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83 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
2 conditions with cafe-au-lait spots
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McCune Albright syndrome (polyostotic fibrous dysplasia- precocious puberty, cafe-au-lait, fibrous bone marrow, short stature)
NF1 NF1 |
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3 conditions that can cause post. cervical lymphadenopathy
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cat scratch fever
EBV mono acute otitis media |
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somatostatin inhibits what HPI hormones (2)
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GH, TSH
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what stimulates prolactin secretion?
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TRH
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metoclopramide mech and side effect
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dopamine antagonist for antiemetic
can cause hyperprolactinemia |
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4 causes of pancreatitis
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alcohol
gallstones high TGs hypercalcemia (ex. hyperparathyroidism) |
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3 causes of depression
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major depressive disorder
hypothyroidism hyperparathyroidism |
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shortened 4th and 5th digits, high PTH but low calcium is what? inheritance?
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Hereditary Albright pseudohyperparathyroidism (kidneys dont respond to PTH)
AD inheritance! |
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in thyroid, enlarged epithelial cells with excessive eosinophilic granulear cyotplasm is?
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Hurtle cell of Hashimoto's
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rock-like thyroid is
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Riedel's thyroiditis
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what is treatment of choice for thyroid strom
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beta blocker
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what HIV drug can cause aplastic anemia?
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Zidovudine (AZT)
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propthiouracil, methimazole
2 side effects? which safer for pregnancy? |
aplastic anemia, agranulocytosis
propothiouracil safe for pregnancy |
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which thyroid cancer is associated with a RAS mutation?
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Follicular
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what thyroid cancer presents as sheets of cells with amyloid
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medullary (because calcitonin buildup forms amyloid)
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which thyroid cancer is associated with activation of a tyrosine kinase receptor?
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papillary thyroid cancer
AND medullary thyroid cancer |
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which thyroid cancer is associated with the serine/threonine kinase mutation in BRAF?
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papillary thyroid cancer
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adrenal gland drainage
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left drains to left renal vein, just like gonadal vein drainage
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desmolase function
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converts cholesterol to pregnenolone (first step in adrenal hormone synthesis, stimulated by ACTH and inhibited by ketoconazole)
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angiotensin II stimulates aldosterone converion how
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stimulates last step, aldosterone synthase
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3 hormones that cause gluconeogenesis, lipolysis, proteolysis
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epi
glucagon cortisol |
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how do glucocorticoids suppress inflammation?
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inhibit phopholipase A2, which inhibits COX 2 and prostaglandins and leukotrienes
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2 drugs used to treat hyperaldosteronism
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spironolactone, eplerenone (aldosterone antagonists)
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pheochromocytoma rule of 10s
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10% malignant
10% calcify 10% bilateral 10% extraadrenal 10% kids 10% familial |
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pheochromocytoma can be associated with what non-catecholamine hormone, what other disorder
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epo
DM (because counterregulatory substance epi breaks down glycogen, lipolysis, gluconeogenesis) |
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what adrenal tumor has homer-wright pseudorosettes?
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neuroblastoma
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what is inheritance of MEN syndromes?
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autosomal dominant
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which glucose transporter is insulin dependent
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GLUT-4 (adipose and muscles)
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which cells are sensitive to sorbitol osmotic damage in diabetes (4)? why?
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schwann cells
lens kidney retina because have aldose reductase to make sorbitol, but don't have sorbitol dehydrogenase to make fructose |
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Type 1 diabetes HLA associations
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need 3-4 doctors to diagnose type 1 diabetes
DR3 and DR4 |
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kaussmal's sign vs. kaussmal respirations
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kaussmal's sign- increase in JVD with inspiration, seen in pericarditis
kaussmal's resipirations- fast deep respirations seen in DKA |
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2 differences between DKA and hyperglycemic hyperosmotic syndrome
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hyperglycemic hyperosmotic syndrome:
-don't have acidosis (so no kausmall respirations) -don't have ketones (just very high sugar) |
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tolbutamide
chlorpropamide are examples of what? |
first generation sulfonylureas
side effect disulfiram like rxn (2nd gen is glyburide, etc.) |
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glyburide, glipizide, glimepiride drug class
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sulfonylureas (secretagogues)
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what is metformin's main side effect and 4 populations it is contraindicated in
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lactic acidosis
CHF renal disease liver disease IV contrast |
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2 DM drugs that have hepatotoxicity, and are contraindicated in CHF
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metformin
glitazones (cause edema and can exacerbate CHF) |
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acarbose, miglitol mech
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inhibit alpha glucosidase at brush border (for postprandial hyperglycemia, can cause GI distress)
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pramlintide mech
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diabetes analog of amylin (secreted with insulin) that causes decreased glucagon release and slower gastric emptying
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Sitagliptin mech, toxicity
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GLP-1 analog that increases insulin, decreases glucagon, and decreases gastric emptying
pancreatitis |
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Exantide mech, toxicity
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GLP-1 analog (from Gila Monsters!) the increases insulin release, decreases glucagon release, and decreases gastric emptying
pancreatitis |
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which diabetic drug is commonly used in overweight pts because it does not cause weight gain?
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metformin
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good diabetic drug in those with renal failure
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glitazones
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3 main side effects of insulin therapy
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hypoglycemia
weight gain lipodystrophy |
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demeclocycline mechanism
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ADH antagonist
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why is there only right sided heart disease in carcinoid tumors?
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pulmonary MAO degrades serotonin before it gets to left side
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incoordination, hoarsness/ loss of gag reflex, ipso face pain and temp loss, contra body pain and temp loss is?
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PICA
Lateral Medullary syndrome Wallenberg syndrome |
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histones positive because of
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lysine and arginine in them (make ionic bonds with phosphorus of DNA)
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which amino acids are necessary for purine synthesis?
prymidines? |
eating purina makes you gag
glycine aspartate glutamine pyrimidines: glutamine aspartate C02 need tetrahydrofolate for both |
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increasing the g-c bond content increases what point
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the melting point of the DNA strand
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orotic acid in urine without hyperammonemia is what?
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Orotic aciduria (problem in purine synthesis)
if ornithine transcarbamoylase deficiency, would have hyperammonemia because its in urea cycle |
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pt with failure to thrive, megaloblastic anemia, and and orotic acid, how treat megaloblastic anemia?
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Orotic aciduria (AR)
must give URIDINE (B12 and folate WILL NOT HELP) |
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what reaction is catalyzed by xanthine oxidase?
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hypoxanthine and guanine to xanthine
(xanthine then goes to uric acid) |
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what are the reactants and products of SCID deficiency
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Adenosine--> inosine
(adenosine deaminase) |
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what are the two substrates of Lesch-Nyhan deficiency rxn?
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hypoxanthine and guanine going to IMP and GMP, respectively
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what prokaryotic DNA polymerase has 5-> 3 and 3-> 5 exonuclease activity?
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DNA pol 3 (creates lagging and leading strands, can back up and remove nucleotides)
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what prokaryotic DNA polymerase only has 5-> 3 exonuclease activity?
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DNA pol 1
(only 1 function, to strip out RNA primer and replace it with DNA) |
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what eukaryotic protein has reverse transcriptase activity
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telomerase (RNA dependent RNA primer)
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what are the functions of the following eukaryotic DNA polymerases?
alpha beta gamma delta episilon |
alpha- lagging strand
beta and epsilon- repair gamma- mitochondrial DNA delta- leading strand |
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what is a disease associated with:
Nucleotide exicsion repair? Mismatch repair? Double stranded DNA break repair? |
Nucleotide excision repair- xenderma pigmentosum (thymidine dimers)
Mismatch repair- HNPCC Double Stranded DNA break repair- BRCA 1&2 |
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young pt with ataxia, recurrent infections, and nonsmooth pursuit of movement in eyes should avoid what?
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Ataxia-Telangectasia
will get telangectasias at about 5 needs to avoid ionizing radiation |
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base excision repair is cut at what site
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a pyrimidine site
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what type of RNA is:
most abundant smallest longest |
most abundant- rRNA
smallest- tRNA longest- mRNA |
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3 stop codons
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UAA
UGA UAG |
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what does AUG code for in eukaryotes?
prokaryotes? |
eukaryotes- methionine
prokaryotes- formyl-methionine |
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where are 2 promoter regions in DNA and what do they bind?
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-25 (TATA box)
-75 (CAAT box) TFs bind here |
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helix-loop-helix
helix-turn-helix zinc fingers leucine zippers all examples of |
Transcription Factor Binding Motifs
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what binds at the operator region and what is it
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inducers or supressors bind there
between the promoter and transcription initiation site |
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binding to what region can start/inhibit transcription? binding to what region can speed up or slow down transcription?
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operator region- inducers/repressors
enhancer/silencer (repressor) regions- speed up or slow down speed of transcription |
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do promoter region mutations usually increase or decrease amount of gene transcribed?
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usually highly decrease
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2 things that need to happen for the LAC operon to work
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CAP transcription factor is inducer, and presence of lactose pulls off repressor in operator region
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where are rRNA, mRNA, and tRNA synthesized?
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rRNA in nucleolus, mRNA and tRNA in nucleoplasm
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alpha amanitin of death cap mushroom inhibits
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RNA pol II
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Eukaryotes:
which RNAs make rRNA, mRNA, and tRNA? Prokaryotes? |
RNAs correspond to how they are used
RNA pol 1- rRNA RNA pol 2- mRNA RNA pol 3- tRNA for Prokaryotes, only 1 RNA pol |
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2 ways to stop prokaryotic transcription
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rho factor
GC region that causes loop, followed by uracil region |
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what is at 3' end of tRNA?
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CCA
with highly modified cases for aminoacyl-tRNA binding |
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what antibiotic class inhibits attachment of aminoacyl tRNA to ribosomal 30S subunit?
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Tetracyclines
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what enzyme scrutinizes the amino acid before binding it to the tRNA?
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aminoacyl tRNA synthetase
once bond is formed, has energy for peptide bond formation |
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what is only ribosomal species that has thymidine
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tRNA
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where are ribosomes synthesized?
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nucleus, then transported out into cytoplasm
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what antibiotic inhibits formation of ribosomal complex by blocking 30S subunit?
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aminoglycosides
(remember only aminoglycosides and tetracylines work at 30S) |
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2 antibiotics that inhibit 50s peptidyltranferase
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inhibit peptidyltransferase (ribozyme)
chloramphenicol streptogramins |
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3 antibiotics that inhibit 50S translocation
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clindamycin
macrolides linezolid |
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what enzyme catalyzes peptide bond formation during protein synethesis
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peptidyltransferase (ribozyme)
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