle fibers?

Back 478

alpha-Motor neurons innervate extrafusal muscle fibers (a motor unit), whereas gamma-motor neurons innervate intrafusal muscle fibers.

Front 479

Contracting both medial rectus muscles simultaneously makes the images of near objects remain on the same part of the retina. What term describes this process?

Back 479

Convergence

Front 480

Will a unilateral lesion in the spinothalamic tract result in a contralateral or ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature?

Back 480

Contralateral. The spinothalamic tract enters the spinal cord and immediately synapses in the dorsal horn, crosses over, and ascends contralateral in the spinal cord, brainstem, thalamus, and postcentral gyrus.

Front 481

What ganglion supplies the postganglionic parasympathetic fibers to the ciliary muscles of the eye?

Back 481

Ciliary ganglion

Front 482

In what tract does pain, temperature, and crude touch sensory information ascend to the postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe?

Back 482

Spinothalamic tract (anterolateral system)

Front 483

What CN nucleus receives auditory information from both ears via the cochlear nuclei?

Back 483

Superior olivary nucleus

Front 484

What parasympathetic nucleus is found on the floor of the fourth ventricle and supplies preganglionic fibers innervating the terminal ganglias of the thorax, foregut, and midgut?

Back 484

Dorsal motor nucleus of CN X

Front 485

What sensory system is affected in the late spinal cord manifestation of syphilis?

Back 485

Bilateral degeneration of the dorsal columns in the spinal cord secondary to syphilis is known as tabes dorsalis. A high-step gait is seen in patients with tabes dorsalis because of the inability to feel the ground beneath their feet.

Front 486

What do LMNs innervate?

Back 486

They innervate skeletal muscle.

Front 487

What tract carries the ipsilateral dorsal column fibers from the lower limbs in the spinal cord?

Back 487

The fasciculus gracilis (Graceful), which lies closest to the midline of the spinal cord.

Front 488

True or false? CSF is a clear, hypertonic solution with higher concentrations of K + and HCO3-, than the serum.

Back 488

False. CSF is a clear isotonic solution with lower concentrations of K+ and HCO3-. It does have higher concentrations of Cl- and Mg2+.

Front 489

What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer motor, sensory, or both) • Dorsal root?

Back 489

Sensory

Front 490

What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer motor, sensory, or both) • Dorsal rami?

Back 490

Both

Front 491

What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer motor, sensory, or both) • Ventral rami?

Back 491

Both

Front 492

What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer motor, sensory, or both) • Ventral root?

Back 492

Motor

Front 493

What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer motor, sensory, or both) • Dorsal root ganglion?

Back 493

Sensory

Front 494

What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer motor, sensory, or both) • Spinal nerve?

Back 494

Both

Front 495

Describe the loss for each of the following in a hemisection of the spinal cord. (Brown–Sáequard syndrome) • Dorsal column tract?

Back 495

Ipsilateral loss at and below the level of the lesion

Front 496

Describe the loss for each of the following in a hemisection of the spinal cord. (Brown–Sáequard syndrome) • Corticospinal tract?

Back 496

Ipsilateral loss below the level of the lesion

Front 497

Describe the loss for each of the following in a hemisection of the spinal cord. (Brown–Sáequard syndrome) • LMN?

Back 497

Ipsilateral flaccid paralysis

Front 498

Describe the loss for each of the following in a hemisection of the spinal cord. (Brown–Sáequard syndrome) • Spinothalamic tract?

Back 498

Contralateral loss below and bilateral loss at the level of the lesion

Front 499

What area of the brain acts as the center for ipsilateral horizontal gaze?

Back 499

PPRF

Front 500

What aphasia is seen as an inability to comprehend spoken language and speaking in a word salad?

Back 500

Receptive aphasia is due to a lesion in Brodmann areas 22, 39, and 40; generally the patient is unaware of the deficit.

Front 501

What is the function of the basal ganglia?

Back 501

Initiate and manage gross skeletal muscle movement control

Front 502

What artery is formed by the union of the two vertebral arteries?

Back 502

The basilar artery is formed at the pontomedullary junction.

Front 503

What disease is described by bilateral flaccid weakness of the upper limbs (LMN) and bilateral spastic weakness of the lower limbs (UMN) beginning at the cervical level of the spinal cord and progressing up or down the cord?

Back 503

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig's disease) is a LMN lesion at the level of the lesion and UMN lesion below the level of the lesion.

Front 504

Which dopamine receptor excites the direct pathway of the basal ganglia?

Back 504

D1 receptor; inhibition of the direct pathway occurs through the D2 receptors.

Front 505

Does the direct or indirect basal ganglia pathway result in a decreased level of cortical excitation?

Back 505

Although both pathways are associated with disinhibition, the indirect basal ganglia pathway is associated with a decreased level of cortical excitation.

Front 506

What fissure of the cerebral cortex separates the frontal and temporal lobes rostrally and partially separates the parietal and temporal lobes?

Back 506

Lateral fissure (fissure of Sylvius)

Front 507

What area of the brain acts as the center for contralateral horizontal gaze?

Back 507

Frontal eye field (Brodmann area 8)

Front 508

In an adult, where does the spinal cord terminate and what is it called?

Back 508

The conus medullaris terminates at the level of the second lumbar vertebra.

Front 509

If a patient with a cerebellar lesion has nystagmus, which way is the fast component directed, toward or away from the lesion?

Back 509

The fast component is directed toward the affected side of a cerebellar lesion.

Front 510

What area of the limbic system is responsible for attaching emotional significance to a stimulus?

Back 510

Amygdala; it helps imprint an emotional response in memory.

Front 511

What is the name of the tremor that occurs during movements and is absent while the person is at rest?

Back 511

Intention tremor; it is a sign of cerebellar lesions. A tremor at rest (i.e., pill rolling) is seen in basal ganglia lesions.

Front 512

What is the term for making up stories regarding past experiences because of an inability to retrieve them?

Back 512

Confabulation; it is commonly seen in Korsakoff's syndrome.

Front 513

What frontal lobe cortex is associated with organizing and planning the intellectual and emotional aspect of behavior?

Back 513

Prefrontal cortex; it is in front of the premotor area.

Front 514

What is the largest nucleus in the midbrain?

Back 514

The substantia nigra is the largest nucleus in the midbrain. It contains melanin and uses GABA and dopamine as its neurotransmitters.

Front 515

Where is the lesion that produces these symptoms when a patient is asked to look to the left? • Left eye can't look to the left

Back 515

Left abducens nerve

Front 516

Where is the lesion that produces these symptoms when a patient is asked to look to the left? • Right eye can't look left, left eye nystagmus, and convergence is intact

Back 516

Right medial longitudinal fasciculus

Front 517

Where is the lesion that produces these symptoms when a patient is asked to look to the left? Neither eye can look left with a slow drift to the right

Back 517

Left abducens nucleus or right cerebral cortex

Front 518

What area of the hypothalamus is the feeding center?

Back 518

Lateral hypothalamic zone; lesions here result in aphagia. (Notice the difference between the feeding center and the satiety center; they are in different zones.)

Front 519

In what pathway of the basal ganglia do lesions result in hyperactive cortex with hyperkinetic, chorea, athetosis, tics, and dystonia?

Back 519

Indirect pathway (Tourette syndrome for example)

Front 520

What happens to muscle tone and stretch reflexes when there is a LMN lesion?

Back 520

The hallmarks of LMN lesion injury are absent or decreased reflexes, muscle fasciculations, decreased muscle tone, and muscle atrophy What two areas of the skin do flaccid paralysis). Don't forget, LMN lesions are ipsilateral at the level of the lesion!

Front 521

In what pathway of the basal ganglia do lesions result in an underactive cortex with hypokinetic, slow, or absent spontaneous movement?

Back 521

Direct pathway; a good example is Parkinson's disease.

Front 522

What sided muscle weakness is seen in an UMN corticospinal tract injury above the pyramidal decussation?

Back 522

Contralateral muscle weakness when above the decussation, whereas an UMN injury below the pyramidal decussation results in ipsilateral muscle weakness.

Front 523

What area of the retina consists of only cones and has the greatest visual acuity?

Back 523

Fovea

Front 524

What tract carries the ipsilateral dorsal column fibers from the upper limbs in the spinal cord?

Back 524

The fasciculus cuneatus

Front 525

What CNS demyelinating disease is characterized by diplopia, ataxia, paresthesias, monocular blindness and weakness, or spastic paresis?

Back 525

Multiple sclerosis

Front 526

What part of the ANS (i.e., PNS or CNS) controls the constriction of the pupil in response to light?

Back 526

Parasympathetic

Front 527

With which CN are preganglionic parasympathetic axons arising from the Edinger- Westphal nucleus associated?

Back 527

CN III

Front 528

Ophthalmic artery is a branch of what artery?

Back 528

Internal carotid artery

Front 529

What thalamic relay nucleus do the mammillary bodies project to?

Back 529

The anterior nucleus of the thalamus

Front 530

What cells contribute to the blood-brain barrier and proliferate in response to CNS injury?

Back 530

Astrocytes

Front 531

What causes slow writhing movements (athetosis)?

Back 531

Hypermyelination of the corpus striatum and the thalamus (seen in cerebral palsy)

Front 532

What area of the brain is responsible for emotion, feeding, mating, attention, and memory?

Back 532

The limbic system

Front 533

What is the name of the postganglionic parasympathetic ganglion that innervates • The papillary sphincter and ciliary muscle of the eye?

Back 533

Ciliary ganglion. (These fibers are carried in CN III. Remember it like this:-ili-in ciliary ganglion looks like the III of CN III.)

Front 534

What is the name of the postganglionic parasympathetic ganglion that innervates • The parotid gland?

Back 534

The otic ganglion. (These fibers are carried in CN IX. Remember it like this: the -oti-is in both otic ganglion and parotid gland.)

Front 535

What is the name of the postganglionic parasympathetic ganglion that innervates • The submandibular and sublingual glands?

Back 535

The submandibular ganglion. (Submandibular ganglion innervates the submandibular gland; easy enough.)

Front 536

What is the name of the postganglionic parasympathetic ganglion that innervates • The lacrimal gland and oral and nasal mucosa?

Back 536

Pterygopalatine ganglion (I remember this as the only ganglion left.)

Front 537

What neuronal cell bodies are contained in the intermediate zone of the spinal cord? (T1–L2)

Back 537

Preganglionic sympathetic neurons

Front 538

What limb of the internal capsule is not supplied by the middle cerebral artery?

Back 538

Anterior limb of the internal capsule is supplied by the anterior cerebral artery.

Front 539

What tract is responsible for voluntary refined movements of distal extremities?

Back 539

Corticospinal tract

Front 540

Craniopharyngiomas are remnants of what?

Back 540

Rathke's pouch; they can result in compression of the optic chiasm.

Front 541

Clarke's nucleus is the second ascending sensory neuron of which spinocerebellar tract?

Back 541

Dorsal spinocerebellar tract; the accessory cuneate nucleus is the second nucleus for the cuneocerebellar tract.

Front 542

Name the three postganglionic sympathetic ganglia that receive input from thoracic splanchnics.

Back 542

Celiac, aorticorenal, and superior mesenteric ganglias. (Remember all " Splanchnics" are Sympathetic except for the Pelvic splanchnics, which are Preganglionic Parasympathetic fibers.)

Front 543

What is the only CN to arise from the dorsal surface of the midbrain?

Back 543

CN IV

Front 544

What basic reflex regulates muscle tone by contracting muscles in response to stretch of that muscle?

Back 544

The myotatic reflex is responsible for the tension present in all resting muscle.

Front 545

Where are the LMN cell bodies of the corticospinal tract?

Back 545

In the ventral horn of the spinal cord. UMN cell bodies are in the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe.

Front 546

What nucleus, found in the intermediate zone of the spinal cord, sends unconscious proprioception to the cerebellum?

Back 546

Clarke's nucleus

Front 547

The vertebral artery is a branch of what artery?

Back 547

The subclavian artery

Front 548

What muscle of the middle ear is innervated by the mandibular division of CN V?

Back 548

Tensor tympani

Front 549

The fibers of nucleus gracilis and nucleus cuneatus cross at the medullary decussation and ascend contralateral to what thalamic relay nucleus?

Back 549

VPL nucleus sends its fibers to synapse in the postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe.

Front 550

What muscle of the middle ear is innervated by CN VII?

Back 550

The stapedius muscle

Front 551

What part of the inner ear contains the gravity receptors for changes in the position of the head?

Back 551

Saccule and utricle

Front 552

What nucleus supplies the preganglionic parasympathetic fibers to the ciliary ganglion?

Back 552

Edinger-Westphal nucleus (via CN III)

Front 553

What reticular nuclei synthesize serotonin from L-tryptophan and plays a role in mood, aggression, and inducing sleep?

Back 553

The raphe nuclei

Front 554

Will a patient with a unilateral lesion in the cerebellum fall toward or away from the affected side?

Back 554

Patients with unilateral cerebellar lesions fall toward the side of the lesion.

Front 555

A unilateral lesion in what nucleus will produce ipsilateral paralysis of the soft palate?

Back 555

Nucleus ambiguus, resulting in the uvula deviating away from the side of the lesion.

Front 556

True or false? Neurons in the dorsal horn participate in reflexes.

Back 556

True. They are the sensory component of a spinal reflex.

Front 557

What ganglion receives preganglionic sympathetic fibers from T1 to L1–2 and innervates smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, glands, head, thoracic viscera, and blood vessels of the body wall and limbs?

Back 557

Sympathetic chain ganglion

Front 558

What preganglionic sympathetic fibers are responsible for innervating the foregut and the midgut?

Back 558

Thoracic splanchnic fibers

Front 559

Does light or darkness regulate the pineal gland?

Back 559

Light regulates the activity of the pineal gland via the retinal–suprachiasmatic– pineal pathway.

Front 560

Name the three hormones produced by pinealocytes.

Back 560

Melatonin, serotonin, and CCK

Front 561

Is the pH of CSF acidotic, alkalotic, or neutral?

Back 561

The pH of CSF is 7.33, acidotic.

Front 562

What ascending sensory system carries joint position, vibratory and pressure sensation, and discriminative touch from the trunk and limbs?

Back 562

The DCML system. (Remember, everything but pain and temperature.)

Front 563

What reflex enables the eyes to remain focused on a target while the head is turning?

Back 563

The vestibulo-ocular reflex

Front 564

What cells of the retina see in black and white and are used for night vision?

Back 564

Rods

Front 565

Name the muscle type based on these descriptions: • Discontinuous voluntary contraction, multinuclear striated unbranched fibers, actin and myosin overlapping for banding pattern, triadic T tubules, troponin and desmin as Z disc intermediate filament.

Back 565

Skeletal muscles

Front 566

Name the muscle type based on these descriptions: • Continuous involuntary contraction, uninuclear striated branched fibers, actin and myosin overlapping for banding pattern, dyadic T tubules, intercalated discs, troponin and desmin as a Z disc intermediate filament.

Back 566

Cardiac muscle

Front 567

Name the muscle type based on these descriptions: • Involuntary contraction, uninuclear nonstriated fibers, actin and myosin not forming banding pattern; lack of T tubules, gap junctions, and calmodulin.

Back 567

Smooth muscle

Front 568

What segment of the small intestine is associated with Brunner's glands?

Back 568

Duodenum

Front 569

Who is responsible for passing on mitochondrial DNA genetic disorders?

Back 569

Mitochondria-linked disorders are always inherited from the mother.

Front 570

What part of a neuron receives information?

Back 570

Dendrites receive information, whereas axons send information.

Front 571

What type of collagen is associated with the basement membrane?

Back 571

Type IV collagen

Front 572

What is the epithelial lining of the prostatic portion of the urethra?

Back 572

Transitional epithelium. The distal portion of the penile urethra is composed of stratified epithelium.

Front 573

What cell of the nephron is responsible for renin production and secretion?

Back 573

Juxtaglomerular (JG) cell

Front 574

What cell surface modification of ependymal cells and respiratory epithelium has a 9 + 2 microtubular configuration and movement as its function?

Back 574

Cilia

Front 575

True or false? The following are functions of hepatocytes: protein production, bile secretion, detoxification, conjugation, and lipid storage.

Back 575

True. (They are quite a busy bunch of cells!)

Front 576

What substance found in eosinophils is toxic to parasitic worms?

Back 576

Major basic protein

Front 577

After fertilization, what cells of the corpus luteum • Secrete progesterone?

Back 577

Granulose cells secrete progesterone. After fertilization the granulose cells form from follicular cells.

Front 578

After fertilization, what cells of the corpus luteum • Secrete estrogen?

Back 578

Theca cells secrete estrogen. After fertilization the theca cells form from the theca interna.

Front 579

What is the largest organ in the body?

Back 579

Integument (skin and its derivatives)

Front 580

On what layer of the epidermis does all mitosis occur?

Back 580

Malpighian layer (made up of the stratum basale and stratum spinosum)

Front 581

What ribosomal subunit binds first to the mRNA strand?

Back 581

The small subunit (40S) binds first.

Front 582

What is the T-cell area of the spleen?

Back 582

PALS

Front 583

What element is needed for the proper alignment of tropocollagen molecules?

Back 583

Copper (Cu+)

Front 584

What type of cell surface projection lies on the lateral surface of cells closest to the apex and acts to seal off the outside environment from the rest of the body?

Back 584

Zonula occludens (tight junctions)

Front 585

What organelle is responsible for ribosomal RNA synthesis?

Back 585

Nucleolus. Ribosomal assembly also takes place in the nucleolus.

Front 586

What sweat gland type is associated with odor production and hair follicles and is found in the axilla?

Back 586

APocrinE glands (APES is my memory aid) Axilla, Areola, and Anus all begin with A. APES are hairy (associated with hair follicles). They smell (odor production), and if confronted by an APE, your Adrenergic nervous system would be firing (innervation).

Front 587

What papillae send their senses via chorda tympani of CN VII?

Back 587

Fungiform papillae

Front 588

True or false? The portal tract of the liver lobule is the first area to be oxygenated in the liver.

Back 588

True. (Remember, blood flows from the portal tracts to the central vein, so it is the first area to receive blood and therefore oxygen.)

Front 589

Match the chromosome and haploid number with the stage of sperm development, spermatid, spermatocyte (primary or secondary), spermatogonia (type A or B): • 46/2n (divide meiotically)

Back 589

Spermatogonia (type A)

Front 590

Match the chromosome and haploid number with the stage of sperm development, spermatid, spermatocyte (primary or secondary), spermatogonia (type A or B): • 46/4n

Back 590

Primary spermatocyte

Front 591

Match the chromosome and haploid number with the stage of sperm development, spermatid, spermatocyte (primary or secondary), spermatogonia (type A or B): • 23/1n

Back 591

Spermatid

Front 592

Match the chromosome and haploid number with the stage of sperm development, spermatid, spermatocyte (primary or secondary), spermatogonia (type A or B): • 46/2n (divide mitotically)

Back 592

Spermatogonia (type B)

Front 593

Match the chromosome and haploid number with the stage of sperm development, spermatid, spermatocyte (primary or secondary), spermatogonia (type A or B): • 23/2n

Back 593

Secondary spermatocyte

Front 594

What are the four functions of SER?

Back 594

Steroid synthesis, drug detoxification, triglyceride resynthesis, and Ca2+handling

Front 595

Which immunoglobulin is secreted by the plasma cells in the gastrointestinal tract?

Back 595

IgA

Front 596

What area of the lymph node is considered the thymic-dependent area?

Back 596

The inner cortex (paracortex) contains the T cells, so it is considered the thymic-dependent area.

Front 597

What type of chromatin is transcriptionally inactive?

Back 597

Heterochromatin, the light stuff in the nucleus on an electron microscope image.

Front 598

Both submandibular and sublingual glands are innervated by CN VII (facial) and produce mucous and serous secretions. Which one mainly produces serous secretions?

Back 598

Submandibular gland produces mainly serous and the sublingual gland produces mainly mucous secretions.

Front 599

What is the only neuroglial cell of mesodermal origin?

Back 599

Microglia. All others are neuroectodermal derivatives.

Front 600

Where is tropocollagen aggregated to form a collagen fibril?

Back 600

Outside the cell

Front 601

What are the four posttranslational modifications done by the Golgi apparatus?

Back 601

1. Phosphorylation of mannose (lysosomes only) 2. Removal of mannose residues 3. Formation of glycosylate proteins 4. Phosphorylation of sulfate amino acids

Front 602

What is the epithelial cell lining the nasopharynx?

Back 602

Stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium, which has cilia that beat toward the oropharynx.

Front 603

What are the three epidermal derivatives?

Back 603

1. Nails 2. Hair 3. Sweat glands (both apocrine and sebaceous)

Front 604

What are the long microvilli in the inner ear and male reproductive tract called?

Back 604

Stereocilia

Front 605

True or false? The central vein of the liver lobule is the first area affected during hypoxia.

Back 605

True. Blood flows from the portal tracts (distal) to the central vein (proximal), so it is the first area affected during hypoxia.

Front 606

What cell of the male reproductive system produces testosterone?

Back 606

Leydig cells produce testosterone. LH stimulates Leydig cells. (Both start with L.)

Front 607

Myelin is produced by which cells in the PNS? In the CNS?

Back 607

In the PNS, myelin is produced by Schwann cells, in the CNS by oligodendrocytes.

Front 608

What cell type of the epidermis functions as antigen-presenting cells?

Back 608

Langerhans cells (found in the stratum spinosum)

Front 609

What cell type is found in the peripheral white pulp of the spleen?

Back 609

B cells are mainly found in the peripheral white pulp and germinal centers in the spleen.

Front 610

What area of the female reproductive tract is lined by stratified squamous epithelium rich in |glycogen?

Back 610

The vagina

Front 611

What encapsulated lymphoid organ is characterized by presence of Hassall's corpuscles, and absence of germinal centers and B cells?

Back 611

Thymus gland. (Thymus gland is essential for T cell maturation.)

Front 612

What cell transports IgA, is secreted by plasma cells, and is in Peyer's patches to the gastrointestinal lumen?

Back 612

M-cells

Front 613

What are the cells of the parathyroid gland that produce PTH?

Back 613

Chief cells

Front 614

What skin type on the palms and soles is characterized by the absence of hair follicles and presence of stratum lucidum?

Back 614

Thick skin

Front 615

What is the name of hydrophilic pores that allow the direct passage of ions and particles between two adjacent cells?

Back 615

Gap junctions

Front 616

What type of lysosome is formed when lysosome fuses with a substrate for breakdown?

Back 616

Secondary lysosome (think of the primary as inactive and secondary as active)

Front 617

What cell membrane structure increases the surface area of a cell and has actin randomly assorted within its structure?

Back 617

Microvillus

Front 618

What are the four components of the basement membrane?

Back 618

1. Laminin 2. Heparan sulfate (heparitin sulfate) 3. Fibronectin 4. Type IV collagen

Front 619

What organelle synthesizes proteins that are intended to stay within the cell?

Back 619

Free polysomes. Membrane-associated polysomes are the site of protein synthesis destined to leave the cell.

Front 620

What cell type of the body or fundus of the stomach secretes IF?

Back 620

Parietal cells (Remember, they secrete HCl, too.)

Front 621

What cell type of the body or fundus of the stomach secretes pepsinogen?

Back 621

Chief cells

Front 622

What hormone, produced by the granulose cell, stimulates the endometrium to enter the proliferative phase?

Back 622

Estrogen; the first 14 days of the female reproductive cycle mark the proliferative phase.

Front 623

What cells of the nephron function as sodium concentration sensors of the tubular fluid?

Back 623

Macula densa

Front 624

What type of chromatin is transcriptionally active?

Back 624

Euchromatin, the dark stuff in the nucleus on an electron microscope image.

Front 625

What cells of the thyroid gland secrete calcitonin?

Back 625

Parafollicular C cells

Front 626

True or false? The nucleus is the site of transcription.

Back 626

True. Transcription (conversion of DNA to RNA), as well as replication, occurs in the nucleus.

Front 627

How many days after the LH surge is ovulation?

Back 627

One day after the LH surge and 2 days after the estrogen peak.

Front 628

In what layer of the epidermis is melanin transferred from melanocytes to keratinocytes?

Back 628

Stratum spinosum

Front 629

What cells of the epidermis, derived from the neural crest, act as mechanoreceptors?

Back 629

Merkel cells (Merkel's tactile cells)

Front 630

What substance do the JG cells of the kidney secrete in response to low blood pressure?

Back 630

Renin

Front 631

What is the rule of one-third regarding muscle type of the esophagus?

Back 631

Upper third skeletal muscle, middle third both skeletal and smooth muscle, and lower third smooth muscle

Front 632

What papillae are responsible for sweet taste?

Back 632

Circumvallate papillae

Front 633

What area of the lymph node contains germinal centers?

Back 633

The outer cortex contains most of the germinal centers and therefore also most B cells.

Front 634

True or false? The gallbladder functions to produce bile.

Back 634

False. The gallbladder does not produce bile, but it concentrates bile via active sodium transport; water follows the sodium.

Front 635

True or false? Depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane excites the neuron.

Back 635

True. Hyperpolarization inhibits the postsynaptic membrane.

Front 636

In the alveoli, what cell type is • for gas exchange?

Back 636

Type I pneumocytes

Front 637

In the alveoli, what cell type is • responsible for producing surfactant?

Back 637

Type II pneumocytes

Front 638

In the alveoli, what cell type is • part of the mononuclear phagocytic system?

Back 638

Alveolar macrophages (dust cells)

Front 639

Which trophoblast layer of the placenta remains until the end of pregnancy?

Back 639

Syncytiotrophoblast. (The cytotrophoblast gets incorporated into the syncytiotrophoblast.)

Front 640

What is the first epidermal layer without organelles and nuclei

Back 640

Stratum lucidum

Front 641

What area of the small intestine is characterized by Peyer's patches?

Back 641

Ileum

Front 642

What lymphoid organ has the following characteristics: outer and inner cortical areas, encapsulation, germinal centers, and high endothelial venules?

Back 642

Lymph nodes

Front 643

What area of the nephron is sensitive to the effects of ADH?

Back 643

Collecting ducts, which make them readily permeable to water reabsorption.

Front 644

What is the name of RER in neurons?

Back 644

Nissl substances; there is a great deal of RER in neuron cell bodies, indicating high protein synthesis.

Front 645

What hormone causes milk letdown?

Back 645

Oxytocin

Front 646

What are the three reasons for the effectiveness of the blood-brain barrier?

Back 646

1. Tight junctions 2. Capillaries that lack fenestration 3. Very selective pinocytosis by the capillaries

Front 647

What cell type of the epidermis originates from the neural crest?

Back 647

Melanocytes

Front 648

If no fertilization occurs, how many days after ovulation does the corpus luteum begin to degenerate?

Back 648

12 days after ovulation

Front 649

What area of the spleen consists of splenic cords of Billroth and phagocytoses RBCs?

Back 649

Red pulp (Remember, Red pulp and RBCs begin with R.)

Front 650

What is the name of the protein coat that surrounds the nuclear envelope?

Back 650

Vimentin

Front 651

What papillae are touch receptors on the tongue and send their sensations via CN V3 (mandibular division)?

Back 651

Filiform papillae

Front 652

What is the most superficial layer of the epidermis?

Back 652

Stratum corneum (keratinized)

Front 653

What syndrome is characterized by dynein arm abnormality resulting in chronic sinusitis, recurrent pulmonary infections, and infertility?

Back 653

Kartagener's syndrome (also known as immotile cilia syndrome) --------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Front 654

What are the functions of the zonula occludens and the zonula adherens

Back 654

To provide attachment between contiguous cells and to maintain a semipermeable barrier

Front 655

What is the name of the SER of striated muscle?

Back 655

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

Front 656

Where do sperm go for maturation?

Back 656

Ductus epididymis, which is lined by pseudostratified epithelium with stereocilia.

Front 657

When is the first arrested stage of development in the female reproductive cycle?

Back 657

Prophase of meiosis I (between 12th and 22nd week in utero)

Front 658

What is the longest and most convoluted segment of the nephron?

Back 658

PCT

Front 659

What cells of the epidermis carry the pigment melanin?

Back 659

Keratinocytes, the most numerous cells in the epidermis, carry melanin and produce keratin.

Front 660

What segment of the gastrointestinal tract lacks villi, has crypts, and actively transports sodium out of its lumen?

Back 660

Large intestine. Water is passively removed from the lumen.

Front 661

What two areas of the skin do not contain sebaceous glands?

Back 661

Palms and soles of the feet. Sebaceous glands are associated with hair follicles, which are lacking on the palms and soles of the feet.

Front 662

Which of the following is not part of the conducting portion of the respiratory system: trachea, bronchi, alveoli, or larynx?

Back 662

Alveoli; they are part of the respiratory portion.

Front 663

Where are the enzymes for the ETC and oxidative phosphorylation found?

Back 663

The inner membrane of the mitochondria (cristae)

Front 664

What lymphoid organ is characterized by germinal centers, plasma cells that secrete IgA, and no encapsulation?

Back 664

Peyer's patch

Front 665

What generate anterograde transport of information in a neuron?

Back 665

Kinesins. Dynein generates retrograde transportation of information.

Front 666

What is the only glycosaminoglycan (GAG) that binds to the linker portion of the proteoglycan?

Back 666

Hyaluronic acid (all sulfates bind to the core protein)

Front 667

What cell in bone is a part of the mononuclear phagocytic system?

Back 667

Osteoclasts

Front 668

What three factors do Sertoli cells produce for normal male development?

Back 668

Inhibin, müllerian-inhibiting factor, and androgen binding protein

Front 669

What epidermal layer's function is to release lipids to act as a sealant?

Back 669

Stratum granulosum

Front 670

What does the tunica intima of arteries have that veins do not?

Back 670

An internal elastic lamina

Front 671

Do the duct or the acini cells of the pancreas secrete HCO3-?

Back 671

Duct cells secrete HCO3-, electrolytes, and water. The acini secrete the enzymes necessary for carbohydrate, nucleic acid, protein cleavage, and emulsification of fats.

Front 672

What cell of the duodenum contains high concentrations of lysozymes and has phagocytic activity?

Back 672

Paneth cells

Front 673

What maintains the osmotic gradient that is critical to the concentrating ability of the kidney?

Back 673

The venae recta maintain the gradient via countercurrent flow.

Front 674

Are the JG cells of the nephron a part of the afferent or efferent arteriole?

Back 674

Afferent arteriole

Front 675

What cell of the duodenum secretes CCK?

Back 675

Enteroendocrine (EE) cells; they also secrete secretin.

Front 676

What are the proteoglycans of cartilage and bone?

Back 676

Chondroitin sulfate and keratan sulfate

Front 677

What is the term for the first 3 to 5 days of the female reproductive cycle?

Back 677

Menses. (Ovulation occurs 14 days before the beginning of menses.)

Front 678

What is the second arrested stage of development in the female reproductive cycle?

Back 678

Metaphase of meiosis II (in the oocyte of the graafian follicle)

Front 679

What ribosomal subunit sizes do eukaryotic cells have?

Back 679

60S and 40S. The large subunits (60S) are made in the nucleolus and the small subunits (40S) are made in the nucleus.

Front 680

What term describes how an action potential is propagated along an axon?

Back 680

Saltatory conduction

Front 681

What phase of the female reproductive cycle is 14 days long?

Back 681

The secretory phase is progesterone-dependent and 14 days long, whereas the length of the proliferative phase varies

Front 682

A single mRNA strand translated by a ribosome is termed what?

Back 682

Polysome. Ribosomes read from the 5' to the 3' end of the mRNA.

Front 683

What cell is under control of FSH and testosterone; secretes inhibin, MIF, and androgen-binding protein; and phagocytizes the excess cytoplasm of the spermatid?

Back 683

Sertoli cell

Front 684

What histone binds two nucleosomes together?

Back 684

H1 histones

Front 685

What is the major inorganic component of bone?

Back 685

Hydroxyapatite

Front 686

What cells of the adrenal gland are neural crest derivatives?

Back 686

Chromaffin cells (adrenal medulla)

Front 687

Where does Beta-oxidation of very long chain fatty acids begin?

Back 687

In the peroxisome until it is 10 carbons long; the rest is completed in the mitochondria.

Front 688

What organelles make ATP, have their own dsDNA, and can synthesize protein?

Back 688

Mitochondria

Front 689

How do delusions, illusions, and hallucinations differ?

Back 689

Hallucinations are sensory impressions (without a stimulus); illusions are misperceptions of real stimuli; and delusions are false beliefs that are not shared by the culture.

Front 690

What syndrome is characterized by sweating, insomnia, nausea, diarrhea, cramps, delirium, and general restlessness secondary to MAOI and SSRI in combination?

Back 690

Serotonin syndrome. It is also associated with high doses and MAOI and synthetic narcotic combinations (Ecstasy). Treatment consists of decreasing SSRI dosage, removing the causative agent, and giving cyproheptadine.

Front 691

What is the legal age to be deemed competent to make decisions?

Back 691

18 years old (except if emancipated)

Front 692

With what stage of sleep is enuresis associated?

Back 692

Stage 3 and 4 most commonly. It can occur at any stage in the sleep cycle and is usually associated with a major stressor being introduced into the home.

Front 693

When more than one explanation can account for the end result, what form of bias occurs?

Back 693

Confounding bias

Front 694

Increased levels of what neurotransmitter, in the hippocampus, decrease the likelihood of learned helplessness?

Back 694

Increased GABA levels decrease the likelihood of learned helplessness.

Front 695

How does ceasation of barbiturate use affect sleep?

Back 695

By causing rebound insomnia and decrease in REM sleep

Front 696

What type of correlation compares two ordinal variables?

Back 696

Spearman correlation

Front 697

What syndrome is characterized by bilateral medial temporal lobe lesion, placidity, hyperorality, hypersexuality, hyperreactivity to visual stimuli, and visual agnosia?

Back 697

Klüver-Bucy syndrome

Front 698

What is the term for having fantasies or dressing in female clothes for sexual arousal by heterosexual men?

Back 698

Transvestite fetishism

Front 699

What disorder is described as having • Unconscious symptoms with unconscious motivation?

Back 699

Somatoform disorder

Front 700

What disorder is described as having • Conscious symptoms with conscious motivation?

Back 700

Malingering

Front 701

What disorder is described as having • Conscious symptoms with unconscious motivation?

Back 701

Factitious disorder

Front 702

What is the term for the ability of a test to measure something consistently?

Back 702

Reliability (think of it as "nice grouping" or "precise")

Front 703

What cerebral vessel size is affected in patients with vascular dementia?

Back 703

Small to medium-sized cerebral vessels

Front 704

What is the name of the program that deals with codependency and enabling behaviors for family members of alcohol abusers?

Back 704

Al-Anon

Front 705

What level of mental retardation is characterized by • Needing a highly structured environment with constant supervision?

Back 705

Profound (I.Q. range < 20)

Front 706

What level of mental retardation is characterized by • Having the ability to communicate and learn basic habits but training is usually not helpful?

Back 706

Severe (range 20–34)

Front 707

What level of mental retardation is characterized by • Being self-supportive with minimal guidance and able to be gainfully employed (includes 85% of the mentally retarded)?

Back 707

Mild (50–70)

Front 708

What level of mental retardation is characterized by • Can work in sheltered workshops and learn simple tasks but need supervision?

Back 708

Moderate (35–49)

Front 709

Name these immature defense mechanisms: • Taking others' beliefs, thoughts, and external stimuli and making them part of the self. (Hint: if it's done consciously, it is called imitation.)

Back 709

Introjection (a sports fan is a good example)

Front 710

Name these immature defense mechanisms: • Returning to an earlier stage of development (e.g., enuresis)

Back 710

Regression

Front 711

Name these immature defense mechanisms: • Inability to remember a known fact (aware of forgetting)

Back 711

Blocking

Front 712

Name these immature defense mechanisms: • Psychic feelings converted to physical symptoms

Back 712

Somatization

Front 713

What is the term for ejaculation before or immediately after vaginal penetration on a regular basis?

Back 713

Premature ejaculation

Front 714

At what stage of cognitive development (according to Piaget) do children • See death as irreversible?

Back 714

Concrete operations (6–12 years)

Front 715

At what stage of cognitive development (according to Piaget) do children • Have abstract thinking?

Back 715

Formal operations (> 12 years)

Front 716

At what stage of cognitive development (according to Piaget) do children • Lack law of conservation and be egocentric?

Back 716

Preoperational (2–6 years)

Front 717

Is it acceptable to lie, even if it protects a colleague from malpractice?

Back 717

No, it is never acceptable to lie.

Front 718

What happens to prevalence as duration increases?

Back 718

Prevalence increases. (Note: Incidence does not change.)

Front 719

With what stage of sleep are nightmares associated?

Back 719

REM sleep. Nightmares are frightening dreams that we recall.

Front 720

What is the statistical term for the proportion of truly nondiseased persons in the screened population who are identified as nondiseased?

Back 720

Specificity (it deals with the healthy)

Front 721

In the elderly, what happens to total sleep time, percentage of REM sleep, and percentage of NREM sleep?

Back 721

Total and NREM sleep decrease considerably as we age, but REM sleep remains relatively constant (20%) up to age 80, then begins to decline.

Front 722

What happens to dopamine levels when we awaken?

Back 722

Dopamine levels rise with waking; dopamine is associated with wakefulness.

Front 723

What is the primary risk factor for suicide?

Back 723

Previous suicide attempt

Front 724

What is defined as a general estimate of the functional capacities of a human?

Back 724

IQ

Front 725

What dementia is associated with dilated ventricles with diffuse cortical atrophy, decreased parietal lobe blood flow, and a decrease in choline acetyl transferase activity?

Back 725

These are the gross pathologic changes associated with Alzheimer's disease.

Front 726

What is the term for a deficiency or absence of sexual fantasies or desires?

Back 726

Hypoactive sexual desire disorder

Front 727

What phobia is described as the fear of open spaces?

Back 727

Agoraphobia. It also means having a sense of humiliation or hopelessness.

Front 728

What antidepressant, which recently was approved for general anxiety disorder, inhibits the reuptake of NE and 5-HT?

Back 728

Venlafaxine. (It also has a mild dopaminergic effect.)

Front 729

What judgment states that the decision, by rights of autonomy and privacy, belongs to the patient, but if the patient is incompetent to decide, the medical decision is based on subjective wishes?

Back 729

Substituted judgment. It is made by the person who best knows the patient, not the closest relative.

Front 730

What ethnic group has the highest adolescent suicide rate?

Back 730

Native Americans

Front 731

What are the three microscopic pathologic changes seen in Alzheimer's disease?

Back 731

Senile plaques, neurofibrillary tangles, and granulovascular changes in neurons

Front 732

When does most REM sleep occur, in the first or second half of sleep?

Back 732

REM sleep occurs more often in the second half of sleep. The amount of REM sleep increases as the night goes on.

Front 733

What is the name of the benzodiazepine antagonist used in the treatment of an overdose?

Back 733

Flumazenil

Front 734

What type of test asks a patient to draw a scene, attempting to find out the individual's unconscious perceptions in his or her life?

Back 734

Projective drawing. The artistic form is irrelevant, but the size, placement, erasures, and distortions are relevant.

Front 735

What is the biochemical trigger for REM sleep?

Back 735

Increased ACh to decreased NE levels. (NE pathway begins in the pons and regulates REM sleep.)

Front 736

What neuropsychologic test shows nine designs to the patient, then asks for recall of as many as possible?

Back 736

Bender Visual Motor Gestalt Test

Front 737

What are the three characteristics of ADHD?

Back 737

1. Short attention span 2. Impulsivity 3. Hyperactivity

Front 738

Is suicidal ideation a component of normal grief?

Back 738

It is rare with normal grief; however, it is relatively common in depression

Front 739

In what stage of sleep is it easiest to arouse a sleeping individual?

Back 739

During REM sleep

Front 740

What scale separates things into groups without defining the relationship between them?

Back 740

Nominal scale (categorical, e.g., male or female)

Front 741

What specifies how accurately the sample values and the true values of the population lie within a given range?

Back 741

Confidence interval. It is a way of admitting estimation for the population.

Front 742

If the family member of a patient asked you to withhold information, would you?

Back 742

For the USMLE Step 1 the answer is no, but if the information would do more harm than good, withhold. This is very rare but it does occur.

Front 743

What AD dementia has a defect in chromosome 4, onset between the ages of 30 and 40, choreoathetosis, and progressive deterioration to an infantile state?

Back 743

Huntington's chorea. (Death in 15–20 years, often via suicide.)

Front 744

What percentage of children born to HIV-positive mothers will test positive for HIV at birth?

Back 744

100%, with about 20% remaining positive after 1 year

Front 745

Name the reaction that appears in babies who are temporarily deprived of their usual caretaker. (This reaction usually begins around 6 months of age, peaks around 8 months, and decreases at 12 months.)

Back 745

Separation anxiety

Front 746

Which drug is used to treat opioid withdrawal, ADHD, and sometimes Tourette's syndrome?

Back 746

Clonidine

Front 747

What chromosome is autism linked to?

Back 747

Chromosome 15

Front 748

What type of correlation is defined as • Two variables that go together in the same direction?

Back 748

Positive correlation

Front 749

What type of correlation is defined as • Two variables with no linear relation to one another?

Back 749

Zero correlation

Front 750

What type of correlation is defined as • One variable that diminishes in the presence of the other?

Back 750

Negative correlation

Front 751

When the results of a test are compared to findings for a normative group, what form of reference does the objective test use?

Back 751

Norm reference (i.e., 75% of the students in the class will pass)

Front 752

What hypothesis states that the findings of a test are a result of chance?

Back 752

Null hypothesis (what you hope to disprove)

Front 753

What is the term to describe the inability to feel any pleasant emotions?

Back 753

Anhedonia

Front 754

What is the term for involuntary constriction of the outer third of the vagina to prevent penile penetration?

Back 754

Vaginismus; it is the female counterpart of premature ejaculation.

Front 755

What is the term for the same results achieved again on testing a subject a second or third time?

Back 755

Test–retest reliability

Front 756

At what age does a child develop • Endogenous smile?

Back 756

At birth (reflex)

Front 757

At what age does a child develop • Exogenous smile?

Back 757

8 weeks (response to a face)

Front 758

At what age does a child develop • Preferential smile?

Back 758

12 to 16 weeks (in response to mother's face)

Front 759

Per Freud, with what part of the unconscious are sex and aggression (instincts) associated?

Back 759

Id

Front 760

What enzyme is inhibited by disulfiram?

Back 760

Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase. When this enzyme is blocked, acetaldehyde builds up, and its presence in excess results in nausea and hypotension.

Front 761

What type of questions should you begin with when a patient seeks your medical opinion?

Back 761

It is best to begin with open-ended questions, allowing patients to describe in their own words what troubles them. You can then move to closed-ended questions when narrowing the diagnosis.

Front 762

What type of scheduled reinforcement states that after a desired response, the reinforcement is given • On a set time schedule?

Back 762

Fixed interval

Front 763

What type of scheduled reinforcement states that after a desired response, the reinforcement is given • After a set number of responses?

Back 763

Fixed ratio (rewards set behaviors)

Front 764

What type of scheduled reinforcement states that after a desired response, the reinforcement is given • Varying in time?

Back 764

Variable interval

Front 765

What type of scheduled reinforcement states that after a desired response, the reinforcement is given • Varying in the number of responses?

Back 765

Variable ratio If it is based on time, it is an interval, and if it is based on the number of responses, it is a ratio.

Front 766

At what stage of psychosexual development (according to Freud) do children fear castration?

Back 766

Phallic stage (4–6 years)

Front 767

What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is • 130

Back 767

Very superior (<2.5% of the population)

Front 768

What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is • 110 to 119

Back 768

High average

Front 769

What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is • 80 to 89

Back 769

Low average

Front 770

What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is 70 to 79

Back 770

Borderline

Front 771

What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is • 90 to 109

Back 771

Average

Front 772

What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is • Below 69

Back 772

Mentally disabled

Front 773

What is the label given to an individual whose IQ is • 120 to 129

Back 773

Superior

Front 774

At what stage of sleep is GH output elevated?

Back 774

Stage 4

Front 775

Can incidence, prevalence, and cause and effect be assessed in • Case control studies?

Back 775

Case control studies cannot assess incidence or prevalence, but they can determine causal relationships.

Front 776

Can incidence, prevalence, and cause and effect be assessed in • Cross-sectional studies?

Back 776

Cross-sectional studies determine prevalence, not incidence or cause and effect.

Front 777

Can incidence, prevalence, and cause and effect be assessed in • Cohort studies?

Back 777

Cohort studies determine incidence and causality, not prevalence.

Front 778

Can a physician commit a patient?

Back 778

NO!! Remember, only a judge can commit a patient. A physician can detain a patient (maximum is for 48 hours).

Front 779

What are the five pieces of information considered necessary for fully informed consent?

Back 779

1. Benefits of the procedure 2. Purpose of the procedure 3. Risks of the procedure 4. The nature of the procedure (what you are doing) 5. The alternative to this procedure and its availability (Don't forget the last one; this is where physicians get in trouble.)

Front 780

What is the term for the number of individuals who have an attribute or disease at a particular point in time?

Back 780

Prevalence rate

Front 781

What is the term for the degree to which a test measures what it is intended to measure?

Back 781

Validity (remember, reliability is necessary but not the only thing needed for validity)

Front 782

What Freudian psyche component is described as • The urges, sex aggression, and "primitive" processes?

Back 782

Id (pleasure principle)

Front 783

What Freudian psyche component is described as • The conscience, morals, beliefs (middle of the road)?

Back 783

Superego

Front 784

What Freudian psyche component is described as • Reality, rationality, language basis?

Back 784

Ego

Front 785

What medication is used to help alcoholics avoid relapse by decreasing glutamate receptor activity?

Back 785

Acamprosate (the number of glutamate receptors increases with chronic alcohol abuse)

Front 786

What is the term for new made-up words?

Back 786

Neologisms. Thomas Jefferson noted, "Necessity obliges us to neologize." (Abnormal use of neologisms is known as neolalism.)

Front 787

What rate removes any difference between two populations, based on a variable, to makes groups equal?

Back 787

Standardized rate

Front 788

Can committed mentally ill patients refuse medical treatment?

Back 788

Yes. The only civil liberty they lose is the freedom to come and go as they please.

Front 789

What is the term for any stimulus that increases the probability of a response happening?

Back 789

Reinforcement

Front 790

Does REM deprivation interfere with performance on simple tasks?

Back 790

No, but it does interfere with performing complex tasks and decreases attention to detail. (Be careful post call!)

Front 791

Name the cluster C personality disorder: • Gets others to assume responsibility, is subordinate, and is fearful of being alone and caring for self

Back 791

Dependent

Front 792

Name the cluster C personality disorder: • Orderly, inflexible, perfectionist; makes rules, lists, order; doesn't like change, has a poor sense of humor, and needs to keep a routine

Back 792

Obsessive-compulsive

Front 793

Name the cluster C personality disorder: • Sensitive to criticism, shy, anxious; socially isolated but yearns to be in the crowd

Back 793

Avoidant

Front 794

What is the term for a complete aversion to all sexual contact?

Back 794

Sexual aversion disorder

Front 795

What type of symptoms in schizophrenia are associated with • Dopamine receptors?

Back 795

Type I symptoms (positive); schizophrenics have them, but otherwise healthy persons do not.

Front 796

What type of symptoms in schizophrenia are associated with • Muscarinic receptors (ACh)?

Back 796

Type II symptoms (negative); otherwise healthy persons have them, but schizophrenics do not.

Front 797

What general pattern of sleep is described by slowing of EEG rhythms (high voltage and slower synchronization), muscle contractions, and lack of eye movement or mental activity?

Back 797

NREM sleep. Remember awake body, sleeping brain

Front 798

Is spousal abuse a mandatory reportable offense?

Back 798

No, it is not a mandatory reportable offense (if you can believe it). Child and elderly abuse are mandatory reportable offenses.

Front 799

What is the key issue surrounding teenagers' maturation?

Back 799

Formation of an identity through issues of independence and rebellion; they define who they are.

Front 800

What is the relationship between chance of error and • Standard deviation?

Back 800

As the standard deviation increases, the greater the chance of error.

Front 801

What is the relationship between chance of error and • Sample size?

Back 801

As sample size increases, the lower the chance of error.

Front 802

Name the cluster B personality disorder: • Colorful, dramatic, extroverted, seductive, and unable to hold long-term relationships

Back 802

Histrionic

Front 803

Name the cluster B personality disorder: • In a constant state of crisis, promiscuous, unable to tolerate anxiety-causing situations, afraid of being alone, and having intense but brief relationships

Back 803

Borderline

Front 804

Name the cluster B personality disorder: • Criminal behavior; lacking friends, reckless, and unable to conform to social norms

Back 804

Antisocial

Front 805

Name the cluster B personality disorder: • Grandiose sense of self-importance; demands constant attention; fragile self-esteem; can be charismatic

Back 805

Narcissistic

Front 806

In what organ system would you attempt to localize a sign for shaken baby syndrome"? What do you look for?

Back 806

Look for broken blood vessels in the baby's eyes.

Front 807

What case is known as "let nature take its course"?

Back 807

Infant Doe. Generally, parents cannot forego lifesaving treatment, but this case states that there are exceptions to the rule.

Front 808

If the P value is less than or equal to .05, what do you do to the null hypothesis?

Back 808

Reject it

Front 809

What disorder is characterized by an alternating pattern of depressed mood with periods of hypomania for more than 2 years?

Back 809

Cyclothymia (nonpsychotic bipolar). Patients are ego syntonic.

Front 810

What projective test asks the patient to tell a story about what is going on in the pictures, evaluating the conflicts, drives, and emotions of the individual?

Back 810

TAT (Thematic apperception test)

Front 811

What has proved to be the best way to extinguish enuresis?

Back 811

Bell pad

Front 812

What scale assesses a rank order classification but does not tell the difference between the two groups?

Back 812

Ordinal scale (e.g., faster/slower, taller/shorter)

Front 813

What is associated with prolonged lithium use?

Back 813

Hypothyroidism. (TSH levels must be monitored.)

Front 814

What scale has a true zero point, graded into equal increments, and also orders them?

Back 814

Ratio scale

Front 815

By what age should children be able to draw the following figures? • Triangle

Back 815

6 years old

Front 816

By what age should children be able to draw the following figures? • Cross

Back 816

4 years old

Front 817

By what age should children be able to draw the following figures? • Diamond

Back 817

7 years old

Front 818

By what age should children be able to draw the following figures? • Square

Back 818

5 years old

Front 819

By what age should children be able to draw the following figures? • Circle

Back 819

3 years old

Front 820

By what age should children be able to draw the following figures? • Rectangle

Back 820

4.5 years old (Alphabetic order except with a diamond last: circle, cross, rectangle, square, triangle)

Front 821

What personality disorder affects 75% of the prison population?

Back 821

Antisocial personality

Front 822

What is the first formal IQ test used today for children aged 2 to 18?

Back 822

Stanford-Binet Scale, developed in 1905, is useful in the very bright, the impaired, and children less than 6 years old.

Front 823

What type of foods should patients taking MAOIs avoid? Why?

Back 823

Foods rich in tyramine (e.g., cheese, dried fish, sauerkraut, chocolate, avocados, and red wine) should be avoided. Hypertensive crisis occurs when tyramine and MAOIs are mixed.

Front 824

What form of anxiety, appearing at 6 months, peaking at 8 months, and disappearing by 1 year of age, is seen in the presence of unfamiliar people?

Back 824

Stranger anxiety

Front 825

What are the three stages that children aged 7 months to 5 years go through when they are separated from a primary caregiver for a long time?

Back 825

1. Protest 2. Despair 3. Detachment

Front 826

What five things are checked in the APGAR test?

Back 826

1. Skin color 2. Heart rate 3. Reflexes 4. Muscle tone 5. Respiratory rate APGAR, Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, Respiration

Front 827

What are the top three causes of infant mortality?

Back 827

Birth defects, low birth weight (< 1500 g) with neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS), and SIDS

Front 828

Do newborns have a preference for still or moving objects?

Back 828

Moving objects, along with large bright objects with curves and complex designs.

Front 829

What is the name of the 12-step program believed to be the most successful for the treatment of alcohol abuse?

Back 829

Alcoholics Anonymous

Front 830

How can you differentiate between a medial temporal lobe and a hippocampal lesion based on memory impairment?

Back 830

Long-term memory is impaired in hippocampal lesions; it is spared in medial temporal lobe lesions.

Front 831

What serotonin reuptake inhibitor's major sexual side effect is priapism?

Back 831

Trazodone

Front 832

What is the central issue regarding the Roe vs. Wade decision (legalization of abortion)?

Back 832

The patient decides about the health care she does or does not get even if it harms the fetus. This also means she can refuse blood transfusions even if it harms the fetus.

Front 833

What part of the ANS is affected in the biofeedback model of operant conditioning?

Back 833

The biofeedback model is based on the parasympathetic nervous system.

Front 834

The proportion of truly diseased persons in the screened population who are identified as diseased refers to?

Back 834

Sensitivity (it deals with the sick)

Front 835

How far below ideal body weight are patients with anorexia nervosa?

Back 835

At least 15%

Front 836

True or false? According to social learning theory, people who believe that luck, chance, or the actions of others control their fate have an internal locus of control.

Back 836

False. These beliefs are characteristic of people with an external locus of control.

Front 837

What is the term for an inhibited female orgasm?

Back 837

Anorgasmia. (The overall prevalence is 30%.)

Front 838

What are the four exceptions to requirements for informed consent?

Back 838

1. Incompetent patient (determined by the courts) 2. Therapeutic privilege (in the best interest of the patient when he or she is unable to answer) 3. Waiver signed by the patient 4. Emergency

Front 839

What is the term for recurrent and persistent pain before, after, or during sexual intercourse?

Back 839

Dyspareunia. It is a common complaint in women who have been raped or sexually abused.

Front 840

What type of bias is it when the sample population is not a true representative of the population?

Back 840

Selection bias

Front 841

In what stage of sleep is it hardest to arouse a sleeping individual?

Back 841

During stage 3 and 4 (remember, it is called deep sleep.)

Front 842

What is the period between falling asleep and REM sleep called?

Back 842

REM latency; normally it is about 90 minutes.

Front 843

What case is best known for use of the "best interest standard"?

Back 843

Brother Fox (Eichner vs. Dillon). The substituted standard could not apply because the patient had never been competent, so no one knew what the patient would have wanted. Therefore, the decision was based on what a "reasonable" person would have wanted.

Front 844

What drug is used to prevent alcohol consumption by blocking aldehyde dehydrogenase?

Back 844

Disulfiram

Front 845

According to Freud, what facet of the psyche represents the internalized ideals and values of one's parents?

Back 845

Superego

Front 846

What pineal hormone's release is inhibited by daylight and increased dramatically during sleep?

Back 846

Melatonin. It is a light-sensitive hormone that is associated with sleepiness.

Front 847

What somatoform disorder is described as • Having a F:M ratio of 20:1, onset before age 30, and having 4 pains (2 gastrointestinal, 1 sexual, 1 neurologic)?

Back 847

Somatization disorder

Front 848

What somatoform disorder is described as • La belle indifférence, suggestive of true physical ailment because of alteration of function?

Back 848

Conversion disorder

Front 849

What somatoform disorder is described as • Unrealistic negative opinion of personal appearance, seeing self as ugly?

Back 849

Body dysmorphic disorder

Front 850

What somatoform disorder is described as • Preoccupied with illness or death, persisting despite reassurance, lasting longer than 6 months?

Back 850

Hypochondriasis (they will begin with "I think I have...")

Front 851

What somatoform disorder is described as • Severe, prolonged pain that persists with no cause being found, disrupts activities of daily living?

Back 851

Somatoform pain disorder

Front 852

What statistical test compares the means of many groups (>2) of a single nominal variable by using an interval variable?

Back 852

One-way ANOVA

Front 853

What disease is described by the following characteristics: multiple motor and vocal tics, average age of onset 7, a M:F ratio of 3:1, and association with increased levels of dopamine?

Back 853

Tourette's syndrome; it is usually first reported by teachers as ADHD with symptoms of obsessive-compulsive disorder and learning disabilities.

Front 854

In Parkinson's disease, what area of the basal ganglia has a decreased amount of dopamine?

Back 854

Substantia nigra

Front 855

What naturally occurring substances mimic the effects of opioids?

Back 855

Enkephalins

Front 856

What disorder, experienced more than half of the time for a 6-month period, is described as being fearful, worrisome, or impatient and having sleep disturbances, poor concentration, hyperactivity, and an overall sense of autonomic hyperactivity?

Back 856

Generalized anxiety disorder

Front 857

What percent of sexual abuse cases are committed by family members?

Back 857

50%. The uncles and older siblings are the most likely perpetrators, although stepfathers also have a high rate.

Front 858

Kaiser-Fleischer rings, abnormal copper metabolism, and ceruloplasmin deficiency characterize what disease, which may include symptoms of dementia when severe?

Back 858

Wilson's disease (Remember chromosome 13 and hepatolenticular degeneration)

Front 859

To what does failure to resolve separation anxiety lead?

Back 859

School phobia

Front 860

What is the term to describe the average?

Back 860

Mean

Front 861

How does L-tryptophan affect sleep?

Back 861

It increases REM and total sleep time.

Front 862

Should information flow from the patient to the family or vice versa?

Back 862

Your duty is to tell the patient, not the family. The patient decides who gets to know and who doesn't, not you.

Front 863

Can parents withhold treatment from their children?

Back 863

Yes, as long the illness does not threaten limb or life. If illness is critical or an emergency, treat the child.

Front 864

What is the name of the hypothesis you are trying to prove?

Back 864

Alternative hypothesis (what is left after the null has been defined)

Front 865

What percent of unwed mothers are teenagers?

Back 865

50%, with 50% of them having the child

Front 866

What happens to REM, REM latency, and stage 4 sleep during major depression?

Back 866

Increased REM sleep, decreased REM latency, and decreased stage 4 sleep, leading to early morning awakening

Front 867

What 11–amino acid peptide is the neurotransmitter of sensory neurons that conveys pain from the periphery to the spinal cord?

Back 867

Substance P. (Opioids relieve pain in part by blocking substance P.)

Front 868

True or false? In a positively skewed curve the mean is greater than the mode.

Back 868

True. In positively skewed distributions the mode is less than the median is less than the mean.(Remember to name a skewed distribution: the tail points in the direction of its name. positive skew tails point to the positive end of a scale.)

Front 869

What is the term to describe jumping from one topic to the next without any connection?

Back 869

Loose association

Front 870

What is the leading cause of school dropout?

Back 870

Pregnancy

Front 871

Name the four components of the narcoleptic tetrad.

Back 871

1. Sleep paralysis 2. Hypnagogic hallucinations (while falling asleep) 3. Sleep attacks with excessive daytime sleepiness 4. Cataplexy (pathognomonic) Narcolepsy is a disorder of REM sleep, with REM occurring within 10 minutes of sleep.

Front 872

What happens to cortisol levels in sleep-deprived individuals?

Back 872

Cortisol levels increase. Lymphocyte levels decrease in sleep-deprived individuals.

Front 873

What is the period between going to bed and falling asleep called?

Back 873

Sleep latency

Front 874

What disorder is characterized by a depressed mood and a loss of interest or pleasure for more than 2 years?

Back 874

Dysthymia, which is also known as nonpsychotic depression. (Think of it as the car running but not well.)

Front 875

What form of conditioning is defined as a new response to an old stimulus resulting in a consequence?

Back 875

Operant conditioning (reinforcement is after a response)

Front 876

What pituitary hormone is inhibited during sleep?

Back 876

TSH. 5-HT and prolactin increase during sleep, and dopamine levels decrease during sleep.

Front 877

Based on operant conditioning, what type of reinforcement is described when • Adding a stimulus stops a behavior?

Back 877

Punishment

Front 878

Based on operant conditioning, what type of reinforcement is described when • Removing a stimulus stops a behavior?

Back 878

Extinction

Front 879

Based on operant conditioning, what type of reinforcement is described when • Adding a stimulus reinforces a behavior?

Back 879

Positive reinforcement

Front 880

Based on operant conditioning, what type of reinforcement is described when • Removing a stimulus reinforces a behavior?

Back 880

Negative reinforcement

Front 881

What is the formula to calculate IQ?

Back 881

(MA/CA) x 100 = IQ score, where MA = mental age and CA = chronological age

Front 882

What happens to NE levels in • Major depression?

Back 882

Decrease (5-HT and dopamine levels do the same)

Front 883

What happens to NE levels in • Bipolar disorder?

Back 883

Increase (5-HT and dopamine levels do the same)

Front 884

What law was adopted to shield physicians from liability when helping at the scene of an accident?

Back 884

Good Samaritan Law. (Physicians are not required to stop and help.)

Front 885

What is the term for the number of new events occurring in a population divided by the population at risk?

Back 885

Incidence rate

Front 886

What is the term to describe inability to recall the past and possible assumption of a completely new identity?

Back 886

Dissociative fugue. (Patients are unaware of memory loss.)

Front 887

What classical conditioning therapy or modification is described as • Pairing noxious stimuli to an inappropriate behavior?

Back 887

Aversive conditioning

Front 888

What classical conditioning therapy or modification is described as • Forcing patients to confront their fears by being exposed to them until they are extinguished?

Back 888

Exposure

Front 889

What classical conditioning therapy or modification is described as • Triage of a hierarchy of fears (from least to most), then teaching muscle relaxation techniques in the presence of those fears until the subject is not afraid anymore?

Back 889

Systematic desensitization

Front 890

Failure to accurately recall the past leads to what form of bias?

Back 890

Recall bias. These problems arise in retrospective studies.

Front 891

Regarding neuroleptics, what is the relationship between potency and anticholinergic side effects?

Back 891

Inversely proportional: the higher the potency, the lower the anticholinergic side effects.

Front 892

What potentially lethal side effect of clozapine should be monitored with frequent blood drawing?

Back 892

Agranulocytosis; approximately 2% develop this side effect.

Front 893

True or false? Being college educated increases a man's risk of having premature ejaculation.

Back 893

True; also, stressful marriage, early sexual experiences in the back of a car, and sex with a prostitute all increase the risk of premature ejaculation.

Front 894

What is the term for the rate measured for a subgroup of a population?

Back 894

Specific rate (e.g., men aged 55–60)

Front 895

In what stage of psychosexual development, according to Freud, do children resolve the Oedipus complex?

Back 895

Latency stage (6–12 years)

Front 896

Where is lithium metabolized and excreted?

Back 896

95% in the kidneys; that's why adequate Na+ and fluid intake is essential.

Front 897

At what age do children begin to understand the irreversibility of death?

Back 897

At 8 to 9 years of age. Prior to this age they view death as a form of punishment.

Front 898

What are the three benzodiazepines that do not undergo microsomal oxidation?

Back 898

Oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam (OTL) (mnemonic: Outside The Liver). They undergo glucuronide conjugation, not via the cytochrome p450 system.

Front 899

What neuropsychologic test has five basic scales testing for the presence and localization of brain dysfunction?

Back 899

The Halsted-Reitan battery. It consists of finger oscillation, speech sound perception, rhythm, tactual, and category testing.

Front 900

What subtype of schizophrenia is characterized by • Childlike behaviors, unorganized speech and behaviors, poor grooming, incongruous smiling and laughter, and the worst prognosis?

Back 900

Disorganized schizophrenia

Front 901

What subtype of schizophrenia is characterized by • Stuporous mute echopraxia and automatic obedience, waxy flexibility with rigidity of posture?

Back 901

Catatonic schizophrenia

Front 902

What subtype of schizophrenia is characterized by • Delusions of persecution and/or grandeur, auditory hallucinations, late onset, and the best prognosis?

Back 902

Paranoid schizophrenia

Front 903

If a patient cannot pay, can you refuse services?

Back 903

No, you never refuse to treat a patient simply because he or she can't pay. You are a patient advocate.

Front 904

Does alcoholism increase the rate of suicide?

Back 904

Yes. It increases the rate of suicide to nearly 50 times that of the general population.

Front 905

What is the term for the dementia characterized by decremental or patchy deterioration in cognitive function due to a cerebrovascular accident?

Back 905

Vascular dementia. It is characterized as a stepwise deterioration in cognitive function.

Front 906

What is the term for the difference between the highest and the lowest score in a population?

Back 906

Range

Front 907

How is sleep affected in a person with alcohol intoxication?

Back 907

Decreased REM sleep and REM rebound during withdrawal

Front 908

How many attacks are needed over how much time before panic disorder is diagnosed?

Back 908

Need 3 panic attacks over 3 weeks (remember, they come out of the blue.)

Front 909

What axis I disorder is characterized by pronoun reversal, preference for inanimate objects, obliviousness to the external environment, lack of separation anxiety, and abnormalities in language development?

Back 909

Autism. Head-banging, rocking, and self-injurious behaviors are also common in autism.

Front 910

What major side effect of neuroleptics is characterized by pill rolling, shuffling gait, and tremors that abate during sleep?

Back 910

Tardive dyskinesia. It persists even after treatment is discontinued and has no treatment. Focus is on monitoring for side effects and prevention.

Front 911

If you report a suspected case of child abuse and are wrong, are you protected from legal liability?

Back 911

Yes. This is done to help prevent underreporting out of fear of lawsuit. Remember that it is your duty to protect the child first, not worry about legal responsibility.

Front 912

Can advance directives be oral?

Back 912

Yes

Front 913

Increased self-esteem, flight of ideas, decreased sleep, increased libido, weight loss, and erratic behavior are all symptoms of what disorder?

Back 913

Bipolar disorder (manic-depressive disorder)

Front 914

Is marital satisfaction higher for couples with or without children?

Back 914

Without children (but don't think about this one for too long)

Front 915

At what age does IQ stabilize?

Back 915

From age 5 onward IQ stabilizes.

Front 916

Name the aphasia based on these characteristics: • Nonfluent speech, telegraphic and ungrammatical; lesion in Brodmann's area 44; unimpaired comprehension

Back 916

Broca's aphasia

Front 917

Name the aphasia based on these characteristics: • Lesion in the prefrontal cortex; inability to speak spontaneously; unimpaired ability to repeat

Back 917

Transcortical aphasia

Front 918

Name the aphasia based on these characteristics: • Lesion is in the parietal lobe or arcuate fibers because the connection between Broca's and Wernicke's area is severed; word comprehension preserved; inability to write or speak the statement (can't tell you what you said)

Back 918

Conduction aphasia

Front 919

Name the aphasia based on these characteristics: • Both Broca's and Wernicke's areas damaged by lesion in the presylvian speech area; trouble repeating statements; poor comprehension with telegraphic speech

Back 919

Global aphasia

Front 920

Name the aphasia based on these characteristics: • Lesion in Brodmann area 22; impaired comprehension; incoherent rapid, fluent speech; verbal paraphrasias; trouble repeating statements

Back 920

Wernicke's aphasia

Front 921

What rare form of dementia is associated with personality changes and affects the frontal and temporal lobes?

Back 921

Pick's disease

Front 922

Which drug is used to treat respiratory depression associated with an overdose of opioids?

Back 922

Naloxone or naltrexone

Front 923

What rate is indicated by 1-specificity?

Back 923

False-positive rate

Front 924

When does most of the NREM sleep (stage 3 and 4) occur, in the first or second half of sleep?

Back 924

The deepest sleep levels (stage 3 and 4) occur mostly in the first half of sleep.

Front 925

Name the stages of sleep with these EEG patterns: • Disappearance of alpha waves, appearance of theta waves

Back 925

Stage 1

Front 926

Name the stages of sleep with these EEG patterns: • Delta waves

Back 926

Stage 3 and 4

Front 927

Name the stages of sleep with these EEG patterns: • Sawtooth waves, random low voltage pattern

Back 927

REM

Front 928

Name the stages of sleep with these EEG patterns: • Alpha waves

Back 928

Being awake

Front 929

Name the stages of sleep with these EEG patterns: • Sleep spindles, K-complexes

Back 929

Stage 2

Front 930

What is the drug of choice for treating ADHD?

Back 930

Methylphenidate (Ritalin)

Front 931

True or false? Prolactin levels can serve as a rough indicator of overall dopamine activity.

Back 931

True. PIF is dopamine in the tuberoinfundibular system.

Front 932

What is the term for failure to give up infantile patterns of behavior for mature ones?

Back 932

Fixation (arrested development)

Front 933

Is masturbation considered an abnormal sexual practice?

Back 933

No. It is abnormal only if it interferes with normal sexual or occupational function.

Front 934

Which benzodiazepine has the longest half-life?

Back 934

Flurazepam

Front 935

In the classical conditioning model, when a behavior is learned, what must occur to break the probability that a response will happen?

Back 935

Stimulus generalization must stop. (Pairing of the unconditioned stimulus and the conditioned stimulus must cease.)

Front 936

What is the most abundant neuron in the cerebellum?

Back 936

The granule cell. Its neurotransmitter is glutamic acid, which is also the principal neurotransmitter of the visual pathways.

Front 937

Name these anxiety defense mechanisms: • Separating oneself from the experience. The facts are accepted but the form is changed for protection.

Back 937

Dissociation

Front 938

Name these anxiety defense mechanisms: • Use of explanations to justify unacceptable behaviors.

Back 938

Rationalization

Front 939

Outburst to cover up true feelings (emotion is covered, not redirected).

Back 939

Acting out

Front 940

Use of an outlet for emotions (stuff flows downhill).

Back 940

Displacement

Front 941

Fact without feeling (la belle indifférence)

Back 941

Isolation of affect

Front 942

Replacing normal affect with "brain power"

Back 942

Intellectualization

Front 943

Unconsciously forgetting(forgetting that you forgot something!)

Back 943

Repression

Front 944

Fixing impulses by acting out the opposite of an unacceptable behavior

Back 944

Undoing

Front 945

Setting up to be let down (it is unconscious; if conscious, you're just rude)

Back 945

Passive-aggressive

Front 946

A complete opposite expression of your inward feeling (e.g., arguing all the time with someone you are attracted to when your feelings are not known)

Back 946

Reaction formation

Front 947

Name these cluster A personality disorders: • Odd, strange; has magical thinking; socially isolated, paranoid, lacks close friends; has incongruous affect

Back 947

Schizotypal

Front 948

Name these cluster A personality disorders: • Socially withdrawn, seen as eccentric but happy to be alone

Back 948

Schizoid

Front 949

Name these cluster A personality disorders: • Baseline mistrust; carries grudges; afraid to open up; uses projection as defense mechanism; lacks hallucinations or delusions

Back 949

Paranoid

Front 950

What statistical method do you use when analyzing • Cross-sectional studies?

Back 950

Chi-square.

Front 951

What statistical method do you use when analyzing • Cohort studies?

Back 951

Relative risk and/or attributable risk. (Cohort studies deal with incidence.)

Front 952

What statistical method do you use when analyzing • Case control studies?

Back 952

Odds ratio. (Case control studies deal with prevalence.)

Front 953

If a patient asks you a question and you do not know the answer, do you tell a white lie or simply not respond?

Back 953

Absolutely not! Answer any question you are asked.

Front 954

True or false? There is a strong positive correlation between IQ and academic achievement.

Back 954

True. IQ correlates well with education and academic achievement but is not a predictor of success.

Front 955

What is the term for headaches, inability to concentrate, sleep disturbances; avoidance of associated stimuli; reliving events as dreams or flashbacks following a psychologically stressful event beyond the normal range of expectation?

Back 955

Posttraumatic stress disorder. (Important: symptoms must be exhibited for longer than 1 month.)

Front 956

What is the term for a schizophrenic episode lasting longer than 30 days with full return to former functioning capacity?

Back 956

Brief psychotic disorder. (In schizophreniform disorder the symptoms last longer than 6 months.)

Front 957

What is the primary method of nonverbal communication of emotional states?

Back 957

Facial expression (the second is vocal intonation)

Front 958

What type of mortality rate is defined as the number of deaths • In the population?

Back 958

Crude mortality rate

Front 959

What type of mortality rate is defined as the number of deaths • From a specific cause per population?

Back 959

Cause-specific mortality rate

Front 960

What type of mortality rate is defined as the number of deaths • From a specific cause per all deaths?

Back 960

Proportionate mortality rate

Front 961

What type of mortality rate is defined as the number of deaths • From a specific cause per number of persons with the disease?

Back 961

Case fatality rate

Front 962

Does being a female physician increase or decrease the risk of suicide?

Back 962

Being a female physician increases the risk of suicide nearly four times the general population.

Front 963

Are sexually abused females more likely to have learning disabilities than the general population?

Back 963

Yes, by three to four times. Having multiple sexual partners, being overweight, and pelvic pain and/or inflammatory disorders are also likely to be seen in sexually abused females.

Front 964

What form of bias is due to false estimates of survival rates?

Back 964

Lead-time bias (remember, patients don't live longer with the disease; they are diagnosed sooner.)

Front 965

The probability that a person with a positive test result is truly positive refers to what value?

Back 965

Positive predictive value

Front 966

Objective tests that base the result of the examination on a preset standard use what form of reference?

Back 966

Criterion-referenced tests. You need a certain number correct to pass (e.g., the USMLE).

Front 967

True or false? A patient can refuse a feeding tube.

Back 967

True. It is considered medical treatment, so it can be withdrawn or refused. (Remember the Cruzan case.)

Front 968

What are the CAGE questions?

Back 968

Cut down (ever tried and failed?) Annoyed (criticism makes angry?) Guilty (about drinking behavior?) Eye opener (drinking to shake out the cobwebs?)

Front 969

What type of scale is graded into equal increments, showing not only any difference but how much?

Back 969

Interval scale (a ruler, for example)

Front 970

With what stage of sleep are bruxisms associated?

Back 970

Teeth grinding is associated with stage 2 sleep.

Front 971

What rate is indicated by 1- sensitivity?

Back 971

False-negative rate

Front 972

What drug is being given to HIV-positive mothers during labor and to the children after birth to decrease the risk of mother-to-child HIV transmission?

Back 972

Nevirapine; it cuts the rate from 20% to 10%. AZT is also used, cutting the rate from 20% to 10%.

Front 973

What is the name of depression and mania alternating within a 48-to 72-hour period?

Back 973

Rapid cycling bipolar disorder

Front 974

Aroused EEG pattern (fast low voltage and desynchronization), saccadic eye movements, ability to dream, and sexual arousal are all associated with what general pattern of sleep?

Back 974

REM sleep. Remember, awake brain in a sleeping body.

Front 975

What is the teratogenic effect associated with lithium?

Back 975

Epstein-cardiac anomaly of the tricuspid valve

Front 976

What is the triad of NPH?

Back 976

Dementia Urinary incontinence Gait apraxia (NPH wet, wacky, wobbly)

Front 977

True or false? Only men have refractory sexual periods.

Back 977

Sad but true. Some women can have multiple successive orgasms.

Front 978

In which syndrome does a person present with intentionally produced physical ailments with the intent to assume the sick role?

Back 978

Münchhausen's syndrome (factitious disorder)

Front 979

Name these mature defense mechanisms: • Preparing for an upcoming event

Back 979

Anticipation

Front 980

Name these mature defense mechanisms: • Helping others without expecting any return

Back 980

Altruism

Front 981

Name these mature defense mechanisms: • Converting an unacceptable impulse to a socially acceptable form (Hint: it is the most mature of all defense mechanisms)

Back 981

Sublimation

Front 982

Name these mature defense mechanisms: • Forgetting on purpose (so you can actually remember it)

Back 982

Suppression

Front 983

Name these mature defense mechanisms: • Easing anxiety with laughter

Back 983

Humor

Front 984

Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described: • Speech; critical for personality, concentration, initiating and stopping tasks (do one thing and begin a new without completion of the first), abstract thought, and memory and higher-order mental functions

Back 984

Frontal lobe

Front 985

Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described: • Language, memory, and emotion (Hint: herpesvirus infects here commonly)

Back 985

Temporal lobe

Front 986

Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described: • Intellectual processing of sensory information, with the left (dominant) processing verbal information, the right processing visual-spatial orientation

Back 986

Parietal lobe

Front 987

Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described: • Initiation and control of movements

Back 987

Basal ganglia

Front 988

Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described: • Skill-based memory, verbal recall, balance, refined voluntary movements

Back 988

Cerebellum

Front 989

Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described: • Important for REM sleep; origin of NE pathway

Back 989

Pons

Front 990

Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described: • Motivation, memory, emotions, violent behaviors, sociosexual behaviors, conditioned responses

Back 990

Limbic system

Front 991

Name the area of the cerebral cortex with the function described: • Recall of objects, distances, and scenes; visual input processed here

Back 991

Occipital lobe

Front 992

What is the degree to which two measures are related? Does it imply causation?

Back 992

Correlation. No, correlation does not imply causation.

Front 993

What is the most common form of dementia?

Back 993

Alzheimer's (dementia of Alzheimer's type, DAT). (Remember, Alzheimer's constitutes 65% of dementias seen in patients 65 years old.)

Front 994

What is the only drug that does not have an intoxication?

Back 994

Nicotine (but it sure has a nasty withdrawal!)

Front 995

What is the term to describe homosexuals who • Are comfortable with their own person and agree with their sense of self?

Back 995

Ego syntonic

Front 996

What is the term to describe homosexuals who • Are uncomfortable with their own person and disagree with their sense of self?

Back 996

Ego dystonic

Front 997

Which benzodiazepine has the shortest half-life?

Back 997

Triazolam

Front 998

What statistical test compares the means of groups generated by two nominal variables by using an interval variable?

Back 998

Two-way ANOVA. It allows the test to check several variables at the same time.

Front 999

What are the two ways to leave the prevalence pot?

Back 999

Recovery and death

Front 1000

What aspects of sleep are affected during benzodiazepine use?

Back 1000

REM and stage 4 sleep; they decrease.

Front 1001

What is the term to describe a man who has • Never been able to achieve an erection?

Back 1001

Primary erectile disorder

Front 1002

What is the term to describe a man who has • The ability to have an erection sometimes and other times not?

Back 1002

Selective erectile disorder

Front 1003

What is the term to describe a man who has • Used to be able to achieve an erection but now cannot?

Back 1003

Secondary erectile disorder (Male erectile disorder is the same as impotence.)

Front 1004

What stage of sleep is associated with somnambulism?

Back 1004

Sleepwalking is associated with stage 4 and occurs most often in the first third of sleep.

Front 1005

What are the three surrogate criteria?

Back 1005

1. What did the patient want? 2. What would the patient say? 3. What is in the patient's best interests?

Front 1006

True or false? Four-fifths of those who attempt suicide first give a warning.

Back 1006

True; 80% have visited a doctor in the previous 6 months. And 50% within the last month!

Front 1007

Can a patient refuse life-saving treatment for religious reasons?

Back 1007

Yes. (Remember, Jehovah's witnesses refuse blood transfusions.)

Front 1008

What form of bias occurs when the experimenter's expectation inadvertently is expressed to the subjects, producing the desired effects? How can it be eliminated?

Back 1008

Pygmalion effect (experimenter expectancy). This can be eliminated with double-blind studies.

Front 1009

What type of hallucination occurs during awakening?

Back 1009

Hypnopompic hallucinations occur during awakening, whereas hypnagogic hallucinations occur while one is falling asleep.

Front 1010

When attempting to make up sleep, what stage of sleep is recovered?

Back 1010

About 80% of stage 4 sleep is recovered, approximately half of REM is recovered, and only one-third of total sleep is ever made up.

Front 1011

What is backward masking, and is there a positive correlation with schizophrenic patients?

Back 1011

When showing two pictures in rapid succession, you split the pictures half a second apart, resulting in the second picture masking the first (indicating poor short-term memory). This is seen in nearly 33% of schizophrenic patients.

Front 1012

True or false? Being single increases your risk of suicide.

Back 1012

False. Separation, divorce, being widowed, and unemployment increase your risk, but being single does not.

Front 1013

True or false? Serious psychiatric illness is more common after abortion than childbirth.

Back 1013

False. Childbirth carries five times as much risk of serious psychiatric illness as abortion.

Front 1014

What type of error is made if you accept the null hypothesis when it is false?

Back 1014

Type II error (beta error). (Remember it as saying something doesn't work when it does.)

Front 1015

Most sleep time is spent in what stage of sleep?

Back 1015

Stage 2, which accounts for approximately 45% of total sleep time, with REM occupying 20%.

Front 1016

In a negatively skewed curve is the mean greater than the mode?

Back 1016

Yes. In a negatively skewed distribution the mean is greater than the median is greater than the mode.

Front 1017

What axis I disorder is characterized by a clinically significant syndrome that affects social, occupational, and/or academic achievement; occurs less than 3 months after a stressor; and abates less than 6 months after the stressor is removed?

Back 1017

Adjustment disorder. It is a diagnosis of exclusion (used if no other choice).

Front 1018

What type of personality test is the Rorschach inkblot test, objective or projective?

Back 1018

Projective test. Most tests with a wide range of possibilities for the answers are projective.

Front 1019

What statistical test checks to see whether the groups are different by comparing the means of two groups from a single nominal variable?

Back 1019

The T-test (used when comparing two groups)

Front 1020

What antipsychotic movement disorder can occur at any time and is characterized by a subjective sense of discomfort that brings on restlessness, pacing, sitting down, and getting up?

Back 1020

Akathisia

Front 1021

What form of depression is due to abnormal metabolism of melatonin?

Back 1021

Seasonal affective disorder (treat with bright light therapy)

Front 1022

What three circumstances allow a child to be committed to institutional care?

Back 1022

1. The child poses an imminent danger to self or others. 2. The child is unable to self-care daily at the appropriate developmental level. 3. The parents or guardians have no control over the child or will not promise to ensure the child's safety even though they refuse hospitalization.

Front 1023

What operant conditioning therapy or modification is described as • Reinforcing successive attempts that lead to the desired goal (gradual improvement)?

Back 1023

Shaping (successive approximation)

Front 1024

What operant conditioning therapy or modification is described as • Having a stimulus take over the control of the behavior (unintentionally)?

Back 1024

Stimulus control

Front 1025

What operant conditioning therapy or modification is described as • Providing the person with information regarding his or her internal responses to stimuli with methods of controlling them?

Back 1025

Biofeedback

Front 1026

What operant conditioning therapy or modification is described as • Removing a reinforcement (without the patient knowing) gradually over time to stop a condition?

Back 1026

Fading

Front 1027

What operant conditioning therapy or modification is described as • Stopping the reinforcement that is leading to an undesired behavior?

Back 1027

Extinction

Front 1028

The DSM-IV-TR is scored on the basis of five axes of diagnosis. In what axis would you place • Psychosocial and environmental problems (stressors)?

Back 1028

Axis IV

Front 1029

The DSM-IV-TR is scored on the basis of five axes of diagnosis. In what axis would you place • Medical or physical ailments?

Back 1029

Axis III

Front 1030

The DSM-IV-TR is scored on the basis of five axes of diagnosis. In what axis would you place • Personality and mental disorders?

Back 1030

Axis II

Front 1031

The DSM-IV-TR is scored on the basis of five axes of diagnosis. In what axis would you place • Global assessment of function?

Back 1031

Axis V

Front 1032

The DSM-IV-TR is scored on the basis of five axes of diagnosis. In what axis would you place • Clinical disorders (e.g., schizophrenia)?

Back 1032

Axis I

Front 1033

Should you refer a patient to a form of folk medicine even if you don't believe in it?

Back 1033

Actually, yes. You should encourage your patient to try other forms of medicine as long as they are not contraindicated with the patient's preexisting illness. You must be able to accept the health beliefs of your patients, even if you don't agree.

Front 1034

In regard to motor development during infancy, choose the motor response that happens first. • Release or grasp

Back 1034

Grasp proceeds release

Front 1035

In regard to motor development during infancy, choose the motor response that happens first. • Proximal or distal progression

Back 1035

Proximal to distal progression

Front 1036

In regard to motor development during infancy, choose the motor response that happens first. • Radial or ulnar progression

Back 1036

Ulnar to radial progression

Front 1037

In regard to motor development during infancy, choose the motor response that happens first. • Palms up or down

Back 1037

Palms-up before palms-down maneuvers

Front 1038

What are the strongest determinants of gender identity?

Back 1038

Parental assignment and culture (not biology)

Front 1039

With what stage of sleep are night terrors associated?

Back 1039

NREM sleep. Night terrors are dreams that we are unable to recall.

Front 1040

What type of bias is it when the information is distorted because of the way it is gathered?

Back 1040

Measurement bias

Front 1041

What term describes senseless repetition of words or phrases?

Back 1041

Verbigeration

Front 1042

Who decides competency and sanity?

Back 1042

The courts. These are legal, not medical terms.

Front 1043

Name these narcissistic defense mechanisms: • Everything in the world is perceived as either good or bad . No middle ground; it is all extremes.

Back 1043

Splitting

Front 1044

Name these narcissistic defense mechanisms: • Not allowing reality to penetrate because afraid of becoming aware of painful aspect of reality.

Back 1044

Denial

Front 1045

Name these narcissistic defense mechanisms: • Person takes his or her own feelings, beliefs, wishes, and so on and thinks they are someone else's. (e.g., a cheating man thinks his wife is unfaithful)

Back 1045

Projection

Front 1046

Which is the conditioned response, the conditioned stimulus, the unconditioned response, the unconditioned stimulus in this case? A patient has blood withdrawn and faints. The next time she goes to have blood taken, she faints at the sight of the needle.

Back 1046

The blood withdrawn is the unconditioned stimulus, inducing the unconditioned response (fainting). The needle is part of the blood-drawing procedure and is the conditioned stimulus (unconditioned and conditioned stimuli are paired) resulting in the conditioned response (fainting at the sight of the needle).

Front 1047

What three actions should take place when one person threatens the life of another? (Hint: think of the Tarasoff decision.)

Back 1047

1. Notify police. 2. Try to detain the person making the threat. 3. Notify the threatened victim.

Front 1048

Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the description of the effects, symptoms, and results of the lesion. • Apathy, aggression, inability to learn new material, and memory problems

Back 1048

Limbic system

Front 1049

Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the description of the effects, symptoms, and results of the lesion. • Apathy, poor grooming, poor ability to think abstractly, decreased drive, poor attention span (Hint: if the lesion is in the dominant hemisphere, the patient will develop Broca's aphasia)

Back 1049

Dorsal prefrontal cortex

Front 1050

Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the description of the effects, symptoms, and results of the lesion. • Euphoria, delusions, thought disorders, Wernicke's aphasia, auditory hallucinations (Hint: the lesion is in the left hemisphere)

Back 1050

Dominant temporal lobe

Front 1051

Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the description of the effects, symptoms, and results of the lesion. • Agraphia, acalculia, finger agnosia, right–left disorientation

Back 1051

Dominant parietal lobe (Gerstmann's syndrome)

Front 1052

Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the description of the effects, symptoms, and results of the lesion. • Withdrawn, fearful, explosive moods, violent outbursts, and loss of inhibitions

Back 1052

Orbitomedial frontal lobe

Front 1053

Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the description of the effects, symptoms, and results of the lesion. • Denial of illness, hemineglect, construction apraxia (can't arrange matchsticks)

Back 1053

Nondominant parietal lobe

Front 1054

Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the description of the effects, symptoms, and results of the lesion. • Denies being blind, cortical blindness

Back 1054

Occipital lobe (Anton's syndrome if it is due to bilateral posterior cerebral artery occlusions)

Front 1055

Name the area of the cerebral cortex affected by the description of the effects, symptoms, and results of the lesion. • Dysphoria, irritability, musical and visual abilities decreased

Back 1055

Nondominant temporal lobe

Front 1056

What hormone's release is strongly associated with stage 4 sleep?

Back 1056

GH. The largest output of GH in a 24-hour period is during stage 4 sleep.

Front 1057

What is the male-to-female ratio for committing suicide?

Back 1057

M:F 4:1 committing, but M:F ratio of attempts is 1:3 (males commit more but females try it more)

Front 1058

What is the term for the total percentage of correct answers selected on a screening test?

Back 1058

Accuracy (think of it as all the trues, because they are the ones correctly identified)

Front 1059

What type of error is made if you reject the null hypothesis when it is true?

Back 1059

Type I error (alpha error). (Remember it as saying something works when it doesn't.) The chance of a type I error occurring is the P value.

Front 1060

If one event precludes another event, their probabilities are combined by what method?

Back 1060

Addition (They are mutually exclusive.)

Front 1061

True or false? Marriage emancipates a child less than 17 years old.

Back 1061

True; military service and independent self-care by a child over 13 years old also emancipate.

Front 1062

What term describes the inability to recall personal information, commonly associated with trauma?

Back 1062

Amnesia. (The person is aware of the memory loss.)

Front 1063

What is the most stressful event as determined by the Holmes and Rahe scale?

Back 1063

The death of a spouse. The higher the score, the greater the risk of developing an illness in the next 6 months.

Front 1064

What renal side effect is commonly seen in patients taking lithium?

Back 1064

Nearly 25% of patients taking lithium develop polyuria and polydipsia.

Front 1065

What statistical test, using nominal data only, checks whether two variables are independent events?

Back 1065

Chi-square (when you are in doubt and have nominal data, use chi-square)

Front 1066

What is the term for repetitive actions blocking recurring bad thoughts?

Back 1066

Compulsions. They are actions done to fix the bad thoughts. Obsessions are the thoughts.

Front 1067

True or false? A patient has to prove his or her competency.

Back 1067

False. You need clear evidence the patient is not competent; if you are unsure, assume the patient is competent.

Front 1068

True or false? Panic attacks can be induced by hyperventilation or carbon dioxide.

Back 1068

True. Yohimbine, sodium lactate, and epinephrine can also induce panic attacks; they are considered panicogens.

Front 1069

In what study, for ethical reasons, is no group left out of intervention?

Back 1069

Crossover study

Front 1070

Shuffling gait, cogwheel rigidity, masklike facies, pill-rolling tremor, and bradykinesia describe what form of dementia?

Back 1070

Parkinson's disease

Front 1071

Anhedonia, lack of motivation, feelings of worthlessness, decreased sex drive, insomnia, and recurrent thoughts for at least 2 weeks, representing a change from previous level of function, describes what disorder?

Back 1071

Unipolar disorder (major depression)

Front 1072

What form of dementia is characterized by onset at age 40 to 50, rapid progression, infection by a prion, and death within 2 years?

Back 1072

Creutzfeldt-Jakob's disease. Patients first develop vague somatic complaints and anxiety, rapidly followed by dysarthria, myoclonus, ataxia, and choreoathetosis.

Front 1073

The most frequent number occurring in a population is what?

Back 1073

Mode

Front 1074

Movement disorders are associated with what dopamine pathway (what part of the brain)?

Back 1074

Nigrostriatal pathways (basal ganglia)

Front 1075

What neurotransmitter is associated with sedation and weight gain?

Back 1075

Histamine

Front 1076

The probability that a person with a negative test result is truly disease free refers to what value?

Back 1076

Negative predictive value

Front 1077

What are the five Kübler-Ross stages of death and dying? Must they be completed in order?

Back 1077

Denial Anger Bargaining Depression Acceptance No, they can be skipped, repeated, and completed out of sequence.

Front 1078

What P value defines whether the hull hypothesis should or should not be rejected?

Back 1078

P = .05; P < .05 rejects the null hypothesis

Front 1079

What hormone level increases in the first 3 hours of sleep?

Back 1079

Prolactin

Front 1080

What is the most widely used class of antidepressants?

Back 1080

SSRIs

Front 1081

What happens to prevalence as the number of long-term survivors increases?

Back 1081

Prevalence increases. (Remember, prevalence can decrease in only two ways, recovery and death.)

Front 1082

What is the primary predisposing factor for vascular dementia?

Back 1082

Hypertension

Front 1083

What paraphilia is defined as • Sexual urges toward children?

Back 1083

Pedophilia

Front 1084

What paraphilia is defined as • Deriving sexual pleasure from watching others having sex, grooming, or undressing?

Back 1084

Voyeurism

Front 1085

What paraphilia is defined as • Having a recurrent desire to expose the genitals to strangers?

Back 1085

Exhibitionism

Front 1086

What paraphilia is defined as • Deriving sexual pleasure from other peoples' pain?

Back 1086

Sadism

Front 1087

What paraphilia is defined as • Deriving sexual pleasure from being abused or in pain?

Back 1087

Masochism

Front 1088

What paraphilia is defined as • Having sex with cadavers?

Back 1088

Necrophilia

Front 1089

What paraphilia is defined as • Sexual fantasies or practices with animals?

Back 1089

Zoophilia

Front 1090

What paraphilia is defined as • Combining sex with defecation?

Back 1090

Coprophilia

Front 1091

What paraphilia is defined as • Combining sex with urination?

Back 1091

Urophilia

Front 1092

What paraphilia is defined as • A male rubbing his genitals on a fully clothed female to achieve orgasm?

Back 1092

Frotteurism

Front 1093

Name the neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junctions for all of the voluntary muscles in the body.

Back 1093

ACh; think about the ANS.

Front 1094

What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with • α1-Blockers?

Back 1094

Impaired ejaculation

Front 1095

What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with • Serotonin?

Back 1095

Inhibited orgasm

Front 1096

What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with • β-Blockers?

Back 1096

Impotence

Front 1097

What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with • Trazodone?

Back 1097

Priapism

Front 1098

What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with • Dopamine agonists?

Back 1098

Increased erection and libido

Front 1099

What are the pharmacologic effects seen sexually with • Neuroleptics?

Back 1099

Erectile dysfunction

Front 1100

What is the term for the point on a scale that divides the population into two equal parts?

Back 1100

Median (think of it as the halfway point)

Front 1101

True or false? Pregnancy ensures emancipation.

Back 1101

FALSE

Front 1102

True or false? Paranoid and catatonic schizophrenia are good prognostic predictors.

Back 1102

True. Being female, having positive symptoms, quick onset, and family history of mood disorders are all good prognostic predictors of schizophrenia.

Front 1103

What happens to prevalence as incidence increases?

Back 1103

Prevalence increases.

Front 1104

What type of correlation compares two interval variables?

Back 1104

Pearson correlation

Front 1105

What term is defined as a patient unconsciously placing his or her thoughts and feelings on the physician in a caregiver or parent role?

Back 1105

Transference. When it is from the physician to the patient it is called countertransference.

Front 1106

What phase of Food and Drug Administration approval tests • The efficacy and occurrence of side effects in large group of patient volunteers?

Back 1106

Phase III. It is considered the definitive test.

Front 1107

What phase of Food and Drug Administration approval tests • The safety in healthy volunteers?

Back 1107

Phase I

Front 1108

What phase of Food and Drug Administration approval tests • The protocol and dose levels in a small group of patient volunteers?

Back 1108

Phase II

Front 1109

In biostatistics, what are the three criteria required to increase power?

Back 1109

1. Large sample size 2. Large effect size 3. Type I error is greater

Front 1110

If the occurrence of one event had nothing to do with the occurrence of another event, how do you combine their probabilities?

Back 1110

Since they are independent events, their probabilities would be multiplied.

Front 1111

What type of random controlled test is least subjective to bias?

Back 1111

Double-blind study. It is the most scientifically rigorous study known.

Front 1112

Why isn't the incidence of a disease decreased when a new treatment is initiated?

Back 1112

Because incidence is defined as new events; treatment does not decrease the number of new events. It does decrease the number of individuals with the event (prevalence would decrease).

Front 1113

What are the three posttranscriptional modifications?

Back 1113

1. 7-methyl guanine cap on the 5' end 2. Addition of the poly(A) tail to the 3' end 3. Removal of introns

Front 1114

What AA is the major carrier of nitrogen byproducts from most tissues in the body?

Back 1114

Glutamine

Front 1115

What two AAs have a pKa of 4?

Back 1115

Aspartic acid and glutamic acid

Front 1116

How many acetyl CoAs per glucose enter into the TCA cycle?

Back 1116

2 acetyl CoA per glucose, producing 12 ATPs per acetyl CoA, resulting in a total of 24 ATPs produced from glucose (via acetyl CoA) enter the TCA cycle

Front 1117

What topoisomerase makes ssDNA cuts, requires no ATP, relaxes supercoils, and acts as the swivel in front of the replication fork?

Back 1117

Topoisomerase I (Relaxase)

Front 1118

In prokaryotes, what is the name of the RNA sequence that ribosomes bind to so translation can occur?

Back 1118

Shine-Dalgarno sequence

Front 1119

Name the pattern of genetic transmission: both M and F are affected; M-to-M transmission may be present; both parents must be carriers; the trait skips generations; two mutant alleles are needed for disease; and affected children may be born of unaffected adults?

Back 1119

Autosomal recessive

Front 1120

What factors are needed for translation in prokaryotes?

Back 1120

Elongation factor-G and GTP

Front 1121

What three AAs must patients with maple syrup urine disease not eat?

Back 1121

Isoleucine, leucine, and valine

Front 1122

How many high-energy bonds are used to activate an AA?

Back 1122

2 ATPs, via the amino acyl tRNA synthase enzyme

Front 1123

What water-soluble vitamin deficiency results in pellagra?

Back 1123

Niacin (B3)

Front 1124

What glycolytic enzyme has a high Vmax, high Km, and low affinity for glucose?

Back 1124

Glucokinase

Front 1125

How many ATPs are generated per acetyl coenzyme A (CoA)?

Back 1125

12 ATPs per acetyl CoA that enter the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle (Krebs cycle)

Front 1126

What cytoplasmic pathway produces NADPH and is a source of ribose 5-phosphate?

Back 1126

HMP shunt

Front 1127

What is the main inhibitor of pyruvate dehydrogenase?

Back 1127

Acetyl CoA (pyruvate to acetyl CoA)

Front 1128

Where on the codon and anticodon does the wobble hypothesis take place?

Back 1128

3'end of the codon (third position) on mRNA and 5' end of the anticodon (first position) on tRNA.

Front 1129

What DNA excision and repair enzyme is deficient in patients with xeroderma pigmentosum?

Back 1129

Excision endonuclease, which removes thiamine dimers from DNA

Front 1130

What form of bilirubin is carried on albumin?

Back 1130

Unconjugated (indirect)

Front 1131

What are the two ketogenic AAs?

Back 1131

Leucine and lysine

Front 1132

Which organisms have polycistronic mRNA?

Back 1132

Prokaryotes. Polycistronic and prokaryotes both start with P.

Front 1133

As what compound do the carbons for fatty acid synthesis leave the mitochondria?

Back 1133

Citrate, via the citrate shuttle

Front 1134

What four substances increase the rate of gluconeogenesis?

Back 1134

1. Glucagon 2. NADH 3. Acetyl CoA 4. ATP

Front 1135

With what three enzymes is thiamin pyrophosphate (TPP) associated?

Back 1135

1. α-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase 2. Pyruvate dehydrogenase 3. Transketolase Thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP) functions as a coenzyme vital to tissue respiration. It is required for the oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate to form acetyl-coenzyme A, providing entry of oxidizable substrate into the Krebs cycle for the generation of energy

Front 1136

What test uses very small amounts of DNA that can be amplified and analyzed without the use of Southern blotting or cloning?

Back 1136

PCR

Front 1137

What apoprotein is required for the release of chylomicrons from the epithelial cells into the lymphatics?

Back 1137

apo B-48

Front 1138

What enzyme catalyzes the covalent bonding of the AA's carboxyl group to the 3' end of tRNA?

Back 1138

Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase, which uses 2 ATPs for this reaction.

Front 1139

What must be supplemented in patients with medium-chain acyl CoA dehydrogenase (MCAD) deficiency?

Back 1139

Short-chain fatty acids

Front 1140

What form of AA is found only in collagen?

Back 1140

Hydroxyproline

Front 1141

In a diabetic patient, to what does aldose reductase convert glucose?

Back 1141

Sorbitol (resulting in cataracts)

Front 1142

What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in cholesterol metabolism?

Back 1142

HMG-CoA reductase

Front 1143

What is the term for the pH at which the structure carries no charge?

Back 1143

pI (isoelectric point)

Front 1144

What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in gluconeogenesis?

Back 1144

Fructose-1, 6-bisphosphatase

Front 1145

What is the drug of choice in treating a patient with hyperuricemia due to underexcretion of uric acid?

Back 1145

Probenecid, a uricosuric agent

Front 1146

What enzyme deficiency results in darkening of the urine when exposed to air?

Back 1146

Homogentisate oxidase deficiency is seen in patients with alcaptonuria.

Front 1147

In eukaryotes, what transcription factor binds to the TATA box before RNA polymerase II can bind?

Back 1147

Transcription factor IID

Front 1148

What enzyme produces an RNA primer in the 5'-3' direction and is essential to DNA replication because DNA polymerases are unable to synthesize DNA without an RNA primer?

Back 1148

Primase

Front 1149

What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in fatty acid synthesis?

Back 1149

Acetyl CoA carboxylase

Front 1150

Name the eukaryotic DNA polymerase based on the following information: • Replicates mitochondrial DNA

Back 1150

DNA polymerase-γ

Front 1151

Name the eukaryotic DNA polymerase based on the following information: • Synthesizes the lagging strand during replication

Back 1151

DNA polymerase-α

Front 1152

Name the eukaryotic DNA polymerase based on the following information: • Synthesizes the leading strand during replication

Back 1152

DNA polymerase-δ

Front 1153

What is the order of fuel use in a prolonged fast?

Back 1153

1. Glucose from liver glycogen 2. Glucose from gluconeogenesis 3. Body protein 4. Body fat

Front 1154

Which way will the O2 dissociation curve shift with the addition of 2, 3-bisphosphoglycerate (2, 3-BPG) to adult hemoglobin (Hgb)?

Back 1154

Shifts it to the right

Front 1155

What enzyme of pyrimidine synthesis is inhibited by the following? • 5-FU

Back 1155

Thymidylate synthase

Front 1156

What enzyme of pyrimidine synthesis is inhibited by the following? • Methotrexate

Back 1156

Dihydrofolate reductase

Front 1157

What enzyme of pyrimidine synthesis is inhibited by the following? • Hydroxyurea

Back 1157

Ribonucleotide reductase

Front 1158

What is found in the R group if the AA is acidic? Basic?

Back 1158

If a carboxyl group is the R group, it is acidic; if an amino group is the R group, it is said to be basic.

Front 1159

What gluconeogenic mitochondrial enzyme requires biotin?

Back 1159

Pyruvate carboxylase

Front 1160

What factors are needed for translocation in eukaryotes?

Back 1160

EF-2 and GTP

Front 1161

DNA replication occurs during what phase of the cell cycle?

Back 1161

S phase

Front 1162

What is the end product of purine catabolism?

Back 1162

Uric acid

Front 1163

What causes transcription to stop in eukaryotes?

Back 1163

The poly(A) site on the DNA

Front 1164

What enzyme of the TCA cycle catalyzes the production of the following: • FADH2

Back 1164

Succinate dehydrogenase

Front 1165

What enzyme of the TCA cycle catalyzes the production of the following: • GTP

Back 1165

Succinyl CoA synthetase

Front 1166

What enzyme of the TCA cycle catalyzes the production of the following: • NADH (hint: 3 enzymes)

Back 1166

Isocitrate dehydrogenase, α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase, and malate dehydrogenase

Front 1167

What form of alcohol causes blindness?

Back 1167

Methanol (wood alcohol)

Front 1168

How many base pairs upstream is the prokaryotic TATA box promoter?

Back 1168

There are two bacterial promoter regions upstream. The TATA box is - 10 base pairs upstream, and the -35 promoter site is self-explanatory.

Front 1169

What are the two essential fatty acids?

Back 1169

Linoleic acid and linolenic acid

Front 1170

During a prolonged fast, why is the brain unable to use fatty acids?

Back 1170

Fatty acids cannot cross the blood-brain barrier; therefore, they cannot be used as an energy source.

Front 1171

What type of jaundice is seen in Rotor's syndrome?

Back 1171

Conjugated (direct) hyperbilirubinemia

Front 1172

If a sample of DNA has 30% T, what is the percent of C?

Back 1172

Solved as 30% T + 30% A = 60%; therefore, C + G = 40%; then C = 20% and G = 20% (example of Chargaff's rule)

Front 1173

From where is the energy for gluconeogenesis derived?

Back 1173

β-Oxidation of fatty acids

Front 1174

Name the type of mutation: • The deletion or addition of a base

Back 1174

Frameshift

Front 1175

Name the type of mutation: New codon specifies a different AA

Back 1175

Missense

Front 1176

Name the type of mutation: • Unequal crossover in meiosis with loss of protein function

Back 1176

Large segment deletions

Front 1177

Name the type of mutation: • New codon specifies for the same AA

Back 1177

Silent

Front 1178

Name the type of mutation: • New codon specifies for a stop codon

Back 1178

Nonsense

Front 1179

What form of bilirubin can cross the blood-brain barrier?

Back 1179

Unconjugated free bilirubin

Front 1180

What AA is broken down into N2O, causing an increase in cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) of smooth muscle, hence vasodilation?

Back 1180

Arginine

Front 1181

What three things are needed to produce a double bond in a fatty acid chain in the endoplasmic reticulum?

Back 1181

NADPH, O2, and cytochrome b5

Front 1182

What are the vitamin K–dependent coagulation factors?

Back 1182

Factors II, VII, IX, X, and proteins C and S

Front 1183

Is the hydroxyl (–OH) end of DNA and RNA at the 3' or the 5' end?

Back 1183

3' end. Phosphate (PO4) is at the 5' end.

Front 1184

How many codons code for AAs? How many for termination of translation?

Back 1184

61 codons code for AAs and 3 codons (UAA, UGA, UAG) code for the termination of translation.

Front 1185

What is the enzyme for the oxidative reaction in glycolysis?

Back 1185

Glyceraldehyde dehydrogenase

Front 1186

What substrate builds up in Tay-Sachs disease?

Back 1186

GM2 ganglioside Caused by a deficiency of β-hexosaminidase A

Front 1187

What pattern of genetic transmission is characterized by no transmission from M, maternal inheritance, and the potential for the disease to affect both sons and daughters of affected F?

Back 1187

Mitochondrial inheritance

Front 1188

What is the rate-limiting enzyme of glycogen synthesis?

Back 1188

Glycogen synthase

Front 1189

What sphingolipid is formed by the union of serine and palmitoyl CoA?

Back 1189

Sphingosine

Front 1190

What causes an increase in bone mineralization and Ca2+ along with PO4- absorption from the GI tract and kidney tubules?

Back 1190

Vitamin D

Front 1191

What two sugars can be used to produce cerebrosides?

Back 1191

Glucose and galactose

Front 1192

What group of eukaryotic regulatory proteins has a major factor in controlling the gene expression embryonically?

Back 1192

Homeodomain proteins

Front 1193

What causes the lysis of RBCs by oxidizing agents in a G-6-PD deficiency?

Back 1193

The lack of glutathione peroxidase activity results in a decrease in NADPH production, leaving glutathione in the reduced state.

Front 1194

All AAs have titration plateaus at what pH values?

Back 1194

pH of 2 and 9

Front 1195

What cytoplasmic organelle carries the enzymes for elongation and desaturation of fatty acyl CoA?

Back 1195

SER

Front 1196

What is the binding site for RNA polymerase?

Back 1196

The promoter indicates where transcription will begin.

Front 1197

What vitamin is necessary for epithelial health?

Back 1197

Vitamin A is responsible for vision and epithelial health.

Front 1198

What lipoprotein is formed if an IDL particle acquires cholesterol from a HDL particle?

Back 1198

LDL

Front 1199

What structure of a protein describes the interaction among subunits?

Back 1199

Quaternary structure

Front 1200

What is the only factor of enzyme kinetics that the enzyme affects?

Back 1200

Ea (activation energy)

Front 1201

Is the Lac operon activated or inactivated in the presence of both glucose and lactose?

Back 1201

Inactivated; glucose results in decreased cAMP levels and therefore blocks protein binding between cAMP and CAP.

Front 1202

At the end of each round of β-oxidation, what is released?

Back 1202

Acetyl CoA, FADH2, and NADH

Front 1203

What is the rate-limiting enzyme on glycolysis?

Back 1203

Phosphofructokinase-1 and costs 1 ATP

Front 1204

What enzyme of heme synthesis is deficient in the autosomal dominant disorder acute intermittent porphyria?

Back 1204

Uroporphyrinogen-I synthase

Front 1205

What enzyme is blocked by disulfiram?

Back 1205

Aldehyde dehydrogenase

Front 1206

Deficiencies in what enzyme result in insoluble glycogen synthesis formation?

Back 1206

α-1, 6 transferase

Front 1207

What eukaryotic translation enzyme is associated with the following: • Initiation

Back 1207

eIF-2 in the P site

Front 1208

What eukaryotic translation enzyme is associated with the following: • Elongation

Back 1208

eEF-1

Front 1209

What eukaryotic translation enzyme is associated with the following: • Termination

Back 1209

No enzymes are needed. When the stop codon reaches the A site, it results in termination.

Front 1210

What AA undergoes N-glycosylation?

Back 1210

Asparagine

Front 1211

What is the pyrimidine intermediate that joins PRPP (5-Phosphoribosyl-1-Pyrophosphate)?

Back 1211

Orotic acid (purine metabolism)

Front 1212

What intermediate of cholesterol synthesis anchors proteins in the membranes and forms CoA?

Back 1212

Farnesyl pyrophosphate (FPP)

Front 1213

What AA is a phenol?

Back 1213

Tyrosine

Front 1214

What hormone is activated in adipose tissue when blood glucose levels decrease?

Back 1214

Hormone-sensitive lipase

Front 1215

How many NADPHs are used per addition of acetyl CoA into a fatty acid chain?

Back 1215

2 NADPHs per acetyl CoA

Front 1216

What factors are needed for elongation in eukaryotes?

Back 1216

EF-1 and GTP

Front 1217

What purine base is contained in inosine monophosphate?

Back 1217

Hypoxanthine (remember, IMP is a precursor for AMP and GMP)

Front 1218

What are the two ways that nitrogen can enter into the urea cycle?

Back 1218

Aspartate and carbomoyl PO4-

Front 1219

What two requirements must be met for the Lac operon to be activated?

Back 1219

Lactose must be present and glucose must be absent

Front 1220

Name the phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle: • Period of cellular growth (translation and transcription) before DNA synthesis

Back 1220

G1 phase (gap 1)

Front 1221

Name the phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle: • Period of cellular growth (translation and transcription) after DNA synthesis

Back 1221

G2 phase (gap 2)

Front 1222

Name the phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle: • Period of DNA replication (preparing for mitosis)

Back 1222

S phase

Front 1223

Name the phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle: • Cells cease replicating (i.e., nerve cell)

Back 1223

G0 phase

Front 1224

True or false? RBCs anaerobically use glucose in both the well-fed and fasting states.

Back 1224

True. Remember, RBCs do not contain mitochondria, so they cannot metabolize aerobically.

Front 1225

What enzyme of the TCA cycle catalyzes the substrate level phosphorylation?

Back 1225

Succinyl CoA synthetase

Front 1226

What apoprotein on HDL activates lecithin–cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT)?

Back 1226

apo A-1

Front 1227

What three AAs are used to synthesize the purine ring?

Back 1227

1. Glycine 2. Aspartate 3. Glutamine

Front 1228

How many ATPs are produced from cytoplasmic NADH oxidation using the glycerol phosphate shuttle?

Back 1228

2 ATPs by oxidative phosphorylation

Front 1229

What enzyme is deficient in patients with PKU?

Back 1229

Phenylalanine hydroxylase

Front 1230

What three steps of the TCA cycle generate NADH?

Back 1230

1. Malate dehydrogenase 2. Isocitrate dehydrogenase 3. α-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

Front 1231

What two enzymes of heme synthesis are inhibited by lead?

Back 1231

ALA dehydrogenase and ferrochelatase

Front 1232

What enzyme, induced by insulin and activated by apo C-II, is required for chylomicron and VLDL metabolism?

Back 1232

Lipoprotein lipase

Front 1233

What is the most common genetic deficiency resulting in hemolytic anemia?

Back 1233

G-6-PD deficiency; pyruvate kinase deficiency is second.

Front 1234

Are the following conditions associated with a negative or positive nitrogen balance? • AA deficiency

Back 1234

Negative

Front 1235

Are the following conditions associated with a negative or positive nitrogen balance? • Growth

Back 1235

Positive

Front 1236

Are the following conditions associated with a negative or positive nitrogen balance? • Pregnancy

Back 1236

Positive

Front 1237

Are the following conditions associated with a negative or positive nitrogen balance? • Uncontrolled DM

Back 1237

Negative

Front 1238

Are the following conditions associated with a negative or positive nitrogen balance? • Starvation

Back 1238

Negative

Front 1239

Are the following conditions associated with a negative or positive nitrogen balance? • Infection

Back 1239

Negative

Front 1240

Are the following conditions associated with a negative or positive nitrogen balance? • Recovery from injury

Back 1240

Positive

Front 1241

Are the following conditions associated with a negative or positive nitrogen balance? • Kwashiorkor

Back 1241

Negative

Front 1242

Why is the liver unable to metabolize ketone bodies?

Back 1242

Hepatocytes lack the enzyme succinyl CoA acetoacetyl CoA transferase (thiophorase).

Front 1243

What toxin ADP-ribosylates via Gs protein to increase cAMP?

Back 1243

Cholera toxin

Front 1244

What two vitamins are inactivated when they come in contact with acetaldehyde?

Back 1244

Thiamine and folate

Front 1245

Name the end product or products: • Fatty acid synthesis

Back 1245

Palmitate

Front 1246

Name the end product or products: • Fatty acid oxidation

Back 1246

Acetyl CoA and propionyl CoA (in odd chain fatty acids)

Front 1247

What is the term for production of a DNA copy from an RNA molecule?

Back 1247

Reverse transcription

Front 1248

What two monosaccharides are produced when lactose is hydrolyzed?

Back 1248

Galactose and glucose

Front 1249

What mineral is required for cross-linking of collagen molecules into fibrils?

Back 1249

The enzyme lysyl oxidase requires Cu2+and O2 to function properly.

Front 1250

What blotting technique uses the following for analysis? • DNA

Back 1250

Southern blot

Front 1251

What blotting technique uses the following for analysis? • Protein

Back 1251

Western blot

Front 1252

What blotting technique uses the following for analysis? • RNA

Back 1252

Northern blot

Front 1253

How many high-energy bonds does the cycle of elongation cost?

Back 1253

Four high energy bonds, two from ATP in AA activation and two from GTP

Front 1254

What enzyme of purine synthesis is inhibited by allopurinol and 6-mercaptopurine?

Back 1254

PRPP aminotransferase

Front 1255

True or false? The urea cycle takes place in both the cytoplasm and the mitochondria.

Back 1255

True. Remember, carbamoyl phosphate synthetase and ornithine transcarbamoylase are mitochondrial enzymes.

Front 1256

What is the only fatty acid that is gluconeogenic?

Back 1256

Propionic acid

Front 1257

What enzyme has a 5' to 3' synthesis of the Okazaki fragments, 3' exonuclease activity, and 5' exonuclease activity?

Back 1257

DNA polymerase I

Front 1258

In what organelle does the TCA cycle occur?

Back 1258

Mitochondria

Front 1259

Do genomic or cDNA libraries contain introns, exons, promoters, enhancers, and are they fragmented?

Back 1259

Genomic libraries are made from nuclear DNA, are fragmented, and contain all sequences found in the particular genome copied.

Front 1260

What enzyme is deficient in selective T cell immunodeficiency?

Back 1260

Purine nucleoside phosphorylase

Front 1261

True or false? Adipose tissue lacks glycerol kinase.

Back 1261

True. Adipose depends on glucose uptake for dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP) production for triglyceride synthesis.

Front 1262

In what form is excess folate stored in the body?

Back 1262

N-5-methyl THF

Front 1263

What is the term for taking an mRNA molecule and arranging the AA sequence forming a protein?

Back 1263

Translation

Front 1264

What enzyme is blocked by hydroxyurea?

Back 1264

Ribonucleotide reductase

Front 1265

What protein carries free fatty acids to the liver?

Back 1265

Albumin

Front 1266

What substrate is built up in Niemann-Pick disease?

Back 1266

Sphingomyelin

Front 1267

True or false? Methylation of bacterial DNA prevents restriction endonuclease from cutting its own chromosomes.

Back 1267

True. Restriction endonucleases cut only unmethylated DNA.

Front 1268

What two AAs have a pKa of 10?

Back 1268

Lysine and tyrosine

Front 1269

What is the only enzyme in the body that uses N-5-methyl folate?

Back 1269

Homocysteine methyl transferase

Front 1270

How can you differentiate vitamin K from vitamin C deficiency by bleeding time and PT levels?

Back 1270

Vitamin K deficiency has normal bleeding time and increased PT, and vitamin C deficiency has increased bleeding time and normal PT.

Front 1271

What is the term for a unit of DNA that encodes a particular protein or RNA molecule?

Back 1271

A gene (a rather simple definition but accurate)

Front 1272

Is the coding or the template strand of DNA identical to mRNA (excluding the T/U difference)?

Back 1272

The coding strand is identical to mRNA, and the template strand is complementary and antiparallel.

Front 1273

What enzyme is deficient in acute intermittent porphyria?

Back 1273

Uroporphyrinogen I synthetase

Front 1274

What five cofactors and coenzymes are required by pyruvate dehydrogenase?

Back 1274

1. TTP 2. Lipoic acid 3. Coenzyme A from pantothenate 4. NAD(H) (from niacin or tryptophan) 5. FADH2 (from riboflavin)

Front 1275

What pattern of genetic transmission affects only M and has no M-to-M transmission, and mother is usually an unaffected carrier?

Back 1275

X-linked recessive

Front 1276

To what does aldose reductase convert galactose?

Back 1276

Galactitol

Front 1277

Name three purine bases that are not found in nucleic acids.

Back 1277

Xanthine, hypoxanthine, theophylline, theobromine, caffeine, and uric acid are all purines.

Front 1278

What water-soluble-vitamin deficiency is associated with cheilosis and magenta tongue?

Back 1278

Riboflavin (B2)

Front 1279

What is the precursor of all sphingolipids?

Back 1279

Ceramide

Front 1280

What three substances stimulate glycogenolysis?

Back 1280

1. Ca2+ : calmodulin ratio 2. Epinephrine 3. Glucagon

Front 1281

What is the primer for the synthesis of the second strand in production of cDNA from mRNA?

Back 1281

The hairpin loop made by reverse transcriptase at the 3' end of the first strand is the primer.

Front 1282

What factors are needed for elongation in prokaryotes?

Back 1282

EF-Tu or EF-ts and GTP

Front 1283

What restriction endonuclease site is destroyed in sickle β-globin allele?

Back 1283

MstII; changing codon 6 (from A to T) destroys the restriction site.

Front 1284

What complex is needed for propionyl CoA carboxylase?

Back 1284

Biotin, ATP, and CO2

Front 1285

What enzyme catalyzes the reversible oxidative deamination of glutamate and produces the TCA cycle intermediate α-ketoglutarate?

Back 1285

Glutamate dehydrogenase

Front 1286

What enzyme is deficient in congenital erythropoietic porphyria?

Back 1286

Uroporphyrinogen III cosynthase

Front 1287

What is the drug of choice for treating a patient with hyperuricemia due to overproduction of uric acid?

Back 1287

Allopurinol

Front 1288

What is the maximum rate possible with a given amount of enzyme?

Back 1288

Vmax

Front 1289

From what do catalase, superoxide dismutase, and glutathione peroxidase defend the cell?

Back 1289

Production of oxygen free radicals

Front 1290

What signals are used to direct an enzyme to a lysosome?

Back 1290

Phosphorylation of mannose residues

Front 1291

What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step of the urea cycle?

Back 1291

Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I

Front 1292

What liver enzyme, for triglyceride synthesis, converts glycerol to glycerol-3-phosphate?

Back 1292

Glycerol kinase

Front 1293

What organ functions to keep blood glucose levels normal through both well-fed and fasting states and produces ketones in response to increased fatty acid oxidation?

Back 1293

Liver

Front 1294

What pattern of inheritance does G-6-PD deficiency follow?

Back 1294

X-linked recessive

Front 1295

What is the term for conversion of a dsDNA molecule to the base sequence of an ssRNA molecule?

Back 1295

Transcription (C comes before L in the alphabet, and transCription comes before transLation)

Front 1296

Via what cell surface receptor does HDL cholesterol from the periphery enter hepatoceles?

Back 1296

Scavenger receptor (SR-B1)

Front 1297

Which shuttle is used to bring fatty acyl CoA from the cytoplasm for ketogenesis?

Back 1297

Carnitine acyl CoA transferase II

Front 1298

What enzyme is blocked by 5-FU?

Back 1298

Thymidylate synthetase

Front 1299

What disease has a genetically low level of UDPglucuronate transferase, resulting in elevated free unconjugated bilirubin?

Back 1299

Gilbert's syndrome

Front 1300

What AA has a pKa of 13?

Back 1300

Arginine

Front 1301

What X-linked recessive disorder is characterized by hyperuricemia, spastic cerebral palsy, mental retardation, and self-mutilation?

Back 1301

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

Front 1302

How many ATPs per glucose are generated from glycolysis in RBCs?

Back 1302

2 ATPs, because RBCs use only anaerobic metabolism.

Front 1303

What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in glycogenolysis?

Back 1303

Glycogen phosphorylase

Front 1304

Would a G-C or an A-T rich dsDNA sequence have a higher melting point? Why?

Back 1304

G-C rich sequences, because they have 3 hydrogen bonds, where A-T has 2 hydrogen bonds, resulting in higher melting points.

Front 1305

As what AAs do muscles send nitrogen to the liver?

Back 1305

Alanine and glutamine

Front 1306

What sphingolipid cannot be produced without sialic acid and amino sugars?

Back 1306

Ganglioside

Front 1307

What happens to affinity if you increase Km?

Back 1307

Affinity decreases; they are inversely proportional.

Front 1308

What type of bilirubin is found in neonatal jaundice?

Back 1308

Indirect or unconjugated

Front 1309

What two AAs do not have more than one codon?

Back 1309

Methionine (start) and tryptophan are the only two AAs with only one codon.

Front 1310

What bonds are broken by exonucleases?

Back 1310

External 3', 5' PDE bonds

Front 1311

How can a genetic deficiency of carbamoyl phosphate synthetase be differentiated from an ornithine transcarbamoylase deficiency?

Back 1311

Uracil and orotic acid levels increase with ornithine transcarbamoylase deficiency and are normal in carbamoyl phosphate synthetase deficiency.

Front 1312

Name the lipoprotein based on the following characteristics. • apo E

Back 1312

IDL

Front 1313

Name the lipoprotein based on the following characteristics. • apo B-100

Back 1313

LDL

Front 1314

Name the lipoprotein based on the following characteristics. • apo E, apo B-100, apo C-II

Back 1314

VLDL

Front 1315

Name the lipoprotein based on the following characteristics. • apo A-1, apo E, apo C-II

Back 1315

HDL

Front 1316

Name the lipoprotein based on the following characteristics. • apo E, apo C-II, apoB-48

Back 1316

Chylomicrons

Front 1317

True or false? There is no hormonal control to the TCA cycle.

Back 1317

True. The energy status of the cell dictates if the cycle is running or relaxing.

Front 1318

What are the three tissues where triacylglycerols are produced?

Back 1318

1. Liver 2. Muscle 3. Adipose tissue

Front 1319

What toxin ADP-ribosylates via Gi to increase cAMP?

Back 1319

Pertussis toxin

Front 1320

What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in heme synthesis?

Back 1320

δ-ALA synthase

Front 1321

What cycle is responsible for converting to glucose in the liver the lactate produced in the RBCs?

Back 1321

Cori cycle

Front 1322

What enzyme is used to remove the hairpin loop during production of cDNA from mRNA?

Back 1322

S1 nuclease

Front 1323

Does a saturated fatty acid have double bonds?

Back 1323

No, unsaturated fatty acids have double bonds.

Front 1324

What pyrimidine base is found • Only in RNA?

Back 1324

Uracil

Front 1325

What pyrimidine base is found • Only in DNA?

Back 1325

Thymine

Front 1326

What pyrimidine base is found • In both DNA and RNA?

Back 1326

Cytosine

Front 1327

What two AAs require vitamin C for hydroxylation?

Back 1327

Proline and lysine

Front 1328

What is the only organ in the body that can produce ketone bodies?

Back 1328

The liver (in the mitochondria)

Front 1329

What determines the rate of reaction?

Back 1329

The energy of activation

Front 1330

What is the term for the number of trinucleotide repeats increasing with successive generations and correlating with increased severity of disease?

Back 1330

Anticipation, associated with fragile X syndrome; Huntington's disease is also associated with a decrease in onset of age.

Front 1331

What enzyme is blocked by methotrexate/ trimethoprim?

Back 1331

Dihydrofolate reductase

Front 1332

What fructose metabolism enzyme is deficient in patients with vomiting, apathy, diarrhea, jaundice, proximal renal tubular acidosis, hypoglycemia, and hyperuricemia?

Back 1332

Aldolase B deficiencies are treated by eliminating fructose from the diet.

Front 1333

What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in purine synthesis?

Back 1333

PRPP aminotransferase

Front 1334

What water-soluble-vitamin deficiency is associated with poor wound healing, easy bruising, bleeding gums, anemia, and painful glossitis?

Back 1334

Vitamin C

Front 1335

What three substrates control the enzyme PEPCK for the conversion of oxaloacetate (OAA) to pyruvate in the cytoplasm?

Back 1335

1. Cortisol (stimulates PEPCK) 2. Glucagon 3. GTP

Front 1336

What genetic defect is characterized by coarse facial features, gingival hyperplasia, macroglossia, psychomotor and growth retardation, club foot, claw hand, cardiorespiratory failure, and death in the first decade of life?

Back 1336

I-cell disease is a result of a genetic defect affecting the phosphorylation of mannose residues.

Front 1337

What two glycolytic enzymes catalyze the substrate-level phosphorylations?

Back 1337

3-Phosphoglycerate kinase and pyruvate kinase; this produces two ATPs per enzyme (total four ATPs)

Front 1338

What pathway uses HMG CoA synthetase in the cytoplasm?

Back 1338

Cholesterol biosynthesis

Front 1339

Where in the body is heme converted to bilirubin?

Back 1339

RES(Reticular endothelial system)

Front 1340

What protein is required by prokaryotic RNA polymerases to initiate transcription at the promoter region of DNA?

Back 1340

Sigma factor

Front 1341

What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in pyrimidine synthesis?

Back 1341

Aspartate transcarbamylase

Front 1342

What are the two actions of calcitonin?

Back 1342

It increases Ca2+ excretion from the kidney and increases bone mineralization.

Front 1343

What enzyme of the purine salvage pathway is deficient in the following? • Selective T-cell immunodeficiency

Back 1343

Purine nucleoside phosphorylase

Front 1344

What enzyme of the purine salvage pathway is deficient in the following? • SCID

Back 1344

Adenosine deaminase

Front 1345

What enzyme of the purine salvage pathway is deficient in the following? • Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

Back 1345

HGPRT

Front 1346

In what cycle does glucose go to the muscle, where it is converted to pyruvate and then into alanine before being taken back to the liver?

Back 1346

Alanine cycle

Front 1347

What is the primary end product of pyrimidine synthesis?

Back 1347

UMP

Front 1348

What pyrimidine base is produced by deaminating cytosine?

Back 1348

Uracil

Front 1349

What AA is classified as basic even though its pK is 6.5 to 7?

Back 1349

Histidine, because of the imidazole ring found in the R group, is basic.

Front 1350

What enzyme is deficient in hereditary protoporphyria?

Back 1350

Ferrochelatase

Front 1351

What elongation factor is inactivated by ADP ribosylation, preventing translation?

Back 1351

eEF-2 is the site where Pseudomonas and Diphtheria toxins work.

Front 1352

Is linolenic acid an omega-3 or omega-6 fatty acid?

Back 1352

Omega-3; linoleic is omega-6

Front 1353

How many ATPs per glucose are generated in glycolysis?

Back 1353

38 ATPs if aerobic, 2 ATPs if anaerobic (36 ATPs[malate shuttle] + 4 ATPs[Glycolysis] - 2 ATPs[phosphorylate glucose] = 38 ATPs)

Front 1354

Name the three ketone bodies.

Back 1354

Acetoacetate, acetone, and β-hydroxybutyrate

Front 1355

What three bases are pyrimidines?

Back 1355

1. Cytosine 2. Uracil (only in RNA) 3. Thymidine

Front 1356

Name the RNA subtype based on the following: • The most abundant form of RNA in the cell

Back 1356

rRNA

Front 1357

Name the RNA subtype based on the following: • Found only in the nucleus of eukaryotes and functions to remove introns from mRNA

Back 1357

snRNA

Front 1358

Name the RNA subtype based on the following: • Only type of RNA that is translated

Back 1358

mRNA

Front 1359

Name the RNA subtype based on the following: • Carries AA to the ribosome for protein synthesis

Back 1359

tRNA

Front 1360

Name the RNA subtype based on the following: • RNA molecules with enzymatic activity

Back 1360

Ribozymes

Front 1361

Name the RNA subtype based on the following: • Found only in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells and are precursors of mRNA

Back 1361

hnRNA

Front 1362

What enzyme is deficient in the following glycogen storage disease? • von Gierke's disease

Back 1362

Glucose-6-phosphatase

Front 1363

What enzyme is deficient in the following glycogen storage disease? • Pompe's disease

Back 1363

Lysosomal α-1, 4-glucosidase

Front 1364

What enzyme is deficient in the following glycogen storage disease? • McArdle's disease

Back 1364

Muscle glycogen phosphorylase

Front 1365

What enzyme is deficient in the following glycogen storage disease? • Hers' disease

Back 1365

Hepatic glycogen phosphorylase

Front 1366

In prokaryotes, what is the term for a set of structural genes that code for a select group of proteins and the regulatory elements required for the expression of such gene?

Back 1366

Operon

Front 1367

What are the two most common AAs found in histones?

Back 1367

Lysine and arginine

Front 1368

What five pathways use SAM (S-adenosylmethionine) as the methyl donor?

Back 1368

1. Epinephrine synthesis 2. Phosphatidyl choline 3. Creatine 4. Methylation of cytosine 5. N-methyl cap of mRNA

Front 1369

What complex of the ETC contains Cu2+?

Back 1369

Complex 4

Front 1370

How many ATPs per glucose are produced by pyruvate dehydrogenase?

Back 1370

6 ATPs (remember 2 pyruvates per glucose are produced, and 2 NADHs result from production of acetyl CoA, so 6 ATPs)

Front 1371

What is the size of the prokaryotic ribosome?

Back 1371

70S ribosomes in prokaryotes and 80S ribosomes in eukaryotes

Front 1372

What type of fatty acid is associated with a decrease in serum triglycerides and cardiovascular disease?

Back 1372

Omega-3 fatty acids

Front 1373

What disease is produced by a deficiency in the enzyme tyrosinase?

Back 1373

Albinism. Tyrosine is converted to melanin by the enzyme tyrosinase.

Front 1374

In what form are triglycerides sent to adipose tissue from the liver?

Back 1374

VLDLs

Front 1375

What determines the rate of a reaction?

Back 1375

The energy of activation (Ea)

Front 1376

What is the rate-limiting enzyme of the HMP shunt?

Back 1376

G-6-PD

Front 1377

What vitamin is necessary for the transfer of one amino group from a carbon skeleton to another?

Back 1377

Pyridoxal phosphate is derived from vitamin B6 and is needed to transfer the amino groups of one carbon skeleton to another.

Front 1378

What is the only sphingolipid that contains choline and PO4?

Back 1378

Sphingomyelin (lecithin also, but it is not a sphingolipid)

Front 1379

What protein catalyzes the formation of the last PDE bond between the Okazaki fragments to produce a continuous strand?

Back 1379

DNA ligase

Front 1380

What type of damage to the kidneys is caused by drinking ethylene glycol (antifreeze)?

Back 1380

Nephrotoxic oxylate stones

Front 1381

What water-soluble-vitamin deficiency may result from eating raw eggs?

Back 1381

Biotin (only if eaten in large quantities)

Front 1382

Regarding the Lac operon, for what do the following genes code? • Z gene

Back 1382

β-Galactosidase

Front 1383

Regarding the Lac operon, for what do the following genes code? • Y gene

Back 1383

Galactoside permease

Front 1384

Regarding the Lac operon, for what do the following genes code? • I gene

Back 1384

Lac repressor protein

Front 1385

Regarding the Lac operon, for what do the following genes code? • A gene

Back 1385

Thiogalactoside transacetylase

Front 1386

What attaches to protons and allows them to enter into the mitochondria without going through the ATP-generating system?

Back 1386

2, 4-Dinitrophenol

Front 1387

1-α-Hydroxylase activity is increased in response to what two physiologic states? (hint: think of vitamin D activity)

Back 1387

Hypocalcemia and hypophosphatemia

Front 1388

What is the major ketone body produced during alcoholic ketoacidosis?

Back 1388

β-Hydroxybutyrate

Front 1389

What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in the TCA cycle?

Back 1389

Isocitrate dehydrogenase

Front 1390

Name the pattern of genetic transmission characterized thus: both M and F are affected; M may transmit to M; each generation has at least one affected parent; and one mutant allele may produce the disease.

Back 1390

Autosomal dominant

Front 1391

What bonds are broken by endonucleases?

Back 1391

Internal 3', 5' PDE bonds

Front 1392

Name the GLUT transporter based on the following: • Found in liver and pancreatic β-cells

Back 1392

GLUT 2

Front 1393

Name the GLUT transporter based on the following: • Found in skeletal muscle and adipose tissues

Back 1393

GLUT 4

Front 1394

Name the GLUT transporter based on the following: • Found in most tissues, including brain and RBCs

Back 1394

GLUT 3 and 4

Front 1395

What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in fatty acid oxidation?

Back 1395

Carnitine acyltransferase-I

Front 1396

What enzyme of the TCA cycle also acts as complex II of the ETC?

Back 1396

Succinate dehydrogenase

Front 1397

What is the term for chemicals that keep the pH constant despite the formation of acids and bases during metabolism?

Back 1397

Buffers (remember that buffers are best when they are used in a pH range near its pK)

Front 1398

In the mitochondria, what complex is needed for pyruvate carboxylase to catalyze the reaction from pyruvate to OAA?

Back 1398

Biotin, ATP, and CO2

Front 1399

How many ATPs are produced from cytoplasmic NADH oxidation using the malate shuttle?

Back 1399

3 ATPs by oxidative phosphorylation

Front 1400

What is the rate-limiting step of the following? • Fatty acid synthesis

Back 1400

Acetyl CoA carboxylase

Front 1401

What is the rate-limiting step of the following? • β-Oxidation

Back 1401

Carnitine acyltransferase I

Front 1402

What is the rate-limiting step of the following? • Ketogenolysis

Back 1402

HMG CoA synthase

Front 1403

What is the rate-limiting step of the following? • Cholesterol synthesis

Back 1403

HMG CoA reductase

Front 1404

What direction does RNA polymerase move along the template strand of DNA during transcription?

Back 1404

3'-5' direction, synthesizing RNA in the 5'-3' direction

Front 1405

True or false? Histidine activates the histidine operon.

Back 1405

False. Histidine operon is activated when there are low intracellular levels of histidine.

Front 1406

What organ is responsible for the elimination of excess nitrogen from the body?

Back 1406

The kidneys excrete the excess nitrogen from the body as urea in the urine.

Front 1407

What is the only way to increase maximum velocity (Vmax)?

Back 1407

Increase enzyme concentrations

Front 1408

Name the two purine bases found in both DNA and RNA.

Back 1408

Adenine and guanine

Front 1409

What prokaryotic positioning enzyme in translation is blocked by the following? • Tetracycline

Back 1409

EF-Tu and EF-Ts of the 30S ribosomal subunit

Front 1410

What prokaryotic positioning enzyme in translation is blocked by the following? • Erythromycin

Back 1410

EF-G of the 50S subunit

Front 1411

What prokaryotic positioning enzyme in translation is blocked by the following? • Streptomycin

Back 1411

IF-2 of the 30S subunit

Front 1412

True or false? DNA polymerases can correct mistakes, whereas RNA polymerases lack this ability.

Back 1412

True. DNA polymerases have 3'-5' exonuclease activity for proofreading.

Front 1413

What are the two precursors of heme?

Back 1413

Glycine and succinyl-CoA

Front 1414

What two factors cause PTH to be secreted?

Back 1414

A decrease in Ca2+ and an increase in PO4-

Front 1415

What are the nonoxidative enzymes of the HMP shunt? Are the reactions they catalyze reversible or irreversible?

Back 1415

Transketolase and transaldolase. The reactions they catalyze are reversible.

Front 1416

What are the five AAs that are both ketogenic and glucogenic?

Back 1416

Isoleucine, threonine, tryptophan, tyrosine, and phenylalanine

Front 1417

What artificial sweetener must patients with PKU avoid?

Back 1417

Aspartame

Front 1418

Cri-du-chat syndrome results in a terminal deletion of the short arm of what chromosome?

Back 1418

Chromosome 5

Front 1419

What substrate gets built up in Gaucher's disease?

Back 1419

Glucosyl cerebroside

Front 1420

What protein prevents ssDNA from reannealing during DNA replication?

Back 1420

Single-strand DNA binding protein

Front 1421

What type of jaundice is seen in Dubin-Johnson syndrome?

Back 1421

Conjugated (direct) hyperbilirubinemia, a transport defect

Front 1422

What type of DNA library is made from the mRNA from a tissue expressing a particular gene?

Back 1422

cDNA libraries are derived from mRNA, are continuous, and contain no introns or regulatory elements.

Front 1423

What is the most common cause of vitamin B6 deficiency?

Back 1423

Isoniazid treatment

Front 1424

What lysosomal enzyme is deficient in • Gaucher's disease?

Back 1424

Glucocerebrosidase

Front 1425

What lysosomal enzyme is deficient in • Niemann-Pick disease?

Back 1425

Sphingomyelinase

Front 1426

What lysosomal enzyme is deficient in • Tay-Sachs disease?

Back 1426

Hexosaminidase A

Front 1427

What are the three exceptions to the rule of codominant gene expression?

Back 1427

Barr bodies in females, T-cell receptor loci, and immunoglobulin light and heavy chain loci

Front 1428

How many kilocalories per gram are produced from the degradation of fat? CHO? Protein?

Back 1428

9 kcal/g from fat metabolism; 4 kcal/g from both CHO and protein metabolism

Front 1429

What is the only way to increase the Vmax of a reaction?

Back 1429

Increase the concentration of enzymes

Front 1430

From which two substances are phospholipids made?

Back 1430

Diacylglycerols and phosphatidic acid

Front 1431

What intermediate enables propionyl CoA to enter into the TCA cycle?

Back 1431

Succinyl CoA

Front 1432

What vitamin is an important component of rhodopsin?

Back 1432

Vitamin A

Front 1433

What is the term to describe the 5'-3' sequence of one strand being the same as the opposite 5'-3' strand?

Back 1433

Palindrome

Front 1434

What gluconeogenic enzyme is absent in muscle, accounting for its inability to use glycogen as a source for blood glucose?

Back 1434

Glucose-6-phosphatase

Front 1435

What is the term for vitamin D deficiency prior to epiphyseal fusion?

Back 1435

Rickets prior to fusion, osteomalacia if the deficiency occurs after epiphyseal fusion.

Front 1436

In what disease is there a genetic absence of UDP-glucuronate transferase, resulting in an increase in free unconjugated bilirubin?

Back 1436

Crigler-Najjar syndrome

Front 1437

What enzyme requires molybdenum as a cofactor?

Back 1437

Xanthine oxidase

Front 1438

At what three sites can the HMP shunt enter into glycolysis?

Back 1438

1. Fructose-6-phosphate 2. Glucose-6-phosphate 3. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate

Front 1439

What is the term for the pH range where the dissociation of H+ occurs?

Back 1439

pK (think of it as where half is base and half is acid)

Front 1440

What regulates the rate of ketone body formation?

Back 1440

The rate of β-oxidation

Front 1441

What are the eight liver-specific enzymes?

Back 1441

1. Fructokinase 2. Glucokinase 3. Glycerol kinase 4. PEPCK 5. Pyruvate carboxylase 6. Galactokinase 7. Fructose-1, 6-bisphosphatase 8. Glucose-6-phosphatase

Front 1442

How many bases upstream is the eukaryotic TATA box promoter?

Back 1442

There are two eukaryotic upstream promoters. The TATA box is –25 base pairs upstream; the CAAT box is –75 bases upstream.

Front 1443

What is needed to initiate translation?

Back 1443

IF and GTP (eIF for eukaryotes)

Front 1444

What part of the 30S ribosome binds to the Shine-Dalgarno sequence?

Back 1444

16S subunit

Front 1445

What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? • Barbiturates

Back 1445

Complex I

Front 1446

What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? • Antimycin A

Back 1446

Cytochrome b/c1

Front 1447

What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? • Cyanide

Back 1447

Cytochrome a/a3

Front 1448

What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? • Oligomycin

Back 1448

Fo/F1 complex

Front 1449

What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? • Atractyloside

Back 1449

ATP/ADP Translocase

Front 1450

What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? • CO

Back 1450

Cytochrome a/a3

Front 1451

What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? • Rotenone

Back 1451

Complex I

Front 1452

What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? • Azide

Back 1452

Cytochrome a/a3

Front 1453

What AA is a precursor of the following substances? • Serotonin

Back 1453

Tryptophan

Front 1454

What AA is a precursor of the following substances? • GABA

Back 1454

Glutamate

Front 1455

What AA is a precursor of the following substances? • Histamine

Back 1455

Histidine

Front 1456

What AA is a precursor of the following substances? • Creatine

Back 1456

Glycine/arginine

Front 1457

What AA is a precursor of the following substances? • NAD

Back 1457

Tryptophan

Front 1458

What AA is a precursor of the following substances? • N2O

Back 1458

Arginine

Front 1459

What two enzymes are vitamin B12-dependent

Back 1459

Homocysteine methyl transferase and methylmalonyl CoA transferase

Front 1460

What two post-transcriptional enzymes in collagen synthesis require ascorbic acid to function properly?

Back 1460

Prolyl and lysyl hydroxylases

Front 1461

What three organs participate in production of vitamin D?

Back 1461

1. Skin 2. Liver 3. Kidney

Front 1462

What water-soluble-vitamin deficiency is associated with neural tube defects in the fetus?

Back 1462

Folic acid

Front 1463

What phase of Interphase is haploid (N)?

Back 1463

G1 phase; G2 and S phase are diploid (2N).

Front 1464

What neurotransmitter inhibits the optic nerve bipolar cell and shuts off in response to light?

Back 1464

Glutamate

Front 1465

Which of the following—DNA methylating enzymes, scaffolding proteins, histone acetylases, or deacetylases—is a regulator of eukaryotic gene expression?

Back 1465

Histone acetylases is a regulator favoring gene expression. All of the others favor inactivation.

Front 1466

Name the pattern of genetic transmission characterized thus: both M and F affected; no M-to-M transmission; affected M passes trait to all daughters, every generation; affected F passes trait to both sons and daughters; a single mutant allele can produce the disease.

Back 1466

X-linked dominant

Front 1467

What fat-soluble vitamin is connected to selenium metabolism?

Back 1467

Vitamin E

Front 1468

Why are eukaryotes unable to perform transcription and translation at the same time like prokaryotes?

Back 1468

In eukaryotes transcription occurs in the nucleus and translation in the cytoplasm.

Front 1469

What is determined by the secondary structure of an AA?

Back 1469

The folding of an AA chain

Front 1470

What three vitamin deficiencies are associated with homocystinemia?

Back 1470

Folate, vitamin B12, and vitamin B6

Front 1471

If the pH is more acidic than the pI, does the protein carry a net positive or net negative charge?

Back 1471

When the pH is more acidic than the pI, it has a net positive charge, and when the pH is more basic than the pI, it has a net negative charge.

Front 1472

What form of continuous DNA, used in cloning, has no introns or regulatory elements?

Back 1472

cDNA, when it is made from mRNA

Front 1473

What is the start codon, and what does it code for in eukaryotes? Prokaryotes?

Back 1473

The one start codon, AUG, in eukaryotes codes for methionine and in prokaryotes formylmethionine.

Front 1474

What parasite found in raw fish can produce vitamin B12 deficiency?

Back 1474

Diphyllobothrium latum

Front 1475

Methylating uracil produces what pyrimidine base?

Back 1475

Thymine

Front 1476

Name the eukaryotic RNA polymerase based on the following: • Synthesizes tRNA, snRNA, and the 5S rRNA

Back 1476

RNA polymerase III

Front 1477

Name the eukaryotic RNA polymerase based on the following: • Synthesizes hnRNA, mRNA, and snRNA

Back 1477

RNA polymerase II

Front 1478

Name the eukaryotic RNA polymerase based on the following: • Synthesizes 28S, 18S and 5.8S rRNAs

Back 1478

RNA polymerase I

Front 1479

What is the primary screening test used to detect HIV-infected individuals? Confirmatory test?

Back 1479

ELISA is used as a screening test because it is very sensitive; Western blot is used as a confirmatory test because it detects antibodies (protein) to the HIV virus.

Front 1480

How many covalent bonds per purine-pyrimidine base pairing are broken during denaturation of dsDNA?

Back 1480

None. Denaturation of dsDNA breaks hydrogen bonds, not covalent bonds.

Front 1481

How many hydrogen bonds link A-T? C-G?

Back 1481

A-T are linked by 2 hydrogen bonds, C-G by 3 hydrogen bonds.

Front 1482

What DNA replication enzyme breaks the hydrogen bond of base pairing, forming two replication forks?

Back 1482

Helicase (requires ATP for energy)

Front 1483

What test is done to diagnose CGD?

Back 1483

Nitroblue tetrazolium reduction test (NBT). It is negative in patients with CGD because there is no production of oxygen radicals.

Front 1484

What is the valence of an Ig molecule equal to?

Back 1484

The number of Ags that the Ab can bind

Front 1485

What is the name of the process that ensures that each B cell produces only one heavy-chain variable domain and one light chain?

Back 1485

Allelic exclusion. It is to ensure that one B cell produces only one Ab.

Front 1486

What is the major Ab of the primary immune response?

Back 1486

IgM

Front 1487

What form of immunity is responsible for removal of intracellular infections?

Back 1487

Cell-mediated immunity

Front 1488

True or false? Direct fluorescent Ab test is used to detect Abs in a patient?

Back 1488

False. Direct tests detect Ags; indirect tests detect Abs.

Front 1489

What is the triad of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome?

Back 1489

Thrombocytopenia, eczema, and immunodeficiency is the triad of this X-linked recessive disorder.

Front 1490

What complement factor deficiency leads to • Increased susceptibility to pyogenic infections?

Back 1490

C3 deficiency

Front 1491

What complement factor deficiency leads to • Recurrent gonococcal infections?

Back 1491

C5-C8 deficiency

Front 1492

What complement factor deficiency leads to • Leukocyte adhesion deficiency with poor opsonization?

Back 1492

C1, C2, or C4 deficiency

Front 1493

What complement factor deficiency leads to • Hereditary angioedema?

Back 1493

C1 inhibitor (C1-INH)

Front 1494

Which IgG cannot activate complement?

Back 1494

IgG4

Front 1495

Name the T-cell CD marker: • Essential for Ab isotype switching (for B cell binding)

Back 1495

CD40 ligand

Front 1496

Name the T-cell CD marker: • Interacts with MHC class I molecules

Back 1496

CD8

Front 1497

Name the T-cell CD marker: • Expressed on all T cells and is needed as a signal transducer for the T cell receptor

Back 1497

CD3

Front 1498

Name the T-cell CD marker: • Interacts with MHC class II molecules

Back 1498

CD4

Front 1499

Name the T-cell CD marker: Is a costimulatory molecule in T cell activation

Back 1499

CD28

Front 1500

What three cells are essential for T-cell differentiation in the thymus?

Back 1500

Dendritic cells, macrophages, and thymic epithelial cells

Front 1501

What is the only specific Ag-presenting cell?

Back 1501

B cells; macrophages and dendritic cells are nonspecific.

Front 1502

What is the tetrad of Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction?

Back 1502

Rigors, leukopenia, decrease in blood pressure, and increase in temperature

Front 1503

What is the name of the B cell that secretes Ig?

Back 1503

Plasma cell (mature B lymphocyte)

Front 1504

What would be the result if an Ab were cleaved with papain?

Back 1504

There would be two Fab and Fc regions.

Front 1505

What is the bone marrow maturation time for a phagocytic cell?

Back 1505

14 days

Front 1506

Which leukotrienes are associated with the late-phase inflammatory response?

Back 1506

LTC4 and LTD4

Front 1507

What is the term for the strength of the association between Ag and an Ab?

Back 1507

Affinity (one of each)

Front 1508

True or false? More Ag is needed to produce a secondary immune response than a first immune response.

Back 1508

False. Fewer Ags are needed to trigger a secondary response.

Front 1509

What is the term for the strength of association between multiple Abbinding sites and multiple antigenic determinants?

Back 1509

Avidity (more than one binding site)

Front 1510

What Ig mediates ADCC via K cells, opsonizes, and is the Ig of the secondary immune response?

Back 1510

IgG

Front 1511

What test is used to detect anti-RBC Abs seen in hemolytic anemia?

Back 1511

Coombs test

Front 1512

What subset of T cells recognizes the MHC class I Ags?

Back 1512

CD8+ T cells (cytotoxic) Remember, 8×1=8 (CD×8×MHC class I=8); 4×2=8 (CD×4 MHC class II 8)

Front 1513

What cell surface marker is found on activated helper T cells?

Back 1513

CD40

Front 1514

What are the five Ig isotypes?

Back 1514

IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, and IgM

Front 1515

Which integrin mediates the adhesion to endothelial cells for migration in and out of the blood during an immune response?

Back 1515

Beta2-integrins

Front 1516

What type of hypersensitivity is an Ab-mediated response against our own cells, receptors, or membranes via IgG or IgM?

Back 1516

Type II hypersensitivity reaction

Front 1517

What is the term to describe the limited portion of an Ag that is recognized by an Ab?

Back 1517

Antigenic determinant (epitope)

Front 1518

What cytokine do Th1 cells secrete to inhibit Th2 cell function?

Back 1518

INF-gamma

Front 1519

What three cells are essential for T-cell maturation?

Back 1519

Thymic epithelial cells, dendritic cells, and macrophages

Front 1520

What is the term for a single isolated antigenic determinant?

Back 1520

Hapten (not immunogenic)

Front 1521

What are the two opsonizing factors?

Back 1521

The Fc region of IgG and C3b

Front 1522

What is the most common Ig deficiency?

Back 1522

IgA deficiency; patients commonly present with recurrent sinopulmonary infections and GI disturbances.

Front 1523

What is the name of the B cell–rich area of the spleen?

Back 1523

Primary follicle (in the white pulp)

Front 1524

What IL, produced by macrophages, is chemotactic for neutrophils?

Back 1524

IL-8. It not only is chemotactic, it also acts as an adhesive for neutrophils.

Front 1525

What Ig prevents bacterial adherence to mucosal surfaces?

Back 1525

IgA

Front 1526

What are the three rules of clonal selection?

Back 1526

1. One cell type 2. One Ab type 3. Random selection of hypervariable regions, and only cells with bound Ag undergo clonal expansion

Front 1527

What is a plasma cell's life expectancy?

Back 1527

7 to 14 days

Front 1528

What are defined by Ag-binding specificity?

Back 1528

Idiotypes

Front 1529

What type of binding occurs with one Fab or one idiotype of IgG?

Back 1529

Affinity

Front 1530

What molecule that is needed to trigger T cell activation is noncovalently linked to TCR?

Back 1530

CD3 molecule. It transmits signals to the inside of the T cell to trigger activation

Front 1531

What is the term for Ags that activate B cells without T-cell signaling?

Back 1531

Thymus-independent Ags

Front 1532

What are the three rules governing a secondary immune response?

Back 1532

1. Covalent bonding between the hapten and carrier 2. B-cell exposure to hapten twice 3. T-cell exposure to carrier twice

Front 1533

What type of hypersensitivity is a T cell-mediated response to Ags that are not activated by Ab or complement?

Back 1533

Type IV hypersensitivity reaction (delayed type because of the 48–96 hour latency)

Front 1534

Name the macrophages by location: • Liver

Back 1534

Kupffer cells

Front 1535

Name the macrophages by location: • Lungs

Back 1535

Alveolar macrophages

Front 1536

Name the macrophages by location: • CNS

Back 1536

Microglial cells

Front 1537

Name the macrophages by location: • Kidney

Back 1537

Mesangial macrophages

Front 1538

What is the first human disease successfully treated with gene therapy?

Back 1538

Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency

Front 1539

What receptors are the best markers for NK cells?

Back 1539

CD16 and CD56

Front 1540

True or false? Ag-Ab binding is irreversible

Back 1540

False. It is reversible because the Ags and Abs are not linked covalently.

Front 1541

What three major cell lines participate in the acquired immune system?

Back 1541

T cells, B cells, and macrophages

Front 1542

What test is used to screen for HIV?

Back 1542

ELISA. It detects anti-p24 IgG.

Front 1543

During what stage of B-cell development is IgM first seen on the surface?

Back 1543

Immature B cells

Front 1544

What Ig is responsible for Antibody-Dependent Cell-mediated Cytotoxicity of parasites, has a high-affinity Fc receptor on mast cells and basophils, and is responsible for the allergic response?

Back 1544

IgE

Front 1545

True or false? B-cell Ag receptors can be secreted.

Back 1545

True. B cell antigen receptors are Abs.

Front 1546

Are more Abs produced in a primary or a secondary immune response?

Back 1546

More Ab is produced in less time in a secondary immune response (shorter lag period).

Front 1547

By which process do Abs make microorganisms more easily ingested via phagocytosis?

Back 1547

Opsonization

Front 1548

What MHC class acts to remove foreign Ags from the body?

Back 1548

MHC class II Ags. This is accomplished via CD4 T cells.

Front 1549

What disorder is characterized by autoantibodies to IF?

Back 1549

Pernicious anemia

Front 1550

What cytokines do Th2 cells secrete to inhibit Th1 cell function?

Back 1550

IL-4, IL-10, and IL-13

Front 1551

What is the term for the number of Ag-binding sites on an Ig?

Back 1551

Valence

Front 1552

Which major cell type is found in the red pulp of the spleen?

Back 1552

RBCs. That is why it is called red pulp.

Front 1553

What is the name of the pathway that produces leukotrienes?

Back 1553

Lipoxygenase pathway, from arachidonic acid

Front 1554

What is the term to describe basophils that have left the bloodstream and entered a tissue?

Back 1554

Mast cells

Front 1555

What are the three major functions of secretory IgA?

Back 1555

1. IgA receptor 2. Transport of IgA across epithelial barriers 3. Protection of IgA from degradative proteases

Front 1556

What IL is important in myeloid cell development?

Back 1556

IL-3 (3 face down is an M)

Front 1557

What is the term for different classes and subclasses of the same gene products?

Back 1557

Isotypes

Front 1558

What is the first Ab a baby makes?

Back 1558

IgM

Front 1559

What test, by using specific Abs to different receptors, allows for rapid analysis of cell types in a blood sample?

Back 1559

Flow cytometric analysis

Front 1560

What is the name of the T cell–rich area of the spleen?

Back 1560

PALS (Parietolateral lymphocytic sheath)

Front 1561

What three complement fragments are also anaphylatoxins?

Back 1561

C3a, C4a, and C5a

Front 1562

Name the B-cell CD marker: • Required for class switching signals from T cells

Back 1562

CD40

Front 1563

Name the B-cell CD marker: • Receptor for EBV

Back 1563

CD21; it is a complement receptor for cleaved C3

Front 1564

Name the B-cell CD marker: • Used clinically to count B cells in blood

Back 1564

CD19

Front 1565

What immunologic test checks for a reaction between Abs and a particular Ag? (hint: ABO typing)

Back 1565

Agglutination test

Front 1566

Which leukotriene is chemotactic for neutrophils?

Back 1566

LTB4

Front 1567

What Ig is associated with mucosal surfaces and external secretions?

Back 1567

IgA

Front 1568

What are the genetic variants of a molecule within members of the same species?

Back 1568

Allotypes

Front 1569

What cytokine do CD4 T cells secrete to activate B cells when the specific peptide in the groove of the MHC II molecule interacts with the TCR?

Back 1569

IL-4 is secreted to activate B cells. This begins the second step in the immune response, known as Activation. CD4 T cells secrete INF-alpha to activate macrophages

Front 1570

Which protein prevents internal binding of self proteins within an MHC class II cell?

Back 1570

Invariant chain

Front 1571

What would be the result if an Ab were cleaved with pepsin?

Back 1571

There would be a Fab' region; thus, it would still be able to participate in precipitation and agglutination.

Front 1572

Why are patients with Chronic Granulomatous Disease not prone to develop infections from catalase-negative bacteria?

Back 1572

Catalase-negative bacteria secrete H2O2 as a byproduct (remember, catalase breaks down H2O2), allowing the neutrophils to use it as the substrate for the other toxic metabolites. Patients with CGD are prone to catalase-positive bacterial infections.

Front 1573

What are the two chains of the TCR that are mainly found on the skin and mucosal surfaces?

Back 1573

gamma and delta chains

Front 1574

Which IL is associated with increases of IgG and IgE?

Back 1574

IL-4

Front 1575

What branch of the immune system is acquired in response to an Ag?

Back 1575

Adaptive branch. The adaptive branch of the immune system has a slow initiation with rapid responses thereafter.

Front 1576

True or false? T cells can recognize, bind, and internalize unprocessed Ags.

Back 1576

False. B cells recognize unprocessed Ags, but T cells can recognize only processed Ags.

Front 1577

What type of hypersensitivity is a result of high circulating levels of soluble immune complexes made up of IgG or IgM Abs?

Back 1577

Type III hypersensitivity reaction

Front 1578

At what stage of B-cell development can IgM or IgD be expressed on the cell surface?

Back 1578

Mature B cell; the memory B cell can have IgG, IgA, or IgE on its surface.

Front 1579

What T cell deficiency syndrome is associated with facial anomalies, hypoparathyroidism, thymic hypoplasia, and recurrent viral and fungal infections?

Back 1579

DiGeorge syndrome, which is due to a failure of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouch development. Remember, B cell deficiencies are associated with extracellular infection. T cell deficiencies are associated with intracellular infections

Front 1580

What is the stimulus for the classical pathway activation?

Back 1580

Ag-Ab complexes. The alternative pathway protects without use of Abs; the pathogen is the stimulus.

Front 1581

What is the first membrane-bound Ig on B cell membranes?

Back 1581

IgM; IgD follows shortly thereafter.

Front 1582

What region of the Ig does not change with class switching?

Back 1582

Hypervariable region

Front 1583

In MHC class II molecules, what chain blocks access to the peptide-binding groove during transportation within the cell, ensuring that the MHC class II–peptide complex is transported to the surface?

Back 1583

Invariant chain. This is essential because the CD4 T cells have antigen receptors only for peptides bound to the MHC II molecule. (MHC restriction)

Front 1584

What chromosome codes for HLA gene products?

Back 1584

The short arm of chromosome 6

Front 1585

What cells are atypical on a peripheral blood smear in heterophil-positive mononucleosis?

Back 1585

T cells, not B cells

Front 1586

What is the major Ig of the secondary immune response in the mucosal barriers?

Back 1586

IgA

Front 1587

What AR disorder is seen by age 1 to 2 with recurrent sinopulmonary infections, uncoordinated muscle movements, and dilation of the blood vessels?

Back 1587

Ataxia-telangiectasia

Front 1588

What are the four chemotactic agents?

Back 1588

1. C5a 2. Leukotriene B4 3. IL-8 4. Bacterial peptides

Front 1589

What subset of CD4 helper T cells stimulate B-cell division and differentiation?

Back 1589

Th2

Front 1590

Which region of the variable domain comprises the Ag-binding site of the Ab?

Back 1590

Hypervariable region (three per light chain; three per heavy chain)

Front 1591

True or false? The increased oxygen consumption after phagocytosis is for ATP production.

Back 1591

False; it is for the production of toxic metabolites.

Front 1592

What is the limited portion of a large Ag that will actually be recognized and bound to an Ab and that contains approximately five to six amino acids or four to five hexose units?

Back 1592

Antigenic determinant (epitope). (Idiotypes bind to epitopes.)

Front 1593

What complement factor or factors are associated with • Chemotaxis?

Back 1593

C5a

Front 1594

What complement factor or factors are associated with • Membrane attack complex (MAC)?

Back 1594

C5–C9

Front 1595

What complement factor or factors are associated with • Opsonization?

Back 1595

C3b

Front 1596

What complement factor or factors are associated with • Anaphylaxis?

Back 1596

C3a, C4a, C5a

Front 1597

What happens to the Ab specificity when class switching occurs in mature B cells?

Back 1597

As the isotype is switched, the Ab specificity does not change because it does not affect the variable chains.

Front 1598

What IL down-regulates cell mediated immunity?

Back 1598

IL-10

Front 1599

Name the type of graft described by these transplants: • From one site to another on the same person

Back 1599

Autograft

Front 1600

Name the type of graft described by these transplants: Between genetically identical individuals

Back 1600

Isograft

Front 1601

Name the type of graft described by these transplants: • From one person to the next (the same species)

Back 1601

Allograft

Front 1602

Name the type of graft described by these transplants: • From one species to another

Back 1602

Xenograft

Front 1603

What is the name of the process in which cells migrate toward an attractant along a concentration gradient?

Back 1603

Chemotaxis

Front 1604

What are the two functions of the thymus in T-cell differentiation?

Back 1604

Hormone secretion for T-cell differentiation and T-cell education to recognize self from nonself

Front 1605

What is the name of the T cell–rich area of the lymph node?

Back 1605

Paracortex

Front 1606

What cell surface marker do all T cells have?

Back 1606

CD3

Front 1607

True or false? Patients with common variable hypogammaglobinemia have B cells in the peripheral blood.

Back 1607

True. Common variable hypogammaglobinemia first appears by the time patients reach their 20s and is associated with a gradual decrease in Ig levels over time.

Front 1608

What is the Ig associated with the primary immune response?

Back 1608

IgM

Front 1609

What MHC class of antigens do all nucleated cells carry on their surface membranes?

Back 1609

MHC class I antigens; they are also found on the surface of platelets.

Front 1610

What Ig is responsible for activation of complement, opsonization, and ADCC and is actively transported across the placenta?

Back 1610

IgG

Front 1611

What type of Ag do T cells recognize?

Back 1611

Processed antigenic peptides bound in the groove of the MHC molecule

Front 1612

What Ig is the major protective factor in colostrum?

Back 1612

IgA

Front 1613

What is the second cell involved in the immune response?

Back 1613

The CD4 T cell; the APC is the first cell in the immune response.

Front 1614

What is the term for thymic induction of T cells with high-affinity Ag receptors for self that are programmed to undergo apoptosis?

Back 1614

Negative selection. This helps to prevent autoimmune diseases.

Front 1615

What five main oxidizing reactions are used to kill ingested organisms?

Back 1615

1. H2O2 2. Superoxide 3. Hydroxyl radical 4. Myeloperoxidase 5. Hypochlorous acid

Front 1616

What Ig is associated with ADCC for parasites?

Back 1616

IgE

Front 1617

True or false? RBCs do not have MHC class I Ags on their surface.

Back 1617

True. Remember, all nucleated cells (and platelets) have MHC class I Ags, and RBCs are not nucleated.

Front 1618

What Ig is associated with mast cell and basophil binding?

Back 1618

IgE. It attaches via receptor for the Fc region of the heavy epsilon chain

Front 1619

What IL do T cells secrete to induce T-and B-cell division?

Back 1619

IL-2. T cells express IL-2 receptors on their surface to induce self-expression.

Front 1620

Development of what T cell line follows low affinity for self-MHC class II Ags in the thymus?

Back 1620

CD4+T cells

Front 1621

What is the term for a substance secreted by a leukocyte in response to a stimulus?

Back 1621

Cytokine. If a cytokine affects another class of leukocytes, it is called an interleukin.

Front 1622

What subset of CD4 T cells is responsible for mast cell and eosinophil precursor proliferation?

Back 1622

Th2 cells

Front 1623

What are the four major functions of the acquired immune system?

Back 1623

1. Recognize self from nonself 2. Amplify via cell division or complementation 3. Control the level of the response 4. Remove foreign material

Front 1624

What endotoxin receptor is the best marker for macrophages?

Back 1624

CD14

Front 1625

What is the term for the inherent ability to induce a specific immune response?

Back 1625

Immunogenicity; antigenicity refers to Ab/lymphocyte reaction to a specific substance.

Front 1626

What molecule differentiates the MHC class I from II Ag? (Hint: it's in the light chain.)

Back 1626

The Beta-2-microglobin. It is the separately encoded Beta-chain for class I Ags.

Front 1627

What B cell disorder is characterized by pre-B cells in the bone marrow, no circulating B cells in plasma, normal cell-mediated immunity, low Igs, and appearance by 6 months of age?

Back 1627

Bruton X-linked hypogammaglobinemia. Tyrosine kinase deficiency leads to inadequate B cell maturation.

Front 1628

What subtype of IgG does not bind to staphylococcal A protein?

Back 1628

IgG3

Front 1629

What mast cell mediator is a chemotactic agent?

Back 1629

Eosinophil chemotactic factor A

Front 1630

What is the major Ig of the secondary immune response?

Back 1630

IgG

Front 1631

What T-cell surface projection recognizes and reacts to foreign Ags (presented by APCs)?

Back 1631

TCR

Front 1632

What is the confirmatory test for HIV?

Back 1632

Western blot

Front 1633

What is the name of the major chemotactic agent released from • Neutrophils?

Back 1633

Leukotriene B4 (LTB4)

Front 1634

What is the name of the major chemotactic agent released from • Macrophages?

Back 1634

IL-8 (IL-1 and TNF-gamma also)

Front 1635

What is the name of the major chemotactic agent released from • The blood serum? (Hint: it is a complement factor.)

Back 1635

C5a

Front 1636

What is the name of the major chemotactic agent released from • Bacteria?

Back 1636

F-Met-Peptides

Front 1637

What cell surface marker is found on blood B cells?

Back 1637

CD19

Front 1638

What is the name of the B cell–rich area in the lymph node?

Back 1638

Primary follicle of the cortex

Front 1639

What are the four ways to down-regulate the immune system?

Back 1639

1. Decrease concentrations of Ag levels 2. Administer IgG in high concentrations 3. Inhibit B cells with Ag bound to IgG (complexes) 4. Turn off the original T or B cell with anti-Ab

Front 1640

What is the only Ig that crosses the placenta?

Back 1640

IgG

Front 1641

What is given to pregnant women within 24 hours after birth to eliminate Rh+ fetal blood cells from their circulation?

Back 1641

Rho (D) immune globulin (RhoGAM), an anti-RhD IgG antibody, prevents generation of RhD-specific memory B cells in the mother.

Front 1642

What IL is essential for lymphoid cell development?

Back 1642

IL-7 (A 7 upside down is an L; L is for Lymphoid)

Front 1643

What type of cell can never leave the lymph node?

Back 1643

Plasma cell

Front 1644

Via what pathway is glycolysis increased after phagocytosis?

Back 1644

HMP shunt

Front 1645

What is the term for a delay in the onset of normal IgG synthesis seen in the fifth to sixth month of life?

Back 1645

Transient hypogammaglobinemia of infancy; it usually resolves by age 16 to 30 months.

Front 1646

What subset of CD4 helper T-cell function is helping the development of CD8 T cells?

Back 1646

Th1; they are also responsible for delayed-type hypersensitivity (type IV)

Front 1647

What is the term for the strength of the association between Ags and Abs?

Back 1647

Avidity. There is a positive correlation between valence numbers and avidity.

Front 1648

What type of Ag do B cells recognize?

Back 1648

Free, unprocessed Ag

Front 1649

What Ig is associated with Ag recognition receptor on the surface of mature B cells?

Back 1649

IgD; IgM is also correct.

Front 1650

Which chromosome is associated with MHC genes?

Back 1650

Chromosome 6

Front 1651

What is the term for processing an APC's pinocytosed material by fusing with a lysosomal granule and cleaving the Ag into peptide fragments?

Back 1651

Ag processing; it is needed for class I molecules. Class II molecules have an invariant chain that protects them from breakdown.

Front 1652

What is the most common precipitin test used in clinical medicine?

Back 1652

Radial Immuno Diffusion (RID) for Ig levels.

Front 1653

What Ig activates the complement cascade most efficiently?

Back 1653

IgM

Front 1654

What assay is used to identify MHC class I molecules?

Back 1654

Microcytotoxic assay

Front 1655

Which IL increases IgA synthesis?

Back 1655

IL-5. It also stimulates eosinophil proliferation.

Front 1656

What is the term for an immunogenic agent that is too small to elicit an immune response?

Back 1656

Hapten; if it is coupled with a carrier, it may become immunogenic.

Front 1657

What type II hypersensitivity disorder is defined as • Autoantibodies directed against ACh receptors?

Back 1657

Myasthenia gravis

Front 1658

What type II hypersensitivity disorder is defined as • Autoantibodies directed against platelet integrin?

Back 1658

Autoimmune thrombocytopenia purpura

Front 1659

What type II hypersensitivity disorder is defined as • Autoantibodies against the type IV collagen in the basement membrane of the kidneys and lungs?

Back 1659

Goodpasture syndrome

Front 1660

What type II hypersensitivity disorder is defined as • Autoantibodies directed against the TSH receptor?

Back 1660

Graves disease

Front 1661

What type II hypersensitivity disorder is defined as • Autoantibodies directed against RBC Ag I?

Back 1661

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

Front 1662

What Ig activates the alternate pathway, neutralizes bacterial endotoxins and viruses, and prevents bacterial adherence?

Back 1662

IgA

Front 1663

What enzyme is deficient in patients with CGD?

Back 1663

NADPH oxidase is deficient, resulting in an inability to produce toxic metabolites.

Front 1664

What subtype of IgG does not activate complement cascade?

Back 1664

IgG4

Front 1665

What two cell lines of the immune system do not belong to the innate branch?

Back 1665

T and B-cells belong to the adaptive branch, whereas PMNs, NK cells, eosinophils, macrophages, and monocytes belong to the innate branch.

Front 1666

What subset of T cells recognizes the MHC class II Ags?

Back 1666

CD4+ T cells (helper)

Front 1667

What T cell line arises from low affinity for self-MHC class I Ags in the thymus?

Back 1667

CD8+ T cells

Front 1668

What MHC class functions as a target for elimination of abnormal host cells?

Back 1668

MHC class I Ags (the endogenous pathway). This allows the body to eliminate tumor cells, virus-infected cells—anything the body recognizes as nonself via CD8+ T cells.

Front 1669

What are the three polymorphonuclear leukocytes? Be specific.

Back 1669

Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils

Front 1670

What disease is associated with the HLA-A3 allele

Back 1670

Primary Hemochromatosis

Front 1671

What diseases are associated with the HLA-B27 allele

Back 1671

Psoriasis, ankylosing spondylitis, inflammatory bowel disease, and Reiter's syndrome

Front 1672

What disease is associated with the HLA-DR2 and HLA-DR3 alleles

Back 1672

Systemic lupus erythematosus

Front 1673

What diseases are associated with the HLA-DR3 allele

Back 1673

Sjogren's syndrome, active hepatitis, systemic lupus erythematosus (with HLA-DR2) and type 1 diabetes (with HLA-DR4)

Front 1674

What diseases are associated with HLA-DR4

Back 1674

Rheumatoid arthritis and type 1 diabetes (with HLA-DR3)

Front 1675

What does Candida albicans do that distinguishes it from other fungi?

Back 1675

It forms a germinal tube at 37°C.

Front 1676

What protozoal parasite results in dysentery with blood and pus in the stool, is transmitted via fecal-oral route, is diagnosed by cysts or trophozoites in the stool, and forms liver abscesses and inverted flask-shaped lesions in the large intestine?

Back 1676

Entamoeba histolytica (treat with metronidazole)

Front 1677

What is the most likely causative organism for a patient with folliculitis after spending time in a hot tub?

Back 1677

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Front 1678

What two viruses get their envelope not from budding but from coding?

Back 1678

HIV and poxvirus

Front 1679

Which type of hepatitis can cause hepatocellular carcinoma?

Back 1679

Hepatitis B

Front 1680

Gas gangrene is associated with which Clostridium species?

Back 1680

Clostridium perfrigens

Front 1681

Which dimorphic fungus is found as hyphae with nondescript conidia in rotting wood in the Upper Great Lakes, Ohio, Mississippi, eastern seaboard of the United States, and southern Canada?

Back 1681

Blastomyces dermatitidis

Front 1682

Which parasitic organism, when it crosses the placenta, results in intracerebral calcifications, chorioretinitis, microcephaly, hydrocephaly, and convulsions?

Back 1682

Toxoplasma gondii

Front 1683

What staphylococcal species is positive for Beta-hemolysis and coagulase?

Back 1683

Staphylococcus aureus

Front 1684

What vector is associated with malaria?

Back 1684

Anopheles mosquito

Front 1685

What is the term for hyphae with constrictions at each septum that are commonly seen in Candida albicans?

Back 1685

Pseudohyphae

Front 1686

Which cestode infection results in alveolar hydatid cyst disease?

Back 1686

Echinococcus multilocularis

Front 1687

Which hepatitis virus is in the Flaviviridae family?

Back 1687

Hepatitis C

Front 1688

What nonmotile gram-negative, non–lactose-fermenting facultative anaerobic rod uses the human colon as its only reservoir and is transmitted by fecal-oral spread?

Back 1688

Shigella

Front 1689

What is the only Rickettsia that is stable in the environment?

Back 1689

Coxiella burnetii

Front 1690

Regarding the viral growth curve, is the internal virus present before or after the eclipse period?

Back 1690

After the eclipse period

Front 1691

What Ab is an indication of recurrent disease for hepatitis?

Back 1691

HBc Ab

Front 1692

What small gram-positive, non–spore-forming rod is a facultative intracellular parasite that grows in the cold and is associated with unpasteurized milk products?

Back 1692

Listeria monocytogenes

Front 1693

What is the only DNA virus that is not icosahedral?

Back 1693

Poxvirus

Front 1694

Which organism causes trench mouth?

Back 1694

Fusobacterium

Front 1695

True or false? All of the following are inactivated vaccines available in the United States: influenza, Vibrio cholera, hepatitis A, rabies, and adenovirus.

Back 1695

False. Adenovirus vaccine is a live pathogenic virus in an enteric coated capsule. All of the others are inactivated vaccines.

Front 1696

Name the Plasmodium species based on the following information: No persistent liver stage or relapse; blood smear shows multiple ring forms and crescent-shaped gametes; irregular febrile pattern; associated with cerebral malaria

Back 1696

Plasmodium falciparum

Front 1697

Name the Plasmodium species based on the following information:No persistent liver stage or relapse; blood smear shows rosette schizonts; 72-hour fever spike pattern

Back 1697

Plasmodium malariae

Front 1698

Name the Plasmodium species based on the following information:Persistent hypnozoite liver stage with relapses; blood smear shows amoeboid trophozoites with oval, jagged infected RBCs; 48-hour fever spike pattern

Back 1698

Plasmodium ovale

Front 1699

Name the Plasmodium species based on the following information: Persistent hypnozoite liver stage with relapses; blood smear shows amoeboid trophozoites; 48-hour fever spike pattern; the most prevalent form worldwide

Back 1699

Plasmodium vivax

Front 1700

True or false? A positive PPD skin test indicates the patient has active pulmonary disease.

Back 1700

False. The PPD tests exposure to TB.

Front 1701

What viral infection is known to cause intracerebral calcifications?

Back 1701

CMV; Toxoplasma also causes intracerebral calcifications but it is a parasite.

Front 1702

What viruses are associated with cervical carcinoma?

Back 1702

HPVs 16 and 18

Front 1703

What motile, gram-negative spiral bacillus with flagella is oxidase positive, urease positive, and associated with gastritis, peptic ulcer disease, and stomach cancer?

Back 1703

Helicobacter pylori

Front 1704

What glycoprotein in the HIV virus is used for fusion?

Back 1704

GP41

Front 1705

What Ag is needed to diagnose an infectious patient with hepatitis B?

Back 1705

HBeAg

Front 1706

Which organism causes multiple infections by antigen switching?

Back 1706

Borrelia recurrentis

Front 1707

What is the first Ag seen in an individual with hepatitis?

Back 1707

HBsAg (incubation period)

Front 1708

With which DNA virus are Guarnieri bodies associated?

Back 1708

Variola (smallpox)

Front 1709

What nematode is known as pinworms? What is the treatment?

Back 1709

Enterobius vermicularis; the treatment is albendazole.

Front 1710

What protein allows Mycoplasma to attach to the respiratory epithelium?

Back 1710

P1 protein

Front 1711

What organism is associated with the following types of diarrhea? Day care–associated diarrhea in infants

Back 1711

Rotavirus

Front 1712

What organism is associated with the following types of diarrhea? Watery diarrhea from beef, poultry, or gravies

Back 1712

Clostridium perfringens

Front 1713

What organism is associated with the following types of diarrhea? Rice water stools

Back 1713

Vibrio cholera

Front 1714

What organism is associated with the following types of diarrhea? Diarrhea associated with raw or undercooked shellfish

Back 1714

Vibrio parahaemolyticus

Front 1715

What organism is associated with the following types of diarrhea? Bloody diarrhea associated with hamburger ingestion

Back 1715

Enterohemorhagic Escherichia coli

Front 1716

Which fungus is found worldwide on plants, is a cigar-shaped yeast in tissue form, and results in rose gardener's disease?

Back 1716

Sporothrix schenckii

Front 1717

Which type of hepatitis is a picornavirus?

Back 1717

Hepatitis A (infectious)

Front 1718

What gram-positive rod is distinguished by its tumbling motility?

Back 1718

Listeria

Front 1719

What is the vector for Leishmania infections?

Back 1719

The sandfly

Front 1720

What is the term of the viral growth period when no viruses can be found intracellularly?

Back 1720

Eclipse period

Front 1721

What organism causes Q fever?

Back 1721

Coxiella burnetii

Front 1722

What are the three naked RNA viruses?

Back 1722

1. Picornavirus 2. Calicivirus 3. Reovirus (Remember PCR)

Front 1723

HIV's capsid, core nucleocapsid, and matrix proteins are products of what structural gene?

Back 1723

gag gene

Front 1724

What facultative intracellular fungus is associated with hepatosplenomegaly?

Back 1724

Histoplasma capsulatum infects the cells of the RES and can result in hepatosplenomegaly.

Front 1725

What type of hepatitis has the highest mortality rate among pregnant women?

Back 1725

Hepatitis E

Front 1726

Which gram-negative diplococcus ferments maltose?

Back 1726

Meningococcus (Gonococcus does not)

Front 1727

Are antibiotics helpful in treating a disease caused by a prion?

Back 1727

No. Prions are infectious proteins, so antibiotics are useless.

Front 1728

What bacterium is responsible for woolsorter's disease?

Back 1728

Bacillus anthracis

Front 1729

What picornavirus is associated with hand-foot-and-mouth disease?

Back 1729

Coxsackie A

Front 1730

What is the only trematode that is not hermaphroditic?

Back 1730

Schistosoma have separate males and females.

Front 1731

What water-associated organism is a weakly stained gram-negative rod that requires cysteine and iron for growth?

Back 1731

Legionella (think air conditioners)

Front 1732

With what virus are Downey type II cells associated?

Back 1732

EBV

Front 1733

True or false? Interferons are eukaryotic proteins that inhibit viral replication by being virus specific.

Back 1733

False. Interferons are produced by virally infected cells to inhibit viral replication via RNA endonucleases. They do not act directly on the virus, nor are they virus specific.

Front 1734

What is the vector for yellow fever?

Back 1734

Aedes mosquito

Front 1735

What small, facultative gram-negative intracellular rod's transmission is associated with unpasteurized dairy products and undulant fever?

Back 1735

Brucella

Front 1736

True or false? All Proteus species are urease positive.

Back 1736

TRUE

Front 1737

Which genus of dermatophytes is associated with the following sites of infection? • Nails and skin only

Back 1737

Epidermophyton

Front 1738

Which genus of dermatophytes is associated with the following sites of infection? • Hair and skin only

Back 1738

Microsporum

Front 1739

Which genus of dermatophytes is associated with the following sites of infection? • Skin, hair, and nails

Back 1739

Trichophyton

Front 1740

What protein of the HIV virus does ELISA detect to determine whether a patient is HIV positive?

Back 1740

P24

Front 1741

What genus of bacteria is described by catalase-positive, gram-positive cocci in clusters?

Back 1741

Staphylococcus

Front 1742

True or false? Vibrio parahaemolyticus require NaCl in its growth medium.

Back 1742

True. Staphylococcus aureus and group D enterococci also grow in high-salt media.

Front 1743

What virus causes small pink benign wartlike tumors and is associated with HIV-positive patients?

Back 1743

Molluscum contagiosum

Front 1744

What two bacteria are associated with drinking unpasteurized milk?

Back 1744

Brucella and Listeria (has tumbling motility)

Front 1745

What cestode causes cysticercosis?

Back 1745

Taenia solium

Front 1746

What DNA virus is associated with exanthem subitum (roseola)?

Back 1746

HHV 6

Front 1747

Which acid-fast rod is an obligate intracellular parasite?

Back 1747

Mycobacterium leprae

Front 1748

What form of the Plasmodium species is ingested by mosquitoes?

Back 1748

Gametocytes

Front 1749

What small gram-negative aerobic rod requires Regan-Lowe or Bordet- Gengou medium for growth?

Back 1749

Bordetella pertussis

Front 1750

True or false? Streptococci have catalase.

Back 1750

False. Staphylococci have catalase; streptococci do not.

Front 1751

What three bacteria are positive to quellung reactive test?

Back 1751

1. Neisseria meningitidis 2. Haemophilus influenzae 3. Streptococcus pneumoniae

Front 1752

A patient goes to the ER with abdominal cramps, vomiting, diarrhea, and sweating less than 24 hours after eating potato salad at a picnic; what is the most likely responsible organism?

Back 1752

Staphylococcus aureus

Front 1753

True or false? All spore formers are gram positive.

Back 1753

TRUE

Front 1754

What is the only DNA virus that has the reverse transcriptase enzyme?

Back 1754

Hepadnavirus

Front 1755

What enzyme does HIV use to integrate the proviral dsDNA into the host?

Back 1755

Integrase

Front 1756

What are the two hepatitis viruses that can be chronic and can lead eventually to hepatocellular carcinoma?

Back 1756

Hepatitis B and hepatitis C

Front 1757

What gram-positive spore-forming anaerobic rod blocks the release of ACh at the NMJ, resulting in reversible flaccid paralysis?

Back 1757

Clostridium botulinum

Front 1758

Name three products of HIV's pol gene.

Back 1758

Protease, integrase, and reverse transcriptase

Front 1759

What form of Plasmodium species affects the liver?

Back 1759

Hypnozoite

Front 1760

What small coagulase-positive, gram-negative rod with bipolar staining is a facultative intracellular parasite resulting in buboes?

Back 1760

Yersinia pestis

Front 1761

What hemoflagellate species is the cause of Chagas disease?

Back 1761

Trypanosoma cruzi

Front 1762

To what host cell receptor does the rabies virus attach?

Back 1762

ACh receptor

Front 1763

Which hepatitis virus is in the Picornaviridae family?

Back 1763

Hepatitis A

Front 1764

Abs to what hepatitis B Ag provide immunity?

Back 1764

Abs to HBsAg

Front 1765

What type of spore is defined as an asexual budding daughter yeast cell?

Back 1765

Blastoconidia

Front 1766

Which of the following characteristics accurately describe fungi, bacteria, viruses, or parasites? • Eukaryotic cell, 15 to 25 microns, 80S ribosomes, no cell walls, replicates via cytokinesis with mitosis and meiosis

Back 1766

Parasites

Front 1767

Which of the following characteristics accurately describe fungi, bacteria, viruses, or parasites? • Small prokaryotic cells; no histones; 70S ribosomes; no sterols in cell membrane; peptidoglycans in cell wall; replicate by binary fission

Back 1767

Bacteria

Front 1768

Which of the following characteristics accurately describe fungi, bacteria, viruses, or parasites? • Eukaryotic cell; 3 to 10 microns; 80S ribosomes; chitinous cell wall; ergosterol in cell membrane; replicate via cytokinesis with mitosis and meiosis

Back 1768

Fungi

Front 1769

Which of the following characteristics accurately describe fungi, bacteria, viruses, or parasites? • Acellular; some are enveloped; replicate within the host cell; no cell walls

Back 1769

Viruses

Front 1770

What mosquito is the vector for dengue fever?

Back 1770

Aedes (the same for yellow fever)

Front 1771

True or false? Gonococcus is encapsulated.

Back 1771

False. Meningococcus is encapsulated; Gonococcus is not.

Front 1772

What virus is associated with Guarnieri bodies?

Back 1772

Variola virus (Smallpox)

Front 1773

Regarding the viral growth curve, is the external virus present before or after the latent period?

Back 1773

After the latent period

Front 1774

What aerobic branching rod that is gram positive and partially acid-fast is associated with cavitary bronchopulmonary disease in immunosuppressed patients?

Back 1774

Nocardia asteroides

Front 1775

What obligate extracellular fungus is silver stain–positive and is associated with pneumonia in patients with AIDS?

Back 1775

Pneumocystis carinii

Front 1776

What Vi-encapsulated gram-negative motile anaerobic rod that produces H2S is associated with enteric fever, gastroenteritis, and septicemia?

Back 1776

Salmonella typhi

Front 1777

What is the most likely organism causing cellulitis in a patient who was cut by an oyster shell?

Back 1777

Vibrio vulnificus

Front 1778

What virus is associated with the Norwalk agent?

Back 1778

Calicivirus

Front 1779

Describe the organism based on the following information: • Beta-Hemolytic Streptococcus; positive cAMP test; hydrolyzes hippurate

Back 1779

Streptococcus agalactiae

Front 1780

Describe the organism based on the following information: • Alpha-Hemolytic Streptococcus; lysed by bile; sensitive to Optochin

Back 1780

Pneumococcus (Streptococcus pneumoniae)

Front 1781

Describe the organism based on the following information: • Alpha-hemolytic Streptococcus; not lysed by bile; not sensitive to Optochin

Back 1781

Streptococcus viridans

Front 1782

Describe the organism based on the following information: • Beta-hemolytic Streptococcus sensitive to bacitracin

Back 1782

Streptococcus pyogenes

Front 1783

What is the only nonmotile pathogenic Clostridium species?

Back 1783

Clostridium perfringens

Front 1784

If a virus has positive sense RNA, can it be used as mRNA or is a template needed?

Back 1784

Positive sense RNA can be used as mRNA. Negative sense RNA cannot be used as mRNA; it requires special RNA-dependent RNA polymerases.

Front 1785

Where do adult tapeworms develop, in the intermediate or definitive host?

Back 1785

Adult tapeworms develop in the definitive host, whereas cysticerci or larvae develop in the intermediate host.

Front 1786

Which streptococcal species is characterized by being catalase negative, turning bile esculin agar black, producing a positive PYR test, and resulting in biliary and urinary tract infections?

Back 1786

Enterococcus (Streptococcus faecalis)

Front 1787

What three carcinomas are associated with EBV?

Back 1787

1. Burkitt's lymphoma 2. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma 3. Thymic carcinoma

Front 1788

Which organism causes trench fever?

Back 1788

Rochalimaea quintana (now called Bartonella quintana)

Front 1789

Based on the onset of the symptoms, how are bacterial conjunctivitis from Neisseria and Chlamydia differentiated?

Back 1789

The onset of symptoms for Neisseria gonorrhea conjunctivitis is 2 to 5 days, whereas onset of symptoms for Chlamydia trachomatis is 5 to 10 days.

Front 1790

What toxin, produced by Clostridium tetani, binds to ganglioside receptors and blocks the release of glycine and GABA at the spinal synapse?

Back 1790

Tetanospasmin (also called tetanus toxin)

Front 1791

True or false? All of the following are live attenuated vaccines available in the United States: measles, mumps, varicella zoster, and Francisella tularensis.

Back 1791

True. So are rubeola, smallpox, yellow fever, and the Sabin polio vaccine.

Front 1792

What family do the following viruses belong to? • Ebola

Back 1792

Filovirus

Front 1793

What family do the following viruses belong to? • California encephalitis

Back 1793

Bunyavirus

Front 1794

What family do the following viruses belong to? • Hantavirus

Back 1794

Bunyavirus

Front 1795

What family do the following viruses belong to? • Rabies

Back 1795

Rhabdovirus

Front 1796

What family do the following viruses belong to? • RSV

Back 1796

Paramyxovirus

Front 1797

What family do the following viruses belong to? • Measles

Back 1797

Paramyxovirus

Front 1798

What microaerophile is a motile gram-negative curved rod with polar flagella that causes infectious diarrhea at low doses (<500)?

Back 1798

Campylobacter jejuni

Front 1799

What bacterium is diagnosed using the Dieterle silver stain?

Back 1799

Legionella

Front 1800

How many strains of Pneumococcus capsular polysaccharides are present in the vaccine?

Back 1800

The vaccine contains 23 capsular polysaccharides.

Front 1801

What nematode is known as whipworms? What is the treatment?

Back 1801

Trichuris trichiura is treated with albendazole.

Front 1802

Which Streptococcus pyogenes toxin is immunogenic?

Back 1802

Streptolysin O

Front 1803

A urethral swab of a patient shows gram-negative diplococci in PMNs; what organism do you diagnose?

Back 1803

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Front 1804

A suspected dermatophyte infection is stained with KOH. What spore type do you expect to see?

Back 1804

Arthroconidia with hyphae

Front 1805

What negative sense RNA virus is associated with cough, coryza, and conjunctivitis with photophobia?

Back 1805

Measles (rubeola)

Front 1806

Which M-protein strain of Streptococcus pyogenes is associated with acute glomerulonephritis?

Back 1806

M12 strains

Front 1807

What are the three C's of measles?

Back 1807

1. Cough 2. Coryza 3. Conjunctivitis

Front 1808

What is the term given to arthropod-borne viruses?

Back 1808

Arboviruses (bunyavirus, flavivirus, and togavirus)

Front 1809

Which organism causes Weil's disease?

Back 1809

Leptospira

Front 1810

What form of the Plasmodium species are injected into humans by mosquitoes?

Back 1810

Sporozoites

Front 1811

What ssDNA virus must make dsDNA before it makes mRNA?

Back 1811

Parvovirus (it is the only ssDNA virus)

Front 1812

What is the vector of African sleeping sickness?

Back 1812

The tsetse fly

Front 1813

What HIV enzyme produces a dsDNA provirus?

Back 1813

Reverse transcriptase

Front 1814

What non–spore-forming gram-positive aerobic rod produces bull neck, sore throat with pseudomembranes, myocarditis, and sometimes respiratory obstructions?

Back 1814

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Front 1815

What organism is associated with megaloblastic anemia?

Back 1815

Diphyllobothrium latum

Front 1816

What is the most serious form of tinea capitis, which results in permanent hair loss and is highly contagious?

Back 1816

Tinea favosa (favus)

Front 1817

What are the first intermediate hosts for trematodes?

Back 1817

Snails

Front 1818

What are the four capsular polysaccharides used in the Neisseria meningitides vaccine?

Back 1818

Y, W-135, and C and A capsular polysaccharides

Front 1819

What is the only encapsulated fungal pathogen?

Back 1819

Cryptococcus

Front 1820

What type of spore is asexual and formed of hyphae?

Back 1820

Conidia

Front 1821

What is the only Plasmodium that is quartan?

Back 1821

Plasmodium malariae; the others are tertian.

Front 1822

Which bacteria are associated with the following pigment production? • Red pigmentation

Back 1822

Serratia

Front 1823

Which bacteria are associated with the following pigment production? • Black-gray pigmentation

Back 1823

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Front 1824

Which bacteria are associated with the following pigment production? • Pyocyanin (blue-green)

Back 1824

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Front 1825

Which bacteria are associated with the following pigment production? • Yellow pigmentation

Back 1825

Staphylococcus aureus

Front 1826

Which carcinoma—Burkitt's lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma, hepatocellular carcinoma, or thymic carcinoma—is not associated with EBV?

Back 1826

Hepatocellular carcinoma is associated with hepatitis B and C infections, not with EBV.

Front 1827

What capsular serotype is associated with Escherichia coli– induced meningitis?

Back 1827

K1 capsule

Front 1828

What two Ags must be positive for a patient to have chronic active hepatitis?

Back 1828

HBsAg and HBeAg

Front 1829

In the window phase of a hepatitis B infection, which Abs do you see?

Back 1829

HBcAb and HBeAb. You see the antibodies c and e.

Front 1830

True or false? All streptococci are catalase-negative

Back 1830

TRUE

Front 1831

In what trimester is the fetus most vulnerable to congenital rubella syndrome?

Back 1831

The first trimester

Front 1832

What virus causes hoof-and-mouth disease?

Back 1832

Vesicular stomatitis virus

Front 1833

Which gram-negative diplococcus grows on chocolate agar? Thayer- Martin medium?

Back 1833

Meningococcus grows on chocolate agar, and Gonococcus grows on Thayer-Martin medium.

Front 1834

Which protozoal parasitic vaginal infection produces a positive whiff test with KOH staining?

Back 1834

Trichomonas vaginalis (treat with metronidazole)

Front 1835

Name the DNA virus • Linear dsDNA; enveloped; virion-associated polymerases; replicates in the cytoplasm :

Back 1835

Poxvirus

Front 1836

Name the DNA virus • Linear dsDNA; nuclear envelope; icosahedral; replicates in the nucleus

Back 1836

Herpes virus

Front 1837

Name the DNA virus: • Linear dsDNA; naked; replicates in the nucleus

Back 1837

Adenovirus

Front 1838

Name the DNA virus: • ssDNA; naked; icosahedral; replicates in the nucleus

Back 1838

Parvovirus

Front 1839

Name the DNA virus: • Partially dsDNA circular; enveloped; virion-associated polymerases; has RNA intermediate; replicates in the nucleus

Back 1839

Hepadnavirus

Front 1840

Name the DNA virus: • Circular dsDNA; naked; icosahedral; replicates in the nucleus

Back 1840

Papovavirus

Front 1841

What fungus is urease positive?

Back 1841

Cryptococcus

Front 1842

What bacterium is characterized by large boxcar-shaped gram-positive rods and is spore-forming, aerobic, and associated with cutaneous infections and woolsorter's disease?

Back 1842

Bacillus anthracis

Front 1843

Is the Salk polio vaccine inactivated?

Back 1843

Yes

Front 1844

True or false? All negative sense RNA viruses are enveloped.

Back 1844

True. They all have helical nucleocapsids and virion-associated polymerases too.

Front 1845

What urease-positive non–lactose-fermenting gram-negative rod with swarming-type motility is associated with staghorn renal calculi?

Back 1845

Proteus

Front 1846

What two viruses are associated with Reye's syndrome?

Back 1846

Varicella virus and influenza virus

Front 1847

Which organism releases endotoxins prior to cell death?

Back 1847

Neisseria meningitidis

Front 1848

Clue cells are associated with which organism that causes vaginal discharge?

Back 1848

Gardnerella vaginalis

Front 1849

What is the name of the bullet-shaped virus?

Back 1849

Rhabdovirus

Front 1850

What fungus is characterized by India ink staining of the CSF that produces colorless cells with a halo on a black background?

Back 1850

Cryptococcus neoformans

Front 1851

What does hepatitis D virus need from hepatitis B virus to be infective?

Back 1851

HBsAg as its envelope

Front 1852

Which type of hepatitis is a calicivirus?

Back 1852

Hepatitis E (enteric)

Front 1853

What genus is known as the smallest free living bacteria? (hint: has no cell wall and has sterols in the membrane)

Back 1853

Mycoplasma

Front 1854

What three organs can be affected by Trypanosoma cruzi?

Back 1854

Heart, esophagus, and colon. Remember, you get megas: cardiomegaly, megaesophagus, and megacolon.

Front 1855

Which serotypes of HPV are associated with plantar warts?

Back 1855

HPV serotypes 1 and 4

Front 1856

What facultative gram-negative anaerobic rod is motile, ferments lactose, and is the MCC of UTIs?

Back 1856

Escherichia coli

Front 1857

What is the only dsRNA virus?

Back 1857

Reovirus

Front 1858

What are the four segmented RNA viruses?

Back 1858

1. Bunyavirus 2. Orthomyxovirus 3. Arenavirus 4. Reovirus Remember BOAR

Front 1859

What type of Plasmodium affects • Only mature RBCs?

Back 1859

Plasmodium malariae

Front 1860

What type of Plasmodium affects • Only reticulocytes?

Back 1860

Plasmodium vivax

Front 1861

What type of Plasmodium affects • RBCs of all ages?

Back 1861

Plasmodium falciparum

Front 1862

What is the major cell membrane sterol found in fungi?

Back 1862

Ergosterol

Front 1863

What Ab is an indication of low transmissibility for hepatitis?

Back 1863

HBeAb

Front 1864

What is the term for RNA-dependent DNA polymerase?

Back 1864

Reverse transcriptase

Front 1865

Which gram-positive bacteria infection of infancy is associated with ingestion of honey?

Back 1865

Clostridium botulinum

Front 1866

Which trematode is associated with bladder carcinoma in Egypt and Africa?

Back 1866

Schistosoma haematobium

Front 1867

Which encapsulated fungus is found in soil enriched with pigeon droppings?

Back 1867

Cryptococcus neoformans

Front 1868

What virus lies dormant in the • Trigeminal ganglia?

Back 1868

Herpes I

Front 1869

What virus lies dormant in the • Dorsal root ganglia?

Back 1869

Varicella

Front 1870

What virus lies dormant in the • Sensory ganglia of S2 and S3?

Back 1870

Herpes II

Front 1871

What is the name of the exotoxin Shigella dysenteriae produces, which interferes with the 60S ribosomal subunit and results in eukaryotic protein synthesis inhibition?

Back 1871

Shiga toxin (enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli produces Vero toxin, which is quite similar to shiga toxin)

Front 1872

What protozoal parasite forms flasked-shaped lesions in the duodenum, is transmitted via fecal-oral route, and is commonly seen in campers who drank stream water?

Back 1872

Giardia lamblia (treat with metronidazole)

Front 1873

What color do fungi stain with PAS? Silver stain?

Back 1873

Hot pink with PAS and grey to black with silver stain

Front 1874

A tropical fish enthusiast has granulomatous lesions and cellulitis; what is the most likely offending organism?

Back 1874

Mycobacterium marinum

Front 1875

Which dimorphic fungus is found as Arthroconidia in desert sand of the southwestern United States (e.g., San Joaquin Valley)?

Back 1875

Coccidioides immitis

Front 1876

Which mycoplasma species is associated with urethritis, prostatitis, and renal calculi?

Back 1876

Ureaplasma urealyticum

Front 1877

What tick is the vector for babesiosis?

Back 1877

Ixodes (also the vector for Lyme disease)

Front 1878

What is the only DNA virus that does not replicate its DNA in the nucleus of the host cell?

Back 1878

Poxvirus replicates its DNA in the cytoplasm.

Front 1879

What organism would you suspect in a patient with diarrhea after eating rice?

Back 1879

Bacillus cereus

Front 1880

What small gram-negative facultative intracellular rod is transmitted to human host by Dermacentor tick bite?

Back 1880

Francisella tularensis

Front 1881

True or false? Cestodes have no GI tract.

Back 1881

True. They absorb nutrients from the host's GI tract.

Front 1882

What negative sense RNA virus is associated with parotitis, pancreatitis, and orchitis?

Back 1882

Mumps

Front 1883

What is the size of a positive PPD test for the following? (Reactive) • IV drug abuser

Back 1883

>10 mm

Front 1884

What is the size of a positive PPD test for the following? (Reactive) • Patient with AIDS

Back 1884

>5 mm

Front 1885

What is the size of a positive PPD test for the following? (Reactive) • Recent immigrant from India

Back 1885

>10 mm

Front 1886

What is the size of a positive PPD test for the following? (Reactive) • Healthy suburban male without any medical illnesses

Back 1886

>15 mm

Front 1887

What is the size of a positive PPD test for the following? (Reactive) • Posttransplantation patient taking immunosuppressive agents

Back 1887

>5 mm

Front 1888

What are the only two picornaviruses that do not lead to aseptic meningitis?

Back 1888

Rhinovirus and hepatitis A virus

Front 1889

Which cestode in raw or rare beef containing cysticerci results in intestinal tapeworms?

Back 1889

Taenia saginata

Front 1890

What DNA viral disease is associated with aplastic crisis in patients with sickle cell anemia?

Back 1890

Parvovirus B-19

Front 1891

What glycoprotein in the HIV virus attaches to CD4?

Back 1891

GP120

Front 1892

What Enterobacteriaceae are prone to produce osteomyelitis in sickle cell patients?

Back 1892

Salmonella

Front 1893

What organism is commonly associated with a cellulitis from an animal bite?

Back 1893

Pasteurella multocida

Front 1894

What fungus is seen as colored cauliflower lesions?

Back 1894

Chromomycosis

Front 1895

What is the reservoir for the togavirus?

Back 1895

Birds

Front 1896

What are the two exceptions to the rule "all cocci are gram positive"?

Back 1896

Both Neisseria and Moraxella are gram-negative cocci.

Front 1897

What nematode is known as hookworms? What is the treatment?

Back 1897

Necator americanus is treated with mebendazole and iron therapy.

Front 1898

What HIV structural gene produces GP120 and GP41?

Back 1898

env structural protein

Front 1899

Which hemoflagellate species causes kala azar?

Back 1899

Leishmania donovani (kala azar is also known as visceral leishmaniasis)

Front 1900

What DNA virus is associated with heterophile-negative mononucleosis?

Back 1900

CMV; remember, EBV is associated with heterophile-positive mononucleosis.

Front 1901

What negative sense RNA virus is associated with intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies called Negri bodies?

Back 1901

Rabies

Front 1902

What large, spore-forming, gram-positive anaerobic rod is associated with infections due to puncture wounds and trauma?

Back 1902

Clostridium tetani

Front 1903

What is the vector for Chagas disease?

Back 1903

The reduviid bug

Front 1904

What is the polarity (i.e., 5'-3' or 3'-5') of a positive sense RNA?

Back 1904

Positive sense RNA means it can serve as mRNA and therefore has 5'-3' polarity

Front 1905

What viral infection is associated with black vomit?

Back 1905

Yellow fever (flavivirus)

Front 1906

What encapsulated gram-negative, lactose-fermenting rod is associated with pneumonia in patients with alcoholism, diabetes, and chronic lung disease?

Back 1906

Klebsiella pneumoniae

Front 1907

What is the essential reservoir host for Toxoplasma gondii?

Back 1907

The cat

Front 1908

What gram-positive anaerobic rod with branching filaments is a component of the normal flora of the mouth and female genital tract and is responsible for draining abscesses with sulfur granules in the exudates?

Back 1908

Actinomyces israelii

Front 1909

What is the term for Candida infection of the oral mucosa?

Back 1909

Thrush

Front 1910

What is the term for fungi that can convert from hyphal to yeast forms?

Back 1910

Dimorphic

Front 1911

To what viral family does the polio virus belong?

Back 1911

Picornaviridae

Front 1912

Name at least three bacteria that use capsules to prevent immediate destruction from the host's defense system.

Back 1912

Streptococcus pneumoniae, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Neisseria meningitidis; also Cryptococcus neoformans, a fungus

Front 1913

True or false? There are no persistent infections with naked viruses?

Back 1913

True. They lyse the host cell

Front 1914

What virus is associated with progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy?

Back 1914

JC virus

Front 1915

What bacterium is a gram-negative, oxidase-positive aerobic rod that produces a grapelike odor and pyocyanin pigmentation?

Back 1915

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Front 1916

Which three organisms cause heterophilic negative mononucleosis?

Back 1916

CMV, Toxoplasma gondii, and Listeria

Front 1917

What bacterium found in poorly preserved canned food causes flaccid paralysis?

Back 1917

Clostridium botulinum

Front 1918

Which two negative sense RNA viruses have neuraminidase enzymes?

Back 1918

Mumps and influenza virus

Front 1919

What Staphylococcus aureus protein inhibits phagocytosis?

Back 1919

Protein A

Front 1920

Which four bacteria require cysteine for growth?

Back 1920

Pasteurella, Brucella, Legionella, and Francisella (all of the-ellas)

Front 1921

What fungus causes endocarditis in IV drug users?

Back 1921

Candida albicans

Front 1922

What viruses are associated with Cowdry type A intranuclear inclusions?

Back 1922

Herpes virus I and II

Front 1923

Which streptococcal species is associated with dental caries and infective endocarditis in patients with poor oral hygiene?

Back 1923

Streptococcus viridans

Front 1924

What is the term for cestode-encysted larvae found in intermediate hosts?

Back 1924

Cysticerci

Front 1925

What fungus is characterized by hypopigmented spots on the thorax, spaghetti-and-meatball KOH staining, and pityriasis or tinea versicolor?

Back 1925

Malassezia furfur (treat with selenium sulfide)

Front 1926

What nematode is known as threadworms? What is the treatment?

Back 1926

Strongyloides stercoralis is treated with thiabendazole.

Front 1927

What are known as jumping genes?

Back 1927

Transposons

Front 1928

What virus produces koilocytic cells on a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear?

Back 1928

HPV

Front 1929

Which dimorphic fungus is endemic in the Ohio, Mississippi, Missouri, and Eastern Great Lakes, is found in soil with bird and bat feces, and is associated with infections in spelunkers and chicken coop cleaners?

Back 1929

Histoplasma capsulatum

Front 1930

Which of the following Enterobacteriaceae family members—Yersinia, Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Escherichia, Proteus, and Citrobacter— do not ferment lactose?

Back 1930

All are lactose fermenters except Yersinia and Proteus.

Front 1931

What two HIV regulatory genes down-regulate MHC class I expression in the host?

Back 1931

nef and tat genes

Front 1932

What size ribosomes do fungi have?

Back 1932

80S ribosomes (because they are eukaryotic)