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105 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
In a bacterial cross where the donor (Hfr) is a + b + and the recipient (F-) cell is a-b-; it is expected that recombinant bacteria will all be a + b +.
FALSE
Cotransduction of genes is an indication that the genes are linked
TRUE
To produce recombinants in bacteria, one crossover is better than two.
FALSE
A plaque is a substance that causes lysis of bacteria.
FALSE
Lysogeny is most likely associated with transduction
TRUE
R plasmids often contain genes for antibody production.
FALSE
The ‘interrupted mating technique’ provides for a genetic map in Drosophila.
FALSE
Telomerase is an enzyme involved in the replication of the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes
TRUE
In contrast to euchromatin, heterochromatin contains more genes and is earlier replicating.
FALSE
Viral genomes are always either double-stranded DNA or single-stranded RNA.
FALSE
Polytene chromosomes are unique because they are composed of a large number of identical DNA strands
TRUE
Presence of heterochromatin is characteristic of prokaryotic chromosome.
FALSE
DNA replicates conservatively, which means that one of the two daughter double-helices is ‘old’ and the other one is ‘new’
FALSE
During replication, primase adds a short chain of DNA primer.
FALSE
Replication of DNA occurs in the 5’ to 3’ direction; that is, new nucleoside triphosphates are added to the 3’ end.
TRUE
A characteristic of the aging cells is that their telomeres become very short
TRUE
A nucleosome is a structure associated with the nuclear membrane and associated with cellular transport
FALSE
DNA gyrase is responsible for keeping the uncoiled strands apart
FALSE
Telomerase is an RNA containing enzyme that adds telomeric DNA sequences onto the ends of linear chromosomes.
TRUE
In RNA, uracil is present instead of guanine (in DNA)
FALSE
Chargaff’s rule states that A = T and G = C.
TRUE
In DNA, strings of nucleotides are joined together by hydrogen bonds
FALSE
Cytosine, thymine and uracils are purines.
FALSE
B-DNA is the most prevalent and stable DNA structure
TRUE
Heat or alkali can be used to denature DNA
TRUE
Mitochondrial mutations are passed equally to offspring by both males and females
FALSE
It is safe to say that a maternal effect is caused by the genotype, not the phenotype, of the parent producing the egg
TRUE
tRNAs and rRNAs are known to be encoded by mitochondrial DNA.
TRUE
Nondisjunction is considered as a major cause of aneuploidy
TRUE
Familial Down syndrome can be caused by a translocation between chromosome 1 and 14
FALSE
A deletion may set up a genetic circumstance known as overdominance
FALSE
A pericentric inversion includes the centromere.
TRUE
Assume that an organism has a diploid chromosome number of 14. There would be 56 chromosomes in a tetraploid.
FALSE
A position effect occurs when a gene’s expression is altered by virtue of a change in the position.
TRUE
rDNA in eukaryotes is typically redundant.
TRUE
A chromosome may contain one or two chromatids in different phases of the mitotic or meiotic cell cycle
TRUE
If a typical G1 nucleus is 2n and contains two complements (2C) of DNA, a prophase I cell is 2n and contains 4C DNA
TRUE
During meiosis chromosome number reduction takes place in anaphase II
FALSE
The centromere of a chromosome separates during anaphase.
TRUE
The meiotic cell cycle involves two cell divisions and two DNA replications.
FALSE
To isolate a bacterium with a plasmid that carries a desired DNA fragment along with an ampicillin-resistance gene; we should grow the bacteria in a medium that contains ampicillin
TRUE
A common term for a plasmid or other DNA element that serves as a cloning vehicle is vector
TRUE
In a typical PCR, primers are used to cleave specific regions of the DNA template
FALSE
Some restriction endonucleases produce sticky ends, while others produce blunt ends
TRUE
In restriction mapping, map units are expressed as m.u
FALSE
Mendel’s law of segregation is supported by a 1:1 testcross ratio.
TRUE
The non-functional form of a gene is called a wild-type allele.
FALSE
A gene can have maximum two alleles
FALSE
To test Mendel’s Law of Independent Assortment, the experimenter needs a minimum of two different genes and their two alleles.
TRUE
A 1:1 phenotypic ratio is expected from a monohybrid testcross with complete dominance.
TRUE
The ABO blood group locus in humans provides an example of epistasis
FALSE
Sex-linked inheritance is same as sex-limited inheritance
FALSE
A typical epistatic ratio is 9:3:4.
TRUE
Pattern baldness is an example of X-linked inheritance.
FALSE
A 9:7 ratio indicates incomplete dominance
FALSE
Penetrance’ specifically refers to the expression of lethal genes in heterozygotes
FALSE
Hemizygosity describes the state of a gene that has no allele on the opposing chromosome
TRUE
Normally in humans, all the sons of a female homozygous for a sex linked recessive gene will inherit the trait
TRUE
Sex-influenced genes are those which cause males to be males and females to be females
FALSE
In Drosophila, sex is determined by the ratio of the number of X chromosomes to the number of haploid sets of autosomes
TRUE
An individual with Turner syndrome has one Barr body.
FALSE
Dosage compensation is accomplished in humans by inactivation of the Y chromosome
FALSE
mRNA is usually polycistronic in eukaryotes.
FALSE
hnRNA is a primary transcript in eukaryotes that is processed prior to involvement in translation
TRUE
Transcription factors function to help move ribosomes along the mRNA
FALSE
RNA processing occurs when amino acids are removed from nascent proteins.
FALSE
An intron is a section of an RNA that gets spliced out.
TRUE
Proteins are composed of strings of nucleotides connected together by phosphodiester bonds
FALSE
rDNA ( <-- I think that should be rRNA?) is the portion of the genome that is involved in the production of ribosomal RNA.
TRUE
The secondary structure of a protein is dependent on polar interactions among the side chains of the amino acids.
FALSE
If the Kozak sequence is missing, initiator tRNA does not select that AUG codon to start initiation
TRUE
Fetal hemoglobin contains two alpha and two gamma chains
TRUE
Amino acids are divided into polar, nonpolar and neutral groups.
FALSE
Tertiary structure of protein is stabilized by peptide bonds between cysteine residues
FALSE
Certain base-analogs such as 5-bromouracil cause mutations by chemically altering nitrogenous bases in non-replicating DNA.
FALSE
The shorter the wavelength of a radiation source, the greater its likelihood of causing damage.
TRUE
Acridin orange is an alkylating agent
FALSE
A missense mutation causes premature chain termination
FALSE
Strand discrimination during the process of DNA repair is based on DNA methylation in E.coli
TRUE
Postreplication repair is a system that responds after damaged DNA has escaped repair and failed to be completely replicated
TRUE
The genetic alteration found in muscular dystrophy is changes in the trinucleotide repeats
FALSE
CAP-cAMP binds to the CAP-binding site on the promoter and blocks the binding of RNA polymerase to transcribe the lac genes.
FALSE
IPTG, like allolactose can bind to the lac repressor and induce transcription of the lac operon
TRUE
In an inducible operon, transcription is normally turned on and has to be repressed to shut off gene expression.
FALSE
Like the lac repressor, the trp repressor has two binding sites; one that binds to the DNA at the operator site and another that binds to the activator, tryptophan
TRUE
If tryptophan is plenty, the ‘antiterminator hairpin’ is formed
FALSE
Ara operon is the repressible arabinose operon in E.coli.
FALSE
Clusters of genes along with their regulatory elements are called operon, which is a single transcription unit.
TRUE
A homeobox is a DNA sequence of about 180 bp that specifies a 60 amino acid homeodomain
TRUE
Alternative RNA splicing generates different mRNAs that start with different introns.
FALSE
Transcription factories are specific nuclear sites where most of the RNP II mediated transcription occurs
TRUE
SWI/SNF complex helps in repositioning of the nucleosomes
TRUE
Heavily methylated DNA is associated with activation of transcription in vertebrates and plants
FALSE
Silencers are trans-acting elements that repress gene expression
FALSE
Zinc-finger is a type of DNA-binding domain
TRUE
The gene p53 is called guardian of the genome because it corrects mutations in the spindle apparatus before non-disjunction can occur
FALSE
In the familial form of retinoblastoma, one generally inherits a defective gene from one of the parents
TRUE
All the checkpoints in cell cycle are either in the S or G1 phase.
FALSE
When referring to tumor-suppressor genes and cancer, loss of heterozygosity is likely to suppress cancer formation
FALSE
Any agent that causes damage to DNA is a potential carcinogen
TRUE
Given an inheritance pattern of incomplete dominance and 81 flowers being R1R1 (red), 18 flowers R1R2 (pink) and 1 flower R2R2 (white); the frequency of the R1 allele is 0.9
TRUE
In large random mating populations, genetic drift is usually a significant factor in changing gene frequencies.
FALSE
Regarding the calculation of allele frequencies in a population with two alternative alleles, p+q=1.
TRUE
Inbreeding increases homozygosity
TRUE
Selection against a recessive gene is more significant in changing gene frequencies than selection against a dominant gene
FALSE