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688 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What gland is found in the muscular triangle of the neck?
Thyroid gland
Is an afferent or efferent pupillary defect described as B/L pupillary constriction when light is shined in the unaffected eye and B/L paradoxical dilation when light is shined in the affected eye?
Afferent pupillary defect (CN II lesion); in an efferent pupillary defect (CN III), B/L constrict when light is shined in the unaffected eye and consentual pupil constriction occurs when light is shined in the affected eye.
What is the name of the spinal cord passing within the subarachnoid space and forming the spinal nerves that exit the lumbar and sacral foramina?
Cauda equina
Name the laryngeal muscle described by the following:
• Pulls the arytenoids cartilages closer to the thyroid, relaxing the vocal ligaments and thereby decreasing the pitch
Thyroarytenoid muscles
Name the laryngeal muscle described by the following:
• Tenses the vocal ligaments, increasing the distance between the cartilages, thereby increasing the pitch
Cricothyroid muscles
Name the laryngeal muscle described by the following:
• Adducts the vocal ligaments, closes the air passageway during swallowing, and allows phonation
Lateral cricoarytenoid muscles
Name the laryngeal muscle described by the following:
• Only muscle to abduct the vocal cords
Posterior cricoarytenoid muscles
Where does the parotid (Stensen's) duct enter the oral cavity?
Opposite the second upper molar tooth
From what aortic arch are the following structures derived?
• Common and internal carotid arteries
Third aortic arch

MS CARD is my mnemonic for the aortic arch derivatives
From what aortic arch are the following structures derived?
• Degenerates
Fifth

MS CARD is my mnemonic for the aortic arch derivatives
From what aortic arch are the following structures derived?
• Stapes artery
Second

MS CARD is my mnemonic for the aortic arch derivatives
From what aortic arch are the following structures derived?
• Maxillary artery
First

MS CARD is my mnemonic for the aortic arch derivatives
From what aortic arch are the following structures derived?
• Arch of the aorta and right subclavian artery
Fourth

MS CARD is my mnemonic for the aortic arch derivatives
From what aortic arch are the following structures derived?
• Right and left pulmonary arteries and the ductus arteriosus
Sixth

MS CARD is my mnemonic for the aortic arch derivatives
What abdominal muscle contributes to the anterior layer of the rectus sheath, forms the inguinal ligament, and in men gives rise to the external spermatic fascia of the spermatic cord?
External abdominal oblique
Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its movements.
• Adduct the thigh and flex the hip
Medial compartment of the thigh, obturator nerve
Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its movements.
• Plantar flex the foot, flex the toes, and invert the foot
Posterior compartment of the leg, tibial nerve
Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its movements.
• Dorsiflex the foot, extend the toes, and invert the foot
Anterior compartment of the leg, deep peroneal nerve
Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its movements.
• Flex the hip and extend the knee
Anterior compartment of the thigh, femoral nerve
Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its movements.
• Extend the hip and flex the knee
Posterior compartment of the thigh, tibial nerve
Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its movements.
• Plantar flex the foot and evert the foot
Lateral compartment of the leg, superficial peroneal nerve
What are the five branches of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus?
STARS

1. Upper Subscapularis
2. Thoracodorsal
3. Axillary
4. Radial
5. Lower Subscapularis
Name the correct artery.
• The right recurrent laryngeal nerve passes around it.
Right brachiocephalic artery
Name the correct artery.
• The left recurrent laryngeal nerve passes around it.
Arch of the aorta
The inferior mesenteric vein drains into it.
The splenic vein
Are the quadrate and caudate lobes of the liver functionally part of the left or right lobe?
Functionally they are part of the left lobe of the liver because they receive their blood supply from the left hepatic artery. Anatomically they are considered part of the right lobe of the liver.
What bones make up the acetabulum?
Pubis, ilium, and ischium
What is the anatomic positioning of the right and left gastric nerve plexus of the esophagus as they pass through the diaphragm?
LARP: Left goes Anterior and Right goes Posterior (because of the rotation of the gut; remember your embryology!)
What vessel is lacerated in an epidural hematoma?
Middle meningeal artery
True or false? Below the arcuate line, all the aponeurotic fibers run anterior to the rectus abdominis.
True
What ocular muscle
• Adducts the eyeball and is involved in horizontal conjugate gaze?
Medial rectus (CN III)

(LR6 SO4)3
What ocular muscle
• Elevates and adducts the eyeball?
Superior rectus (CN III)

(LR6 SO4)3
What ocular muscle
• Depresses and abducts the eyeball?
Superior Oblique (CN IV)

(LR6 SO4)3
What ocular muscle
• Elevates and abducts the eyeball?
Inferior Oblique (CN III)

(LR6 SO4)3
What ocular muscle
• Abducts the eyeball and is involved in horizontal conjugate gaze?
Lateral rectus (CN VI)

(LR6 SO4)3
What ocular muscle
• Depresses and adducts the eyeball?
Inferior rectus (CN III)

(LR6 SO4)3
Which muscles of the eye are under parasympathetic control?
Constrictor pupillae and ciliary muscles
Which direction does the uvula deviate in a left vagus nerve lesion?
A left CN X lesion results in the uvula deviating to the right. (Uvula points away from the affected side.)
Is a subdural hematoma an arterial or venous bleed?
Subdural hematoma is a rupture of the cerebral veins where they enter the superior sagittal sinus.
Which CNs are found in the midline of the brainstem?
CN I, II, III, VI, and XII

Add 1 + 1 = 2, 1 + 2 = 3, 1 + 2 + 3 = 6, 1 + 2 + 3 + 6 = 12
What muscles insert in or on the intertubercular groove of the humerus?
"Lady between two Majors": latissimus dorsi, pectoralis major, and teres major
What nerve supplies taste sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?
Chorda tympani of CN VII
What part of the heart forms
• The right border?
Right atrium
What part of the heart forms
• Left border?
Left ventricle and auricle of left atrium
What part of the heart forms
• Apex?
Tip of the left ventricle
What part of the heart forms
• Base?
Left atrium and tip of the right atrium
What part of the heart forms
• Superior border?
Conus arteriosus of the right ventricle and right and left auricles
What part of the heart forms
• Anterior wall?
Right ventricle
What part of the heart forms
• Posterior wall?
Left atrium
What part of the heart forms
• Diaphragmatic wall?
Left ventricle and tip of right ventricle
What nerves carry the sensory and motor components of the blink reflex?
CN V1 carries the sensory and CN VII carries the motor component of the blink reflex.
What muscle keeps the stapes taut against the oval window?
Stapedius muscle
Name the components of the femoral canal, working laterally to medially.
NAVEL: Femoral Nerve, Artery, Vein, Empty space, and Lymphatics/Lacunar ligament
What muscle is most superior in the orbit?
Levator palpebrae superioris
What portion of the pericardium adheres to the tunica adventitia of the great vessels?
Fibrous pericardium
What two veins form the portal vein?
The superior mesenteric vein and the splenic vein (after it receives the inferior mesenteric vein) join to form the portal vein.
What CNs are responsible for the sensor and motor components of the light reflex?
CN II is the sensory limb and CN III is the motor component through parasympathetic stimulation.
Arrange the following layers in the correct sequence through which a needle must pass in a lumbar puncture.

• Skin
• Subarachnoid space
• Interspinous ligament
• Dura mater
• Deep fascia
• Epidural space
• Superficial fascia
• Interlaminar space
• Supraspinous ligament
• Arachnoid mater
During a lumbar puncture the needle passes through the interlaminar space in the midline of L3–L4, with the tip of the iliac crest in the flexed position as the landmark.

Order of puncture:

1. Skin
2. Superficial fascia
3. Deep fascia
4. Supraspinous ligament
5. Interspinous ligament
6. Interlaminar space
7. Epidural space
8. Dura mater
9. Arachnoid mater
10. Subarachnoid space.


(They ask this in some variation every year, so know it.)
What ocular ganglion is affected if the pupil on the affected side sluggishly responds to light with normal accommodation?
Ciliary ganglion producing a tonic pupil
What is the name for the most prominent spinous process?
Vertebra prominens (C7 in 70% of cases, C6 in 20%, T1 in 10%)
What muscles make up the rotator cuff?
SITS—Subscapularis, Infraspinatus, Teres minor, Supraspinatus
What is the function of white rami communicantes?
They are preganglionic sympathetic axons. They are white because they are myelinated.
What muscle or muscles are innervated by the following nerves?
• Suprascapular nerve
Supraspinatus and infraspinatus
What muscle or muscles are innervated by the following nerves?
• Upper subscapularis nerve
Subscapularis
What muscle or muscles are innervated by the following nerves?
• Thoracodorsal nerve
Latissimus dorsi
What muscle or muscles are innervated by the following nerves?
• Long thoracic nerve
Serratus anterior
What nerve is associated with the following functions?
• Flex the wrist and digits, pronate the wrist and the LOAF (Lumbricales, Opponens pollicis, Abductor pollicis brevis, Flexor pollicis brevis) muscles of the hand
Median nerve
What nerve is associated with the following functions?
• Flex the shoulder, flex the elbow, and supinate the elbow
Musculocutaneous nerve
What nerve is associated with the following functions?
• Innervation of the flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor digiti profundus (pinky and ring fingers), and the intrinsic muscles of the hand
Ulnar nerve
What nerve is associated with the following functions?
• Supinate the wrist, extend the wrist and digits, extend the shoulder and elbow
Radial nerve
What abdominal muscle runs horizontally, contributes to the posterior rectus sheath, and contributes to form the conjoint tendon?
Transverse abdominis
Which CNs act as the sensory and motor components of the gag reflex?
The sensory limb is via CN IX, and the motor limb is from CN X.
Which kidney is lower? Why?
The right kidney is lower in the abdominal cavity because of the amount of space the liver occupies.
What two regions of the vertebral column are considered primary curvatures?
Thoracic and sacral
What vein drains the lower third of the thoracic wall?
Hemiazygous vein
At what point does the axillary artery become the brachial artery?
When it crosses the teres major
What direction would the tongue protrude in a left CN XII lesion?
Left CN XII lesion would result in the tongue pointing to the left (points at the affected side).
At what vertebral level does the common carotid artery bifurcate?
C4 (the upper border of the thyroid cartilage)
True or false? Males are more likely to develop femoral hernias than females.
False. Females are more likely to develop femoral hernias then males (remember Female's Femoral).
In what compartment of the thigh is the profundus femoris artery found?
Anterior compartment (it's the blood supply to the posterior compartment)
Where is the cupola of the lung in relation to the subclavian artery and vein?
The cupola of the lung is posterior to the subclavian artery and vein. It is the reason one must be cautious when performing subclavian venipuncture.
True or false? The first cervical vertebra has no vertebral body.
True. The odontoid process of C2 acts as the vertebral body of C1 allowing lateral rotation of the head.
What is the largest muscle in the body?
Gluteus maximus
At what vertebral levels does the aortic arch begin and end?
It both begins and ends at T4 (sternal angle [of Louis]).
What artery travels with the following veins?
• Great cardiac vein
Left anterior descending artery
What artery travels with the following veins?
• Middle cardiac vein
Posterior interventricular artery
What artery travels with the following veins?
• Small cardiac vein
Right coronary artery
The ophthalmic artery is a branch of what vessel?
Internal carotid artery
What structure or structures cross the diaphragm at
• T8 level?
IVC

Remember: 1 at T8, 2 at T10, and 3 at T12
What structure or structures cross the diaphragm at
• T10 level?
Esophagus and esophageal nerve plexus (CN X)

Remember: 1 at T8, 2 at T10, and 3 at T12
What structure or structures cross the diaphragm at
• T12 level?
Aorta, azygos vein, and thoracic duct

Remember: 1 at T8, 2 at T10, and 3 at T12
Is the carotid sinus sensitive to pressure or oxygen?
The carotid sinus is a pressure-sensitive (low) receptor, while the carotid body is an oxygen-sensitive (low) receptor. (Remember "Sinus Pressure").
What nerve or nerves supply general sensation and taste to the posterior third of the tongue?
CN IX and X
Which muscle of the eye is under sympathetic control?
Dilator pupillae muscle
True or false? both the left and right lungs have an oblique fissure?
True. on the right lung the oblique fissure divides the middle from the inferior lobe and the horizontal fissure further divides the middle from the upper lobe. On the left the oblique divides the superior from the inferior lobe.
What are the three branches of the lateral cord of the brachial plexus?
1. Lateral pectoral
2. Lateral head of the median
3. Musculocutaneus
What is the major difference between the veins in the face and the veins in the rest of the body?
There are no valves and no smooth muscle in the walls of the veins in the face.
Name the bony articulations of the following sites. Be specific.
• Shoulder
Clavicle, acromion, and glenoid fossa of the scapula and the humerus
Name the bony articulations of the following sites. Be specific.
• Elbow
Humerus with ulna (major) and radius (minor)
Name the bony articulations of the following sites. Be specific.
• Wrist
Radius with scaphoid and lunate and ulna with triquetrum and pisiform (Remember, for major articulations, wrist/radius and humerus/ulna = elbow)
What is the only laryngeal muscle innervated by the external laryngeal nerve?
Cricothyroid muscle; all other laryngeal muscles are innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve.
What seven structures are found in more than one mediastinum?
Esophagus, SVC, vagus nerve, azygos vein, thoracic duct, thymus, and phrenic nerve
How many bronchopulmonary segments are on the right lung? Left lung?
There are 10 bronchopulmonary segments on the right and 8 on the left.
The duodenal–jejunal flexure is suspended from the posterior abdominal wall by what?
Ligament of Treitz
What is the only tongue muscle innervated by CN X?
Palatoglossus muscle is innervated by CN X; all other tongue muscles are innervated by CN XII.
What abdominal muscle runs in a posteroinferior direction, splits to contribute to the rectus sheath, contributes to the formation of the conjoint tendon, and in men gives rise to the middle spermatic fascia and the cremasteric muscle of the spermatic cord?
Internal abdominal oblique
What are the five branches of the superior mesenteric artery?
Inferior pancreaticoduodenal, middle colic, right colic, ileocolic, and 10 to 15 intestinal arteries
What spinal nerves contribute to the pelvic splanchnic (parasympathetic) nerves that innervate the detrusor muscle of the urinary bladder?
S2, S3, S4—keeps the pee-pee off the floor!
What connects the third and the fourth ventricles?
Cerebral aqueduct
What nerve and artery could be affected in a humeral neck fracture?
Axillary nerve and posterior humeral artery
What type of hernia is described as passing through the deep lateral ring of the inguinal canal?
Indirect hernia passes in the inguinal canal; a direct hernia passes directly through Hesselbach's triangle.
What two vessels come together to form the external jugular vein?
1. Posterior auricular vein
2. Posterior division of the retromandibular vein
What is the only vein in the body with a high O2 content?
The pulmonary vein, which carries oxygenated blood from the lung to the left atrium.
What are the three branches of the celiac trunk?
The left gastric, splenic, and common hepatic arteries
What region of the pharynx does the eustachian tube enter?
Nasopharynx
What is the only muscle of the soft palate that is innervated by CN V3?
The tensor veli palatine is innervated by the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve; all others are innervated by CN X.
How many pairs of spinal nerves exit from the spinal cord?
31 pairs
What artery turns into the dorsalis pedis when it crosses the extensor retinaculum?
Anterior tibial artery
What is the term for pupils that react normally to accommodation but have bilateral loss of constriction in response to light?
Argyll Robertson pupils
What connects the lateral ventricles to the third ventricle?
Foramen of Monro
What nerve supplies general sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?
Lingual nerve of CN V3
What type of pleura is adherent to the surface of the organ?
Visceral pleura
What artery supplies the left ventricle, left atrium, and interventricular septum?
Left coronary artery
Where are the tonsillar tissues?
Waldeyer's ring
What is the name of the superficial subcutaneous fascia of the abdomen containing fat?
Camper's fascia; Scarpa's fascia is devoid of fat. (Remember campers are fat.)
What are the three anatomic characteristics that differentiate the large bowel from the small bowel and the rectum?
1. Tinea coli
2. Haustra
3. Epiploic appendages
What area of the posterior aspect of the eye has no photoreceptors?
The optic disk is the blind spot.
At the level of rib 6, the internal thoracic artery divides into what two arteries?
Musculophrenic and superior epigastric arteries
What is the name of inflammation of the prepatellar bursa?
Housemaid's knee
What nerve roots constitute the cervical plexus?
C1 through C4
Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures:
• Heart and pericardium
Middle
Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures:
• Descending aorta
Posterior
Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures:
• Thymus
Superior and anterior
Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures:
• Phrenic nerve
Superior and middle
Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures:
• Esophagus
Superior and posterior
Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures:
• Trachea
Superior
Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures:
• Ascending aorta
Middle
Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures:
• Thoracic duct
Superior and posterior
Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures:
• Azygos vein
Superior and posterior
Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures:
• SVC
Superior and middle
Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures:
• Splanchnic nerves
Posterior
Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures:
• Aortic arch
Superior
Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures:
• IVC
Middle
Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures:
• Vagus nerve
Posterior
Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures:
• Brachiocephalic vein
Superior
Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures:
• Pulmonary artery and veins
Middle
Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures:
• Left common carotid artery
Superior
Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures:
• Left subclavian artery
Superior
What is the only organ in the body supplied by preganglionic sympathetic fibers?
Adrenal medulla
The left subclavian artery is a branch of what artery?
The left is a branch of the aortic arch, while the right is a branch of the brachiocephalic trunk.
What are the four muscles of mastication?
1. Masseter
2. Temporalis
3. Medial pterygoid
4. Lateral pterygoid
With what thoracic vertebra or vertebrae does rib 7 articulate?
Rib 7 articulates with T7 and T8. Each rib articulates with the corresponding numerical vertebral body and the vertebral body below it.
What are the three branches of the inferior mesenteric artery?
Left colic, superior rectal, and sigmoidal arteries
What is the only valve in the heart with two cusps?
Mitral (bicuspid) valve
What are five clinical signs of portal HTN?
Caput medusa, internal hemorrhoids, esophageal varices, retroperitoneal varices, and splenomegaly
What three muscles constitute the erector spinae?
1. Iliocostalis
2. Longissimus
3. Spinalis


("I Love Science" muscles)
What nerve is compromised in carpal tunnel syndrome?
Median nerve
What vascular injury may result from a supracondylar fracture of the femur?
The popliteal artery, the deepest structure in the popliteal fossa, risks injury in a supracondylar fracture of the femur.
What nerve and artery could be affected in a midshaft humeral fracture?
Radial nerve and the profunda brachii artery
Name the 10 retroperitoneal organs.
1. Duodenum (all but the first part)
2. Pancreas
3. Ascending Colon
4. Descending colon
5. Rectum
6. Supra renal glands (adrenals)
7. Kidneys
8. Ureters
9. Aorta
10. IVC


D CUPS DAKRI is the mnemonic, everything else is covered with peritoneum
Ventral rami of what cervical nerves constitute the phrenic nerve?
C3, C4, and C5 keep the diaphragm alive!
What is the region of the fallopian tube where fertilization most commonly occurs?
Ampulla
What foramen must be traversed for entry into the lesser peritoneal sac?
Foramen of Winslow
Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina:
• Foramen magnum
CN XI, vertebral arteries
Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina:
• Foramen spinosum
Middle meningeal artery
Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina:
• Foramen rotundum
CN V2
Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina:
• Foramen ovale
CN V3 and the lesser petrosal nerve
Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina:
• Jugular foramen
CN IX, X, and XI; sigmoid sinus
Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina:
• Carotid canal
Internal carotid artery and sympathetic plexus
Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina:
• Stylomastoid foramen
CN VII
Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina:
• Hypoglossal canal
CN XII
Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina:
• Internal auditory meatus
CN VII and VIII
Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina:
• Optic canal
CN II and ophthalmic artery
Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina:
• Cribriform plate
CN I
What vessel can be found atop the scalene anterior?
Subclavian vein
What component of the corneal reflex is lost in a CN VII deficit?
Motor aspect
A motor lesion to the right CN V results in deviation of the jaw to which side?
A right CN V lesion results in weakened muscles of mastication, and the jaw deviates to the right.
What two arteries join to form the superficial and deep palmar arches of the hand?
Ulnar and radial arteries (ulnar is the main supplier)
What two ligaments of the uterus are remnants of the gubernaculum?
Round and ovarian ligaments
What segments of the lumbosacral plexus form the following nerves?
• Tibial nerve
L4 to S3

(L2 to L4, thigh; L4 to S3, leg)
What segments of the lumbosacral plexus form the following nerves?
• Common peroneal nerve
L4 to S3

(L2 to L4, thigh; L4 to S3, leg)
What segments of the lumbosacral plexus form the following nerves?
• Femoral nerve
L2 to L4

(L2 to L4, thigh; L4 to S3, leg)
What segments of the lumbosacral plexus form the following nerves?
• Obturator nerve
L2 to L4

(L2 to L4, thigh; L4 to S3, leg)
What three structures are in contact with the left colic flexure? With the right colic flexure?
Left: stomach, spleen, and left kidney;

right: liver, duodenum, and right kidney
What three muscles constitute the pes anserinus?
1. Sartorius
2. Gracilis
3. Semitendinous
What is the only pharyngeal muscle not innervated by CN X?
Stylopharyngeus muscle is innervated by CN IX; all other pharyngeal muscles are innervated by CN X.
What vessels carry deoxygenated blood into the lungs from the right ventricle?
The right and left pulmonary arteries, the only arteries that carry deoxygenated blood
Fracture of the fibular neck, resulting in foot drop, is an injury of what nerve?
Common peroneal nerve
What vein is formed by the union of the right and left brachiocephalic veins?
Superior vena cava
If inserting a needle to perform a pleural tap or insertion of a chest tube, do you use the inferior or the superior border of a rib as your landmark? Why?
The superior border of the inferior intercostal rib is your landmark for a pleural tap because along the inferior border of each rib is the neurovascular bundle, and you would risk injury if you went below the rib.
What muscle laterally rotates the femur to unlock the knee?
Popliteus
What chamber of the eye lies between the iris and the lens?
Posterior chamber
What artery supplies the right atrium, right ventricle, sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes?
Right coronary artery
What four branches of the brachial plexus arise prior to the first rib?
1. Dorsal scapular
2. Suprascapular
3. Long thoracic
4. Nerve to subclavius
What vertebral level is marked by the xiphoid process?
T9
What lower extremity nerve is described by the following motor loss?
• Loss of eversion; inversion, dorsiflexion, and plantarflexion of the foot
Common peroneal nerve
What lower extremity nerve is described by the following motor loss?
• Loss of flexion of the knees and toes, plantarflexion, and weakened inversion
Tibial nerve
What lower extremity nerve is described by the following motor loss?
• Loss of knee extension, weakened hip flexion
Femoral nerve
What lower extremity nerve is described by the following motor loss?
• Loss of abduction of the hip resulting in Trendelenburg gait
Superior gluteal nerve
What lower extremity nerve is described by the following motor loss?
• Loss of flexion of the knee and all function below the knee, weakened extension of the thigh
Sciatic nerve
What lower extremity nerve is described by the following motor loss?
• Loss of adduction of the thigh
Obturator nerve
What nerve lesion presents with ape or simian hand as its sign?
Median nerve lesion
What muscle acts in all ranges of motion of the arm?
Deltoid
What is the first branch of the abdominal aortic artery?
Inferior phrenic artery
What vessel does the right gonadal vein drain into?
The right gonadal vein drains into the inferior vena cava directly, and the left gonadal vein drains into the left renal vein.
What two muscles do you test to see whether CN XI is intact?
Trapezius and sternocleidomastoid
What two CNs are responsible for the carotid body and sinus reflexes?
CN IX and X
At what vertebral level does the trachea bifurcate?
T4 vertebral level posteriorly and anteriorly at the sternal angle (angle of Louis).
What is the function of the arachnoid granulations?
Resorb CSF into the blood
Damage to what nerve will give you winged scapula?
Long thoracic nerve. To avoid confusing long thoracic nerve and lateral thoracic artery: long has an n for nerve; lateral has an a for artery.
What portion of the intervertebral disk is a remnant of the notochord?
Nucleus pulposus
What component of the pelvic diaphragm forms the rectal sling (muscle of continence)?
Puborectalis
What are the five branches of the median cord of the brachial plexus?
Four Ms and a U

1. Median
2. Medial antebrachial
3. Medial pectoral
4. Medial brachial cutaneus
5. Ulnar
What bone houses the ulnar groove?
Humerus (between the medial epicondyle and the trochlea)
What CN is associated with the sensory innervation of
• Nasopharynx?
Maxillary division of CN V and glossopharyngeal nerves
What CN is associated with the sensory innervation of
• Oropharynx?
Glossopharyngeal nerve
What CN is associated with the sensory innervation of
• Laryngopharynx?
Vagus nerve
What protective covering adheres to the spinal cord and CNS tissue?
Pia mater
What is the name of the urinary bladder where the ureters enter and the urethra exits?
Urinary trigone
What is the term when the brachial artery is compressed, resulting in ischemic contracture of the hand?
Volkmann's contracture
What attaches the cusps of the valves to the papillary muscles in the heart?
Chordae tendineae
What is the lymphatic drainage of the pelvic organs?
Internal iliac nodes
What bursa is inflamed in clergyman's knee?
Infrapatellar bursa
What muscle is the chief flexor of the hip?
Psoas major
What component of the ANS, when stimulated, results in bronchoconstriction?
Parasympathetic stimulation, via the vagus nerve, results in bronchoconstriction, whereas sympathetic stimulation results in bronchodilation.
What muscles in the hand adduct the fingers?
The Palmar interosseus ADducts, whereas the Dorsal interosseus ABducts (PAD and DAB)
What type of cerebral bleed is due to a rupture of a berry aneurysm in the circle of Willis?
Subarachnoid hematoma
What are the five terminal branches of the facial nerve?
1. Temporal
2. Zygomatic
3. Buccal
4. Mandibular
5. Cervical


(Two Zebras Bit My Clavicle.)
What structure of the knee is described thus?
• C-shaped shock absorber; aids in attachment of the tibia to the femur via the medial collateral ligament
Medial meniscus
What structure of the knee is described thus?
• Prevents posterior displacement and has medial-to-lateral attachment on the tibia
Posterior cruciate ligament
What structure of the knee is described thus?
• Prevents adduction
Lateral collateral ligament
What structure of the knee is described thus?
• Prevents anterior displacement and has lateral-to-medial attachment on the tibia
ACL
What structure of the knee is described thus?
• Prevents abduction
Medial collateral ligament
What branches of CN X are the sensory and motor components of the cough reflex? Be specific.
The sensory component is through the superior laryngeal nerve, and the motor limb is via the recurrent laryngeal nerve.
What nerves provide sensory innervation above the vocal cords? Below the vocal cords?
The internal laryngeal nerve supplies sensory information from above the vocal cords while the recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies sensory information below.
From what pharyngeal groove is the external auditory meatus derived?
First pharyngeal groove; all others degenerate.
What embryonic structure forms the following adult male structures?
• Corpus cavernosus, corpus spongiosum, and glans and body of the penis
Phallus
What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure?
• Scrotum
Labioscrotal swelling
What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure?
• Urinary bladder, urethra, prostate gland, bulbourethral gland
Urogenital sinus
What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure?
• Testes, seminiferous tubules, and rete testes
Gonads
What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure?
• Ventral part of the penis
Urogenital folds
What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure?
• Gubernaculum testes
Gubernaculum
What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure?
• Epididymis, ductus deferens, seminal vesicle, and ejaculatory duct
Mesonephric duct
Which PG is associated with maintaining a PDA?
PGE and intrauterine or neonatal asphyxia maintain patency of the ductus arteriosus. Indomethacin, ACh, and catecholamines promote closure of the ductus arteriosus.
When does the primitive gut herniate out of the embryo?

When does it go back into the embryo?
6 weeks

10 weeks
What results when the palatine prominences fail to fuse with the other side?
Cleft palate
What is the term for a direct connection between the intestine and the external environment through the umbilicus because the vitelline duct persists?
Vitelline fistula
Where do the primordial germ cells arise?
From the wall of the yolk sac
What disorder is due to a 5--reductase deficiency, resulting in testicular tissue and stunted male external genitalia?
Male pseudo-intersexuality (hermaphrodite); these individuals are 46XY.
Does the zygote divide mitotically or meiotically?
The zygote divides mitotically; only germ cells divide meiotically.
During what embryonic week does the intraembryonic coelom form?
Third week
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon).
• Cerebral hemispheres
Proencephalon
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon).
• Midbrain
Mesencephalon
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon).
• Cerebellum
Rhombencephalon
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon).
• Medulla
Rhombencephalon
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon).
• Diencephalon
Proencephalon
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon).
• Metencephalon
Rhombencephalon
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon).
• Telencephalon
Proencephalon
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon).
• Thalamus
Proencephalon
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon).
• Eye
Proencephalon*

*diencephalon derivative
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon).
• Pons
Rhombencephalon
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon).
• Myelencephalon
Rhombencephalon
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon).
• Pineal gland
Proencephalon*

*diencephalon derivative
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon).
• Cerebral aqueduct
Mesencephalon
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon).
• Neurohypophysis
Proencephalon*

*diencephalon derivative
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon).
• Third ventricle
Proencephalon
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon).
• Hypothalamus
Proencephalon*

*diencephalon derivative
Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon).
• Lateral ventricles
Proencephalon
What malignant tumor of the trophoblast causes high levels of hCG and may occur after a hydatidiform mole, abortion, or normal pregnancy?
Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN or choriocarcinoma)
What syndrome is due to a deficiency of surfactant?
Respiratory distress syndrome; treatment with cortisol and thyroxine can increase production of surfactant.
How many oogonia are present at birth?
None; they are not formed until a girl reaches puberty.
What right-to-left shunt occurs when the aorta opens into the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk opens into the left ventricle?
Transposition of the great vessels arises from a failure of the aorticopulmonary septum to grow in a spiral.
What are the adult remnants of the following structures?
• Left umbilical vein
Ligament teres
What are the adult remnants of the following structures?
• Foramen ovale
Fossa ovale
What are the adult remnants of the following structures?
• Right and left umbilical arteries
Medial umbilical ligaments
What are the adult remnants of the following structures?
• Ductus arteriosus
Ligamentum arteriosum
What are the adult remnants of the following structures?
• Ductus venosus
Ligamentum venosum
Mandibular hypoplasia, down-slanted palpebral fissures, colobomas, malformed ears, and zygomatic hypoplasia are commonly seen in what pharyngeal arch 1 abnormality?
Treacher Collins syndrome
What is the tetrad of tetralogy of Fallot?
SHIP: Shifting of the aorta, Hypertrophy of the right ventricle, Interventricular septal defect, Pulmonary stenosis
What is the term for the external urethra opening onto the ventral surface of the penis?
Hypospadia
What CN is associated with the
• First pharyngeal arch?
CN V
What CN is associated with the
• Second pharyngeal arch?
CN VII
What CN is associated with the
• Third pharyngeal arch?
CN IX
What CN is associated with the
• Fourth pharyngeal arch?
CN X
What CN is associated with the
• Fifth pharyngeal arch?
None; it degenerates.
What CN is associated with the
• Sixth pharyngeal arch?
CN X
What disease results in a failure of neural crest cells to migrate to the myenteric plexus of the sigmoid colon and rectum?
Hirschsprung's disease (colonic gangliosus)
What immunologic syndrome is due to a pharyngeal pouch 3 and 4 failure?
DiGeorge's syndrome
What embryonic structure, around day 19, tells the ectoderm above it to differentiate into neural tissue?
The notochord
What is the term for failure of the testes to descend into the scrotum?
Cryptorchidism; normally the testes descend into the scrotum within 3 months of birth.
Is a membranous septal defect more commonly interventricular or interatrial?
Membranous septal defects are interventricular; a persistent patent ovale results in an interatrial septal defect.
What pharyngeal pouch and groove persist when a pharyngeal fistula is formed?
The second pharyngeal pouch and groove
How early can a pregnancy be detected by hCG assays in the blood? In urine?
hCG can be detected in the blood by day 8 and in the urine by day 10.
From what pharyngeal pouch is the following structure derived?
• Middle ear
First

M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives
From what pharyngeal pouch is the following structure derived?
• Superior parathyroid gland and ultimobranchial body of the thyroid
Fourth

M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives
From what pharyngeal pouch is the following structure derived?
• Inferior parathyroid gland and thymus
Third

M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives
From what pharyngeal pouch is the following structure derived?
• Palatine tonsil
Second

M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives
What is the term for the external urethra opening onto the dorsal surface of the penis?
Epispadia
True or false? In females, meiosis II is incomplete unless fertilization takes place.
True. The elimination of the unfertilized egg is menses.
What adult structures are derived from preotic somites?
Muscles of the internal eye
What disorder is associated with jaundice, white stools, and dark urine due to biliary duct occlusion secondary to incomplete recanalization?
Extrahepatic biliary atresia
What hormone, produced by the syncytiotrophoblast, stimulates the production of progesterone by the corpus luteum?
hCG
How many mature sperm are produced by one type B spermatogonium?
Four
All primary oocytes in females are formed by what age?
They are all formed by the fifth month of fetal life.
From what embryonic structure are the following structures derived?
• The ascending aorta and the pulmonary trunk
Truncus arteriosus
From what embryonic structure are the following structures derived?
• The sinus venarum, coronary sinus, and the oblique vein of the left atrium
Sinus venosus
From what embryonic structure are the following structures derived?
• The right and left ventricles
Primitive ventricle
From what embryonic structure are the following structures derived?
• The aortic vestibule and the conus arteriosus
Bulbus cordis
From what embryonic structure are the following structures derived?
• The right and left atria
Primitive atrium
After a longstanding left-to-right shunt reverses, causing cyanosis, and becomes a right-to-left shunt, what is it termed?
Eisenmenger's syndrome
True or false? The thyroid gland is an embryologic foregut derivative.
True. The thyroid gland, the lungs, and the pharyngeal pouches are foregut derivatives that are not a component of the gastrointestinal system.
What embryonic structure forms the following adult structures?
• Collecting ducts, calyces, renal pelvis, and ureter
Mesonephric duct (ureteric bud)
What embryonic structure forms the following adult structures?
• Urinary bladder and urethra
Urogenital sinus
What embryonic structure forms the following adult structures?
• External genitalia
Phallus, urogenital folds, and labioscrotal swellings
What embryonic structure forms the following adult structures?
• Nephrons, kidney
Metanephros
What embryonic structure forms the following adult structures?
• Median umbilical ligament
Urachus
True or false? The epithelial lining of the urinary bladder and the urethra are embryologic hindgut derivatives.
True
Name the four ventral mesentery derivatives.
1. The lesser omentum (consisting of the hepatoduodenal and hepatogastric ligaments)
2. Falciform ligament
3. Coronary ligament of the liver
4. Triangular ligament of the liver


Liver is ventral; all other ligaments are dorsal mesentery derivatives.
Projectile nonbilious vomiting and a small knot at the right costal margin (olive sign) are hallmarks of what embryonic disorder?
Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis due to hypertrophy of the muscularis externa, resulting in a narrowed pyloric outlet
The separation of 46 homologous chromosomes without splitting of the centromeres occurs during what phase of meiosis?
Meiosis I; disjunction with centromere splitting occurs during meiosis II.
Blood and its vessels form during what embryonic week?
Third week; they are derived from the wall of the yolk sac.
What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures?
• Glans clitoris, corpus cavernosus, and spongiosum
Phallus
What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures?
• Gartner's duct
Mesonephric duct
What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures?
• Ovary, follicles, rete ovarii
Gonads
What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures?
• Uterine tube, uterus, cervix, and upper third of the vagina
Paramesonephric ducts
What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures?
• Labia majora
Labioscrotal swelling
What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures?
• Labia minora
Urogenital folds
What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures?
• Ovarian and round ligaments
Gubernaculum
What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures?
• Urinary bladder, urethra, greater vestibular glands, vagina
Urogenital sinus
What direction does the primitive gut rotate? What is its axis of rotation?
The gut rotates clockwise around the superior mesenteric artery.
What syndrome occurs when a 46XY fetus develops testes and female external genitalia?
Testicular feminization syndrome (Male who looks like a female)
Preeclampsia in the first trimester, hCG levels above 100, 00 mIU/mL, and an enlarged bleeding uterus are clinical signs of what?
Hydatidiform mole
True or false? The foramen ovale closes just prior to birth.
False. It closes just after birth because the change in pulmonary circulation causes increased left atrial pressure.
At ovulation, in what stage of meiosis II is the secondary oocyte arrested?
Metaphase II
What is the name for failed recanalization of the duodenum resulting in polyhydramnios, bile-containing vomitus, and a distended stomach?
Duodenal atresia
What remains patent in a hydrocele of the testis, allowing peritoneal fluid to form into a cyst?
A patent processus vaginalis
True or false? The respiratory system is derived from the ventral wall of the foregut.
True. The laryngotracheal (respiratory) diverticulum is divided from the foregut by the tracheoesophageal septum.


--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
What is the name for failure of the allantois to close, resulting in a urachal fistula or sinus?
Patent urachus
What structure is derived from the prochordal plate?
The mouth
What is the only organ supplied by the foregut artery that is of mesodermal origin?
Spleen
What tumor is derived from primitive streak remnants and often contains bone, hair, or other tissue types?
Sacrococcygeal teratoma
What two pathologic conditions occur when the gut does not return to the embryo?
Omphalocele and gastroschisis
True or false? For implantation to occur the zona pellucida must degenerate.
True. Remember, it degenerates 4 to 5 days post fertilization, and implantation occurs 7 days post fertilization!
What results when the maxillary prominence fails to fuse with the medial nasal prominence?
Cleft lip
What is the direction of growth for the primitive streak, caudal to rostral or rostral to caudal?
The primitive streak grows caudal to rostral.
During what embryonic week do somites begin to form?
Third week
In men, at what embryonic week do the primordial germ cells migrate to the indifferent gonad?
Week four, and they remain dormant there until puberty.
What embryonic week sees the formation of the notochord and the neural tube?
Third week
What right-to-left shunt occurs when only one vessel receives blood from both the right and left ventricles?
Persistent truncus arteriosus
What three embryonic cell layers form the chorion?
1. Cytotrophoblast
2. Syncytiotrophoblast
3. Extraembryonic mesoderm
Where are the preganglionic neuron cell bodies, the CNS or the PNS?
They are in the grey matter of the CNS.
Which three CNs send sensory information to the solitary nucleus?
CN VII, IX, and X; taste and general sensation for the tongue is sent to the solitary nucleus.
What syndrome is associated with the following brainstem lesions?
• Vertebral artery or anterior spinal artery occlusion, resulting in contralateral corticospinal tract and medial lemniscus tract deficits and an ipsilateral CN XII lesion
Medial medullary syndrome
What syndrome is associated with the following brainstem lesions?
• Contralateral corticospinal and medial lemniscus tract deficits and an ipsilatera medial strabismus secondary to a lesion in CN VI
Medial pontine syndrome
What syndrome is associated with the following brainstem lesions?
• Slow-growing acoustic neuroma producing CN VII deficiencies
Pontocerebellar angle syndrome
What syndrome is associated with the following brainstem lesions?
• Occlusion of the PICA, resulting in ipsilateral limb ataxia, ipsilateral facial pain and temperature loss, contralateral pain and body temperature loss, ipsilateral Horner's syndrome, and ipsilateral paralysis of the vocal cords, palate droop, dysphagia, nystagmus, vomiting, and vertigo
Lateral medullary (Wallenberg's) syndrome
What syndrome is associated with the following brainstem lesions?
• AICA or superior cerebellar artery occlusion, resulting in ipsilateral limb ataxia, ipsilateral facial pain and temperature loss, contralateral loss of pain and temperature to the body, ipsilateral Horner's syndrome, ipsilateral facial paralysis, and hearing loss
Lateral pontine syndrome
What syndrome is associated with the following brainstem lesions?
• Posterior cerebral artery occlusion resulting in a contralateral corticospinal tract signs, contralateral corticobulbar signs to the lower face, and ipsilateral CN III palsy
Medial midbrain (Weber's) syndrome
What CNs are affected if there is a lesion in
• The midbrain?
CN III and IV
What CNs are affected if there is a lesion in
• The upper medulla?
CN IX, X, and XII
What CNs are affected if there is a lesion in
• Pontomedullary junction?
CN VI, VII, and VIII
What CNs are affected if there is a lesion in
• The upper pons?
CN V
What is the only CN nucleus found in the cervical spinal cord?
Accessory nucleus
What component of the trigeminal nuclei
• Supplies the muscles of mastication?
Motor nucleus of CN V
What component of the trigeminal nuclei
• Receives sensory input (all but pain and temperature) from the face, scalp, dura, and the oral and nasal cavities?
Spinal trigeminal nucleus
What component of the trigeminal nuclei
• Forms the sensory component of the jaw jerk reflex?
Mesencephalic nucleus
What deep cerebellar nuclei receive Purkinje cell projections in
• The flocculonodular lobe?
The lateral vestibular nucleus
What deep cerebellar nuclei receive Purkinje cell projections in
• The vermis?
The fastigial nucleus
What deep cerebellar nuclei receive Purkinje cell projections in
• The lateral cerebellar hemispheres?
The interposed nucleus
What deep cerebellar nuclei receive Purkinje cell projections in
• The intermediate hemispheres?
The dentate nucleus
What is the only excitatory neuron in the cerebellar cortex, and what is its neurotransmitter?
The granule cell is the only excitatory neuron in the cerebellar cortex, and it uses glutamate as its neurotransmitter. All the other cells in the cerebellum are inhibitory neurons, and they use GABA as their neurotransmitter.
What three CNs are associated with conjugate eye movements?
CN III, IV, and VI
What is the term to describe the soft, flabby feel and diminished reflexes seen in patients with acute cerebellar injury to the deep cerebellar nuclei?
Hypotonia (rag doll appearance)
What bedside test is used to differentiate a dorsal column lesion from a lesion in the vermis of the cerebral cortex?
The Romberg sign is present if the patient sways or loses balance when standing with eyes open. In a dorsal column lesion, patients sway with eyes closed. (Don't forget this one.)
Which one of the cerebellar peduncles is mainly responsible for outgoing (efferent) information?
Superior cerebellar peduncle; the inferior and the middle consist mainly of incoming (afferent) tracts and fibers.
What tract carries unconscious proprioceptive information from the Golgi tendon organs and muscle spindles to the cerebellum, helping monitor and modulate muscle movements?
Lower extremity and lower trunk information travels in the dorsal spinocerebellar tract. The upper trunk and extremity information travels in the cuneocerebellar tract. (Cuneocerebellar and fasciculus cuneatus both apply to upper extremities.)
What reflex, seen in lesions of the corticospinal tract, is an extension of the great toe with fanning the of remaining toes?
The Babinski reflex is present in UMN lesions. Muscle atrophy due to disuse, hyperreflexia, spastic paralysis, increased muscle tone, and weakness are commonly seen in UMN lesions.
What is the triad of Horner's syndrome?
Ptosis (eyelid drooping), miosis (pupillary constriction), and anhydrosis (lack of sweating) occur when the preganglionic sympathetic fibers from T1-to T4 are obstructed.
What component of the inner ear
• Contains perilymph and responds to angular acceleration and deceleration of the head?
Semicircular canal
What component of the inner ear
• Contains endolymph and responds to head turning and movement?
Semicircular duct
What component of the inner ear
• Contains endolymph and gravity receptors monitoring linear acceleration and deceleration of the head, noting changes in head position?
Utricle and saccule
What is the name of demyelination of the corticospinal tract and the dorsal column in the spinal cord due most commonly to a vitamin B12 deficiency?
Subacute combined degeneration, which is bilateral below the level of the lesion.
What encephalopathy causes ocular palsies, confusion, and gait abnormalities related to a lesion in the mammillary bodies and/or the dorsomedial nuclei of the thalamus?
Wernicke's encephalopathy
Which thalamic nucleus receives auditory input from the inferior colliculus?
MGB
Where are the postganglionic neuron cell bodies, the CNS or the PNS?
They are in ganglia in the PNS.
What disease is a cavitation of the spinal cord causing bilateral loss of pain and temperature at the level of the lesion?
Syringomyelia
What nucleus of the hypothalamus receives visual input from the retina and helps set the circadian rhythm?
Suprachiasmatic nucleus
Are white rami preganglionic or postganglionic fibers?
White rami are preganglionic fibers, whereas grey rami are postganglionic fibers.
What area of the hypothalamus is responsible for recognizing a decrease in body temperature and mediates the response to conserve heat?
Posterior hypothalamic zones; lesions here result in poikilothermy (environmental control of one's body temperature).
What CN transmits sensory information from the cornea?
CN V1, the occulomotor division of the trigeminal nerve, is the sensory component of the corneal reflex.
What preganglionic sympathetic fibers are responsible for innervating the smooth muscle and glands of the pelvis and the hindgut?
Lumbar splanchnics
Where are the cell bodies for the DCML and spinothalamic sensory systems?
The first sensory neuron is in the dorsal root ganglia. It carries ascending sensory information in the dorsal root of a spinal nerve, eventually synapsing with second sensory neuron. In the brainstem (DCML) and the spinal cord (spinothalamic) the second neuron cell body sends its axons to synapse in the thalamus. The third sensory neuron cell body is a thalamic nuclei that sends its fibers to the primary somatosensory cortex.
What term describes the reflex that increases the curvature of the lens, allowing near vision?
Accommodation
What CN carries preganglionic parasympathetic fibers that innervate the viscera of the neck, thorax, foregut, and midgut?
CN X (Remember, the vagus nerve supplies the parasympathetic information from the tip of the pharynx to the end of the midgut and all between.)
What area of the hypothalamus is responsible for recognizing an increase in body temperature and mediates the response to dissipate heat?
Anterior hypothalamic zone; lesions here result in hyperthermia.
What excitatory fibers arise from the inferior olivary nuclei on the contralateral side of the body?
Climbing fibers;, they are monosynaptic input on Purkinje cells. Mossy fibers, also excitatory, are axons of all other sources and synapse on granule cells.
What four CN carry preganglionic parasympathetic fibers?
CN III, VII, IX, and X
Name the form of spina bifida.
• Meninges and spinal cord project through a vertebral defect
Meningomyelocele

All except occulta cause elevated-fetoprotein levels.
Name the form of spina bifida.
• Meninges project through a vertebral defect
Meningocele

All except occulta cause elevated-fetoprotein levels.
Name the form of spina bifida.
• An open neural tube lying on the surface of the back
Myeloschisis

All except occulta cause elevated-fetoprotein levels.
Name the form of spina bifida.
• Defect in the vertebral arch
Occulta

All except occulta cause elevated-fetoprotein levels.
Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output.
• Input from the optic tract; output projects to the primary visual cortex of the occipital lobe
LGB (think EYES)
Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output.
• Input from the trigeminal pathways; output to primary somatosensory cortex of the parietal lobe
Ventral posteromedial nucleus
Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output.
• Input from globus pallidus and the cerebellum; output to the primary motor cortex
Ventral lateral nucleus
Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output.
• Input from medial lemniscus and the spinocerebellar tracts; output to the primary somatosensory cortex
Ventral posterolateral nucleus
Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output.
• Input from globus pallidus and substantia nigra; output to primary motor cortex
Ventral anterior nucleus
Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output.
• Input from the amygdala, prefrontal cortex, and temporal lobe; output to the prefrontal lobe and the cingulated gyrus
Medial nuclear group (limbic system)
Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output.
• Input from inferior colliculus; output to primary auditory cortex
MGB (think EARS)
Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output.
• Input from the mammillary bodies via the mammillothalamic tract and the cingulated gyrus; output to the cingulated gyrus via the anterior limb of the internal capsule
Anterior nuclear group (Papez circuit of the limbic system)
What is the name of a thin brown ring around the outer edge of the cornea, seen in Wilson's disease?
Kayser-Fleischer ring
What do UMNs innervate?
They innervate LMNs.
What area of the brain serves as the major sensory relay center for visual, auditory, gustatory, and tactile information destined for the cerebral cortex, cerebellum, or basal ganglia?
The thalamus (I like to think of the thalamus as the executive secretary for the cerebral cortex. All information destined for the cortex has to go through the thalamus.)
Which of the colliculi help direct the movement of both eyes in a gaze?
Superior colliculus (Remember S for Superior and Sight). The inferior colliculus processes auditory information from both ears.
How do the corticobulbar fibres of CN VII differ from the rest of the CNs?
Normally corticobulbar fiber innervation of the CNs is bilateral (the LMN receives information from both the left and right cerebral cortex), but with CN VII the LMN of the upper face receives bilateral input but the lower facial LMNs receive only contralateral input.


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What syndrome is described by a lesion in the angular gyrus (area 39) resulting in alexia, agraphia, acalculia, finger agnosia, and right-left disorientation?
Gerstmann's syndrome; spoken language is usually understood.
How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with
• Cervical vertebrae?
Eight pairs through seven cervical vertebrae.

Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.
How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with
• Thoracic vertebrae?
Twelve pairs through twelve thoracic vertebrae.

Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.
How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with
• Lumbar vertebrae?
Five pairs through five lumbar vertebrae.

Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.
How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with
• Sacral vertebrae?
Five pairs through five sacral vertebrae.

Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.
How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with
• Coccygeal vertebrae?
One pair with three to five coccygeal vertebrae.

Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.
What are the three sites where CSF can leave the ventricles and enter the subarachnoid space? (Name the lateral and the medial foramina.)
Two Lateral foramina of Luschka and 1 Medial foramen of Monroe (L for Lateral and M for Medial)
What CNs arise from
• The midbrain?
CN III and IV
What CNs arise from
• The pons?
CN V, VI, VII, and VIII
What CNs arise from
• The medulla?
CN IX, X, and XII
CN XI arises from the cervical spinal cord.
What disconnect syndrome results from a lesion in the corpus callosum secondary to an infarct in the anterior cerebral artery, so that the person can comprehend the command but not execute it?
Transcortical apraxia; Wernicke's area of the left hemisphere cannot communicate with the right primary motor cortex because of the lesion in the corpus callosum.
True or false? Glucose readily diffuses across the blood-brain barrier.
False. Water readily diffuses across the blood-brain barrier, but glucose requires carrier-mediated transport.
What encapsulated group of nerve endings seen at the muscle-tendon junction responds to an increase in tension generated in that muscle? (This is dropping a box that is too heavy to carry.)
Golgi tendon organs are stimulated by Ib afferent neurons in response to an increase in force or tension. The inverse muscle reflex protects muscle from being torn; it limits the tension on the muscle.
What chromosome 4, AD disorder is a degeneration of GABA neurons in the striatum of the indirect pathway of the basal ganglia?
Huntington's chorea; patients have chorea, athetoid movements, progressive dementia, and behavioral problems.
What syndrome is described as bilateral lesions of the amygdala and the hippocampus resulting in placidity, anterograde amnesia, oral exploratory behavior, hypersexuality, and psychic blindness?
Klüver-Bucy syndrome
By asking a patient to close the eyes while standing with feet together, what two pathways are you eliminating from proprioception?
When a patient closes the eyes while standing with feet together, the visual and cerebellar components of proprioception are removed, so you are testing the dorsal columns. Swaying with eyes closed is a positive Romberg's sign indicating a lesion in the dorsal columns.

The cold water caloric test mimics a brainstem lesion by inhibiting the normal reflex response.

(COWS: Cold Opposite Warm Same)
What is the name of bilateral flaccid paralysis, hyporeflexia, and hypotonia due to a viral infection of the ventral horn of the spinal cord?
Poliomyelitis; it is a bilateral LMN lesion.
What branch off the vertebral artery supplies
• The ventrolateral two-thirds of the cervical spinal cord and the ventrolateral part of the medulla?
Anterior spinal artery
What branch off the vertebral artery supplies
• The cerebellum and the dorsolateral part of the medulla?
PICA
What syndrome causes inability to concentrate, easy distractibility, apathy, and regression to an infantile suckling or grasping reflex?
Frontal lobe syndrome (lesion in the prefrontal cortex)
True or false? The presence of PMNs in the CSF is always abnormal.
True. Although the CSF normally contains 0 to 4 lymphocytes or monocytes, the presence of PMNs is always considered abnormal.
What cells lining the ventricles have cilia on their luminal surface to move CSF?
Ependymal cells
What is the most common site for an aneurysm in cerebral circulation?
The junction where the anterior communicating and anterior cerebral arteries join. As the aneurysm expands, it compresses the fibers from the upper temporal fields of the optic chiasm, producing bitemporal inferior quadrantanopia
What fissure of the cerebral cortex runs perpendicular to the lateral fissure and separates the frontal and the parietal lobes?
Central sulcus (sulcus of Rolando)
What is the name of violent projectile movements of a limb resulting from a lesion in the subthalamic nuclei of the basal ganglia?
Hemiballismus
What is the term for the type of pupil seen in neurosyphilis, and what ocular reflexes are lost?
Argyll Robertson pupils accompany a loss of both direct and consensual light reflexes, but the accommodation-convergence reaction remains intact. It can also be seen in patients with pineal tumors or multiple sclerosis.
True or false? Intrafusal fibers form muscle spindles.
True. Muscle spindles are modified skeletal muscle fibers. They are the sensory component of the stretch reflexes.
What Brodmann area is associated with
• Broca's area?
Areas 44 and 45
What Brodmann area is associated with
• Primary auditory cortex?
Areas 41 and 42
What Brodmann area is associated with
• Primary somatosensory cortex?
Areas 1, 2, and 3
What Brodmann area is associated with
• Somatosensory association cortex?
Areas 5 and 7
What Brodmann area is associated with
• Primary motor cortex?
Area 4
What Brodmann area is associated with
• Premotor cortex?
Area 6
What Brodmann area is associated with
• Visual association cortex?
Areas 18 and 19
What Brodmann area is associated with
• Frontal eye fields?
Area 8
What Brodmann area is associated with
• Primary visual cortex?
Area 17
What Brodmann area is associated with
• Wernicke's area?
Area 22 and occasionally 39 and 40
What is the fluid of the posterior compartment of the eye?
Vitreous humor
What aphasia produces a nonfluent pattern of speech with the abilty to understand written and spoken language seen in lesions in the dominant hemisphere?
Expressive aphasia
In a topographical arrangement of the cerebellar homunculus map, what area or lobe
• Controls the axial and proximal musculature of the limbs?
The vermis
In a topographical arrangement of the cerebellar homunculus map, what area or lobe
• Is involved in motor planning?
Lateral part of the hemispheres
In a topographical arrangement of the cerebellar homunculus map, what area or lobe
• Controls balance and eye movements?
Flocculonodular lobe (one of my favorite words in all of medicine!)
In a topographical arrangement of the cerebellar homunculus map, what area or lobe
• Controls distal musculature?
Intermediate part of the hemispheres
What glial cell is derived from mesoderm and acts as a scavenger, cleaning up cellular debris after injury?
Microglia (Microglia and mesoderm both begin with M)
What direct-pathway basal ganglia disease is described by masklike facies, stooped posture, cogwheel rigidity, pill-rolling tremor at rest, and a gait characterized by shuffling and chasing the center of gravity?
Parkinson's disease (I can't underestimate all of the buzzwords in this question. Remember it.)
What artery supplies most of the lateral surfaces of the cerebral hemispheres?
Middle cerebral artery
What hypothalamic nucleus is responsible for the production of ADH?
Supraoptic nuclei; lesions here result in diabetes insipidus.
True or false? High-frequency sound waves stimulate hair cells at the base of the cochlea.
True. High-frequency sound waves stimulate the hair cells at the base of the cochlea, whereas low-frequency sound waves stimulate hair cells at the apex of the cochlea.
What nucleus of the hypothalamus is the satiety center, regulating food intake?
Ventromedial nucleus; lesions here result in obesity.
What cells of the retina sees in color and needs bright light to be activated?
Cones (C for color and cones)
What cell's axons are the only ones that leave the cerebellar cortex?
The Purkinje cell
What splanchnic carries preganglionic parasympathetic fibers that innervate the hindgut and the pelvic viscera?
Pelvic splanchnics (They all begin with P.)
Is nystagmus defined by the fast or slow component?
Nystagmus is named by the fast component, which is the corrective attempt made by the cerebral cortex in response to the initial slow phase.
Name the ocular lesion; be specific.
• Left optic nerve lesion
Left eye anopsia (left nasal and temporal hemianopsia)
Name the ocular lesion; be specific.
• Right calcarine cortex lesion
Left homonymous hemianopsia
Name the ocular lesion; be specific.
• A right LGB lesion (in the thalamus)
Left homonymous hemianopsia
Name the ocular lesion; be specific.
• Optic chiasm lesion
Bitemporal heteronymous hemianopsia
Name the ocular lesion; be specific.
• A right lateral compression of the optic chiasm (as in aneurysms in the internal carotid artery)
Right nasal hemianopsia
Name the ocular lesion; be specific.
• Left Meyer's loop lesion of the optic radiations.
Left homonymous hemianopsia
What is the function of the cerebellum?
Planning and fine-tuning of voluntary skeletal muscle contractions. (Think coordination.) Remember, the function of the basal ganglia is to initiate gross voluntary skeletal muscle control.
What is the name for inability to stop a movement at the intended target?
Dysmetria; this is seen in a finger-to-nose test.
If a lesion occurs before the onset of puberty and arrests sexual development, what area of the hypothalamus is affected?
Preoptic area of the hypothalamus; if the lesion occurs after puberty, amenorrhea or impotence will be seen.
What sulcus divides the occipital lobe horizontally into a superior cuneus and inferior lingual gyrus?
Calcarine sulcus
Do alpha-or gamma-motor neurons innervate extrafusal muscle fibers?
alpha-Motor neurons innervate extrafusal muscle fibers (a motor unit), whereas gamma-motor neurons innervate intrafusal muscle fibers.
Contracting both medial rectus muscles simultaneously makes the images of near objects remain on the same part of the retina. What term describes this process?
Convergence
Will a unilateral lesion in the spinothalamic tract result in a contralateral or ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature?
Contralateral. The spinothalamic tract enters the spinal cord and immediately synapses in the dorsal horn, crosses over, and ascends contralateral in the spinal cord, brainstem, thalamus, and postcentral gyrus.
What ganglion supplies the postganglionic parasympathetic fibers to the ciliary muscles of the eye?
Ciliary ganglion
In what tract does pain, temperature, and crude touch sensory information ascend to the postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe?
Spinothalamic tract (anterolateral system)
What CN nucleus receives auditory information from both ears via the cochlear nuclei?
Superior olivary nucleus
What parasympathetic nucleus is found on the floor of the fourth ventricle and supplies preganglionic fibers innervating the terminal ganglias of the thorax, foregut, and midgut?
Dorsal motor nucleus of CN X
What sensory system is affected in the late spinal cord manifestation of syphilis?
Bilateral degeneration of the dorsal columns in the spinal cord secondary to syphilis is known as tabes dorsalis. A high-step gait is seen in patients with tabes dorsalis because of the inability to feel the ground beneath their feet.
What do LMNs innervate?
They innervate skeletal muscle.
What tract carries the ipsilateral dorsal column fibers from the lower limbs in the spinal cord?
The fasciculus gracilis (Graceful), which lies closest to the midline of the spinal cord.
True or false? CSF is a clear, hypertonic solution with higher concentrations of K + and HCO3-, than the serum.
False. CSF is a clear isotonic solution with lower concentrations of K+ and HCO3-. It does have higher concentrations of Cl- and Mg2+.
What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer motor, sensory, or both)
• Dorsal root?
Sensory
What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer motor, sensory, or both)
• Dorsal rami?
Both
What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer motor, sensory, or both)
• Ventral rami?
Both
What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer motor, sensory, or both)
• Ventral root?
Motor
What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer motor, sensory, or both)
• Dorsal root ganglion?
Sensory
What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer motor, sensory, or both)
• Spinal nerve?
Both
Describe the loss for each of the following in a hemisection of the spinal cord. (Brown–Sáequard syndrome)
• Dorsal column tract?
Ipsilateral loss at and below the level of the lesion
Describe the loss for each of the following in a hemisection of the spinal cord. (Brown–Sáequard syndrome)
• Corticospinal tract?
Ipsilateral loss below the level of the lesion
Describe the loss for each of the following in a hemisection of the spinal cord. (Brown–Sáequard syndrome)
• LMN?
Ipsilateral flaccid paralysis
Describe the loss for each of the following in a hemisection of the spinal cord. (Brown–Sáequard syndrome)
• Spinothalamic tract?
Contralateral loss below and bilateral loss at the level of the lesion
What area of the brain acts as the center for ipsilateral horizontal gaze?
PPRF
What aphasia is seen as an inability to comprehend spoken language and speaking in a word salad?
Receptive aphasia is due to a lesion in Brodmann areas 22, 39, and 40; generally the patient is unaware of the deficit.
What is the function of the basal ganglia?
Initiate and manage gross skeletal muscle movement control
What artery is formed by the union of the two vertebral arteries?
The basilar artery is formed at the pontomedullary junction.
What disease is described by bilateral flaccid weakness of the upper limbs (LMN) and bilateral spastic weakness of the lower limbs (UMN) beginning at the cervical level of the spinal cord and progressing up or down the cord?
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig's disease) is a LMN lesion at the level of the lesion and UMN lesion below the level of the lesion.
Which dopamine receptor excites the direct pathway of the basal ganglia?
D1 receptor; inhibition of the direct pathway occurs through the D2 receptors.
Does the direct or indirect basal ganglia pathway result in a decreased level of cortical excitation?
Although both pathways are associated with disinhibition, the indirect basal ganglia pathway is associated with a decreased level of cortical excitation.
What fissure of the cerebral cortex separates the frontal and temporal lobes rostrally and partially separates the parietal and temporal lobes?
Lateral fissure (fissure of Sylvius)
What area of the brain acts as the center for contralateral horizontal gaze?
Frontal eye field (Brodmann area 8)
In an adult, where does the spinal cord terminate and what is it called?
The conus medullaris terminates at the level of the second lumbar vertebra.
If a patient with a cerebellar lesion has nystagmus, which way is the fast component directed, toward or away from the lesion?
The fast component is directed toward the affected side of a cerebellar lesion.
What area of the limbic system is responsible for attaching emotional significance to a stimulus?
Amygdala; it helps imprint an emotional response in memory.
What is the name of the tremor that occurs during movements and is absent while the person is at rest?
Intention tremor; it is a sign of cerebellar lesions. A tremor at rest (i.e., pill rolling) is seen in basal ganglia lesions.
What is the term for making up stories regarding past experiences because of an inability to retrieve them?
Confabulation; it is commonly seen in Korsakoff's syndrome.
What frontal lobe cortex is associated with organizing and planning the intellectual and emotional aspect of behavior?
Prefrontal cortex; it is in front of the premotor area.
What is the largest nucleus in the midbrain?
The substantia nigra is the largest nucleus in the midbrain. It contains melanin and uses GABA and dopamine as its neurotransmitters.
Where is the lesion that produces these symptoms when a patient is asked to look to the left?
• Left eye can't look to the left
Left abducens nerve (VI)
Where is the lesion that produces these symptoms when a patient is asked to look to the left?
• Right eye can't look left, left eye nystagmus, and convergence is intact
Right medial longitudinal fasciculus
Where is the lesion that produces these symptoms when a patient is asked to look to the left?
Neither eye can look left with a slow drift to the right
Left abducens nucleus or right cerebral cortex
What area of the hypothalamus is the feeding center?
Lateral hypothalamic zone; lesions here result in aphagia. (Notice the difference between the feeding center and the satiety center; they are in different zones.)
In what pathway of the basal ganglia do lesions result in hyperactive cortex with hyperkinetic, chorea, athetosis, tics, and dystonia?
Indirect pathway (Tourette syndrome for example)
What happens to muscle tone and stretch reflexes when there is a LMN lesion?
The hallmarks of LMN lesion injury are absent or decreased reflexes, muscle fasciculations, decreased muscle tone, and muscle atrophy What two areas of the skin do flaccid paralysis). Don't forget, LMN lesions are ipsilateral at the level of the lesion!
In what pathway of the basal ganglia do lesions result in an underactive cortex with hypokinetic, slow, or absent spontaneous movement?
Direct pathway; a good example is Parkinson's disease.
What sided muscle weakness is seen in an UMN corticospinal tract injury above the pyramidal decussation?
Contralateral muscle weakness when above the decussation, whereas an UMN injury below the pyramidal decussation results in ipsilateral muscle weakness.
What area of the retina consists of only cones and has the greatest visual acuity?
Fovea
What tract carries the ipsilateral dorsal column fibers from the upper limbs in the spinal cord?
The fasciculus cuneatus
What CNS demyelinating disease is characterized by diplopia, ataxia, paresthesias, monocular blindness and weakness, or spastic paresis?
Multiple sclerosis
What part of the ANS (i.e., PNS or CNS) controls the constriction of the pupil in response to light?
Parasympathetic
With which CN are preganglionic parasympathetic axons arising from the Edinger- Westphal nucleus associated?
CN III
Ophthalmic artery is a branch of what artery?
Internal carotid artery
What thalamic relay nucleus do the mammillary bodies project to?
The anterior nucleus of the thalamus
What cells contribute to the blood-brain barrier and proliferate in response to CNS injury?
Astrocytes
What causes slow writhing movements (athetosis)?
Hypermyelination of the corpus striatum and the thalamus (seen in cerebral palsy)
What area of the brain is responsible for emotion, feeding, mating, attention, and memory?
The limbic system
What is the name of the postganglionic parasympathetic ganglion that innervates
• The papillary sphincter and ciliary muscle of the eye?
Ciliary ganglion. (These fibers are carried in CN III. Remember it like this:-ili-in ciliary ganglion looks like the III of CN III.)
What is the name of the postganglionic parasympathetic ganglion that innervates
• The parotid gland?
The otic ganglion. (These fibers are carried in CN IX. Remember it like this: the -oti-is in both otic ganglion and parotid gland.)
What is the name of the postganglionic parasympathetic ganglion that innervates
• The submandibular and sublingual glands?
The submandibular ganglion. (Submandibular ganglion innervates the submandibular gland; easy enough.)
What is the name of the postganglionic parasympathetic ganglion that innervates
• The lacrimal gland and oral and nasal mucosa?
Pterygopalatine ganglion (I remember this as the only ganglion left.)
What neuronal cell bodies are contained in the intermediate zone of the spinal cord? (T1–L2)
Preganglionic sympathetic neurons
What limb of the internal capsule is not supplied by the middle cerebral artery?
Anterior limb of the internal capsule is supplied by the anterior cerebral artery.
What tract is responsible for voluntary refined movements of distal extremities?
Corticospinal tract
Craniopharyngiomas are remnants of what?
Rathke's pouch; they can result in compression of the optic chiasm.
Clarke's nucleus is the second ascending sensory neuron of which spinocerebellar tract?
Dorsal spinocerebellar tract; the accessory cuneate nucleus is the second nucleus for the cuneocerebellar tract.
Name the three postganglionic sympathetic ganglia that receive input from thoracic splanchnics.
Celiac, aorticorenal, and superior mesenteric ganglias. (Remember all " Splanchnics" are Sympathetic except for the Pelvic splanchnics, which are Preganglionic Parasympathetic fibers.)
What is the only CN to arise from the dorsal surface of the midbrain?
CN IV
What basic reflex regulates muscle tone by contracting muscles in response to stretch of that muscle?
The myotatic reflex is responsible for the tension present in all resting muscle.
Where are the LMN cell bodies of the corticospinal tract?
In the ventral horn of the spinal cord. UMN cell bodies are in the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe.
What nucleus, found in the intermediate zone of the spinal cord, sends unconscious proprioception to the cerebellum?
Clarke's nucleus
The vertebral artery is a branch of what artery?
The subclavian artery
What muscle of the middle ear is innervated by the mandibular division of CN V?
Tensor tympani
The fibers of nucleus gracilis and nucleus cuneatus cross at the medullary decussation and ascend contralateral to what thalamic relay nucleus?
VPL nucleus sends its fibers to synapse in the postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe.
What muscle of the middle ear is innervated by CN VII?
The stapedius muscle
What part of the inner ear contains the gravity receptors for changes in the position of the head?
Saccule and utricle
What nucleus supplies the preganglionic parasympathetic fibers to the ciliary ganglion?
Edinger-Westphal nucleus (via CN III)
What reticular nuclei synthesize serotonin from L-tryptophan and plays a role in mood, aggression, and inducing sleep?
The raphe nuclei
Will a patient with a unilateral lesion in the cerebellum fall toward or away from the affected side?
Patients with unilateral cerebellar lesions fall toward the side of the lesion.
A unilateral lesion in what nucleus will produce ipsilateral paralysis of the soft palate?
Nucleus ambiguus, resulting in the uvula deviating away from the side of the lesion.
True or false? Neurons in the dorsal horn participate in reflexes.
True. They are the sensory component of a spinal reflex.
What ganglion receives preganglionic sympathetic fibers from T1 to L1–2 and innervates smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, glands, head, thoracic viscera, and blood vessels of the body wall and limbs?
Sympathetic chain ganglion
What preganglionic sympathetic fibers are responsible for innervating the foregut and the midgut?
Thoracic splanchnic fibers
Does light or darkness regulate the pineal gland?
Light regulates the activity of the pineal gland via the retinal–suprachiasmatic– pineal pathway.
Name the three hormones produced by pinealocytes.
Melatonin, serotonin, and CCK
Is the pH of CSF acidotic, alkalotic, or neutral?
The pH of CSF is 7.33, acidotic.
What ascending sensory system carries joint position, vibratory and pressure sensation, and discriminative touch from the trunk and limbs?
The DCML system. (Remember, everything but pain and temperature.)
What reflex enables the eyes to remain focused on a target while the head is turning?
The vestibulo-ocular reflex
What cells of the retina see in black and white and are used for night vision?
Rods
Name the muscle type based on these descriptions:
• Discontinuous voluntary contraction, multinuclear striated unbranched fibers, actin and myosin overlapping for banding pattern, triadic T tubules, troponin and desmin as Z disc intermediate filament.
Skeletal muscles
Name the muscle type based on these descriptions:
• Continuous involuntary contraction, uninuclear striated branched fibers, actin and myosin overlapping for banding pattern, dyadic T tubules, intercalated discs, troponin and desmin as a Z disc intermediate filament.
Cardiac muscle
Name the muscle type based on these descriptions:
• Involuntary contraction, uninuclear nonstriated fibers, actin and myosin not forming banding pattern; lack of T tubules, gap junctions, and calmodulin.
Smooth muscle
What segment of the small intestine is associated with Brunner's glands?
Duodenum
Who is responsible for passing on mitochondrial DNA genetic disorders?
Mitochondria-linked disorders are always inherited from the mother.
What part of a neuron receives information?
Dendrites receive information, whereas axons send information.
What type of collagen is associated with the basement membrane?
Type IV collagen
What is the epithelial lining of the prostatic portion of the urethra?
Transitional epithelium. The distal portion of the penile urethra is composed of stratified epithelium.
What cell of the nephron is responsible for renin production and secretion?
Juxtaglomerular (JG) cell
What cell surface modification of ependymal cells and respiratory epithelium has a 9 + 2 microtubular configuration and movement as its function?
Cilia
True or false? The following are functions of hepatocytes: protein production, bile secretion, detoxification, conjugation, and lipid storage.
True. (They are quite a busy bunch of cells!)
What substance found in eosinophils is toxic to parasitic worms?
Major basic protein
After fertilization, what cells of the corpus luteum
• Secrete progesterone?
Granulose cells secrete progesterone. After fertilization the granulose cells form from follicular cells.
After fertilization, what cells of the corpus luteum
• Secrete estrogen?
Theca cells secrete estrogen. After fertilization the theca cells form from the theca interna.
What is the largest organ in the body?
Integument (skin and its derivatives)
On what layer of the epidermis does all mitosis occur?
Malpighian layer (made up of the stratum basale and stratum spinosum)
What ribosomal subunit binds first to the mRNA strand?
The small subunit (40S) binds first.
What is the T-cell area of the spleen?
PALS
What element is needed for the proper alignment of tropocollagen molecules?
Copper (Cu+)
What type of cell surface projection lies on the lateral surface of cells closest to the apex and acts to seal off the outside environment from the rest of the body?
Zonula occludens (tight junctions)
What organelle is responsible for ribosomal RNA synthesis?
Nucleolus. Ribosomal assembly also takes place in the nucleolus.
What sweat gland type is associated with odor production and hair follicles and is found in the axilla?
APocrinE glands (APES is my memory aid) Axilla, Areola, and Anus all begin with A. APES are hairy (associated with hair follicles). They smell (odor production), and if confronted by an APE, your Adrenergic nervous system would be firing (innervation).
What papillae send their senses via chorda tympani of CN VII?
Fungiform papillae
True or false? The portal tract of the liver lobule is the first area to be oxygenated in the liver.
True. (Remember, blood flows from the portal tracts to the central vein, so it is the first area to receive blood and therefore oxygen.)
Match the chromosome and haploid number with the stage of sperm development, spermatid, spermatocyte (primary or secondary), spermatogonia (type A or B):
• 46/2n (divide meiotically)
Spermatogonia (type B)
Match the chromosome and haploid number with the stage of sperm development, spermatid, spermatocyte (primary or secondary), spermatogonia (type A or B):
• 46/4n
Primary spermatocyte
Match the chromosome and haploid number with the stage of sperm development, spermatid, spermatocyte (primary or secondary), spermatogonia (type A or B):
• 23/1n
Spermatid
Match the chromosome and haploid number with the stage of sperm development, spermatid, spermatocyte (primary or secondary), spermatogonia (type A or B):
• 46/2n (divide mitotically)
Spermatogonia (type B)
Match the chromosome and haploid number with the stage of sperm development, spermatid, spermatocyte (primary or secondary), spermatogonia (type A or B):
• 23/2n
Secondary spermatocyte
What are the four functions of SER?
Steroid synthesis, drug detoxification, triglyceride resynthesis, and Ca2+handling
Which immunoglobulin is secreted by the plasma cells in the gastrointestinal tract?
IgA
What area of the lymph node is considered the thymic-dependent area?
The inner cortex (paracortex) contains the T cells, so it is considered the thymic-dependent area.
What type of chromatin is transcriptionally inactive?
Heterochromatin, the light stuff in the nucleus on an electron microscope image.
Both submandibular and sublingual glands are innervated by CN VII (facial) and produce mucous and serous secretions. Which one mainly produces serous secretions?
Submandibular gland produces mainly serous and the sublingual gland produces mainly mucous secretions.
What is the only neuroglial cell of mesodermal origin?
Microglia. All others are neuroectodermal derivatives.
Where is tropocollagen aggregated to form a collagen fibril?
Outside the cell
What are the four posttranslational modifications done by the Golgi apparatus?
1. Phosphorylation of mannose (lysosomes only)
2. Removal of mannose residues
3. Formation of glycosylate proteins
4. Phosphorylation of sulfate amino acids
What is the epithelial cell lining the nasopharynx?
Stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium, which has cilia that beat toward the oropharynx.
What are the three epidermal derivatives?
1. Nails
2. Hair
3. Sweat glands (both apocrine and sebaceous)
What are the long microvilli in the inner ear and male reproductive tract called?
Stereocilia
True or false? The central vein of the liver lobule is the first area affected during hypoxia.
True. Blood flows from the portal tracts (distal) to the central vein (proximal), so it is the first area affected during hypoxia.
What cell of the male reproductive system produces testosterone?
Leydig cells produce testosterone. LH stimulates Leydig cells. (Both start with L.)
Myelin is produced by which cells in the PNS? In the CNS?
In the PNS, myelin is produced by Schwann cells, in the CNS by oligodendrocytes.
What cell type of the epidermis functions as antigen-presenting cells?
Langerhans cells (found in the stratum spinosum)
What cell type is found in the peripheral white pulp of the spleen?
B cells are mainly found in the peripheral white pulp and germinal centers in the spleen.
What area of the female reproductive tract is lined by stratified squamous epithelium rich in |glycogen?
The vagina
What encapsulated lymphoid organ is characterized by presence of Hassall's corpuscles, and absence of germinal centers and B cells?
Thymus gland. (Thymus gland is essential for T cell maturation.)
What cell transports IgA, is secreted by plasma cells, and is in Peyer's patches to the gastrointestinal lumen?
M-cells
What are the cells of the parathyroid gland that produce PTH?
Chief cells
What skin type on the palms and soles is characterized by the absence of hair follicles and presence of stratum lucidum?
Thick skin
What is the name of hydrophilic pores that allow the direct passage of ions and particles between two adjacent cells?
Gap junctions
What type of lysosome is formed when lysosome fuses with a substrate for breakdown?
Secondary lysosome (think of the primary as inactive and secondary as active)
What cell membrane structure increases the surface area of a cell and has actin randomly assorted within its structure?
Microvillus
What are the four components of the basement membrane?
1. Laminin
2. Heparan sulfate (heparitin sulfate)
3. Fibronectin
4. Type IV collagen
What organelle synthesizes proteins that are intended to stay within the cell?
Free polysomes. Membrane-associated polysomes are the site of protein synthesis destined to leave the cell.
What cell type of the body or fundus of the stomach secretes IF?
Parietal cells (Remember, they secrete HCl, too.)
What cell type of the body or fundus of the stomach secretes pepsinogen?
Chief cells
What hormone, produced by the granulose cell, stimulates the endometrium to enter the proliferative phase?
Estrogen; the first 14 days of the female reproductive cycle mark the proliferative phase.
What cells of the nephron function as sodium concentration sensors of the tubular fluid?
Macula densa
What type of chromatin is transcriptionally active?
Euchromatin, the dark stuff in the nucleus on an electron microscope image.
What cells of the thyroid gland secrete calcitonin?
Parafollicular C cells
True or false? The nucleus is the site of transcription.
True. Transcription (conversion of DNA to RNA), as well as replication, occurs in the nucleus.
How many days after the LH surge is ovulation?
One day after the LH surge and 2 days after the estrogen peak.
In what layer of the epidermis is melanin transferred from melanocytes to keratinocytes?
Stratum spinosum
What cells of the epidermis, derived from the neural crest, act as mechanoreceptors?
Merkel cells (Merkel's tactile cells)
What substance do the JG cells of the kidney secrete in response to low blood pressure?
Renin
What is the rule of one-third regarding muscle type of the esophagus?
Upper third skeletal muscle, middle third both skeletal and smooth muscle, and lower third smooth muscle
What papillae are responsible for sweet taste?
Circumvallate papillae
What area of the lymph node contains germinal centers?
The outer cortex contains most of the germinal centers and therefore also most B cells.
True or false? The gallbladder functions to produce bile.
False. The gallbladder does not produce bile, but it concentrates bile via active sodium transport; water follows the sodium.
True or false? Depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane excites the neuron.
True. Hyperpolarization inhibits the postsynaptic membrane.
In the alveoli, what cell type is
• for gas exchange?
Type I pneumocytes
In the alveoli, what cell type is
• responsible for producing surfactant?
Type II pneumocytes
In the alveoli, what cell type is
• part of the mononuclear phagocytic system?
Alveolar macrophages (dust cells)
Which trophoblast layer of the placenta remains until the end of pregnancy?
Syncytiotrophoblast. (The cytotrophoblast gets incorporated into the syncytiotrophoblast.)
What is the first epidermal layer without organelles and nuclei
Stratum lucidum
What area of the small intestine is characterized by Peyer's patches?
Ileum
What lymphoid organ has the following characteristics: outer and inner cortical areas, encapsulation, germinal centers, and high endothelial venules?
Lymph nodes
What area of the nephron is sensitive to the effects of ADH?
Collecting ducts, which make them readily permeable to water reabsorption.
What is the name of RER in neurons?
Nissl substances; there is a great deal of RER in neuron cell bodies, indicating high protein synthesis.
What hormone causes milk letdown?
Oxytocin
What are the three reasons for the effectiveness of the blood-brain barrier?
1. Tight junctions
2. Capillaries that lack fenestration
3. Very selective pinocytosis by the capillaries
What cell type of the epidermis originates from the neural crest?
Melanocytes
If no fertilization occurs, how many days after ovulation does the corpus luteum begin to degenerate?
12 days after ovulation
What area of the spleen consists of splenic cords of Billroth and phagocytoses RBCs?
Red pulp (Remember, Red pulp and RBCs begin with R.)
What is the name of the protein coat that surrounds the nuclear envelope?
Vimentin
What papillae are touch receptors on the tongue and send their sensations via CN V3 (mandibular division)?
Filiform papillae
What is the most superficial layer of the epidermis?
Stratum corneum (keratinized)
What syndrome is characterized by dynein arm abnormality resulting in chronic sinusitis, recurrent pulmonary infections, and infertility?
Kartagener's syndrome (also known as immotile cilia syndrome)


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What are the functions of the zonula occludens and the zonula adherens
To provide attachment between contiguous cells and to maintain a semipermeable barrier
What is the name of the SER of striated muscle?
Sarcoplasmic reticulum
Where do sperm go for maturation?
Ductus epididymis, which is lined by pseudostratified epithelium with stereocilia.
When is the first arrested stage of development in the female reproductive cycle?
Prophase of meiosis I (between 12th and 22nd week in utero)
What is the longest and most convoluted segment of the nephron?
PCT
What cells of the epidermis carry the pigment melanin?
Keratinocytes, the most numerous cells in the epidermis, carry melanin and produce keratin.
What segment of the gastrointestinal tract lacks villi, has crypts, and actively transports sodium out of its lumen?
Large intestine. Water is passively removed from the lumen.
What two areas of the skin do not contain sebaceous glands?
Palms and soles of the feet. Sebaceous glands are associated with hair follicles, which are lacking on the palms and soles of the feet.
Which of the following is not part of the conducting portion of the respiratory system: trachea, bronchi, alveoli, or larynx?
Alveoli; they are part of the respiratory portion.
Where are the enzymes for the ETC and oxidative phosphorylation found?
The inner membrane of the mitochondria (cristae)
What lymphoid organ is characterized by germinal centers, plasma cells that secrete IgA, and no encapsulation?
Peyer's patch
What generate anterograde transport of information in a neuron?
Kinesins. Dynein generates retrograde transportation of information.
What is the only glycosaminoglycan (GAG) that binds to the linker portion of the proteoglycan?
Hyaluronic acid (all sulfates bind to the core protein)
What cell in bone is a part of the mononuclear phagocytic system?
Osteoclasts
What three factors do Sertoli cells produce for normal male development?
Inhibin, müllerian-inhibiting factor, and androgen binding protein
What epidermal layer's function is to release lipids to act as a sealant?
Stratum granulosum
What does the tunica intima of arteries have that veins do not?
An internal elastic lamina
Do the duct or the acini cells of the pancreas secrete HCO3-?
Duct cells secrete HCO3-, electrolytes, and water. The acini secrete the enzymes necessary for carbohydrate, nucleic acid, protein cleavage, and emulsification of fats.
What cell of the duodenum contains high concentrations of lysozymes and has phagocytic activity?
Paneth cells
What maintains the osmotic gradient that is critical to the concentrating ability of the kidney?
The venae recta maintain the gradient via countercurrent flow.
Are the JG cells of the nephron a part of the afferent or efferent arteriole?
Afferent arteriole
What cell of the duodenum secretes CCK?
Enteroendocrine (EE) cells; they also secrete secretin.
What are the proteoglycans of cartilage and bone?
Chondroitin sulfate and keratan sulfate
What is the term for the first 3 to 5 days of the female reproductive cycle?
Menses. (Ovulation occurs 14 days before the beginning of menses.)
What is the second arrested stage of development in the female reproductive cycle?
Metaphase of meiosis II (in the oocyte of the graafian follicle)
What ribosomal subunit sizes do eukaryotic cells have?
60S and 40S. The large subunits (60S) are made in the nucleolus and the small subunits (40S) are made in the nucleus.
What term describes how an action potential is propagated along an axon?
Saltatory conduction
What phase of the female reproductive cycle is 14 days long?
The secretory phase is progesterone-dependent and 14 days long, whereas the length of the proliferative phase varies
A single mRNA strand translated by a ribosome is termed what?
Polysome. Ribosomes read from the 5' to the 3' end of the mRNA.
What cell is under control of FSH and testosterone; secretes inhibin, MIF, and androgen-binding protein; and phagocytizes the excess cytoplasm of the spermatid?
Sertoli cell
What histone binds two nucleosomes together?
H1 histones
What is the major inorganic component of bone?
Hydroxyapatite
What cells of the adrenal gland are neural crest derivatives?
Chromaffin cells (adrenal medulla)
Where does Beta-oxidation of very long chain fatty acids begin?
In the peroxisome until it is 10 carbons long; the rest is completed in the mitochondria.
What organelles make ATP, have their own dsDNA, and can synthesize protein?
Mitochondria