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96 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
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The takeoff field length given for each combination of gross weight, ambient temperature, altitude, wind and runway gradients is the greatest of the following:
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1. 115 percent of the two-engine horizontal takeoff distance from start to a height of 35 feet above runway surface.
2. Accelerate-stop distance. 3. The engine-out accelerate-go distance. No specific identification is made on the charts as to which of these distances governs a specific case. |
AFM Pg 4-9
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Define Vapp
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Landing approach speed (1.3 Vs1) with 15 degree flap position, gear up.
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Pg 4-15
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What are the maximum weight limitations?
a. Ramp b. Takeoff c. Landing d. Zero fuel |
a. 16830 lbs
b. 16630 lbs c. 15200 lbs d. 12600 lbs |
Pg 4-18
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What are the following maximum operating limit speeds:
a. Mmo (above 28,907 feet) b. Vmo (between 8000 and 28907 feet) c. Vmo (below 8000 feet) |
a. .755 mach
b. 292 KIAS c. 262 KIAS |
Pg 4-18
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What are the following maximum flap extended speeds-Vfe:
a. Full flaps (35 deg) LAND b. Partial flaps (7 deg) TO and (15 deg) TO & APP |
a. 173 KIAS
b. 200 KIAS |
Pg 4-18
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What are the following Maximum Flap Extended Speeds-- Vfe?
a. Full Flaps (35 deg) LAND b. Partial Flaps (7 deg) T/O and (15 deg) T/O and APPR |
a. 173 KIAS
b. 200 KIAS |
4-18
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Define Vlo
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Maximum landing gear operating speed. The maximum speed at which the landing gear can be safely extended or retracted. The model 560 has different LO speeds for extension and retraction.
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AOM Intro pg 11
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What are the maximum landing gear limits?
a. Max Gear Extended Speed--Vle b. Vlo (Extending) c. Vlo (Retracting) |
a. 250 KIAS
b. 250 KIAS c. 200 KIAS |
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Vertical NAV must be off by what altitude?
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500 AGL
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Flaps are hydraulically powered and can be operated to 15 deg at ___ KIAS or below and 35 deg at ___ KIAS
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200, 173
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What are the following ITT limits?
a. Takeoff b. Max continuous c. Starting d. Transient |
a. 700 C
b. 700 C c. 740 C d. 740 C |
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What are the following N2 limits?
a. Takeoff b. Max Continuous c. Ground Idle d. Flight Idle (high) e. Transient |
a. 100%
b. 100% c. 49.1% d. 52.9% e. 102% |
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What are the following N1 limits?
a. Takeoff b. Max Continuous c. Transient |
a. 100%
b. 100% c. 102% |
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What are following maximum oil pressure limits?
a. Takeoff b. Max Continous c. Ground Idle d. Flight Idle (high) e. Transient |
a. 45-140 psi
b. 45-140 psi c. 25-140 psi (939) 45 psi min (712,713) d. 25-140 psi (939) 45 psi min (712,713) e. 0 psi min for 20 sec; 20-270 psi (939: 400 sec; 712,713: 200 sec) |
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What are the following maximum oil temperature limits?
a. Takeoff b. Max continuous c. Ground Idle d. Flight Idle (high) e. Transient |
a. 10-132.2 C
b. 10-132.2 C c. -40-132.2 C d. -40-132.2 C e. 140.5 C max |
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The ITT limit during engine start is:
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740 C
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The starter is limited to ___ engine starts per 30 minutes (battery as a power source) with a ___ second rest period between cycles.
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3 starts; 90 second
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The battery is limited to ___ starts per hour.
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3 starts
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pg 4-12
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Three generator assisted cross starts are equal to ___ battery start(s).
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1 battery start
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pg 4-12
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The Ground Idle Norm/High switch controls the idle at ___ (norm)/___ (high)%N2.
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49.1% (norm); 52.9% (high)
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Takeoff thrust is limited to ambient temperatures not to exceed ___ C above ISA.
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34,39
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4-25
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The FUEL BOOST pumps must be turned on when the ___ lights illuminate or at ___ lbs indicated fuel.
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low fuel, 180+/-20
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4-15
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Maximum asymmetrical fuel differential for normal operations is ___ lbs. A lateral imbalance of ___ lbs has been demonstrated for emergency return.
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200, 600
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4-14
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Reverse thrust power must be reduced to the ___ position at ___ KIAS on landing roll.
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idle reverse detent, 60
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4-12
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The maximum reverse thrust setting should be limited by the pilot to ___ % N1 for ambient temps at or above -18 C, and ___ % N1 for temps below 18 C.
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71.4,68.3
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4-12
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Max allowable thrust reverser deployed time is ___ minutes in any ___ minute period.
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3,10
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4-12
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Engine static ground operations are limited to ___ if thrust reversers are deployed.
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idle power
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4-12
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Use of thrust reversers during touch and go landings is ___.
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prohibited
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4-12
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The thrust reverser(s) must be verified to be ___ by the Before Takeoff Test.
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operational
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4-13
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The engine bypass ratio is ___:1.
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3.5:1
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PTM 7-2
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The total airplane fuel capacity is:
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5440 lbs (806 US gallons)
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PTM 5-2
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The fuel sytem control and monitoring is available through the:
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a. boost pump switches
b. crossfeed switch c. fuel quantity indicators d. flow indicators e. annunciator panel lights |
AOM 2-15; PTM 5-1
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TRUE or FALSE: A vent system ensures ambient pressure within the tank and fuel expansion overflow capability.
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True.
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PTM 5-2
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In an emergency, the maximum asymmetric fuel differential is:
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600 lbs
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NFM 4-14
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The fuel flow rate is measured ___ of the fuel control.
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downstream
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PTM 7-10
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A low level warning system functions ___ of the normal fuel quantity indicating system.
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independently
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AOM 2-15
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Electrically operated firewall shutoff valves can be individually closed by depressing the ___.
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LH or RH ENG FIRE button
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AOM 2-17
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TRUE or FALSE: To obtain maximum braking performance from the antiskid system, the pilot must apply non-continuous maximum effort (with modulation) to the brake pedals.
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False. Continuous maximum effort must be applied throughout the braking run.
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AOM 2-27
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Antiskid/power brake system operation is conventional with power braking available at all speeds while antiskid protection is available at speeds above approximately ___ knots.
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12
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AOM 2-27
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One trim tab, located on the ___ aileron, is mechanically controlled by a knob on the center pedestal.
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left
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AOM 2-32
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If the electric trim system malfunctions, it can be overridden by the ___ ___ ___.
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manual trim system
(or momentarily disabled by pressing the AP/TRIM DISC switch on the pilot's or copilot's yoke) |
AOM 2-32
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The ___ electric elevator trim switch has priority and will operate the trim interrupting and overriding actuaation of the copilot's switch.
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pilot's
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AOM 2-32
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The control lock is mechanically operated and, when engaged, locks the ailerons, ___ and ___ in the neutral position and the ___ in the OFF position.
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elevators, rudder, throttles
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AOM 2-34
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Microswitches in the tailcone prevent speed brakes extension at engine power settings above approximately ___ percent ___.
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85, N2
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AOM 2-34
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External power should be rated at ___ volts and not exceed ___ amps.
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28, 1000
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AOM 2-38
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Hot engine bleed air flows constantly through the engine bullet nose and the inlet guide vanes ___ of the engine anti-ice system.
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independently
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AOM 2-46
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In case of failure of one or both leading edges to heat sufficiently, the low temperature sensors will cause the applicable side WING ___, LH or RH annunciator to ___.
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ANTI-ICE, illuminate
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AOM 2-66
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If the WING ANTI-ICE and/or ENG ANTI-ICE lights do not extinguish after system activation, the pilot should: ___.
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increasing engine RPM
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AOM 2-46; PTM 10-14
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A ___ in ITT and a ___ in RPM are cockpit indications of proper wing and/or engine anti-ice system function.
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very small increase, very small drop
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AOM 2-46
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With the respective anti-ice with on, a L or R WING ANTI-ICE and/or ENG ANTI-ICE annunciator will illuminate for any of the following (3) conditions:
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a. insufficient bleed-air flow
b. leakage in bleed-air lines c. malfunctioning controlling components d. electrical malfunctions e. low eng rpm combine with low ambient temperatures |
PTM 10-11
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When should engine anti-ice be actuated?
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All anti-ice systems should be turned on when operating in visible moisture and the indicated RAT is +10 C (+50 F) or below. (AOM 2-45)
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If the OAT is above -18 C and windshield anti-icing is required, the W/S bleed switch should be set to ___.
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LO (AOM 2-47)
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Regarding windshield anti-ice, in the event of a complete electrical system failure, the bleed air control valve would open and the ___ ___ would be inoperative.
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WING XFLOW (PTM 10-13)
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The ACM bypass valve, when manually controlled, will travel from full open to full closed in approximately ___ seconds.
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10 (also referred to as the mixing valve)
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PTM 11-3
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In the Encore, immediate indication of failure of the pressurization controller is evident when:
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The RATE and SET ALT displays go blank.
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AOM 5-13
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In the Encore neither Auto Schedule nor ___ modes are available in case of DC electrical failure.
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Isobaric
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AOM 2-59
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In the Encore, the pressurization controller will switch to the isobaric mode:
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Anytime the altitude signal (from the ADC) becomes disabled.
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AOM 2-59
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In the Encore, when pressurization is operated in the Auto Schedule Control Mode, the crew is required to:
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Set landing altitude prior to landing.
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AOM 2-59
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ACM or temperature control operations above 31,000 feet altitude should be restricted to AUTOMATIC mode because:
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1. The ACM over temperature protection circuit operates only in the AUTOMATIC temperature controller mode.
2. When using MANUAL mode, it is possible to select a cold enough temperature to cause ACM shutdown and trip emergency pressurization. |
AOM 2-55
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TRUE or FALSE: Operation of vapor cycle air conditioning requires a ground unit, or at least one generator, must be on line to run the compressor.
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True.
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AOM 2-57
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The oxygen system provides supplementary oxygen for the cockpit ___ and the pasengers continuous flow mask:
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Sweep-on type mask
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AOM 2-57
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A fully charged 64.0 cubic foot oxygen bottle provides approximately ___ hour(s) of oxygen for crew and six passengers:
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1 hour
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AOM 2-57
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TRUE or FALSE: The oxygen regulator lever is normally placed in the 100 percent position so it is ready for emergency use at high altitudes. If the oxygen is used below 10,000 feet, the lever can be repositioned to normal to conserve oxygen.
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False. If the oxygen is used below 20,000 feet, the lever can be repositioned to normal to conserve oxygen.
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AOM 2-57
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A ruptured green disk at the end of the oxygen bottle overpressure vent line indicates:
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1. Bottle pressure has exceeded 2500 psi.
2. The bottle is empty. |
AOM 2-57
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TRUE or FALSE: The right console contains the oxygen controls regulating flow to the passenger compartment.
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False. The left console contains the oxygen controls regulating flow to the passenger compartment.
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AOM 2-57
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The crew oxygen masks are diluter demand type with pressure breathing available by selecting ___ position.
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EMERGENCY
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AOM 2-60
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The diluter demand masks have an integrally mounted ___ and oxygen regulator.
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microphone
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AOM 2-60
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Should cabin altitude exceed ___ feet, +500 or _500 feet, an altitude sensing switch will electrically actuate the passenger solenoid valve, supplying 70 psi oxygen pressure to the passenger manifold.
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14,500 feet
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AOM 2-59
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TRUE or FALSE: The normal position should be selected when using oxygen mask for smoke protection.
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False. The 100% position should be selected when using oxygen mask for smoke protection.
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AOM 2-60
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When the cabin has reached 8000 feet with electrical power available, what valve closes?
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The passenger oxygen solenoid valve.
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AOM 2-59
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Continuous use of the supplemental oxygen system above 25,000 feet cabin altitude, with passengers, or above 40,000 feet, crew only, is:
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Prohibited.
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AOM 2-59
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The OIL PRESS WARN LH/RH light on the annunciator panel illuminates whenever:
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Oil pressure is less than 20 psi.
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PTM 4-5, 7-16.
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In the Encore, when using the rotary switch test, with BATT TEMP selected, the following occurs:
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1. The MASTER WARNING lights will flash.
2. Battery temp gage will indicate 160 F. 3. The red BATT O'TEMP annunciator will flash. |
AOM 2-68.
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Illumination of the AC FAIL light advises AC power bus voltage is above ___ or below ___ VAC.
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Unknown.
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The BAGGAGE DOOR light advises that either the left or right baggage door is not in the ___ ___.
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latched position
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AOM 2-65
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TRUE or FALSE: In the Encore, resetting the master warning reset switch will extinguish the AC FAIL annunciator unless both inverter lights are illuminated.
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True. Dual inverter failure illuminates the MASTER CAUTION and AC FAIL annunciator, which illuminates the MASTER WARNING.
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My best guess.
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TRUE or FALSE: When using the rotary test switch, the ANTISKID test is complete when the ANTISKID INOP annunciator illuminates.
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False. When using the rotary test switch, the ANTISKID test is complete when the ANTISKID INOP annunciator extinguishes.
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AOM 2-68
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In the Encore, the TL DEICE TRUE or FALSE: PRESS white annunciator illuminates steady to indicated the tail deice system is operating (pressure greater than 20 PSI).
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False. While the light does indicate the tail deice system is operating, the pressure in the boots is 12 PSI (AOM) or at 16 +/- 1 PSI (PTM). 23 PSI service air is used to inflate the boots.
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AOM 2-66, PTM 10-17
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TRUE or FALSE: When using the C-14D Compass System, manual operation gives accurate short term heading reference when magnetic information is unreliable.
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True.
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AOM 3-32
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The cockpit voice recorder system provides a continuous recording of the last ___ minutes of all voice communications and aural warnings occurring in the cockpit, as well as sounds from warning horns and bells.
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30 minutes
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AOM 3-33
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The Emergency Locator Beacon is activated automatically by an impact of ___ G +2/-0 along the flight axis of the airplane.
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5.0 g
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AOM 3-34
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TRUE or FALSE: If prolonged flight in icing conditions is expected, flying with the flaps and/or landing gear down is recommended to assist in controllability.
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False. If prolonged flight in icing conditions is expected, flying with the flaps and/or landing gear down is NOT recommended to assist in controllability.
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AOM 4-24
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For an increased aerodynamic drag on landing roll, it is suggested that the thrust reverser remain in the deployed idle reverse power position after reverse thrust power has been terminated at ___ KIAS unless loose pavement, dirt or gravel is present on the runway.
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60 KIAS
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AOM 4-19
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Maintain approximately ___ KIAS for flight through severe turbulence. (Do not chase airspeed, and these flight conditions should be avoided).
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180 KIAS
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AOM 4-22
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TCAS RA algorithms are based on the pilot starting the initial maneuver within ___ seconds, and within 2 1/2 seconds if an additional corrective RA is issued.
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5 seconds
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AOM 5-17
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TCAS can track as many as 45 targets at one time and display up to ___ of them. Depending upon altitude, the system wil present an aural "TRAFFIC, TRAFFIC" when the time to the closest point of approach is between ___ and ___ seconds.
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30 targets
20-48 seconds |
AOM 3-72
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As stated in the AFM, landing distance is best defined as:
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Distance from 50 feet above runway surface to full stop.
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AFM 4-8
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The WX Stormscope warns that thunderstorms activity should be avoided by at least ___ miles, dut to the fact that range accuracy may be adversely affected by the lightning stroke length (can be up to 15 miles long).
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20 miles
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AFM S5-5
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In order to operate in RVSM airspace, the following equipment must be installed and operating normally:
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a. Altitude alterter
b. Autopilot c. Altimeters (pilot&copilot) d. ATCRBS transponder |
AFM S12-5
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Single point refueling pressure should be between ___ to ___ PSI.
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10 to 50 PSI
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NFM 4-15
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With the battery switch in EMER and the generators off, a fully charged battery should power all buses for how long?
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30 minutes
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AOM 6-15.2
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Loss of electrical power to the wing and/or engine anti-ice valves will cause them to fail to the ___ position.
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open
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AOM 6-15
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The EGPWS system will present the aural warning "TERRAIN, TERRAIN, PULL UP" indicating less than ___ seconds to impact with terrain which is ___ to ___ feet below or higher than airplane altitude.
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30 seconds
250 to 500 feet |
AFM S16-7
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The ENGINE SYNC switch:
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a. Should be off for takeoffs and landings.
b. Should be off for large power changes. |
a. AFM 2-14
b. PTM 7-17 |
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TRUE or FALSE: The nose section is unpressurized.
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True.
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AOM 1-3
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TRUE or FALSE: Use of thrust reversers to back the aircraft is authorized.
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False. Use of thrust reversers to back the aircraft is NOT authorized.
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NFM 4-13
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