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105 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
In a bacterial cross where the donor (Hfr) is a + b + and the recipient (F-) cell is a-b-; it is expected that recombinant bacteria will all be a + b +.
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FALSE
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Cotransduction of genes is an indication that the genes are linked
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TRUE
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To produce recombinants in bacteria, one crossover is better than two.
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FALSE
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A plaque is a substance that causes lysis of bacteria.
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FALSE
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Lysogeny is most likely associated with transduction
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TRUE
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R plasmids often contain genes for antibody production.
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FALSE
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The ‘interrupted mating technique’ provides for a genetic map in Drosophila.
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FALSE
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Telomerase is an enzyme involved in the replication of the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes
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TRUE
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In contrast to euchromatin, heterochromatin contains more genes and is earlier replicating.
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FALSE
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Viral genomes are always either double-stranded DNA or single-stranded RNA.
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FALSE
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Polytene chromosomes are unique because they are composed of a large number of identical DNA strands
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TRUE
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Presence of heterochromatin is characteristic of prokaryotic chromosome.
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FALSE
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DNA replicates conservatively, which means that one of the two daughter double-helices is ‘old’ and the other one is ‘new’
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FALSE
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During replication, primase adds a short chain of DNA primer.
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FALSE
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Replication of DNA occurs in the 5’ to 3’ direction; that is, new nucleoside triphosphates are added to the 3’ end.
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TRUE
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A characteristic of the aging cells is that their telomeres become very short
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TRUE
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A nucleosome is a structure associated with the nuclear membrane and associated with cellular transport
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FALSE
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DNA gyrase is responsible for keeping the uncoiled strands apart
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FALSE
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Telomerase is an RNA containing enzyme that adds telomeric DNA sequences onto the ends of linear chromosomes.
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TRUE
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In RNA, uracil is present instead of guanine (in DNA)
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FALSE
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Chargaff’s rule states that A = T and G = C.
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TRUE
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In DNA, strings of nucleotides are joined together by hydrogen bonds
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FALSE
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Cytosine, thymine and uracils are purines.
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FALSE
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B-DNA is the most prevalent and stable DNA structure
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TRUE
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Heat or alkali can be used to denature DNA
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TRUE
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Mitochondrial mutations are passed equally to offspring by both males and females
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FALSE
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It is safe to say that a maternal effect is caused by the genotype, not the phenotype, of the parent producing the egg
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TRUE
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tRNAs and rRNAs are known to be encoded by mitochondrial DNA.
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TRUE
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Nondisjunction is considered as a major cause of aneuploidy
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TRUE
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Familial Down syndrome can be caused by a translocation between chromosome 1 and 14
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FALSE
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A deletion may set up a genetic circumstance known as overdominance
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FALSE
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A pericentric inversion includes the centromere.
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TRUE
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Assume that an organism has a diploid chromosome number of 14. There would be 56 chromosomes in a tetraploid.
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FALSE
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A position effect occurs when a gene’s expression is altered by virtue of a change in the position.
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TRUE
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rDNA in eukaryotes is typically redundant.
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TRUE
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A chromosome may contain one or two chromatids in different phases of the mitotic or meiotic cell cycle
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TRUE
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If a typical G1 nucleus is 2n and contains two complements (2C) of DNA, a prophase I cell is 2n and contains 4C DNA
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TRUE
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During meiosis chromosome number reduction takes place in anaphase II
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FALSE
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The centromere of a chromosome separates during anaphase.
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TRUE
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The meiotic cell cycle involves two cell divisions and two DNA replications.
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FALSE
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To isolate a bacterium with a plasmid that carries a desired DNA fragment along with an ampicillin-resistance gene; we should grow the bacteria in a medium that contains ampicillin
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TRUE
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A common term for a plasmid or other DNA element that serves as a cloning vehicle is vector
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TRUE
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In a typical PCR, primers are used to cleave specific regions of the DNA template
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FALSE
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Some restriction endonucleases produce sticky ends, while others produce blunt ends
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TRUE
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In restriction mapping, map units are expressed as m.u
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FALSE
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Mendel’s law of segregation is supported by a 1:1 testcross ratio.
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TRUE
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The non-functional form of a gene is called a wild-type allele.
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FALSE
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A gene can have maximum two alleles
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FALSE
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To test Mendel’s Law of Independent Assortment, the experimenter needs a minimum of two different genes and their two alleles.
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TRUE
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A 1:1 phenotypic ratio is expected from a monohybrid testcross with complete dominance.
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TRUE
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The ABO blood group locus in humans provides an example of epistasis
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FALSE
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Sex-linked inheritance is same as sex-limited inheritance
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FALSE
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A typical epistatic ratio is 9:3:4.
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TRUE
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Pattern baldness is an example of X-linked inheritance.
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FALSE
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A 9:7 ratio indicates incomplete dominance
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FALSE
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Penetrance’ specifically refers to the expression of lethal genes in heterozygotes
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FALSE
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Hemizygosity describes the state of a gene that has no allele on the opposing chromosome
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TRUE
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Normally in humans, all the sons of a female homozygous for a sex linked recessive gene will inherit the trait
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TRUE
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Sex-influenced genes are those which cause males to be males and females to be females
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FALSE
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In Drosophila, sex is determined by the ratio of the number of X chromosomes to the number of haploid sets of autosomes
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TRUE
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An individual with Turner syndrome has one Barr body.
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FALSE
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Dosage compensation is accomplished in humans by inactivation of the Y chromosome
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FALSE
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mRNA is usually polycistronic in eukaryotes.
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FALSE
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hnRNA is a primary transcript in eukaryotes that is processed prior to involvement in translation
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TRUE
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Transcription factors function to help move ribosomes along the mRNA
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FALSE
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RNA processing occurs when amino acids are removed from nascent proteins.
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FALSE
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An intron is a section of an RNA that gets spliced out.
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TRUE
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Proteins are composed of strings of nucleotides connected together by phosphodiester bonds
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FALSE
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rDNA ( <-- I think that should be rRNA?) is the portion of the genome that is involved in the production of ribosomal RNA.
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TRUE
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The secondary structure of a protein is dependent on polar interactions among the side chains of the amino acids.
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FALSE
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If the Kozak sequence is missing, initiator tRNA does not select that AUG codon to start initiation
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TRUE
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Fetal hemoglobin contains two alpha and two gamma chains
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TRUE
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Amino acids are divided into polar, nonpolar and neutral groups.
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FALSE
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Tertiary structure of protein is stabilized by peptide bonds between cysteine residues
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FALSE
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Certain base-analogs such as 5-bromouracil cause mutations by chemically altering nitrogenous bases in non-replicating DNA.
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FALSE
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The shorter the wavelength of a radiation source, the greater its likelihood of causing damage.
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TRUE
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Acridin orange is an alkylating agent
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FALSE
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A missense mutation causes premature chain termination
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FALSE
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Strand discrimination during the process of DNA repair is based on DNA methylation in E.coli
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TRUE
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Postreplication repair is a system that responds after damaged DNA has escaped repair and failed to be completely replicated
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TRUE
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The genetic alteration found in muscular dystrophy is changes in the trinucleotide repeats
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FALSE
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CAP-cAMP binds to the CAP-binding site on the promoter and blocks the binding of RNA polymerase to transcribe the lac genes.
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FALSE
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IPTG, like allolactose can bind to the lac repressor and induce transcription of the lac operon
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TRUE
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In an inducible operon, transcription is normally turned on and has to be repressed to shut off gene expression.
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FALSE
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Like the lac repressor, the trp repressor has two binding sites; one that binds to the DNA at the operator site and another that binds to the activator, tryptophan
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TRUE
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If tryptophan is plenty, the ‘antiterminator hairpin’ is formed
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FALSE
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Ara operon is the repressible arabinose operon in E.coli.
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FALSE
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Clusters of genes along with their regulatory elements are called operon, which is a single transcription unit.
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TRUE
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A homeobox is a DNA sequence of about 180 bp that specifies a 60 amino acid homeodomain
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TRUE
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Alternative RNA splicing generates different mRNAs that start with different introns.
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FALSE
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Transcription factories are specific nuclear sites where most of the RNP II mediated transcription occurs
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TRUE
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SWI/SNF complex helps in repositioning of the nucleosomes
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TRUE
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Heavily methylated DNA is associated with activation of transcription in vertebrates and plants
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FALSE
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Silencers are trans-acting elements that repress gene expression
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FALSE
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Zinc-finger is a type of DNA-binding domain
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TRUE
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The gene p53 is called guardian of the genome because it corrects mutations in the spindle apparatus before non-disjunction can occur
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FALSE
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In the familial form of retinoblastoma, one generally inherits a defective gene from one of the parents
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TRUE
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All the checkpoints in cell cycle are either in the S or G1 phase.
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FALSE
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When referring to tumor-suppressor genes and cancer, loss of heterozygosity is likely to suppress cancer formation
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FALSE
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Any agent that causes damage to DNA is a potential carcinogen
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TRUE
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Given an inheritance pattern of incomplete dominance and 81 flowers being R1R1 (red), 18 flowers R1R2 (pink) and 1 flower R2R2 (white); the frequency of the R1 allele is 0.9
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TRUE
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In large random mating populations, genetic drift is usually a significant factor in changing gene frequencies.
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FALSE
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Regarding the calculation of allele frequencies in a population with two alternative alleles, p+q=1.
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TRUE
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Inbreeding increases homozygosity
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TRUE
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Selection against a recessive gene is more significant in changing gene frequencies than selection against a dominant gene
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FALSE
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