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510 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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How do cells concentrate solutes?
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they can maintain unequal concentrations with some energy (active transport)
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Which type of transport depends on a concentration gradient?
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diffusion
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Which type of transport works against the concentration gradient?
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active transport
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What are the four types of transport across a membrane?
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diffusion
active transport osmosis G transport |
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What does aphipahtic mean?
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both hydrophobic and hydorphilic
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What are the three stages of transport across a membrane?
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reception
transduction response |
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Which type of chromatin is functional?
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euchromatin
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Which type of chromatin is tightly packed and not functional?
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heterochromatin
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WHat is one way that genes are turned off in a cell?
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When genes are unnecessary they are packed into heterochromatin
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What is in the nucleolus?
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rRNA
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What type of membrane surrounds the nucleolus?
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no membrane around the nucleolus
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What type of membrane surrounds the nucleus?
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a double membrane
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What is synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum?
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proteins
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What are four functions of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
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synthesize lipids (steroids)
recycle membranes detoxification store ions |
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What is the distribution center of the cell?
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The Golgi Apparatus
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What is the endomembrane system?
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DNA is transcribed in the nucleus, RNA is translated by ribosomes(in the rough ER or cytoplasm) and becomes a protein. THe protein is sent from the ER to the golgi. The prtein is modified by the Golgi and then heads out to the plasma membrane
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When are the introns removed during the synthesis of a protein?
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After the mRNA is synthesized and before the RNA leaves the nucleus
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What is gene expression?
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The process of activating certain genes and turning off others. WHich genes are on and which genes are off?
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What are the three main types of bulk transport?
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phagocytosis
pinocytosis (similar to phagocytosis, but smaller) receptor mediated ingestion |
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Where is DNA located in the cell?
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nucleus and mitochondria
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What type of membrane does the mitochondria have? How does it help the mitochondria function?
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a double membrane
double membrane is important for ATP synthesis |
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What do the following have in common?
endosomes, lysosomes, peroxisomes, vacuoles |
they are all endosomal compartments
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What maintains the structural integrity of the cell?
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the cytoskeleton
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What is the largest part of the cytoskeleton?
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microtubules
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What forms the mitotic spindle?
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microtubules
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What makes up cilia and flagella?
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microtubules
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What are two MAPs (microtubule associated proteins)?
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dynein and kinesin
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Which is hollow on the inside microtubules or microfilaments?
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microtubules
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What is the general structure of microfilaments?
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arranged in a parallel fashion
are not hollow because they play a role in absorption |
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What are the four main functions of microfilaments?
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cell motility
pinocytosis phagocytosis anchoring |
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What do the intermediate filaments of a cell do?
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they are cell specific and they provide support to the cell
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Are the same proteins found in all organelles?
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no, because they have different functions
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Which type of cell junction prevents fluid from moving across a layer of cells?
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tight junctions
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What anchors desmosomes in the cytoplasm
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intermediate filaments
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What type of junctions fasten cells together into strong sheets?
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desmosomes
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What provides cytoplasmic channels from one cell to adjacent cells?
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gap junctions
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In what phase of the cell cycle does the cell normally function in?
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interphase
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What happens during prophase?
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the chromosomes condenses, nuclear envelope dissolves
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what happens during anaphase?
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chromosomes are separated with help from mitotic spindle
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What happens during metaphase?
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chromosomes line up at metaphase plate and the mitotic spindle is formed
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what happens during telophase?
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cells undergo cytokinesis, nuclear envelope begins formation
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Highlight the main differences in mitosis and meiosis in the folowing categories?
# of daughter cells & what they are like crossing over type of cells that the process occurs in |
mitosis-2, meiosis-4
mit. identical daughter cells, mei- may be different mitosis- no crossing over mitosis- somatic cells |
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Which of the following does not occur in apoptosis?
a. cell becomes more eosinophilic b. cell separates from other cells c. a pathogen destroys the cell d. nuclear materials break e. macrophage consumes dead cell |
a pathogen destroys the cell
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About how many sperm must reach the egg for fertilization to take place?
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200
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How many sperm are contained in a normal ejaculation? What is the minimum amount to determine infertility?
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250,000,000 per ejaculate
100,000,000 |
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What is the process that alters the lipid and glycoprotein content of the sperm membrane?
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capacitation
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Where does capacitation take place and what happens?
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in the female reproductive tract
it increases the sperm motility and metabolism |
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What are the three barriers that sperm have to penetrate to fertilize an egg?
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corona radiata
zona pellucida egg plasma membrane |
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Which protective barrier around the egg is made of granulosa cells and hyaluronic acid?
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corona radiata
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Which protective barrier around the egg is made of glycoproteins?
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zona pellucida
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How does the sperm get through the corona radiata?
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breaks down hyaluronic acid
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What is the acrosomal reaction?
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when the sperm binds to a glycoprotein in the zona pellucida
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What is the cortical reaction?
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When the first sperm enters the egg plasma membrane cortical granules release their contents and prevent polyspermy
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Which of the two reactions is an egg based reaction?
cortical reaction acrosomal reaction |
cortical reaction
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When does the egg cell become diploid?
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when the two pronuclei fuse
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What is the process that occurs just after the zygote is formed?
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cleavage
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What are the individual cells of the zygote called?
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blastomeres
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When has the zygote developed into two cells? Are the two cells identical?
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30-40 hours post insemination (IVF)
No |
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When has the embryo developed into 4 cells?
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36-46 hours post IVF
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When has the embryo developed into 8 cells?
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60-70 hours post IVF
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When is the embryonic genome turned on for the first time?
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4 cell stage (36-46 hours)
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What is the embryo called from the 8 to 16 cell stage?
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morula
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What process takes place after cleavage?
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compaction
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When is the first overt sign of differentiation?
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during compaction when outer cells prepare to become placenta and inner cells will become fetus
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Outer cells flatten, tight junctions form between adjacent outer cells, and gap junctions link inner cells. These steps outline what process?
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Compaction
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When does the embryo reach the morula stage?
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3-4 days post fertilization
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Why is compaction important to the formation of the blastocyst?
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it permits accumulation of fluid between inner cells of embryo
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What are the three major components of the blastocyst?
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inner cell mass
blastocoel trophoblast |
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When does the embryo enter the uterus (from the uterine tubes)?
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3-4 days after fertilization
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Which of the following are false about the embryo as it enters the uterus?
the embryo is in the blastocyst stage of development the embryo has hatched the embryo is still encased within the zona pellucida |
The egg has not hatched
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What will happen if the blastocyst does not escape from the zona pellucida?
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the blastocyst will not be able to grow
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When does the blastocyst implant in the uterus?
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day 7 post IVF
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In week two what happens to the trophoblast?
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it separates into the cytotrophoblast and the syncytiotrophoblast
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What is the function of the cytotrophoblast?
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anchoring
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What is the function of the syncytiotrophoblast?
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invasive
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What happens to the inner cell mass in week two?
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it becomes the epiblast and the hypoblast
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Which layer of the inner cell mass form the yolk sac?
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the hypoblast
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Which layer of the inner cell mass forms the amnion?
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the epiblast
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What is the source of Blood Cell Precursors and Primordial Germ Cells?
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the Yolk sac
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What does the chorion do?
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allows for exchange between fetal and maternal circulation
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What important event occurs in the 3rd week?
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gastrulation
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Which cells of the inner cell mass (invaginate) detach and migrate during gastrulation?
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epiblast cells
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How does the process of gastrulation occur?
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with the formation of the primitive streak
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How is the endoderm formed?
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the epiblast cells invaginate to an area between the epiblast cells and hypoblast layers
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How is the ecotderm fromed?
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epiblast cells that do not invaginate become the ectoderm
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Which epiblast cells migrate the farthest?
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the cells that form the endoderm
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What do the somites eventually form?
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muscles, vertebrae, ribs, and dermis
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When does neurulation occur? What happens during neurulation?
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week four
the neural plate is formed pinched off to make neural tube |
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What does the notochord do?
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stimulates the ectoderm to make a brain and spinal cord.
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What do semaphorins do?
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They are chemorepulsion
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True or false.... organs are made up of similar tissues?
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False. There can be different kinds of tissues
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What are six main structures derived from the ectoderm?
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Retina
Epiderims Nervous System Tooth enamel Inner ear lining of nose, mouth and anus |
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What are six main structures derived from the mesoderm?
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Blood and blood vessels
Reproductive organs COnnective tissue and cartilage Kidneys Muscles Dermis |
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What are six main structures derived from the endoderm?
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Liver
Lungs Lining of GI tract pancreas Urinary bladder Thyroid-thymus, parathyroid |
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Are epithelial cells vascular or avascular?
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Avascular.
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What does it mean that epithelial tissue is polarized?
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Apical versus basal versus lateral surfaces
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True or false epithelial cells undergo regular turnover
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true
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How many nuclei are in epithelial cells?
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1
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List these layers from superficial to deep.... 1.epithelium, 2.mucosa and submucosa,3. basement membrane,
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1,3,2
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What is the extracellular region characteristically found between epithelial and underlying connective tissues?
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basement membrane
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What are four general functions of the basement membrane?
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Serves as a selective filter
Controls cell growth Metabolism Differentiation |
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What are the three layers of the basement membrane?
How are they ordered from superficial to deep? |
1. Lamina lucida
2. Lamina Densa 3. Lamina fibroreticulars |
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Which component of the basement membrane is epithelial-derived
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Lamina densa
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Which component of the basement membrane is derived from connective tissue?
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Lamina fibroreticularis
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True or false the basement membrane contains collagen and proteoglycans?
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True
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What are the seven general functions of epithelial tissue?
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Protect
Absorb Secrete Transport Contract Filter Sensory perception |
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Where is transitional epithelium?
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Urinary bladder, ureters, and renal pelvis
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True or false every cell in pseudostratified epithelium touches the basement membrane
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true
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What are the two types of mesodermally derived epithelial cells?
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endothelium
mesothelium |
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Which of the following lines the vascular and lymphatic vessels. Endothelium or mesothelium
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Endothelium
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What does mesothelium line?
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body cavities
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Name two places where you will find simple squamous epithelium?
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Lining of blood vessels
Loop of henle Lining of cornea |
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Which type of epithelium specializes in secretion
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Simple cuboidal
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Which type of epithelium specializes in protection secretion and absorption?
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Simple columnar epithelium
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What type of epithelium is in the uterine tubes?
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Simple columnar epithelium
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Where is pseudostratified epithelium located?
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trachea and bronchial tree
vas deferens epididymis |
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Where is stratified cuboidal epithelium located?
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Sweat gland ducts
anorectal junction (this is also the only place where stratified columnar epithelium occurs) |
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What is the function of microvilli?
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forms a brush border and enhances absorption thirty-fold
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Where are sterocilia located?
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epididymis, vas deferens (picks up stuff not needed in sperm cells)
and sensory epithelium of the ear |
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Where are cilia located?
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Trachea
Oviducts |
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What gives rise to cilia?
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Procentrioles become basal bodies and derive the axoneme core
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What is an apoptotic protein product?
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keratin (stratum corneum)
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What is the coat of protein and sugar residues that cover cell surface?
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glycocalyx
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What are the four functions of the glycocalyx?
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cell recognition
adhesion absorption protection |
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What type of adhesion binds the lateral domains of epithelial cells?
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cadherin based adhesion
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What type of adhesion binds the basal domain to the basement membrane?
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integrin based adhesion
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What is another name for a tight junction?
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zonula occludens
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What makes the sealing strands of a tight junction?
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tetraspanins
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What is the difference between zonula adherens and desmosomes
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ZA attaches to actin filaments and desmosomes bind to intermediate filaments
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Which of these junction allows fluid to flow through it?
Zonula adhernes or Zonula occludens |
zonula adhernes
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What provides a hydrophilic core for gap junctions?
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Connexons
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What makes up a connexon
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six connexins
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How long does it take for complete epithelial turnover
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four to six days
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What is the most prominent cell type involved in wound repair
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keratinocytes
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How does cancer spread from epithelial tissues
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cells become mesenchymal (invasive and migratory) and then differentiate
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Epithelial cells can become specialized to secrete what four different products?
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protein
mucin lipids (steroids) ions and water |
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Epithelial cells specialized for protein production have what characteristics?
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1.A well developed RER
2. display considerable polarity 3.RER is located basally and secretory granules are located apically |
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Epithelial cells specialized for mucin production have what characteristics?
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1.Well developed golgi
2.large apical vesicles full of mucins |
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What is mucin composed of? (be specific)
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a proteoglycan (80% carbohydrate. a protein core and glycosaminoglycans)
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In what organelle is the sugar molecule added?
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golgi
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Epithelial cells specialize for lipid production have what characteristics?
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Well developed SER
prominent mitochondria with tubular cristae |
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Epithelial cells specialized for water and ion transport have what characteristics?
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folded plasma membrane
tight junctions between adjacent cells |
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Which type of glands secrete products directly onto a surface or through ducts?
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exocrine glands
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Which type of exocrine secretion is described......
Product delivered in membrane bound vesicles, exit cell by exocytosis |
merocrine ( salivary)
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What type of exocrine secretion is being described....
product accumulates and is released when cell undo goes apoptosis |
holocrine (sebaceous)
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What type of exocrine secretion is being described....
product released with small portion of cytoplasm in envelope of plasma membrane |
apocrine (sweat)
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Which type of secretion is extensively glycosylated
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mucus secretion
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Which type of secretion is non-glycosylated
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serous
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What is an example of a unicellular gland?
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a goblet cell
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What are the two types of cells that form the structure of a gland?
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duct cells
secretory cells |
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What is a branched duct called in a gland?
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compound duct (non-branched = simple)
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What are the three main categories of connective tissue? give examples of each
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CT proper (fat and tendons)
fluid Ct (blood and lymph) supporting CT (cartilage and bone) |
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true or false.... connective tissue originates from embryonic mesenchyme
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true
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What do parenchymal cells do?
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serve main function of tissue
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What do support cells do?
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Provide structural scaffolding of tissues (extracellular matrix)
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What are the five main support cell classes
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fibroblasts
chondroblasts osteoblasts myofibro blasts lipoblasts |
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What is the difference between a blast and a cyte?
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blast: actively secreting
Cyte: not active |
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What is the most abundant Ct fiber?
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collagen fibers
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What type if CT fibers posses recoil capabilities?
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elastic fibers
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what are the three types of CT fibers made by fibroblasts?
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collagen fibers
reticular fibers elastic fibers |
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What are the collagen fibrils that make up collagen called?
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tropocollagen
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What is the structure of a tropocollagen?
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triple helix
repeating motif (glycine proline) |
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What is type I collagen?
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found in fibrous supporting tissue providing mechanical support and tensile strength
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What is type II collagen found in
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hyaline cartilage
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Which type of collagen is known as reticulin?
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Type III collagen (forms a branch mesh work)
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Which type of collagen contributes to mesh of basement membrane?
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type IV collagen
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Which type of collagen forms anchoring fibrils that link the basement membrane?
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type VII collagen
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Where is reticulin produced in each of the following tissues....
hemopoietic and lymphatic tissues peripheral nerves blood vessels alimentary canal |
hemopoietic and lymphatic tissues: reticular cells
peripheral nerves: schwann cells blood vessels: smooth muscle cells alimentary canal: smooth muscle cells |
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Elastic fibers are composed of an elastin core surrounded by _________
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fibrillin microfibrils
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What does netrin do?
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it acts as a chemoattractant
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Where are desmosine and isodesmosine located?
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They are repeating amino acids in the elastin molecules
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What is the function of ground substance
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diffusion of nutrients and waste
lubricant barrier |
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What is the primary component of ground substance
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proteoglycans (protein core and GAG)
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What is a common molecule of glycosaminoglycans
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glucosamine
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True or false..glycosaminoglycans do not contain any binding sites
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False they contain binding sites for growth factors
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Which glycosaminoglycans in not bound to a protein core?
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Hyaluronic acid
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Which glycosaminoglycans is an anticoagulant?
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Heparin
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Which embryonic connective tissue is unspecialized with irregular ovoid shape
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mesenchyme tissue
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What is the ground substance of embryonic mucous connective tissue?
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Whartons jelly
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Compared to LCT, DCT has fewer ____ and abundant _________
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fewer cells; abundant fibers
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True or false..... adipose tissue is avascular
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false
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What are the four functions of adipose tissue?
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1. cushions
2. insulates 3. stores energy and water 4. endocrine tissue (adipocytokines) |
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What is another name for white adipose tissue?
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Unilobular
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What is another name for brown adipose tissue?
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multilocular
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Which type of adipose tissue (white or brown) is not found in humans?
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Brown (hibernating animals)
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What is part of the extracellular matrix of cartilage?
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GAG's, proteoglycans, and macromolecules
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What do chondroblasts differentiate from?
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Primitive mesenchyme
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The following matrix is for which type of cartilage.....
amorphous matrix contains type II collagen fibers, proteoglycans, hyaluronic acid |
hyaline cartilage
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The following matrix is for which type of cartilage.....
Amorphous matrix components of hyaline cartilage plus type II elastic fibers |
elastic cartilage
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The following matrix is for which type of cartilage.....
Amorphous matrix of hyalin cartilage plus abundant type I collagen fibers |
fibro cartilage
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Is cartilage vascular or avascular?
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avascular
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What is the only location of hyalin cartilage without a perichondrium?
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articular cartilage of joints
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What is the functional unit of cartilage? And what is made up of?
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Chondron and it is made up of a chrondrocyte with its surrounding lacunae
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Where is elastic cartilage found?
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external ear, auditory tube, and epiglottis of larynx
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Does elastic cartilage calcify with aging?
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NO
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Does fibro cartilage contain a perichondrium?
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NO
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What forces can fibro cartilage resist?
|
compression and shear forces
intervertebral discs, menisci of the knees, and location where tendons attach to bones |
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How many bones are in the adult skeleton?
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206
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What are the two divisions of the skeleton?
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axial and appendicular
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What connects bone to bone?
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ligamnets
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Where does the storage of minerals and the formation of blood occur?
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inside bones
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Bone is made up of ______% collagen, ____% water, and ____% minerals
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25% collagen, 25% water, and 50% minerals
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What is the process by which mineral salts are deposited in the framework formed by the collagen fibers, then crystalize and harden
|
mineralization
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What is the matrix of bone called?
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osteoid
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What are the bones that have nearly equal length and width
|
short bones
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How often is bone remodeled?
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always
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What is the diaphysis of bone?
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shaft
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What is the epiphyses of bone?
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distal and proximal ends
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What is the metaphyses of bone?
|
growth plate
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What covers epiphyses at joints?
|
articular cartilage
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What covers bone surface everywhere that articular cartilage does not?
|
periosteum
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What do osteoblasts secrete?
|
osteoid
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What gives rise to osteoblasts and osteocytes and where are they located?
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Osteoprogenitor cells. Periosteum and endosteum
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Which bone cell is formed from monocytes?
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osteoclasts
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Where are osteoclasts concentrated in the bone?
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endosteum
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What is the ratio of compact bone to spongy bone?
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4 to 1 (80 - 20)
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What is the functional unit of bone?
|
osteon
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What are the concentric rings in compact bone called?
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lamellae
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What forms the channels that allow nutrients to enter the bone cells from the vascularture?
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canaliculi
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Does spongy bone contain osteons?
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No (unless very thick)
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What is in yellow bone marrow?
|
fat cells
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What is in red bone marrow?
|
developing blood cells
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What type of bones store red bone marrow?
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flat bones (scapula and hips)
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What type of bone store yellow bone marrow?
|
Diaphysis of long bones
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Which type of bone formation forms the bones of the face and skull, the mandible, and the clavicle?
|
intramembranos ossification
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Which type of bone formation has a cartilage model precursor?
|
Endochondral ossification
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Which type of bone formation gives rise to vertebrae?
|
Endochondral ossification
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During intramembranous ossification what takes place after the mesenchymal cels become larger and rounder before they become osteoblasts?
|
Nothing. It's an immediate jump
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|
|
Bone is reabsorbed at endosteal surface and added at periosteal surface
|
appositional growth
|
|
|
Cartilage continually grows and is replaced by bone
|
Longitudinal growth
|
|
|
How long does it take for your skeleton to completely renew itself?
|
three to five years
|
|
|
What causes bone spurs?
|
too much osteoblast activity
|
|
|
What causes osteoporosis?
|
too little osteoblast activity ad too much osteoclast activity
|
|
|
What tones down calcium levels in the blood?
|
calcitonin
|
|
|
What take up calcium until blood levels are normal?
|
osteoblasts
|
|
|
What type of cartilage is in the fetus?
|
hyaline cartilage
|
|
|
Is proteoglycan a GAG?
|
Nooooooooo
|
|
|
What are the four general functions of blood?
|
1. transport
2. regulation 3. defense 4. maintain |
|
|
What is in the blood? (four major components)
|
plasma
RBC's WBC's platelets |
|
|
What percentage of plasma is water?
What percent of plasma is protein? |
90%
8% |
|
|
What are the tree main types of plasma proteins? (order from largest to smallest)
|
fibrinogen
globulins albumin |
|
|
Which plasma protein maintains osmotic pressure?
|
albumin
|
|
|
Which plasma protein is necessary for blood clotting?
|
fibrinogen
|
|
|
What forms the buffy coat of centrifuged blood?
|
WBC's and platelets
|
|
|
What is the life span of RBC's?
|
120 days
|
|
|
Label these steps of immune response in the order that they occur?
margination diapedesis inflammation chemotaxis |
Inflammation
Chemotaxis Margination diapedesis |
|
|
What is the process where WBC's squeeze through endothelium?
|
diapedesis
|
|
|
What is the lifespan of monocytes in blood?
|
2 to 5 days
|
|
|
What is the function of monocytes?
|
phagocytes
|
|
|
List the relative percentages for each of the five white blood cells
|
Neutrophils 40-75%
Lymphocytes 20-50% monocytes 2-10% eosinophils 2-6% basophils (less than 1%) |
|
|
What is the function of neutrophils?
|
phagocyte
|
|
|
What is the function of a lymphocyte?
|
activate immune response
|
|
|
What is the function of eosinophils?
|
parasitic invasion
|
|
|
What is the function of basophils?
|
secrete heparin and histamine in allergic response
|
|
|
How are monocytes drawn out of the blood and into the tissue?
|
chemotaxis
|
|
|
What role do monocytes play in inflammation?
|
they recruit helpers
|
|
|
What is unique about natural killer cells?
|
they kill virus infected and tumor cells without previous stimulation
|
|
|
how do cancer patients get to work?
|
chemotaxis
|
|
|
what do T and B lymphocytes do?
|
They are involved in the adaptive immune defense mechanisms
|
|
|
Where do T lymphocytes develop?
|
In the thymus
|
|
|
Which lymphocyte matures into plasma cells that produce antibodies?
|
B lymphocytes
|
|
|
What is humoral immunity?
|
blood based immunity (B lymphocytes)
|
|
|
What are the first cells to respond to an infection?
|
neutrophils
|
|
|
What is puss made of?
|
dead neutrophils
|
|
|
What enhances phagocytosis?
|
opsonization
|
|
|
When are levels of eosinophils the highest?
|
In the Morning
|
|
|
Which of the following would lead to increase eosinophil count?
large wound a worm allergy problems sexual intercourse |
allergy problems and a worm
|
|
|
What is contained in eosinophils that can kill worms?
|
Cytotoxins and neurotoxins
|
|
|
Which WBC helps to dialate the capillary walls?
|
Basophils
|
|
|
Where are megakaryocytes found in the body?
|
In bone marrow
|
|
|
What are three functions of platelets?
|
1. make up a plug
2. provide a surface for assemble of coagulation proteins 3. release chemicals that promote clotting and eventual clot removal |
|
|
What cell do all blood cells descend from?
|
pluripotential stem cells
|
|
|
Where does hemopoiesis occur for the developing fetus,
|
1. yolk sac
2. liver and spleen 3. bone marrow |
|
|
What happens when tissue oxygen levels decline?
|
erythropoiethin is released
|
|
|
What happens when erythropoiethin is released?
|
1. increased mytotic rate
2. accelerated maturation of reticulocytes |
|
|
What are the five causes of poor oxygenation?
|
1. low blood volume
2. anemia 3. low hemoglobin 4. poor blood flow 5. lung disease |
|
|
Which of the following are functions of muscular tissue?
maintenance of posture produce body movement move substances within body produce heat protect organs and joint |
all of the above
|
|
|
What does it mean that muscle is excitable?
|
capable of responding to stimuli
|
|
|
What does it mean that muscle is extensible?
|
capable of being stretched
|
|
|
What are three single-cell contractile units?
|
1. myoepithelial cells
2. pericytes 3. myofibroblasts |
|
|
What are the three multi-cellular contractile units?
|
1. skeletal
2. smooth 3. cardiac muscle |
|
|
Which type of muscle has spindle fibers?
|
smooth muscle
|
|
|
Which type of muscle is branched?
|
cardiac muscle
|
|
|
Which type of muscle has multiple nuclei
|
skeletal muscle
|
|
|
Where are the nuclei of skeletal muscle located?
|
periphery
|
|
|
How many of the multi-cellular contractile units have striations?
|
2 (not smooth muscle)
|
|
|
Which types of muscle are autorhythmic?
|
cardiac and smooth muscle
|
|
|
In skeletal muscle what surrounds the whole muscle
|
epimysium (DCCTRA)
|
|
|
IN SKELETAL MUSCLE WHAT SURROUNDS EACH MUSCLE FASCICLE
|
perimysium (DCCTRA and LCT)
|
|
|
In skeletal muscle what surrounds each muscle cell?
|
endomysium (LCT and DCT)
|
|
|
Which type of skeletal muscle fibers contain abundant mitochondria and myoglobin?
|
aerobic type I red fibers
|
|
|
Which type of skeletal muscle fibers contains lots of glycogen?
|
anaerobic type II white fibers
|
|
|
How many different types of skeletal muscle fibers are there?
|
3
|
|
|
Which of the following are thick filaments?
myosin actin |
myosin
|
|
|
What is the functional unit of skeletal muscle?
|
sarcomeres
|
|
|
What gets very small as a muscle contracts?
|
h-band
|
|
|
How is a sarcomere measured?
|
from z line to z line
|
|
|
Which of the following are part of myofibrils?
thick filaments thin filaments |
both
|
|
|
What are the three thin filaments of myofibrils?
|
1. actin
2. troponin 3. tropomyosin |
|
|
What causes tropomyosin to move so that actin and tropomyosin combined?
|
troponin (calcium is necessary)
|
|
|
What covers up the active site in actin?
|
tropomyosin
|
|
|
what is a sarcolemma?
|
plasma membrane of muscle cells
|
|
|
What system of muscle cells allows muscles to contract together?
|
T system (cisternae and T tubules)
|
|
|
What are the three steps of an action potential?
|
1. neurotransmitter released: (Acetylcholine)
2. Ach binds to Ach receptor and makes membrane permeable (Ca influx) 3. action potential conduction by sarcolemma |
|
|
What is the importance of T tubules as it relates to action potentials?
|
The T tubule allows the signal to get deep to activate all of the myofibrils
|
|
|
Which type of muscle exhibits spontaneous contractile activity in the absence of nerve activity?
|
smooth muscle
|
|
|
True or false, cardiac muscle is the only type of muscle with lots of gap junctions?
|
False
smooth muscle has a lot of gap junctions |
|
|
True or false? Smooth muscle has neuronal input similar to neuromuscular junctions.
|
False. The distance between nerves and smooth muscles may be great. Commonicate via gap junctions
|
|
|
Which type of muscle is specialized for sustained contractions without fatigue?
|
smooth muscle
|
|
|
Which type of skeletal muscle has more mitochondria? Skeletal or cardiac?
|
Skeletal
|
|
|
Which type of muscle is autorhythmic?
|
cardiac
|
|
|
T or F? the contractions of the heart cannot be summed up to flex the heart
|
True.
|
|
|
Which type of muscle has well-developed sER and T tubules?
|
skeletal
|
|
|
Which type of muscle has intercalated discs?
|
cardiac
|
|
|
Which type of muscle has dense bodies, caveolae, and cytoplasmic vesicles?
|
smooth
|
|
|
Which of the following processes does not involve the circulatory system?
respiration nutrition excretion innervation none of the above |
innervation
|
|
|
T or F? the contractions of the heart cannot be summed up to flex the heart
|
True.
|
|
|
Which type of muscle has well-developed sER and T tubules?
|
skeletal
|
|
|
Which type of muscle has intercalated discs?
|
cardiac
|
|
|
Which type of muscle has dense bodies, caveolae, and cytoplasmic vesicles?
|
smooth
|
|
|
Which of the following processes does not involve the circulatory system?
respiration nutrition excretion innervation none of the above |
innervation
|
|
|
How is the circulatory system involved in protection?
|
immune system cells
|
|
|
What do all arteries do?
|
carry blood away from the heart
|
|
|
What do all veins do?
|
carry blood towards the heart
|
|
|
What are the three ways that blood enters the right atrium?
|
coronary sinus
inferior and superior vena cava |
|
|
Which valve in the heart is a semilunar valve?
|
The valve that leads to the lungs (pulmonary valve)
|
|
|
Which layers of the heart have simple squamous epithelium?
|
the endocardium and epicardium
|
|
|
Which of the following does not control cardiac output?
a. blood volume reflexes b. autonomic nervous system c. higher centers |
all three control CO
|
|
|
What are the four most areas that receive the most blood from the heart?
|
GI tract
kidneys skeletal muscle brain |
|
|
What helps control the blood flow in the capillaries?
|
pre-capillary sphincters
|
|
|
What are the three types of capillaries? Which is the most permeable?
|
continuous
fenestrated discontinuous (sinusoidal) - most permeable |
|
|
What happens to each of the following during vasoconstriction?
a. blood flow to capillaries b. blood pressure of capillaries, blood pressure upstream c. blood volume d. oxygenation |
a. decreases
b. decreases, increases c. increases d. decreases |
|
|
What happens to each of the following during vasodilation?
a. blood flow to capillaries b. blood pressure of capillaries, blood pressure upstream c. blood volume d. oxygenation |
a. increases
b. increases, decreases c. decreases d. increases |
|
|
Which tunic layer is different between veins and arteries?
|
tunica media
|
|
|
What is the electrochemical signal that sends messages all over the body?
|
action potential
|
|
|
Which type of neuron is only found in the CNS?
|
interneurons
|
|
|
Which neurons transmit signals from receptors to the central nervous system?
|
sensory afferent neurons
|
|
|
Which type of neurons are most abundant? Why?
|
interneuons, then sensory neurons
There is more stimuli to receive than actions |
|
|
Which are more abundant: neuroglial cells or neurons?
|
neuroglial cells
|
|
|
How many different types of neuroglial cells are found in the body?
|
4 in CNS and 2 in PNS
|
|
|
Which of the following functions do neuroglial cells not participate in?
provide nutrition and support homeostasis forms myelin transmission |
they participate in all of these
|
|
|
Which of the following characteristics is NOT true of neurons?
conducting potential longevity amitotic low metabolic rate |
low metabolic rate
|
|
|
What is the RER of neurons called?
|
NIssel bodies
|
|
|
What part of the neuron receives impulses and carries them towards the soma?
|
dendrites
(they increase surface area a lot) |
|
|
Where do axons carry impulses?
a. away from soma b. towards the soma |
a. away from soma, to synaptic vesicles
|
|
|
Are the neurotransmitters located at the presynaptic neuron or post synaptic neuron?
|
presynaptic
(specific receptors at post synaptic neuron) |
|
|
What are the two ways neurons communicate?
|
action potential (electrically- from one end of neuron to the other)
neurotransmitters (chemically- across synapses) |
|
|
Which of the following places is an action potential activated?
soma dendrites axon hillock |
axon hillock
|
|
|
Which type of potential will always occur when the other does: action potential or graded potential?
|
graded potential (action potential must be triggered when a certain threshold is passed)
|
|
|
How does a graded potential behave like the firing of a gun?
|
it reaches a point before firing, always fires at the same speed
|
|
|
In an action potential, what causes the rising phase?
|
sodium influx (depolarizing)
|
|
|
What causes the falling phase of an action potential?
|
potassium efflux (repolarization)
|
|
|
Why does hyperpolarization occur?
|
because potassium channels are slow to open and close
|
|
|
What are the three classifications of neurons as it relates to polarity? Give examples of each
|
unipolar- sustentacular cells
multipolar- motor neuorns bipolar- rods and cones |
|
|
Do multipolar neurons have lots of dendrites or a lot of axons?
|
lots of dendrites?
|
|
|
What are the four glial cells of the CNS?
a. astrocytes b. microglia c. Schwann cells d. oligodendrocytes e. Satellite cells f. ependymal cells |
a. astrocytes
d. oligodendrocytes b. microglia f. ependymal cells |
|
|
What is the largest and most numerous type of glial cell?
|
astrocyte
|
|
|
What is the function of oligodendrocyte?
|
produce and maintain the myelin sheaths
|
|
|
What are the glial cells that are immune cells and WBC derivitives?
|
microglia (macrophages)
|
|
|
What is the histological classification of the epithelium of ependymal cells?
|
it changes with age
ciliated simple columnar sparsely ciliated simple cuboidal simple squamous |
|
|
What is the function of ependymal cells?
|
secrete and circulate CSF
|
|
|
What is the function of Satellite cells in the PNS?
|
provide structural and metabolic support
|
|
|
What is the function of the Schwann cells?
|
myelinates one sheath of a single axon (unlike oligodendrocytes)
|
|
|
Which has a faster action potential conduction:
a. myeliniated axon or unmyelinated axon? b. axon with large diameter or axon with small diameter? |
a. myelinated
b. large diameter (more room) |
|
|
What type of CT is each axon surrounded by?
|
LCT endoneurium
|
|
|
What type of CT surrounds nerve fascicles?
|
DCCTRA perineurium
|
|
|
What type of CT surrounds an entire nerve?
|
DCCTRA epineurium
|
|
|
Where is the gray matter in relation to the white matter in:
a. the brain? b. the spinal cord? |
a. gray is outside
b. gray is inside |
|
|
Where are purkinje cells located?
|
in the cerebellum (between molecular layer and inner granular layer)
|
|
|
Of the three memingial layers of the brain, which has no blood volume?
|
arachnoid mater
|
|
|
Which type of meningial layer is highly vascularized?
|
pia mater
|
|
|
T or F? the spinal cord runs down through to the very bottom of the last vertebrae?
|
false
stops in the lumbar vertebrae |
|
|
Which is in the gray matter?
a. cell bodies b. dendrites c. axons |
all of the above
all are non-myelinated in the gray matter |
|
|
What is contained in the white matter?
|
myelinated axons
|
|
|
How many cranial nerves are there?
|
12
|
|
|
how many paris of spinal nerves are there?
|
31
|
|
|
What is the main difference between the somatic and autonomic nervous systems?
|
the types of tissues they serve
|
|
|
Which branch of the nervous system is described (ANS or SNS)?: nerves take sensory information from external sensory receptors.
|
SNS
|
|
|
Are reflexes part of the ANS or the SNS?
|
SNS
|
|
|
Are the special senses part of the SNS or the ANS?
|
SNS
|
|
|
Are smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands regulated by the SNS or the ANS?
|
ANS
|
|
|
Sympathetic or parasympathetic nervous system?
fight or flight response |
sympathetic
|
|
|
Sympathetic or parasympathetic nervous system?
acetylcholine receptors |
parasympathetic
|
|
|
Sympathetic or parasympathetic nervous system?
norepinephrine receptors |
sympathetic
|
|
|
Sympathetic or parasympathetic nervous system?
long pre-, short post-ganglionic fiber |
parasympathetic
|
|
|
Sympathetic or parasympathetic nervous system?
short pre-, long post-ganglionic fiber |
sympathetic
|
|
|
sympathetic or parasympathetic?
precapillary sphincters limit blood to digestion? |
sympathetic
|
|
|
Cen the endocrine system act as quickly as the nervous system?
|
yes, release of norepinephrine is very fast
|
|
|
What do hormones interact with to cause a change in the body?
|
hormone
|
|
|
Which of the following are not characteristics of hormones?
a. transported in blood with carrier proteins b. only large amounts make a difference c. short half lives d. regulated only by negative feedback mechanisms |
b. only minute amounts are needed
d. positive and negative |
|
|
How are hormones classified?
|
by chemistry (steroids, proteins, and eicosanoids)
by function by source of hormone |
|
|
What are the three main functions of the hypothalymus?
|
secretes hormones
stimulates the pituitary gland with activating hormones directly innervates the adrenal gland |
|
|
When is ADH released by the hypothalymus?
|
when water and salt are unbalanced
|
|
|
Which type of feedback regulates the amount of oxytocin that is produced?
|
positive feedback
(more stimuli,more oxytocin) |
|
|
What are the cells of the hypothalymus produce ADH and oxytocin?
|
neurosecretory cells
|
|
|
Where are ADH and oxytocin stored?
|
posterior pituitary
|
|
|
What are the other names for neurohypophysis and adenohypophysis?
|
neurohypophysis- posterior pituitary
adenohypophysis- anterior pituitary |
|
|
Where are the Herring bodies found?
|
in hypothalymus (store ADH and oxytocin)
|
|
|
What are the two divisions of the neurohypophysis?
|
infundibulum
pars nervosa |
|
|
What are the three divisions of the adenohypophysis?
|
pars distalis
pars tuberalis ppars intermedia |
|
|
What are the Basophilic hormones of the anterior pituitary?
|
FSH
LH ACTH TSH |
|
|
What are the acidophilic hormones of the anterior pituitary?
|
GH
Prolactin |
|
|
Which division of the anterior pituitary is responsible for the production of the acidophilic and basophilic hormones?
|
pars distalis
|
|
|
Which division of the anterior pituitary is responsible for the production of the acidophilic and basophilic hormones?
|
pars intermedia
|
|
|
What are the hormones produced by the thyroid gland?
|
calcitonin, T3 and T4
|
|
|
Which cells of the thyroid gland produce the hormones of the thyroid?
|
parafollicular- calcitonin (blood calcium)
follicular- T3 and T4 (metabolic rate, growth, maturation) |
|
|
Which is more abundant? T3 or T4
Which is more potent? |
T4 is more abundant
T3 is more potent |
|
|
Which element is required for production of T3 and T4?
|
iodine
|
|
|
What happens when there is too little iodine?
|
goiter
|
|
|
What happens when there is too little T3 and T4?
|
hypothyroidism (myxedemia)
|
|
|
What is the condition where too much T3 and T4 is produced?
|
hyperthyroidism (Grave's disease)
|
|
|
What cells are acted upon by calcitonin?
|
osteoclast cells are inhibited
|
|
|
What cells does parathyroid hormone directly act on?
|
osteoblasts which then stimulate the osteoclasts
|
|
|
Which part of the adrenal gland has an embryonic origin similar to the gonads?
|
adrenal cortex
|
|
|
Which part of the adrenal gland has an embryonic origin similar to the sympathetic nervous system?
|
adrenal medulla
|
|
|
Where are steroid hormones produced?
|
adrenal cortex
|
|
|
Where are catecholamines produced?
|
adrenal medulla
|
|
|
What are three catecholamines?
|
epinephrine
norepinephrine dopamine |
|
|
What is the adrenal medulla stimulated by: nervous system or endocrine system?
|
nervous system
|
|
|
What is the adrenal cortex stimulated by: nervous system or endocrine?
|
endocrine (ACTH)
|
|
|
What are the three types of hormones produced in the adrenal cortex?
|
mineralocorticoids
glucocorticoids sex hormones |
|
|
What disease is caused by too little ACTH?
|
Addision disease
|
|
|
What disease is caused by too much cortisol?
|
Cushing syndrome
|
|
|
What is the adrenal cortex stimulated by: nervous system or endocrine?
|
endocrine (ACTH)
|
|
|
Is the pancreas made up more of exocrine or endocrine cells?
|
exocrine
|
|
|
What are the three types of hormones produced in the adrenal cortex?
|
mineralocorticoids
glucocorticoids sex hormones |
|
|
What disease is caused by too little ACTH?
|
Addision disease
|
|
|
What disease is caused by too much cortisol?
|
Cushing syndrome
|
|
|
Is the pancreas made up more of exocrine or endocrine cells?
|
exocrine
|
|
|
Which cells of the pancreas secrete each of the following:
glucagon insulin somatostatin |
alpha cells - glucagon
beta cells- insulin delta cells- somatostatin |
|
|
What is the primary target of the product of beta cells?
|
the liver
gluconeogenesis glycogenolysis |
|
|
What type of diabetes is characterized by elevated blood glucose/
|
diabetes mellitus
|
|
|
What is the cause of type I diabetes?
|
autoimmune destruction of beta cells (early onset)
|
|
|
What is the cause of type II diabetes?
|
insulin insensitivity (can be acquired)
|
|
|
What are the four basic layers of the GI tract?
|
mucosa
submucosa muscularis externa serosa or adventitia |
|
|
What is contained in the mucosa of the GI tract?
|
epithelium
lamina propria muscularis mucosae |
|
|
What is the difference between the serosa and the adventitia in the GI tract?
|
serosa is epithelial
adventitia is connective tissue |
|
|
How much saliva is produced every day?
|
1.5 liters
|
|
|
What enzymes break down starch?
|
amylase
|
|
|
What cells of the stomach produce mucus?
|
neck cells
|
|
|
What cells of the stomach produce hydrochloric acid?
|
parietal cells
|
|
|
What cells of the stomach produce pepsinogen?
|
chief cells
|
|
|
What are the endocrine cells of the stomach?
|
enteroendocrine
|
|
|
Where is digestion completed?
|
in the small intestine
|
|
|
What is the purpose of segementation in the GI tract?
|
helps to increase absorption
|
|
|
What are four modifications of the GI tract that increase absorption?
|
length
plicae circularis villi microvilli |
|
|
Which action predominates in the duodenum?
mixing chemical digesion absorption |
mixing
|
|
|
Which action predominates in the jejunum?
mixing chemical digesion absorption |
chemical digestion
|
|
|
Which action predominates in the ileum?
mixing chemical digesion absorption |
absorption
|
|
|
What is the main function of the large intestine?
|
absorption of water
|
|
|
What are the three accessory organs of the digestive system?
|
pancreas
liver gall bladder |
|
|
Whate are the four types of enzymes produced by the pancreas?
|
amylase
proteases lypases nucleases |
|
|
What type of collagen fiber is in the lungs?
|
collagen III
|
|
|
What is the important function of bile/
|
emulsifies fats
|
|
|
Where does external respiration occur?
|
respiratory system (gas exchange between air and blood)
|
|
|
Where does internal respiration occur?
|
circulatory system (gas exchange between blood and tissue)
|
|
|
What are the three layers of th pleural cavity?
|
visceral pleura
parietal pleura diaphragm |
|
|
Why do the lungs want to collapse?
|
lots of elastic tissue
|
|
|
Why does the chest want to expand?
|
the collagen is very rigid and wants to straighten
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What are the two functional divisions of the respiratory system/
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conducting zone
respiratory zone |
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What are the two structural divisions of teh respiratory system?
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upper respiratory system
lower respiratory system |
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What are the three important functions of the nasal cavity?
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warm (capillaries), humidify, and filter
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How do vocal cords change the pitch of the muscles?
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tension changes in contracting muscles
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What is the stem cell of the lung? Where are they located?
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clara cell (dominates the bronchioles)
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Which type of pneumocyte is longer and is part of the respiratory membrane?
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type I pneumocyte
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Which type of pneumocyte secretes surfactant?
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type II pneumocyte
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What are the four layers of the respiratory membrane?
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alveolar epithelium
vascular epithelium basement membrane of alveolar epithelium basement membrane of vascular epithelium |
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What are the four organs of the urinary system?
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kidney
ureter bladder urethra |
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Which of the following is NOT a function of the urinary system?
regulation of blood volume and pressure regulates plasma concentrations of ions Helps to stabilize blood pH conserves valuable nutrients |
all of the abov
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What part of the medulla contains nephron loops?
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renal medula
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Where does reabsorption of the filtrate occur in the nephron?
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in the PCT
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Where is the filtrate captured in the nephron?
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Bowman's capsule
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Which part of the loop of Henle is permeable to water?
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descending loop of Henle
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What is transported in the ascending limb of the nephron?
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ions
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What part of the nephron transports wasteinto the solute?
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DCT
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What part of the nephron responds to ADH?
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late DCT
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What do the principal cells of the collecting duct of the nephron do:
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absorb sodium and secrete potassium
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What is the function of the podocytes?
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enhance filtration (so blood proteins aren't lost)
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What are the three layers that the filtrate has to pass through?
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capillary endothelium
basement membrane podocytes |
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Why is the PCT able to reabsorb?
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microvilli
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Where are mesangial cells located and what is their function?
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in glomerulus
phagocytosis |
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What happens in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism
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macula densa and juxtaglomerular apparatus increase blood pressure
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Is the renal medulla hyper or hypo osmotic?
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hyperosmotic
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in the ascending thin nephron loop is NaCl recaptured actively or passively
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passively
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Which gene determines sex?
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sry gene
(if present, testis) (if not, ovaries) |
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Which comes first: spermatogonia or sprematozoa?
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spermatogonia
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What are the three stages of spermatogenesis?
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spermatocytogenesis
meiosis spermeogenesis |
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What is spermiation?
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the release of immature spermatozoa from Sertoli cells
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What cells are located in the interstitial compartment of the testis?
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Leydig cells
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What is the source of testosterone?
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Leydig cells (stimulated by LH)
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t or F? this is the correct pathway for sperm:
seminiferous tubule vas efferenes epididymis vas deferens urethra |
True
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What are the three accessory glands of the pathway of the sperm?
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bulbourethral gland
prostate seminal vesicles |
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What gland secretes most of the semen volume?
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seminal vesicle
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what is secreted by the seminal vesicle?
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fructose, fibrinogen and prostaglandins
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What is secreted by the prostate to the semen?
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seminalplasmin
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Which accessory gland adds a mucus substance to semen?
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bulbourethral gland
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T or F? The ovarian cortex is beneath the tunica albuginea
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True
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Where are the ovarian follicles located? cortex or medulla
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cortex of ovary
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Are the hormones secreted from the ovarian cortex or medulla?
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cortex
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What type of cells surround the primary follicle?
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cuboidal granulosa cells
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what percent of follicles undergo atresia
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99.9
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what is the primary source of estrogen in the female?
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preovulatory follicle
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What two hormones cause ovulation?
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LH and FSH surge
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What is the structure that links the ovary with the uterine tube
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ampulla
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What portion of the uterine tube traverses the myometrium?
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intramural portion
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What portion of the uterine tube is narrower and firmer than the ampulla of the infundibulum?
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isthmus
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has a nulliparous uterus had a pregnancy?
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no
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How many layers of muscle are in the uterus?
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3
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T or F? during a pregnancy the uterus becomes highly proliferative and under goes atrophe?
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False
it undergoes hypertrophy |
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T or F? the cervix produces mucous
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true
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