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408 Cards in this Set

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What is Hypoxia?
Hypoxia is an oxygen deficiency in the arterial bloodstream.
What are the 2 types oxygen toxicity?
Pulmonary, and CNS
What is Hypercapnia?
Too much carbon dioxide in the bloodstream.
What is asphyxia?
It is a combination of both Hypoxia, and Hypercapnia.
What are the types of POIS’s?
Pneumothorax, Tension Pneumothorax, Mediastinal Emphysema, Subcutaneous Emphysema, Arterial Gas Embolism.
What is the difference between a squeeze and a barotrauma?
A squeeze involves gas, a barotrauma involves a fluid.
What are some symptoms of type 1 DCS?
Pain, swollen and painful lymph nodes, and symptoms involving the skin.
What is the hallmark symptom of type 1 DCS?
Dull, achy pain.
What 3 categories is type 2 DCS divided into?
Neurological, Inner ear (Staggers), and Cardiopulmonary (Chokes) symptoms.
What are the primary objectives of recompression treatment?
Compressed the bubble, allow sufficient time for bubble to absorb, increase blood oxygen level.
What was the first navy ship named after an enlisted man?
USS Osmand Ingram
What is Naval Warfare?
The inherent nature and enduring principle of Naval Forces
What is Naval Intelligence?
Points the way for intelligence support in meeting the requirements of both regional conflicts and operations other than war.
What is Naval Operations?
Develops doctrine to reaffirm the foundation of U.S. Navy and Marine Corps Expeditionary Maritime Traditions.
What is Naval Logistics?
Addresses the full range of logistical capabilities that are essential in the support of Naval forces.
What is Naval Planning?
Examines force planning and the relationship between our capabilities and operational planning in the joint and multinational environment.
What was the first navy ship named after an enlisted man?
USS Osmand Ingram
What is naval command and control?
Provides the basic concepts to fulfill the information needs of commanders, forces, and weapon systems.
What is Naval Warfare?
The inherent nature and enduring principle of Naval Forces
What is dipping the ensign?
The U.S. Navy dips the U.S. ensign only in return to the dip rendered by another ship. Once rendered, lower the ensign to half mast while passing.
What is Naval Intelligence?
Points the way for intelligence support in meeting the requirements of both regional conflicts and operations other than war.
What is a gun salute?
As naval customs evolved the 21-gun salute came to be reserved for heads of state, with fewer rounds used to salute lower ranking officials. Today, deputy heads of state and officers with 5 stars receive 19 rounds; 4 stars receive 17 rounds; 3 stars receive 15; 2 stars receive 13; and a one-star general or admiral receives 11.
What three classes of naval vessels existed at the inception of the Navy?
Frigate, ships of the line, sloops
What is Naval Operations?
Develops doctrine to reaffirm the foundation of U.S. Navy and Marine Corps Expeditionary Maritime Traditions.
What is Naval Logistics?
Addresses the full range of logistical capabilities that are essential in the support of Naval forces.
What is Naval Planning?
Examines force planning and the relationship between our capabilities and operational planning in the joint and multinational environment.
What is naval command and control?
Provides the basic concepts to fulfill the information needs of commanders, forces, and weapon systems.
What was the first navy ship named after an enlisted man?
USS Osmand Ingram
What is dipping the ensign?
The U.S. Navy dips the U.S. ensign only in return to the dip rendered by another ship. Once rendered, lower the ensign to half mast while passing.
What is a gun salute?
As naval customs evolved the 21-gun salute came to be reserved for heads of state, with fewer rounds used to salute lower ranking officials. Today, deputy heads of state and officers with 5 stars receive 19 rounds; 4 stars receive 17 rounds; 3 stars receive 15; 2 stars receive 13; and a one-star general or admiral receives 11.
What is Naval Warfare?
The inherent nature and enduring principle of Naval Forces
What is Naval Intelligence?
Points the way for intelligence support in meeting the requirements of both regional conflicts and operations other than war.
What three classes of naval vessels existed at the inception of the Navy?
Frigate, ships of the line, sloops
What is Naval Operations?
Develops doctrine to reaffirm the foundation of U.S. Navy and Marine Corps Expeditionary Maritime Traditions.
What is Naval Logistics?
Addresses the full range of logistical capabilities that are essential in the support of Naval forces.
What is Naval Planning?
Examines force planning and the relationship between our capabilities and operational planning in the joint and multinational environment.
What is naval command and control?
Provides the basic concepts to fulfill the information needs of commanders, forces, and weapon systems.
What is dipping the ensign?
The U.S. Navy dips the U.S. ensign only in return to the dip rendered by another ship. Once rendered, lower the ensign to half mast while passing.
What is a gun salute?
As naval customs evolved the 21-gun salute came to be reserved for heads of state, with fewer rounds used to salute lower ranking officials. Today, deputy heads of state and officers with 5 stars receive 19 rounds; 4 stars receive 17 rounds; 3 stars receive 15; 2 stars receive 13; and a one-star general or admiral receives 11.
What three classes of naval vessels existed at the inception of the Navy?
Frigate, ships of the line, sloops
What is the importance of the battle of Normandy?
Largest amphibious attack in history
What is the importance of the battle of Midway?
Major step forward for the United States in the WW2 having only one carrier sunk (Yorktown) and sinking four Japanese carriers.
What is the importance of the battle of Coral Sea?
It was the first battle that neither sides ships were able to see or directly engage each other.
What is the importance of the Battle of Leyte Gulf?
Considered the largest naval battle in history.
What are the three levels of war?
Strategic, operational, and tactical
What is the AOR of the 2nd fleet?
Atlantic Ocean
What is the AOR of the 3rd and 7th fleet?
Pacific Fleet
What is the AOR of the 5th fleet?
Middle East
What is the AOR of the 6th fleet?
Mediterranean
What is the AOR of Military Sealift Command?
As needed
What are the responsibilities of the President?
The administrative head of the executive branch of the government, and commander and chief of the armed forces.
What are the responsibilities of the Secretary of Defense?
Reports directly to the President, and responsible for all the President’s functions and authorities involving the DOD.
What are the responsibilities of the Secretary of the Navy?
Responsible for the policies and control of the department of the Navy.
What are the responsibilities of the MCPON?
Provide a direct, unofficial channel of communication between enlisted personnel and the senior policy level of the Navy.
What are the responsibilities of the Fleet Master Chief?
Principal enlisted advisors to unit commanders and commanding officer.
What are the responsibilities of the Force Master Chief?
Responsible for keeping their commanders up to date on situations, procedures, and practices that affect the well-being of the enlisted crew.
1What are the responsibilities of the Command Master Chief?
Responsible for keeping their commanders up to date on situations, procedures, and practices that affect the well-being of the enlisted crew particular to one command.
What is the purpose of the Standard Organizations and Regulations Manual?
Provides regulations and guidance governing the conduct of all members of the Navy.
What is the purpose of the Ships/Command’s Organization and Regulations Manuals?
Describes administrative bills, operational bills, emergency bills, and special bills.
What is the Naval Reserve?
Provides mission capable units and individuals to the Navy- Marine Corps team from peace to war.
What is the Ready Reserve?
Personnel ready for immediate deployment.
What is the Selected Reserve?
Personnel ready for immediate deployment.
What is the Training and Administrative of Reserves (TAR)?
Active duty reserve units.
What is Individual Ready Reserves?
Personnel ready for immediate deployment.
What is Boyles Law?
States at a constant temperature, the volume, and absolute pressure of a- gas are inversely proportional.
What is the purpose of the 8 O’Clock report?
Equipment Reports received shortly before 1830 (Underway) by the Executive Officer from the department heads.
What is a 12 O’Clock report?
Reports received by the OOD (Inport) and delivered by messenger of the watch prior 1200.
What are the Types of Discharges?
Honorable, General, Other than Honorable, Bad Conduct, and Dishonorable.
What is the Naval message used for?
It is used for all messages and correspondence regarding official matters.
What is the Date Time Group?
It is assigned for Identification and file purposes, and is represented in Zulu time, which is used by aviators.
What entries are made in the Page 2?
Dependent application/ Emergency data.
What entries are made in the Page 4?
Awards and Qualifications.
What entries are made in the Page 13?
Administrative remarks.
What is the DAPA?
Drug and Alcohol Program Administrator.
How often are good conduct awards given?
Every three years.
How often are service stripes awarded?
1 stripe for every four years in service.
What is the purpose of command and ship control?
Provide central decision making and orderly movement of the ship during battle.
What is the purpose of operations control?
Provide capability for detection, communications, and electronic warfare during battle conditions.
What is the purpose of weapons control?
Provide offensive/defensive weapons capability during battle conditions.
What is the purpose of engineering control?
Provide propulsion and maneuverability during battle.
What is the purpose of damage control?
Provide damage repair capability during battle conditions.
What is the purpose of primary flight control?
Provide a capability for offensive and defensive actions, or the debarkation of troops during an amphibious assault.
What is the purpose of mine countermeasures control?
Provide standards for combatting mines.
What is the purpose of Debarkation Control?
Provide orderly debarkation of troops/equipment during an amphibious assault.
What is the purpose of the Quality Assurance Coordinator?
Assures prevention of defects in maintenance and work.
What are the DLSS Maintenance Technician responsibilities?
Operate and maintain any portion of a DLSS system. Be thoroughly familiar with REC procedures.
What is the purpose of REC as it pertains to a certified DLSS?
A formal process to keep the system as built as certified.
What is the purpose of REC form continuation sheet?
Used as a continuation of any of the block on the REC form.
What is the purpose of the Controlled Assembly Report?
Form for documenting component part replacement, reuse, inspections, torque, and lubricants.
What is the purpose of the Test and Inspection Form?
Records test and inspection results.
What is the purpose of the REC Log?
Keeps chronological record of all the REC’s for the life of the certified system.
What is the working range of a torque wrench?
20% to 90%
What are the effects of over torquing?
Causes metal to permanently stretch, and increase the likelihood of bolt loosening.
What manual is the inspection criteria for Air found?
MIL-STD 1622
What manual is the inspection criteria for O2 found?
MIL-STD 1330
Identify the types of recompression chambers utilized in the U.S. Navy.
Double-lock 100, Double-lock 200, Standard Navy double-lock, RCF 5000, RCF6500, TRCS, FARCC
Explain the use and application of the recompression chamber.
Used to treat any diving disorders as well as any to recompress divers on planned SUR "D" dives. Can also be used to treat CO poisioning and gas gangrene, and well as administering pressure tests to prospective divers.
State the maximum operation pressure of a recompression chamber.
100psig
Discuss the minimum primary and secondary air supply requirements.
Must have enough air to press inside and outside lock to 165ft
Discuss the ventilation rules with BIBS dump.
12.5 acfm at rest, 25 acfm not at rest
Discuss ventilation rules with no BIBS dump.
2acfm at rest, 4 acfm not at rest
What types of materials are not allowed in a recompression chamber.
smoking/flammable material, oils, and electrical appliances.
Discuss the contents and location of the primary chamber medical kit.
It is located inside the recompression chamber. It contains diagnostic and emergency treatment equipment such as stethoscope, syringes, lidocaine, and tape.
What are normal methods of communication in the chamber.
Inter comm system, and sound powered telephone.
State the pressure setting for the oxygen regulator.
250 psig
What manual is the inspection criteria for O-Rings found?
NSTM 078
What is Maximum operating pressure.
The highest pressure that can exist in a system or sub system under normal operating conditions.
What is Normal operating pressure?
The pressure at which a system operates while performing its normal function.
What is a Compressor efficiency test?
Determines the volume of air a compressor actually
What are the lubricants that can be used in air, oxygen, and mixed gas system?
2190 TEP, 2135 TH for cold weather operations.
How often are air samples taken?
Approx. every six months, as early as four, and as late as eight months. After system overhaul, and when contamination is suspected.
What is the SCA?
System Certification Authority
What does REC stand for?
RE-Entry Control
What is Operating Procedures?
Step by step list of actions to be taken to line a system or to operate a system.
What are Emergency Procedures?
Step by step list of actions to be taken in the event of a casualty. Memorized then checked after casualty is stabilized.
What are the emergency methods of communication in the chamber.
wood mallet, and hand signals
What is the desired temperature for a recompression chamber.
below 85 degress F
Explain the contents and location of the secondary chamber medical kit.
The secondary medical kit is located outside of the chamber. This kit contains emergencey airway equipment, intravenous infusion therapy, and other items such as surgical soap, cotton balls, and nasogastric tube.
Discuss the predive checks conducted on the recompression chambers.
Ensure that there is adequate air supply and the system is properly lined up, also ensure that comms are good and that all unapproved items are out of the chamber. Check to make sure the electrical system is good, and both medical kits are properly supplied.
Discuss the methods of extinguishing a fire.
Some methods to extinguish a fire include; using a fire extingusher, wet towel, or bucket of water.
What is the maximum permissible oxygen level in the recompression chamber.
25%
Explain the postdive checks conducted on the recompression chamber.
Ensure all valves are closed, all power is off, and that the chamber is cleaned with NID. Also be sure that all entries have been made in chamber log book.
. What is the maximum permissible carbon dioxide levels in the recompression chamber.
1.5 SEV
What is an immediately available chamber?
Chamber available within 5 minutes by available transportation.
What type of vavle are all chambers equipped with.
Are chambers are equipped with a gag valve.
State the minimum equipment required by a scuba diver.
Mask, BC/life preserver, knife, fins, watch, depth gauge, weight belt
Where is the minimum equipment required for use by Navy scuba divers listed?
Dive Manual Rev. 6 Chp. 7
What are the depth limitations for scuba when using a MK-20 (FFM).
Approved depth of regulator as stated in the AMU.
Discuss the air reserve mechanism operation.
Set amount of air held back (500psi) to insure diver has optimal time to reach surface. Air is held back by a spring loaded check valve.
Describe predive and surface checks.
Predive and surface checks are checks done on gear to insure that diver has proper equipment and that it works properly.
Discuss the means of communication used between scuba divers and topside.
Wireless comms, line pulls, diver recall, and hand signals
What are the requirement(s) for diving under floating hulls or where no free access to surface is available.
Diver must have tending line.
Describe the conditions and requirements necessary to conduct decompression scuba diver.
It must be authorized by the CO, and water conditions cant affect divers decompression.
Discuss the visual inspection and hydrostatic test requirements for scuba cylinders.
Visual inspection must be done annually , and the hydrostatic test must be done every five years.
What are the normal and maximum working limits for scuba diving.
Normal working limit for scuba is 130fsw, while the max working limit is 190fsw
How do you determine the size of wire rope and lines?
Wire rope is determined by the diameter, and lines are determined by circumference.
What is the formula for safe working load of a wire rope?
Breaking Strength divided by safety factor
What does it mean when a wire rope is 6X19?
It is constructed of 6 strands and 19 wires per strand.
How long can you keep a natural fiber line in service for critical lifts?
5 years
What is a Becket Bend used for?
Used to join two lines of different sizes.
What is a cleat?
Has two projecting arms or horns which you wrap line on.
What is a roller chock?
Basically a closed chock with rollers on either side and/or the top.
What are Norman Pins?
Steel rod or post that can be raised or lowered, used to limit the sweep of a hawser across the rear deck to provide safe areas for the crew.
What is a towing bridle?
Two legged towing rig of wire or chain attached to towing pads or a set of bitts on the tow. At the apex is a flounder plate or ring, depending upon whether a chain bridle is being used.
Why is a safety shackle preferred over a screw pin shackle?
Safety shackle is much easier to remove after being deformed under heavy load.
What is the purpose of a fairlead?
To redirect the path of a line.
How do you mouse a shackle?
Using pliers wrap wire through the eye of a shackle pin and back through the inside of the shackle. Continue this process until the shackle pin is secured and will not move.
What are the two types of wire rope clips?
Regular and Improved
What is the purpose of the flounder plate?
Used in towing to attach the towing bridle legs.
What are the two types of wire rope clips?
Regular and improved
What is a chain stopper?
Takes the weight of the chain off the windless
How do you determine proper wedge size?
The wedge is half as tall as it is wide, six times as long as it is tall
What is the minimum number of wire clips to be used?
Three
What is the purpose of a pear shaped detachable link?
It is used to attach a small fitting or chain to a larger fitting of chain
What is the difference between a standing block and running block?
Standing block is secured to the ship
What is the definition of an appendage?
Parts of the ship that extend beyond the shell and are below the water line.
What are the different types of propellers?
Solid, Built up, Controllable Pitch
Where are Sonar Domes mounted?
Keel and bow
What is a Rodmeter used for?
Used to measure the speed of a ship.
What is the purpose of a fin stabilizer?
Used to counter the ship’s roll.
What is authorized to clean emitter holes?
Water jet system, or handheld rotary brush using a Nylon brush
What is the purpose of a bilge keel?
It resists and decreases the magnitude of rolling.
What does ICCP stand for?
Impressed Current Cathodic Protection
What are the two types of Cathodic protection the Navy uses?
ICCP, Sacrificial Anode
What are Sacrificial Anodes made of, and how are they installed?
Made of Zinc and installed with bolts or welded.
What are the six types of Anchors?
Navmoor, Stato, Eels, LWT, Danforth, Navy Stockless
How much does a Stato Anchor weigh?
6000 pounds
What is the purpose of Bow Thrusters?
Assists the ship in maneuvering at low speeds or in confined waters.
What is contained in the docking plans?
Underwater profile of ship, plan view of its bottom, exact locations of all underwater appendages, and reference points and measurements to locate all of the underwater openings and appendages.
What is the purpose of the stern tube?
It is a watertight tube that encloses and supports the propeller shaft where it passes through the hull.
What are the three types of rudders?
Balanced, semi balanced, and unbalanced.
Discuss the concept of ORM.
Decision making tool used by personnel at all levels to increase operational effectiveness.
Name the five steps of ORM.
Identify, asses,make risk decisions, implement controls, supervise
Discuss the responsibilities of all hands with respect to safety.
All naval activities shall apply the ORM process in planning operations and training in accordance with OPNAV 0500.39 series
What are the elements of a good safety program.
Establishment, monitoring, enforcement, corrective action, training
How does OPNAVINST 5100.19D pretain to diving.
Has safety precautions that give guidance on what to do if treatment/casualty occurs (diving mishap report)
What is the purpose of the Tag-Out Program.
The purpose of the tag-out program is to provide safety for maintenance and to ensure that everyone is on the same page.
Explain the importance of tag-out procedures for safe diving.
It ensures that all diving hazards such as suctions and and sonars are turn off so that the divers are not harmed by them.
Discuss safety precautions to be taken in adverse weather.
If needed because of current extra wieght should be added to the diver. The desicsion to cancel or postpone the dive will be up to the dive supervisor.
What are the safety precautions that should be taken when divers air intake is near an engine.
Ensure that the air in take is far enough away from the exhaust of the engine, to ensure that the intake doesnt intake the engines exhaust.
What action is required in the event of an oil spill or when sighting an oil spill?
In the event of an oil spill during diving the dive should be aborted and ports ops should be contacted.
11. What are the six types of Anchors?
A. Navmoor, Stato, Eels, LWT, Danforth, Navy Stockless
12. How much does a Stato Anchor weigh?
A. Navmoor, Stato, Eels, LWT, Danforth, Navy Stockless
13. What is the purpose of Bow Thrusters?
A. Assists the ship in maneuvering at low speeds or in confined waters.
14. What is contained in the docking plans?
A. Underwater profile of ship, plan view of its bottom, exact locations of all underwater appendages, and reference points and measurements to locate all of the underwater openings and appendages.
15. What is the purpose of the stern tube?
A. It is a watertight tube that encloses and supports the propeller shaft where it passes through the hull.
16. What are the three types of rudders?
A. Balanced, semi balanced, and unbalanced.
11. What are the six types of Anchors?
A. Navmoor, Stato, Eels, LWT, Danforth, Navy Stockless
12. How much does a Stato Anchor weigh?
A. Navmoor, Stato, Eels, LWT, Danforth, Navy Stockless
13. What is the purpose of Bow Thrusters?
A. Assists the ship in maneuvering at low speeds or in confined waters.
14. What is contained in the docking plans?
A. Underwater profile of ship, plan view of its bottom, exact locations of all underwater appendages, and reference points and measurements to locate all of the underwater openings and appendages.
15. What is the purpose of the stern tube?
A. It is a watertight tube that encloses and supports the propeller shaft where it passes through the hull.
16. What are the three types of rudders?
A. Balanced, semi balanced, and unbalanced.
11. What are safety precautions when diving in cold water.
Ensure that divers have enough material on to manage the cold. If diving scuba below 37 degress must have an AMU approved cold/ice water regulator/octopus. Below 80 degress wear a wet suit, below 60 wear a dry suit, and below 40 wear a hot water suit.
12. What are safety precautions when diving in warm water.
Ensure that all divers are hydrated and diver comfort will dictate amount of clothing needed.
13. Discuss safety precautions when handling compressed gas cylinders.
Cylinders should be carried by holding the valve body of cylinders. When transporting cylinders in must meet (DOT) regulations.
14. Safety precautions involved when altitude diving.
When altitude diving corrections must be made to the tables to ensure that divers decompress properly. When diving 0-300ft no corrections shall be made, 300-1000 dives 145 and deeper, and all dives above 1000 feet must be corrected.
15. Safety precautions when working around underwater rigging.
Ensure that you always know the where abouts of your dive buddy, and always follow out your umbilical to make sure that is hasnt become fouled.
16. What are safety precautions when diving scuba.
If current is above 1 knot extra weight will need to be added. It also must be ensured that the divers have adequate air and that the dive remains in No-D status.
17. What general safety precautions must be observed when using hyperbaric chambers?
Dont use oil on any oxygen equipment, Ensure that dogs are in good condition and there is a good seal. Ensure there are no flammable materials in the chamber, and all electrical equipment must be AMU authorized.
18. Safety precautions when working with underwater electrical equipment.
Divers should wear rubber wuit suit with rubber gloves, and electrical equipment should be checked to ensure it is being maintained.
19. What are safety precautions when working with high-pressure air/gases.
Ensure that valves are cracked slowly, and that no skin comes into contact with high pressure air when bleeding down. Be sure that proper fill rates are followed, and cylinders and handled carefully.
20. Discuss safety precautions when diving surface supplied.
Safety precautions to be taken in account when diving surface supplies are how deep will the dive be and could nitrogen narcosis be a problem. Also will the diver need an EGS, and will it be a SUR-D or NO-D dive. Another thing to take in account is do the divers umbilicals have a chance of being fouled on anything while diving.
1. What is the definition of an appendage?
A. Parts of the ship that extend beyond the shell and are below the water line.
2. What are the different types of propellers?
A. Solid, Built up, Controllable Pitch
3. Where are Sonar Domes mounted?
A. Keel and bow
4. What is a Rodmeter used for?
A. Used to measure the speed of a ship.
5. What is the purpose of a fin stabilizer?
A. Used to counter the ship’s roll.
6. What is authorized to clean emitter holes?
A. Water jet system, or handheld rotary brush using a Nylon brush
7. What is the purpose of a bilge keel?
A. It resists and decreases the magnitude of rolling.
8. What does ICCP stand for?
A. Impressed Current Cathodic Protection
9. What are the two types of Cathodic protection the Navy uses?
A. ICCP, Sacrificial Anode
10. What are Sacrificial Anodes made of, and how are they installed?
A. Made of Zinc and installed with bolts or welded.
11. What are the six types of Anchors?
A. Navmoor, Stato, Eels, LWT, Danforth, Navy Stockless
12. How much does a Stato Anchor weigh?
A. 6000 lbs
13. What is the purpose of Bow Thrusters?
A. Assists the ship in maneuvering at low speeds or in confined waters.
14. What is contained in the docking plans?
A. Underwater profile of ship, plan view of its bottom, exact locations of all underwater appendages, and reference points and measurements to locate all of the underwater openings and appendages.
15. What is the purpose of the stern tube?
A. It is a watertight tube that encloses and supports the propeller shaft where it passes through the hull.
16. What are the three types of rudders?
A. Balanced, semi balanced, and unbalanced.
1. What is hypoxia.
Lack or O2 in the arterial blood
2. What is a barotrauma.
Damage to tissue due to change in ambient pressure.
3. Explain asphyxia.
When breathing stops and hypoxia and hypercapnia happen simultaneously.
4. What are methods used to prevent DCS.
Follow tables, decompression stops and ascent times. Hydrate before the dive and ensure that you are rested. Proper diver selection, also ensure divers are comfortable in the water and not too cold.
5. Define pulmonary over-inflation syndrome.
A POIS is a barotraumas caused by over inflation of the lungs.
6. Using basic life support techniques what are ways to control bleeding.
Utilize pressure points to try a help slow blow flow, if necessary use tourniquet to stop bleeding.
7. What is hypercapnia.
Abnormally high level of carbon dioxide in the blood and body tissues.
8. Define carbon monoxide poisoning.
Carbon monoxide blocks hemoglobin’s ability to deliver oxygen to the cells which causes cellular hypoxia, but also poisons cellular metabolism directly.
9. What are the prerequisites for a squeeze.
Gas filled space, rigid walls, ambient pressure change, vascular penetration, and enclosed space.
10. What is the hallmark symptom of CO poisoning.
Tightness across the forehead.
11. Explain hyperventilation.
Lowers body’s Co2 levels, but it doesn’t do anything to the body’s oxygen levels. Once the bodies CO2 levels are high enough to tell the body to breath then the oxygen levels may be to low which can lead to unconsciousness.
12. What are methods to prevent a POIS.
Proper diver selection, follow ascent rates and do not hold breath on ascent.
13. Define hyphothermia
The lowering of the core body temperature
14. Define hyperthermia
Raising of the core temperature of the body, when core temperature rises 1.8 degrees above normal.
15. Define Dehydration
Excessive loss of water from the body tissues and is accompanied by a disturbance in the balance of essential electrolytes, particularly sodium, potassium, and chloride.
1. What are the responsibilities of the Commanding Officer.
Has the ultimate responsibility for the safe, ensures diving operations are conducted efficiently and authority is appropriate delegated.
2. What are the responsibilities of the Command Diving Officer.
CDO is responsible for the safe conduct of all diving operations within the command.
3. What are the responsibilities of the Master Diver during diving operations.
Most qualified person to supervise air/mixed gas dives and recompression treatments. Directly responsible to the Commanding Officer, via Diving Officer, for safe conduct of all phases of diving operations. Ensures all personal are trained and manages preventive and corrective maintenance.
4. What are the responsibilities of the Diving Supervisor during diving operations.
The Diving Supervisor is responsible of the actual diving operation for a particular dive or series of dives. Diving operations will not be conducted without a diving supervisor, and the dive supervisor has the power to cancel the dive.
5. What are the responsibilities of the Diving Medical Officer (DMO)
Provides on-site medical care for divers and ensures that diving personnel receive proper attention before, during, and after dives. A DMO may modify treatment tables, and a DMO is required on site for all air dives deeper than 190fsw.
6. What are the functions and responsibilities of COMNAVFACENGCOM.
Provide technical expertise to CNO and other SYSCOMS, as well as providing design and acquisition management for fixed shore/shore-based, man rated hyperbaric and surface supplied diving facilities.
7. What are the responsibilities of the CNO N773.
Functions of the CNO are to provide Navy Diving Program policy guidance, as well as coordinating fleet requests and establish requirements for specific diving systems and equipment. The CNO is the final authority on all requests for waiver of system certification, safety and operational procedures, personnel qualifications (except physical standards), and material requirements related to Navy diving.
8. What are the responsibilities of BUPERS.
Provide for the selection of personnel for basic, advanced, and specialized diver training. Obtain recommendation from BUMED on requests to waive physical and psychological standards.
9. What are the responsibilities of BUMED.
Establish medical standards for divers and coordinate proposed changes with the appropriate CNO sponsors. Coordinate with other military services on issues related to diving medicine and diving medical personnel.
10. What are the responsibilities of the Naval Safety Center.
Maintain a data repository for all aspects of diving safety, including records of each Navy dive. Analyze compiled data for trends in personnel and equipment performance and procedural adequacy. The Naval Safety Center also provides assistance in the area of diving safety to all diving commands and to COMNAVSEASYSCOM as required. They also conduct diving safety surveys of, and assistance visits to, all Navy diving activities as requested.
1. What is the primary and emergency means of communication in surface supplied diving?
A. Voice Communication, Line pull signals
2. What are the advantages of SCUBA?
A. Rapid deployment, portable, minimum manning, excellent mobility.
3. What are the advantages of MK-20?
A. Unlimited air, good mobility, communication.
4. What are the advantages of MK-21?
A. Unlimited air supply, communication, fast deployment, and head protection.
5. What are the minimum manning requirements for SCUBA?
A. 4, 2 divers, 1 tender, 1 dive sup/comms and logs.
6. What are the minimum manning requirements for surface supplied diving?
A. 5, 2 divers, 2 tenders, 1 dive sup.
7. What is the normal working limit of SCUBA?
A. 130 FSW
8. What is the maximum working limit of SCUBA?
A. 190 FSW with CO’s approval.
9. What is the maximum current allowed for SCUBA?
A. 1 Knot
10. What is the minimum equipment for SCUBA?
A. Open-SCUBA with J-valve or submersible pressure gauge, BC, dive knife, face mask, swim fins, submersible wrist watch, Depth gauge.
11. What is required in surface supplied diving if current is greater than 1.5 knots.
A. More weight.
12. What are the requirements for craft and platforms supporting dive operations?
A. Be seaworthy, include required life saving and other safety gear, have reliable engine, provide ample room for divers to dress, provide adequate shelter and working area, have a well trained crew.
13. At what temperature is thermal protection usually needed?
A. 80 degrees
14. What is considered warm water diving?
A. Temperatures in excess of 88 degrees.
15. What can be worn in cold water environments?
A. VVDS, Wet suits, hot water suits.
1. Define total bottom time.
A. Total time from left surface to left bottom.
2. Define repet group designate.
A. A letter which realtes to how much RNT (Risdual Nitrogen Time) remain in a diver.
3. Define surface interval.
A. Time the diver has been on surface after his first dive till the start of his second dive.
4. Define RNT.
A. Time in minutes that will be added to bottom time to compensate for nitrogen still in tissues.
5. Define equivalent single dive time (ESDT)
A. Sum of RNT and bottom time of a repet dive, used to select decompression schedule for a rep. dive.
6. Discuss No-D limits and repetitive group designation table.
A. No- decompression limits are limits that keep the diver out of decompression status. As long as the NO-D table are follwed the diver will not have to do any decompression. A repet group designation table tells you how much time the divers have against them due to the risdual nitrogen still in there tissues. The number is calculated by using the total bottom time, depth, and surface interval.
7. Discuss the criteria for selecting decompression table when altitude diving.
A. Correct all dives at 1000 Ft, correct dives deeper that 145 FSW for 300-1000 FT, no correction 0-300.
8. What is the max descent rate?
A. 75 FPM
9. What is residual nitrogen?
A. The excess nitrogen still in divers tissues on surface.
10. What is maximum depth?
A. The deepest depth plus the Pneumo correction factor.
11. What makes a dive an exceptional exposure dive?
A. Any air dive deeper than 190 FSW, any in water decompression dive with a total decompression air or air/O2 greater than 90 min, any SURDO2 dive with chamber O2 time greater than 120 min.
12. What is the procedure for a delay less than one minute to your first stop?
A. Ignore
13. What is the procedure for a delay greater than a minute to your first stop shallower than 50 FSW?
A. Round up to the nearest whole minute, and add it to the first stop.
14. What is the procedure for a delay greater than a minute to your first stop deeper than 50 FSW?
A. Round up to the nearest whole minute, add to bottom time and recompute decompression schedule.
15. What is the treatment if you go over your 5 min surface interval from 40 FSW to 50 FT in the chamber?
A. Go over 5, but less than 7 add 15 min to 50 ft stop, more than 7 with 2 or fewer SurDO2 periods is TT5, more then 2 SurDO2 periods is TT6.
1. Define type I DCS as it applies to recompression treatment.
DCS type I will be treated with treatment table 5, unless there are multiple type I symptoms or cutis marmorata is present then it will be treated with treatment table 6.
2. Define type II DCS as it pertains to recompression treatment.
DCS type II will be treated with at minimum a treatment table 6. If treatment table 6 is unsuccessful then a treatment table 6A will be used.
3. Define A.G.E as it pertains to recompression treatment.
A.G.E, like DCS type II will be treated initially with a treatment table 6.
4. Explain symptomatic omitted decompression as it relates to recompression treatment.
Immediately recompress to 60 fsw, If diver surfaced from 50fsw or shallower then begin treatment table 6. But if diver surfaces from deeper than 50fsw and shallower than 165 then begin a treatment table 6A. If the diver surfaces from deeper than 165 the diving supervisor may select treatment table 8.
5. Discuss altitude DCS as it applies to recompression treatment.
If only joint pain was present but resolved before reaching one ata from altitude, then treat with two hours of 100 percent oxygen breathing followed by 24hrs of observation. For other symptoms of if joint pain symptoms are present after return to one ata, transports to a recompression facility and treat patient for occurring symptoms.
6. Discuss carbon monoxide poisoning at it relates to recompression treatment.
Carbon monoxide poisoning can be treated on a treatment table 5 and it severe it may even be treated on a treatment table 6
7. What are symptoms of CNS oxygen toxicity
(VENTID-C) vision, ears, nausea, twitching/tingling, irritability, dizziness, convulsions
8. What are symptoms of pulmonary oxygen toxicity
Pain on inhalation, coughing, substernal burning
9. Discuss temperature control and patient hydration
Chamber temperature should be kept below 85 degrees F in or for all treatments to be permissible. Patients should stay hydrated throughout the treatment. One to two liters of water over the course of a TT5 or 6 is usually sufficient, or until urine output is at least 0.5cc/kg/hr. If an IV is need the dripping rate should be kept at a rate of 75-100 cc/hour.
10. Discuss eating/sleeping during treatment.
Patients must be kept awake during oxygen periods and also when deeper than 30ft. Patients may eat anytime during the treatment.
11. Explain the optimum manning requirements for conducting recompression operations.
Optimum manning consists of four individuals; Diving supervisor, outside tender #1, outside tender #2, and an inside tender.
12. Discuss tender O2 considerations.
All chamber occupants may breathe 100% oxygen at depths of 45ft or shallower without locking in additional personnel. Tenders shouldn’t fasten the oxygen masks to their heads, instead it should just be held up with there hand. When deeper than 45ft, at least one chamber occupant must breathe air.
13. Define a ready chamber.
A ready chamber is a certified chamber available within 1 hour by your means of transportation.
What is a neurological exam and how does it relate to recompression therapy
A neurological exam is done to a patient who after diving as symptoms of DCS or A.G.E. It is a series of test/questions to see if the patient is acting and feeling normal. This is used to determine if the diver needs recompression therapy, and what treatment table they need.
14. Define an immediate available chamber.
A certified and ready chamber available with in five minutes by your means of transportation
15. Define an emergency chamber.
It is the closest recompression chamber available when a chamber is not required on station or on site. A non-certified chamber may be used if the diving supervisor determines it is safe to use.
16. Discuss medical personnel requirements for treatments.
On treatment tables 4, 7, and 8 a DMO must be consulted before committing to treatment. In serious DCS and AGE cases patients should initially be accompanied inside the chamber by a DMO or DMT.
17. Discuss treatment for an unconscious and pulse less diver.
If a diver surfaces unconscious AGE should be suspected and the patient should be treated with a treatment table 6. If the diver is pulse less begin trying to resuscitate him, resuscitation may be done in the chamber but the AED can not be used in the chamber.
18. Discuss the transporting or a diver requiring treatment.
Patient should be kept lying horizontally on back, they should be kept warm and there vitals/ABCs should be monitored closely. Patient should be breathing 100% oxygen, keep patient hydrate (start IV if needed). If transporting in an aircraft it should be flown as low as possible, preferably less than 1000 ft.
19. Define In-water treatment as it relates to recompression treatment.
In-water treatment is an option of recompression only to be used of a chamber is unavailable. Should only be used in urgent situations in which the diver has severe symptoms an cant wait on being transported to a chamber.
Describe the minimum equipment requirements for a standby scuba diver.
Standbys equipment must be the same or greater than red/green, and when deeper than 60fsw standby must have 100scf or greater.
Discuss when scuba cylinders can be charged using utilizing a commercial source.
The commercial source must be grade A source I or source II, as specified by spec BB-A-1034B.
Discuss different tending lines utilized in scuba operations.
Float line, tending line, buddy line, synthetic and natural line.
. What are the maintenance requirements for the depth gauge.
The depth gauge requires calibration every 18M.
What is the over-bottom pressure setting on scuba regulators.
The over-bottom pressure is set at 135+/-5 when on bottom, and 150+/-5 when on surface.
Discuss maintenance requirements for life vests/BC.
Inspected before every dive rinsed after every dive.
Discuss Items on the AMU.
Items on the Authorized for Military Use (AMU) list are all approved to use during Navy diving operations.
What are the methods of inflations when using a buoyancy compensator.
The methods of inflation when using a bouyancy compensator are oral and low pressure hose.
How do you calculate minimum manifold pressure.
Depthx.445+MMP
How do you calculate SCF of air required for a dive.
Depth+33/33xCXDXT
Describe the EGS assembly requirements for enclosed space and open water diving?
Must be a K or J valve, first stage should be set manufactures recommend pressure but not lower than 135psig. Relief should be set to 180+/-5, also requires a submersible pressure gauge on the first stage regulator.
What is the minimum personnel need to conduct a surface supplied air dive?
5; diving supervisor (dive sup may perform/assign comms and logs as well as console, diver, standby diver, diver tender, standby diver tender
What is the normal working limit of the MK20 M0?
60fsw
What is the normal and maximum working limit of the KM-37?
On Air Normal- 190FSW Maximum- 285FSW, Mixed Gas Normal-300fsw Maximum-380fsw
Above what knot of current requires extra wait in surface supplied.
1.5 knots
When is an EGS required?
An EGS is required when deeper than 60fsw or diving inside a wreck/enclosed space.
What are advantages of the MK21 MOD0?
Head protection, voice/ and or line pull signal capabilities, unlimited air supply, and good horizontal mobility.
What are the flow requirements when using the MK21 MOD1/KM37.
The air supply system must be able to provide an average sustained flow of 1.4 acfm to the diver; air consumption may vary between 0.75 and 1.5 acfm.
11. For enclosed space diving an extended EGS whip may be used, what is the length requirement for this whip.
50 to 150 feet
12. What is the minimum manifold pressure for the MK21 MOD1 and KM-37 when diving from 0-60ft.
Minimum- 90 desired-135 maximum-165
How many configurations are there for the MK3 MOD0.
3
What is the man difference between the MK3 MOD0 and the MK3 MOD1.
The MK3 MOD1 has been modified to support 5,000 psi operations.
The ROPER diving cart is designed to support one working and one standby diver to what depth.
60fsw.
The stage line should be should/can be what material.
It is to be 3-inch double braid, or 3/8 inch wire rope minimum.
The descent line is to be made out of what material.
It is recommended that it be made of 3-inch double-braid line.
What are the surface supplied helmets the US Navy dives.
MK21 MOD1, KM-37, MK20 MOD0, and EXO BR MS
What is the minimum manifold pressure when diving MK21 MOD1/KM37 to a depth of 61-120fsw
Minimum-135 Desired-135 Maximum-165
What are the 3 methods of water entry.
Ladder method, stage method, and step-in method
What is the minimum depth the EBS must be lowered for diving operations?
40 FSW
Why is it recommended to lower the EBS to 50 FSW?
It allows topside to track delays in ascent.
What are the two UBA’s used in EOD diving operations?
MK 16 MOD-1, SCUBA
What is the OTPA?
Oxygen Transfer Pump Assembly
What is the TRCS?
Transportable Recompression Chamber
What is FARCC?
Fly Away Recompression Chamber
What is the EBS?
Emergency Breathing System
What is the Dukane sonar attached to?
Attached to Remote operated vehicle.
Explain chemical warfare.
Chemical warfare is warfare by the use of hazardous substances such as nerve, blistering, and choking agents.
How may the visual signal for an NBC alarm be identified?
The visual signal of an NBC alarm is arms extended to side, hands made into fist, bend arms at elbows and bring fists by ears.
What is the vocal signal for a NBC alarm?
The vocal signal is “Gas,Gas,Gas”
How many Mission Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP) levels are there?
There are 4 MOPP levels (0-4)
What is MOPP level 0
MOPP level 0 is mask at side in carrier and over garments, gloves, and over boots must be accessible.
What is the difference between M-8 paper and M-9 paper?
The difference is M-8 paper will tell what the substances is, while M-9 paper will just detect the presence of chemical agents.
What is the M-291 decon kit used for?
The M-291 kit helps decontaminate any chemical that has come into contact with skin.
How many levels of decontamination are there?
There are 3 levels of decontamination
What are the 3 levels of decontamination?
The three levels of decontamination are emergency personnel decontamination, limited operational decontamination, and operationally complete decontamination.
Discuss the symptoms of nerve agents.
Symptoms of nerve agents include drooling, vomiting, convulsions, and slurred speech.
How many categorier of Hazmat are there.
Six
Explain incompatible material and describe an example.
Two or more different substances that when mixed cause a reaction, OBA canister and petroleum based material
Name the categories of Hazmat.
Flammable/combustable, toxic, corrosive, oxidizing, aerosol containers, and compressed gases.
Explain the information and procedures to be followed when a Hazmat spill is discovered.
Once the spill is discovered notify appropraite personnel. Begin to evaluate damage and ensure that if the
State the approved lubricants used in DLSS compressors.
2190 TEP, 2135 TH, synthetic- mil-prf-17331/17672
What are the US Navys air breathing sample periodicitys.
Air Sample must be taken every 6 months, it can be take as early as 4 or as late as 8. A sample also must be taken whenever the system is suspect or broken into.
Explain the US Navys air breathing specifications.
Air must be Grade "A" avaitors air.
Describe the the function of the interstage and final relief valves.
The interage and final relief valves insure that the pressure in the cylinders during the stages of compression does not get to high for the cylinders.
What are the only compressors authorized for use in Navy air diving operations.
Reciprocating compressors
The majority of Navy diving compressors are lubricated by what two types of oil.
Petroleum and Synthetic
What is MOPP level 1
Agent detectors shall me worn, mask in carrier at side, gloves and boots remain accessible.
Discuss the purpose of the M-45 field protective mask.
It is designed to shield wearer from liquid agent penetration with out requiring power or forced air.
What is MOPP level 2
Over garments and boots must be worn; gloves and mask must be accessible.
What are the ways that agents can enter the body?
Oral, inhalation, and through the skin.
What is MOPP level 3
Mask, over garments, and over boots must be worn and gloves should be at the ready.
How long can the chemical protective over garment suit be kept after it is removed from the packaging?
30 days.
What is the M-295 decon kit used for
The M-295 is used to decontaminate individual equipment.
What is MOPP level 4
During MOPP level four all protection must be worn.
What does the M-256 test kit allow you to do?
Allows one to test the presence of blood, nerve, and blister agents in the air.
Chemical protective over garment suit exposed to chemical agents must be discarded according to who?
They must be discarded according to the fire marshall.
Describe the general safey precautions that apply to underwater reconnaissance operations
Safety precautions when doing underwater reconnaissance operations include; do not touch an unidentified mine with any metallic object, assume all mines contain a self-destruct capability, and assume an unknown mine is fitted with antirecovery devices.
Discuss the safety precautions for contact mines.
Safety precautions for contact mines include; do not put any tension on a baseplate mooring spindle, do not tamper with switches on a baseplate, and do not life or move a mine by the mooring cable or place a strain on the cable unless it is determined such an action will not close an internal mooring switch.
What are drill mines?
Drill mines are fake mines
What does HERO stand for?
Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation of Ordance.
5Explain the safety precautions when working with influence mines.
Keep all craft at least 600 feet from the mine, and approach bottom mines from the nose end within a 45 to 90 degree angle of either side of the nose. Other safety precautions include to consider all influence mines of recent development to use magnetometes as the magnetic sensors
What is a limpet mine?
Limpet mines are mines that are attached to its targets by magnets. They have anti-tamper devices and enemy diver is commonly deployed to attach to ship.
Discuss enviromental conditions that can affect U/W operations.
Enviromental conditions that can affect U/W operations are current, water temperature, visability, animal life, bottom type, ect.
Discuss how dive depth can affect U/W operations.
It is the major factor in selecting dive rig, equipment, decompression tables, and wether a chamber will be need or not.
Explain how support craft can affect U/W operations.
The craft must have required lifesaving gear, have a reliable engine, provide adequate shelter and working area, and must be able to carry safely all equipment required for operation.
Describe Jackstay
A jackstay is a linear search pattern, it can be established by laying two large buoys and setting a line between them. The diver on the bottom can follow from buoy to buoy gradually moving each buoy and searching the bottom.
Explain the six articles of the Code of Conduct?
Legal guide for the behavior of military members who are captured by hostile force
Explain resection and intersection.
Resection is the method of determining position using a compass and topography, while intersection is the meeting of two points.
What is the use a topographic map?
A topographic map shows elevation of landmarks.
What are the priorities of establishing a defense?
Organize, establish a front, watch flank and rear.
Explain the purpose of a security patrol?
Provide protection to the front, flank, and rear.
Discuss the purpose of combat hand and arm signals in the field?
The purpose of hand and arm signals is so that things are not miss heard and information is passed correctly.
What is the purpose of a reconnaissance patrol?
The purpose of a reconnaissance patrol is to locate and observe hostile forces to gather information.
State the standard issue of 782/ tactical gear?
Pistol belt, pack combat medium, suspenders, two ammo pouches, canteen, poncho, Kevlar helmet, camouflage cover, tent, and entrenching tool.
Discuss the military aspects of terrain as it applies to a defensive force using KOCOA?
Key terrain features, Observation and fields of fire, Cover and concealment, Obstacles, Avenues of approach.
Define the term checkpoint.
A checkpoint is a point where travelers are stopped for inspection.
Describe Circle Line.
Using the descent line as a base point, a line may be tight to the diver and the desent line. The first sweep should be done with the descent line in sight, after a full 360 degree sweep the diver may move farther away from the descent line and then repeat with another sweep.
Explain the AN/PQS-2A Sonar.
The AN/PQS-2A sonar is a portable nonmagnetic, hand held sonar used by divers to assist in locating and closing in on submerged objects using either a passive or active mode. The sonar has one passive and three active operating modes which vary from 20, 60, and 120 yards. The active mode transmits an acoustic signal over a 30 kHz bandwidth sweeping from 145 kHz to 115 kHz.
Discuss the requirements for navigational lighting.
On a ships mast during the day must show code Alpha; at night from tope to bottom must display red, white, red.
Define the term rally point.
A rally point is a place where the ‘team’ or squad will meet
Discuss the difference between initial, En route, and objective rally points.
An initial rally point is the first established rally point while an en route rally point is a rally point that is selected while in route and an objective rally point is the final rally point.
Describe a march column vehicle convoy.
A subordinate element of a march unit which moves and halts at the order of one commander, elements are placed one directly behind the other.
What are the members of a rifle squad?
Squad leader, two team leaders, two riflemen, two automatic riflemen, two riflemen, and two grenadiers.
What is the first general order of a sentry?
To take charge of this post and all government property in view.
What is the fifth general order of a sentry?
To quit my post only when properly relieved
What is the seventh general order of a sentry?
To talk to no one except in the line of duty
What is the ninth general oder of a sentry?
To call the Officer of the Deck in any case not covered by instructions.
What is the tenth general oder of a sentry?
To salute all officers and all colors and standards not cased.
What is the eleventh general order of a sentry?
To be especially watchful at night, and during the time for challenging, to challenge all persons on or near my post and to allow no one to pass without the proper authority.
Define Special Operations
Small units in direct/indirect military actions focused on strategic or operationl objective.
What are characteristics or special operations.
Rigorous trainging, detailed intelligence, distance operation
Describe the function and characteristics of the Dry Deck Shelter(DDS)
Allows for launch/recovery of an SDV through a submarine. They are forty feet long and have there main components; hangar, transfer trunk, and a hyperbaric chamber.
Explain the function of SDV Team two.
Provide the 6th fleet commander with a SDV capability.
Describe the function and characteristics of the MKVIII SDV
Carrys combat swimmers in fully flooded compartments to missions. It is all electric and contains a ballast/trim system that controls bouyancy.
Describe the function and characteristics of the Advanced SEAL delivery system.
Provides spee and pay load for seal missions. It is a one atmosphere system capable of diver lock in/out and it can carry up to 16 seals.
What are key characteristics of an SDV.
An SDV is used for shallower dives, it has no inner lock, and it only can hold up to 6 seals.
Describe the function and characteristics of the USS Virginia class submarine lockout chamber.
It is a 9 man lockout chamber specifically designed for launching UUVS/UAVS
Describe the function and characteristics of the USS Ohio class submarine lockout chamber.
Two forward most missle tubes have been converted into ASDS which is equipped with multiple sonars, navigation systems, and electronic support measures.
Where is I-MEF manned USN diving locker located.
California
Where is 4th Marine Division(Reserves)manned USN diving locker located.
Louisiana
How is a Diver Propulsion Device utilized by Marine Corps Divers.
Allows divers to travel faster/farther with more payload
How is a Survival Egress Apparatus utilized by Marine Corps Divers.
It is utilized for escaping wrecks in emergencey.
Where is MCCDC manned USN diving locker located.
Virginia
Discuss the realationship between Marine Corps Systems Command and USMC Dive Lockers.
Marine Corps systems command coordinate and manage all parachuting and diving equipment research.