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83 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
2 conditions with cafe-au-lait spots
McCune Albright syndrome (polyostotic fibrous dysplasia- precocious puberty, cafe-au-lait, fibrous bone marrow, short stature)

NF1

NF1
3 conditions that can cause post. cervical lymphadenopathy
cat scratch fever
EBV mono
acute otitis media
somatostatin inhibits what HPI hormones (2)
GH, TSH
what stimulates prolactin secretion?
TRH
metoclopramide mech and side effect
dopamine antagonist for antiemetic

can cause hyperprolactinemia
4 causes of pancreatitis
alcohol
gallstones
high TGs
hypercalcemia (ex. hyperparathyroidism)
3 causes of depression
major depressive disorder
hypothyroidism
hyperparathyroidism
shortened 4th and 5th digits, high PTH but low calcium is what? inheritance?
Hereditary Albright pseudohyperparathyroidism (kidneys dont respond to PTH)

AD inheritance!
in thyroid, enlarged epithelial cells with excessive eosinophilic granulear cyotplasm is?
Hurtle cell of Hashimoto's
rock-like thyroid is
Riedel's thyroiditis
what is treatment of choice for thyroid strom
beta blocker
what HIV drug can cause aplastic anemia?
Zidovudine (AZT)
propthiouracil, methimazole
2 side effects?
which safer for pregnancy?
aplastic anemia, agranulocytosis

propothiouracil safe for pregnancy
which thyroid cancer is associated with a RAS mutation?
Follicular
what thyroid cancer presents as sheets of cells with amyloid
medullary (because calcitonin buildup forms amyloid)
which thyroid cancer is associated with activation of a tyrosine kinase receptor?
papillary thyroid cancer
AND
medullary thyroid cancer
which thyroid cancer is associated with the serine/threonine kinase mutation in BRAF?
papillary thyroid cancer
adrenal gland drainage
left drains to left renal vein, just like gonadal vein drainage
desmolase function
converts cholesterol to pregnenolone (first step in adrenal hormone synthesis, stimulated by ACTH and inhibited by ketoconazole)
angiotensin II stimulates aldosterone converion how
stimulates last step, aldosterone synthase
3 hormones that cause gluconeogenesis, lipolysis, proteolysis
epi
glucagon
cortisol
how do glucocorticoids suppress inflammation?
inhibit phopholipase A2, which inhibits COX 2 and prostaglandins and leukotrienes
2 drugs used to treat hyperaldosteronism
spironolactone, eplerenone (aldosterone antagonists)
pheochromocytoma rule of 10s
10% malignant
10% calcify
10% bilateral
10% extraadrenal
10% kids
10% familial
pheochromocytoma can be associated with what non-catecholamine hormone, what other disorder
epo

DM (because counterregulatory substance epi breaks down glycogen, lipolysis, gluconeogenesis)
what adrenal tumor has homer-wright pseudorosettes?
neuroblastoma
what is inheritance of MEN syndromes?
autosomal dominant
which glucose transporter is insulin dependent
GLUT-4 (adipose and muscles)
which cells are sensitive to sorbitol osmotic damage in diabetes (4)? why?
schwann cells
lens
kidney
retina

because have aldose reductase to make sorbitol, but don't have sorbitol dehydrogenase to make fructose
Type 1 diabetes HLA associations
need 3-4 doctors to diagnose type 1 diabetes

DR3 and DR4
kaussmal's sign vs. kaussmal respirations
kaussmal's sign- increase in JVD with inspiration, seen in pericarditis

kaussmal's resipirations- fast deep respirations seen in DKA
2 differences between DKA and hyperglycemic hyperosmotic syndrome
hyperglycemic hyperosmotic syndrome:

-don't have acidosis (so no kausmall respirations)
-don't have ketones (just very high sugar)
tolbutamide
chlorpropamide

are examples of what?
first generation sulfonylureas

side effect disulfiram like rxn

(2nd gen is glyburide, etc.)
glyburide, glipizide, glimepiride drug class
sulfonylureas (secretagogues)
what is metformin's main side effect and 4 populations it is contraindicated in
lactic acidosis

CHF
renal disease
liver disease
IV contrast
2 DM drugs that have hepatotoxicity, and are contraindicated in CHF
metformin

glitazones (cause edema and can exacerbate CHF)
acarbose, miglitol mech
inhibit alpha glucosidase at brush border (for postprandial hyperglycemia, can cause GI distress)
pramlintide mech
diabetes analog of amylin (secreted with insulin) that causes decreased glucagon release and slower gastric emptying
Sitagliptin mech, toxicity
GLP-1 analog that increases insulin, decreases glucagon, and decreases gastric emptying

pancreatitis
Exantide mech, toxicity
GLP-1 analog (from Gila Monsters!) the increases insulin release, decreases glucagon release, and decreases gastric emptying

pancreatitis
which diabetic drug is commonly used in overweight pts because it does not cause weight gain?
metformin
good diabetic drug in those with renal failure
glitazones
3 main side effects of insulin therapy
hypoglycemia
weight gain
lipodystrophy
demeclocycline mechanism
ADH antagonist
why is there only right sided heart disease in carcinoid tumors?
pulmonary MAO degrades serotonin before it gets to left side
incoordination, hoarsness/ loss of gag reflex, ipso face pain and temp loss, contra body pain and temp loss is?
PICA
Lateral Medullary syndrome

Wallenberg syndrome
histones positive because of
lysine and arginine in them (make ionic bonds with phosphorus of DNA)
which amino acids are necessary for purine synthesis?

prymidines?
eating purina makes you gag

glycine
aspartate
glutamine

pyrimidines:
glutamine
aspartate
C02

need tetrahydrofolate for both
increasing the g-c bond content increases what point
the melting point of the DNA strand
orotic acid in urine without hyperammonemia is what?
Orotic aciduria (problem in purine synthesis)

if ornithine transcarbamoylase deficiency, would have hyperammonemia because its in urea cycle
pt with failure to thrive, megaloblastic anemia, and and orotic acid, how treat megaloblastic anemia?
Orotic aciduria (AR)

must give URIDINE (B12 and folate WILL NOT HELP)
what reaction is catalyzed by xanthine oxidase?
hypoxanthine and guanine to xanthine

(xanthine then goes to uric acid)
what are the reactants and products of SCID deficiency
Adenosine--> inosine
(adenosine deaminase)
what are the two substrates of Lesch-Nyhan deficiency rxn?
hypoxanthine and guanine going to IMP and GMP, respectively
what prokaryotic DNA polymerase has 5-> 3 and 3-> 5 exonuclease activity?
DNA pol 3 (creates lagging and leading strands, can back up and remove nucleotides)
what prokaryotic DNA polymerase only has 5-> 3 exonuclease activity?
DNA pol 1

(only 1 function, to strip out RNA primer and replace it with DNA)
what eukaryotic protein has reverse transcriptase activity
telomerase (RNA dependent RNA primer)
what are the functions of the following eukaryotic DNA polymerases?
alpha
beta
gamma
delta
episilon
alpha- lagging strand
beta and epsilon- repair
gamma- mitochondrial DNA
delta- leading strand
what is a disease associated with:
Nucleotide exicsion repair?
Mismatch repair?
Double stranded DNA break repair?
Nucleotide excision repair- xenderma pigmentosum (thymidine dimers)

Mismatch repair- HNPCC

Double Stranded DNA break repair- BRCA 1&2
young pt with ataxia, recurrent infections, and nonsmooth pursuit of movement in eyes should avoid what?
Ataxia-Telangectasia

will get telangectasias at about 5

needs to avoid ionizing radiation
base excision repair is cut at what site
a pyrimidine site
what type of RNA is:
most abundant
smallest
longest
most abundant- rRNA
smallest- tRNA
longest- mRNA
3 stop codons
UAA
UGA
UAG
what does AUG code for in eukaryotes?
prokaryotes?
eukaryotes- methionine

prokaryotes- formyl-methionine
where are 2 promoter regions in DNA and what do they bind?
-25 (TATA box)
-75 (CAAT box)

TFs bind here
helix-loop-helix
helix-turn-helix
zinc fingers
leucine zippers
all examples of
Transcription Factor Binding Motifs
what binds at the operator region and what is it
inducers or supressors bind there

between the promoter and transcription initiation site
binding to what region can start/inhibit transcription? binding to what region can speed up or slow down transcription?
operator region- inducers/repressors

enhancer/silencer (repressor) regions- speed up or slow down speed of transcription
do promoter region mutations usually increase or decrease amount of gene transcribed?
usually highly decrease
2 things that need to happen for the LAC operon to work
CAP transcription factor is inducer, and presence of lactose pulls off repressor in operator region
where are rRNA, mRNA, and tRNA synthesized?
rRNA in nucleolus, mRNA and tRNA in nucleoplasm
alpha amanitin of death cap mushroom inhibits
RNA pol II
Eukaryotes:
which RNAs make rRNA, mRNA, and tRNA?

Prokaryotes?
RNAs correspond to how they are used

RNA pol 1- rRNA
RNA pol 2- mRNA
RNA pol 3- tRNA

for Prokaryotes, only 1 RNA pol
2 ways to stop prokaryotic transcription
rho factor

GC region that causes loop, followed by uracil region
what is at 3' end of tRNA?
CCA

with highly modified cases for aminoacyl-tRNA binding
what antibiotic class inhibits attachment of aminoacyl tRNA to ribosomal 30S subunit?
Tetracyclines
what enzyme scrutinizes the amino acid before binding it to the tRNA?
aminoacyl tRNA synthetase

once bond is formed, has energy for peptide bond formation
what is only ribosomal species that has thymidine
tRNA
where are ribosomes synthesized?
nucleus, then transported out into cytoplasm
what antibiotic inhibits formation of ribosomal complex by blocking 30S subunit?
aminoglycosides

(remember only aminoglycosides and tetracylines work at 30S)
2 antibiotics that inhibit 50s peptidyltranferase
inhibit peptidyltransferase (ribozyme)

chloramphenicol
streptogramins
3 antibiotics that inhibit 50S translocation
clindamycin
macrolides
linezolid
what enzyme catalyzes peptide bond formation during protein synethesis
peptidyltransferase (ribozyme)