• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off

How to study your flashcards.

Right/Left arrow keys: Navigate between flashcards.right arrow keyleft arrow key

Up/Down arrow keys: Flip the card between the front and back.down keyup key

H key: Show hint (3rd side).h key

A key: Read text to speech.a key


Play button


Play button




Click to flip

177 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
How many HQ units report directly to HQ?
Which type of command is responsible for providing services such as civil engineering, health and safety, legal, and finance to all operational units within its area?
MLCs (Maintenance and Logistics Commands
True or False: Rear Admirals head up districts?
True or False: Vice Admirals lead LANTAREA and PACAREA?
In this war, cutters captured 18 prizes unaided and assisted in the capture of two others.
Quasi-War with France
CGC Harriet Lane is credited with firing the first naval shots of this war.
Civil War
The first time during a war that the entire Coast Guard was transferred to the Navy?
During this war, the McCullouch served as both the escort and dispatch with CMDR George Dewy's squadron.
Spanish-American War
In this conflict, the Coast Guard played a marginal role, primarily one of support.
Korean Conflict...let's go ahead and call it what it is. Korea was never declared by Congress.
The following cards are all True or False until further notice.
True or False
True or False: The first time the CG augmented the Navy with shallow-draft craft was in WWI.
False - WWII
The CG was given responsibility for cold-weather operations in Greenland during WWII.
The first time ocean-going cutters augmented Navy and CG surveillance forces was in Viet Nam.
The CG was solely responsible for cleaning up a massive oil spill during the Gulf War.
False - They led a US inter-agency team.
During Operation Eagle in November 2001, the CG was once again under Navy command.
False - It was Operation NOBLE Eagle, and for the first time, US Navy forces were under CG command.
Following WWII, members of what organization were given rates and ratings, uniforms, and insignia?
CG Auxiliary
Drug smuggling in the 1960's gave what CG mission increased importance?
Law Enforcement
What event was the impetus for the International Ice Patrol?
Sinking of HMS Titanic
The fatality rate of this focus has greatly declined as a result of what CG mission?
Boating Safety
The Refuse Act of 1899 was the catalyst for what CG mission?
Environmental protection
Members of what part-time force perform the same duties as active duty personnel?
CG Reserve
To help rescue immigrants from vessels ravished by winter storms, a Federal lifesaving service was initiated in _____.

a. 1815
b. 1832
c. 1848
d. 1885
c. 1848
The only CG-manned lightstation in the US today is loctaed in _____.

a. Cape Hatteras
b. Cape Elizabeth
c. New York Harbor
d. Boston Harbor
d. Boston Harbor
Today, the CG is under the Department of _____.

a. Transportation
b. Treasury
c. Homeland Security
d. Defense
c. Homeland Security
She was one of the first uniformed women to serve in the CG.
Lucille Baker, along with her twin sister Genevieve in 1918
In what year are women integrated into AD and CG Reserve?
He is credited with saving more than 600 lives, has earned two Gold Lifesaving Medals, three Silver, and various other awards.
Joshua James
Year in which all officer career fields and enlisted ratings are opened to women.
Medal of Honor recipient. 'Nuff said.
Signalman First Class Douglas Munro, awarded posthumously for extraordinary heroism on Sept 27, 1942 at Point Cruz, Guadalcanal.
Year in which the first MCPOCG (E-10) was installed.
1969 - BMCM Charles L Calhoun
Year in which the first CG Master Chief (E-9) was promoted.
1958 - YNCM Jack Kerwin
For this program, the member must meet a qualifying score on the SAT, ACT, or ASVAB exams.
In this program, members can continue in their civilian jobs while serving military duty.
SELRES Direct Commission Program
To qualify for this program, member must be in paygrade E-6 or above.
Warrant Officer appointment
To qulaify for this program, member must have special training and skills in specific fields.
Direct Commission program
In this program, member can attend college full-time for up to two years and receive full pay and allowances.
Pre-Commissioning Program (PPEP)
In this program, members must compete by competitive examinations for direct appointments.
CG Academy
Supervisors will be a (n) ______.

a. Civilian
b. Enlisted person
c. Officer
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
The command may designate, as a supervisor, a _______.

a. 1st class petty officer
b. 2nd class petty officer
c. 3rd class petty officer
d. None of the above
a. 1st class petty officer
Route the employee review to the _____.

a. Employee
b. Approving Official
c. Marking Official
d. Appeal Authority
c. Marking Official
The supervisor must route the completed employee review to the next level of the rating chain no later than _____ days prior to the period ending date.

a. 4
b. 7
c. 9
d. 14
c. 9
Supporting documentation is required for recommended marks of 1, 3, or 7.
False - 1, 2, or 7
An important aspect of the employee review is that it provides a roadmap for future improvement.
True or false: The Recommendation for Advancement section of the EER is completed for Master, Senior, and Chief Petty Officers.
True or false: Adverse entries should also focus on one-time, minor infractions.
False - They should focus on patterns of unacceptable behavior.
A member who is financially irresponsible must be marked as unsatisfactory conduct.
Seaman Bolon was given a regular employee review six weeks ago and was just awarded NJP.
Special employee review required.
Type of EER required: Fireman Alleby is in an unauthorized absence status and it's the last day of January.
No employee review required (due to UA status).
Type of EER required: PO1 Grippe has been at her new duty station for four months and it's the last day of May.
Regular employee review required
Type of EER required: Reservist PO Graul has just been promoted to CPO. CPO Graul has completed 20 drill periods since the rating chain completed his special employee review.
Special employee review required
SA Donahue has been in the CG for 18 months and it's the last day of February.
Regular employee review required.
A special employee review was completed for MCPO Potan 5 months ago and it's the last day of September.
No emplyee review required.
The most significant benefit of counseling is that it provides the evaluee with _____.

a. The evaluation marks
b. An insight into how the supervisor views his/her performance.
c. An insight into how well he/she conducts themself.
d. A roadmap for success.
d. A roadmap for success
Counseling must take place not more than _____ following the employee review period ending date.

a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 45 days
d. 60 days
b. 30 days
The _____ counsels and reviews the evaluation with the evaluee.

a. Supervisor
b. Marking Official
c. Approving Official
d. Commandant
a. Supervisor
The evaluee is counseled after _____.

a. The supervisor performs the initial employee review
b. The Marking Official has reviewed the employee evaluation
c. The Approving official has reviewed the employee evaluation
d. The Commandant has reviewed the employee evaluation
c. The Approving Official has reviewed the employee evaluation.
Exercise with heart rate elevated for no more than 10 minutes.
False - 30 minutes 3 times a week.
Practice deep breathing exercises.
Avoid eating breakfast to avoid revving up your nerve fiber.
Practice Yoga
Don't think about change until it happens so you don't have to worry about it ahead of time.
False - Anticipate and prepare for change.
For stressful commutes, change commuting patterns.
Your role in preventing suicide is to determine whether the person will actually commit suicide.
False - Your role is to recognize the signs and get that person help.
If a person laughingly mentions a way of escaping his/her problems is to leave this world, you have no need to worry since he's just joking.
False - ALL suicide threats must be taken seriously, even if it appears to be a joke.
Suicide can be prevented.
Asking open-ended questions is one way of getting the person to talk about it more freely.
Your willingness to talk about suicide can cause the person to "clam up".
False - It shows acceptance, which can give them hope at a time when things seem hopeless to them.
True or false: In communicating with a possibly suicidal person, you discover there is no specific plan. You can safely assume it's all talk.
False - If there is no specific plan, it is not LIKELY that they will commit suicide, but that is a general guideline, not a rule. NEVER assume it's all just talk.
True or false: Under the tuition assistance program enlisted members incur a service duty obligation.
To be eligible for tuition assistance, courses must result in accredited college credit or contact hours.
True or False: CG Foundation grants are only for active duty service personnel in paygrades E-2 through E-9 with three or more years of CG service.
False - E-3 to E-9 with TWO or more years CG Service.
Enlisted members may be able to receive college credit for some of their military learning experience.
The CG Institute is the source for ALL rating course material.
The DANTES Program offers a means of getting college credit for learning outside of the classroom.
No CG member or employee may authorize use of CG property for other than official use.
Excess property should be reported to the property officer.
A survey is an administrative action to determine how CG property was lost, damaged, or destroyed.
Reports for Survey are not required for property valued at less than $1000.
False - They are not required for property valued at less than $500.
Reports of Survey are prepared on form CG-5323.
False - CG-5269
A unit CO may order a survey even if one is not required.
It is the responsibility of the _____ to ensure training is properly recorded.

a. Unit CO
b. CG Institute
c. Educational Services Officer
d. CG member
d. CG member
All training that members receive is recorded in _____.

a. Their personal training record
b. "A" school records
c. "C" school records
d. Leadership school records
a. Their personal training record
All training records can be viewed in _____.

a. USCG Training Manual
b. UTS
c. Direct Access
d. The DANTES Program
c. Direct Access - I will note here that "Direct Access" is no longer used as a label. The correct term is actually "PeopleSoft".
Discrepancies in Direct Access (PeopleSoft) training records should be reported to _____.

a. Educational Services Officer
b. Unit CO
c. CG Institute
d. Servicing Personnel Office (SPO)
d. Servicing Personnel Office (SPO)
Non-resident and resident training are both used by the CG.
"C" Schools are resident training courses.
Resident training courses have specific beginning and graduation dates.
Requests for resident courses must be formally submitted by your immediate supervisor.
False - they must be submitted by your training officer.
Funds for travel to the school site must also be requested.
Electronic Travel Requests (ETRs) cannot be submitted under self-service functions in Direct Access (PeopleSoft).
True - ETR access is intended for unit training coordinators/assistant unit training coordinators.
In order for a PR to be valid, it must _____.

a. Be numbered properly
b. Contain appropriation and accounting data
c. Have a valid signature
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
The _____ is the written determination to restrict competition.

a. Statement of Essential Need
b. Enclosure 23 to COMDTINST M4200.13F
d. None of the above
c. JOTFOC - Justification for Other Than Full and Open Competition
PRs for construction requests are limited to _____.

a. $1800
b. $2000
c. $2200
d. $2500
b. $2000
The PR limit value for ordering supplies is _____.

a. $1800
b. $2000
c. $2200
d. $2500
d. $2500
To be eligible for the SWE, you must _____.

a. Be in your rate for a required period of time
b. Have your CO's recommendation
c. Have successfully completed the End of Course test
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
The reasons members are not ranked in the SWE process where they thought they should be is usually because there was _____.

a. Inaccurate award points
b. Inaccurate sea duty points
c. Missing data
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
Failure to carefully review your PDE could possibly result in _____

a. A reprimand from your supervisor
b. Loss of pay
c. Ineligibility for the SWE
d. None of the above
c. Ineligibility for the SWE
Your PDE includes _____.

a. Time in pay grade
b. Time in service
c. Creditable sea time
d. All of the above
d. All of the above.
True or false: Any machine, part, function, or process that could cause injury must have safeguards in place.
True or false: Hand and power tools are dangerous because most people don't know how to use them.
False - People underestimate the danger.
A Closed Compartment Opening Request form is required to open confined spaces.
False - It is not required, but is an effective "Checklist" that can be used prior to entering a confined space.
Examples of permit-required confined spaces on cutters and other vessels include wing tanks, fuel cells, APO spaces, and center tanks.
False - those are examples of permit-required confined spaces on aircraft.
Flywheels, shafts, generators, and clutches are all common moving parts found in a machinery space.
A lockout/tagout system is not necessary when deenergizing and security (I think that's supposed to be "securing", but that's the way it's written in the book) electrical equipment.
IN certain instances, it is permissible for a person to work on electrical equipment alone.
True or false: PPE is required when handling flammable or toxic materials.
Universal Protection is an infection control approach developed by the CG that assumes every direct contact with body fluids is potentially infectious.
False - It was developed by the CDC.
True or false: Completing a man aloft chit before sending a person to work afloat is optional.
False - It is required. I think this is supposed to be saying "sending a person to work aloft", but both the question in the Knowledge Check and the passage in the book that it refers to says "afloat". Somebody dropped the proofreading ball.
When using a stage for a person working over the side, rigging a manrope to one end is optional.
Each unit is required to have a written plan for decontamination of biohazardous material.
When making a presentation, you should maintain steady eye contact with audience members who appear most interested.
False - Maintain eye contact with everyone in the audience.
When making a presentation, you should avoid making gestures with your hands.
False - Hand gestures are fine, as long as they are natural and used to illustrate the point.
When making a presentation, you should have a neat, professional appearance.
When making a presentation, you should avoid use of technical jargon.
True, unless you either explain the technical jargon or your audience is entirely made up of people who will comprehend it.
When making a presentation, you should maintain a casual posture with hands in pockets.
False - Posture should be straight but natural, and hands should never be in pockets.
When making a presentation, you should maintain the same presentation pace, regardless of content.
False - Pace your presentation commensurate with the content, and adjust the pace if necessary.
When making a presentation, you should maintain a steady voice tone.
False - avoid a monotone. It puts people to sleep. Also, be mindful of which words in a sentence are being emphasized.
When making a presentation, you should maintain an enthusiastic attitude.
You can search for CG forms by _____.

a. Forms Library
b. Form Number
c. Form Title
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
What type of communication is permanent, exceeds 25 pages, and must be reviewed annually and cancelled when no longer applicable?
What type of communication is transmitted via CGMS, with urgent contents?
Message-type notice
Which type of communication has continuing reference value or requires continuing action?
Which type of communication contains one-time or brief information and is automatically canceled in 12 months if earlier cancellation date is not specified?
What is the Direct Access (PeopleSoft) website?
The 21 leadership competencies are grouped into which three categories?
Self, Working with Others, Performance
As a supervisor, you are limited in your authority to perform a probable cause search to when you are doing what?
Performing military police, guard, shore patrol, or investigative duties.
What must EMI be used for?
Improve specific task performance
Methods of withholding of privileges as a supervisor?
a. Special liberty
b. Leave during a particular period
c. Exchange of duty
d. Participation in special command functions/programs
e. Access to base or ship's libraries or movies, or enlisted/officer's clubs
f. Base parking
g. Base or ship special services events
h. Commissary/Exchange privileges
For the following: Match the input information with the appropriate location on the CG-3307:
Seaman Jones was counseled for...
Responsible level
Entry type
Performance and discipline (P&D-7)
To ensure your people are fully versed in advancement requirements, you would suggest that they become familiar with the requirements found in COMDTINST M1000.6 _____.

a. Chapter 1
b. Chapter 5, Section C
c. Chapter 8, Section D
d. Chapter 9, Sections C&D
b. Chapter 5, Section C
Select two circumstances that could prevent promotion.

a. Prior promotion
b. Approved requirement request
c. Frocking
d. Gender
e. Confinement
b. and e.
For drafting an award, place the following in the correct order:

1. Draft the citation
2. Edit the citation
3. Gather performance data on the member
4. Submit the award package
5. Develop a performance bullet
6. Decide on the level of award
7. Complete form CG-1650
1. Gather performance data
2. Develop a performance bullet
3. Decide on the level of award
4. Draft the citation
5. Edit the citation
6. Complete form CG-1650
7. Submit the award package
The intent of the CG Substance Abuse Prevention Program is to _____.

a. Promote rehabilitation of members for further useful service
b. Detect and separate those members who abuse drugs
c. Reduce substance and alcohol abuse incidents in the CG
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
MLC personnel assigned to detached duty as a part of the SAPP are called _____.

a. Health Services technicians
b. Addiction Prevention Specialists
c. CDARs
d. Assessment screeners
b. Addiction Prevention Specialists
Members will be processed for separation after _____.

a. Being involved in a third alcohol incident
b. Violating aftercare treatment plan
c. Consuming alcohol the second time after receiving alcohol treatment
d. All of the above
d/ All of the above
If alcohol is involved, but not a causative factor for undesirable behavior, it is a (n) _____.
Alcohol-related situation
If a member with an alcohol problem asks for help, it is a (n) _____.
Awareness education, outpatient and residential care makes up the CG's ______.
Alcohol prevention and rehabilitation program.
If a member is unable to perform his/her duties due to alcohol, it is a (n) _____.
Alcohol incident
Members are to receive Sexual Harassment Prevention training semi-annually.
False - Annually
It is permissible for a CG CPO to date a Navy LTjg (Here the book says 2nd LT, but the Navy doesn't have any 2nd LTs - they are jgs just like in the CG).
False - Romantic relationships between enlisted and officers are prohibited, even if the personnel are in different services.
Members married to members cannot be assigned in the same chain of command.
Hazing is permitted as long as there is consent to being hazed.
False - Hazing is never permitted.
The EO Specialist is tasked with investigating informal discrimination complaints.
Diversity in the workplace impacts creative thinking and innovation.
If a member was transferred from Ready Reserve because of a temporary disability, they are considered _____.
Active Status, Standby Reserve
If a reserve member is designated as essential to initial contingency requirements, they are considered _____.
Selective Reserve (SELRES)
If a reserve member retired with 20 yrs of service and 45% disability, they are considered ______.
a disability retiree
If a reserve member is 62 yrs of age and receiving retired pay, they are considered _____.
If a member is trained and previously served in the Armed Forces, they are considered _____.
Individual Ready Reserve (IRR)
If a member has at least 20 yrs of service with 20% disability, they are considered _______.
Inactive Status List, Standby Reserve
If a Reserve member is under 60 yrs of age with qualifying years for retirement pay, they are considered _____.
Mishap investigations are conducted to _____.

a. Determine blame for the incident
b. Discipline those directly at fault
c. Chastise those indirectly at fault
d. Try to prevent reoccurences of the incident
d. Try to prevent reoccurences of the incident.
Mishaps that are sufficiently serious to warrant formal Mishap Analysis Board action are classified as ______.

a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
b. Class B
An incident resulting in property damage of approximately $150,000 is classified as ______.

a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
c. Class C
A Mishap Analysis Board appointed by the Commandant is convened for _______.

a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
a. Class A - The answer key in the book says Class A, but the book says the Commandant appoints MABs for Class A AND B.
For the following three questions, here is the scenario: PO Hodby tripped on the last step of the ladder while coming down from the bridge and broke her ankle.
Answer the questions
What level of mishap is this event?

a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
c. Class C - Nonfatal injury resulting in lost time.
Is a mishap report required?
Yes - Once again, due to lost-time injury.
Is it a reportable event?
Yes - military personnel at her command in the line of her duties.
This information must be included on all correspondence in the CG because it serves as the file number.

a. Date
c. Subject
d. Routing symbol
Select four acceptable characters in a CGMS message.

1. /
2. (
3. +
4. ?
5. ~
6. .
7. &
1. /
2. (
4. ?
6. .