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88 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
nerves that conduct:
erection
emission
ejaculation
erection- parasympathetic (pelvic nerve)
NO erects
NE flaccidifies
emission (symp) - hypogastric
ejaculation (somatic and visceral nerves) - pudendal
if stop spermatogenesis at Meiosis 1, will accumulate what sperm stage? Meiosis 2?
Meiosis 1- will accumulate primary spermatocytes (have crossed blood testis barrier, but can't divide)

Meiosis 2- will accumulated secondary spermatocytes (cant go to spermatids)
what is growth complication of exogenous testosterone? lipid complication?
can close epiphyseal plates (by peripheral conversion to estrogen)

causes increased LDL, decreased HDL
ketoconazole vs spironolactone mech for use against hirsutism
ketoconazole- inhibits steroid synthesis (by inhibiting desmloase)

spironolactone- inhibits steroid binding
what lab must be corrected if using 5-alpha reductase inhibitors?
it reduces PSA levels by about 50%, so must double the PSA level to get actual value
if have increase in total PSA but decrease in fraction of free PSA, indicates
prostatic adenocarcinoma
prostatis/epididymitis treatment if under 35? if over 35?
under 35, think gonorrhea/chlamydia - ceftriaxone

if over 35, think GI bug (e.coli, klebsiella, serratia, etc.) - fluoroquinolone or TMP-SMX
torsion vs. epididymitis:
which will have some relief if you support the scrotom?
epiditimitis
what testicular tumor can present with gynecomastia in men
Leydig cell tumor (can also present as precocious puberty in boys)
testicular tumor(s) that can have elevated AFP
yolk sac, embryonal tumor
testicular tumors that can present with elevated bHCG
choriocarcinoma, embryonal
most common testicular tumor in kids under 3
yolk sac tumor
most common testicular tumor in men over 60
testicular lymphoma
testicular tumor with alveolar or tubular appearance with papillary projections
embryonal tumor
what testicular tumor has glomeruli-looking structures
yolk sac (schiller-duval bodies), (both yolk and glomeruli are in a sac)
testicular tumor with cytoplasmic crystals
Leydig cell tumor
what testicular tumor has fried egg appearance?
Seminoma (like oligodendrocytes, koilocytes)
varicoele vs. hydrocele vs. spermatocele
varicocele- dilation of pampiniform plexus (bag of worms)
hydrocele- fluid accumulation from incomplete closure of processus vaginalis
spermatocele- dilation of epididymal duct
gray, crusty plaque on penis is? risk of
bowen's disease

can progress to ssc (<10%)
sildenafil side effecs
headache
flushing dyspepsia
blue-green color blindness (no blue-green color for little blue pill)

hypotension with nitrates
how treat lithium-induced nephrogenic DI
amiloride and HCTZ

(amiloride works at same channels as lithium, inhibits it)
metoclopramide mech, use, side effect
inhibits D2 receptors

gastroparesis

parkinsonian symptoms
cyclin function?
how is it degraded?
cyclins bind to CDKs, they active and the complex phosphorylates proteins to drive cell cycle

degraded by ubiquitin protein ligase
what is cyclin D pathway in G1-->S that allows replication?
cyclin D--> cyclinD:CDK4 complex dissociates Rb from E2F

E2f unbound, and cell components become available for replication
what is cyclin E function?
activates CDK2 to allow G1--> S phase
what is cyclin B function?
binds to CDK2, causes progression to meoitic prophase
what is cyclin A function?
binds to CDK1, causes nuclear lamin degredation (nuclear envelope degredation)
p53 and Rb inhibit at what point(s)?
Rb- G1--> S

p53- G1-->S
and G2-->M
what is required for transport of nuclear proteins into and out of the nucleaus?
Nuclear localization sequence

4-8 AAs rich in lysine, proline, arginine (+ charges) that are recognized by nuclear pore and transported in/out by ATPase

-ex. are histones
what are Nissl bodies and where are they located?
they are RER located in DENDRITES of neurons
where are substances synthesized that will be secreted out of the cell? intracellular substance and organellar proteins?
RER- where stuff secreted out of cell is made (mucus, abs, etc)

free ribosomes- where cytosolic and organellar proteins are made
what are heat shock proteins?
chaperones that help "rescue" heat stressed proteins and try to keep them from unfolding

if proteins do become misfolded, heat shock proteins ubiquinate them for degredation (ubiquitin is also a heat shock protein)
2 smooth ER functions
steroid synthesis (ex in adrenal medulla)

drug detoxification (hepatocytes)
The Golgi adds sugars to what proteins?
N-oligosaccharide to Asparagine

O-oligosaccharide to Serine and Threonine
where is mannose-6-phosphate added to proteins
in golgi
sulfation of sugars and tyrosine occurs where
in golgi
COPI and COPII

which is retrograde transport, anterograde
COPI- 1st generation cops are retro (golgi--> ER)

COPII- 2nd generation cops are forward thinking (RER--> golgi)
what protein regulates receptor-mediated endocytosis, what is its destination, and what is an example
clathrin (also mediated trans golgi secretion to lysosome)

molecule binds receptor on membrane, adaptin binds receptor and clathrin, vesicle made, clathrin comes off while vesicle goes to endosome for lysosomal fusion and degredation of cargo carrier components

ex. LDL uptake for cholesterol
microtubule subunit structure

3 fxns
subunit- alpha and beta tubulin with 2 GTP bound

cilia/flagella (with dynein/kinesin motors for movement)
mitotic spindles
neuronal transport (dynein and kinesin motors)
where do dynein arms bind?
bind to a peripheral doublet of the 9 outside doublets in the ciliary 9+2 arrangement of microtubules. link doublets for ciliary movement (defect is kartageners)
what stains are used for each intermediate filament type?
vimentin
desmin
GFAP
neurofilaments
peripherin
vimentin- connective tissue
desmin- cytokeratin
GFAP- neuroglia
neurofilaments- neurons
peripherin- neurons
microvilli and adherens junctions are both composed of
actin
3 pathways corticosteroids inhibit?
inhibit phospholipase A2 (arachadonic acid pathway)

inhibit collagen synthesis

inhibit apoptosis
what are the functions of the cyclooxygenase products?
Prostacyclins (3)
Prostaglandins (4)
Thromboxane A2 (2)
Prostacyclins (PGI2)- vasodilate, decrease platelet aggregation, decrease uterine tone

prostaglandins (PGE2)- vasodilate, increase pain, increase temp, increase uterine tone (this is why NSAIDs work as tocolytics)

Thromboxane A2- vasoconstriction, platelet aggregation
what are lipoxygenase product fxns?

what drug blocks the enzyme? what drug blocks production of products?
LTB4- PMN chemotaxis

others- bronchocontstriction

lipooxygenase inhibitor - Zileuton (e for enzyme)

block bronchoconstrictive leukotriene products- zafirlukast and monetleukast
what is starting material for phospholipase A2, product, and what inhibits it
starting product- phophatidylinositol

end product- arachadonic acid

inhibited by corticosteroids
Tyrosine Kinase receptors:
what is first step after ligand binding?
2 transmembrane unit compositions, which do insulin/IGF-1 use?
autophosphorylation of self to activate downstream effects

growth factors- 1 pass transmembrane protein

Insulin and IGF-1- have 2 alpha units that bind ligand, 2 beta units that autophosphorylate each other
downstream pathways used by tyrosine kinase receptors
RAS pathway

phospholipase C pathway
cartilege type pneumonic
Strong, Slippery, Bloody BM
collagen synthesis:
what parts take place in:
RER
ER
outside
RER- glycine-X-Y formation
ER- hydroxylation (vit. C), glycosylation (of lysine residues)
outside- cleavage (to tropocollagen), crosslinking (of lysine-hydroxylysine)
osteogenesis imperfecta:
Ryan probably has problems with what? what is probably misformed?
hearing (abnormal middle ear bones, always close to us when talking)

teeth (abnormal dentin, didn't see much of his teeth)
Alport pneumonic
type IV collagen defect
"Can't see, can't pee, can't hear"

nephritis, hearing problems, ocular problems
elastin is rich in what AAs
proline and glycine
what type of collagen is found in cornea, fascia, and late wound repair?
type 1

(also found in dentin, bone, tendon, skin)
Intrinsic apoptosis pathway is regulated by what protein?

when it is lost, what protein is released, and activates what caspase?
bcl-2 resides on mitochondrial membrane and regulates apoptosis

in stress, bcl-2 is replaced by other proteins, cytochrome c is released and activates CASPASE 9
what are 2 components to caspases represented in its name?
has a Cysteine protease that cleaves after ASPartic acid residues
what is signal for extrinsic apoptosis? what is caspase involved?

what is function of FLIP?
Fas binds to Fas-Ligand, 3 or more make death domain that cleaves procaspase 8 to CASPASE 8

flip inhibits cleavage of procaspase 8 (antiapoptotic)
pleural effusions cause what type of necrosis
liquefactive
liver and kidney produce what type of necrosis
coagulative
is nuclear chromatin clumping reversible or irreversible change?
ribosomal detachment?
both reversible
is nuclear basophilia (pyknosis) reversible or irreversible?
irreversible (apoptosis)
meissner's corpuscle fxn?
pacinian corpuscle function?
merkels disk?
Adelta fibers?
C fibers
meissner's- dynamic touch
pacinian- pressure and vibration
merkels- static touch (in hair follicles)
Adelta fibers- pricking pain, cold
C fibers- burning/dull pain/itch, warmth
what is your main inhibitory transmitter in the brain?
in the spinal cord/PNS?
brain- GABA (from glutamine)

spinal cord/PNS- glycine
what hypothalamic nuclei regulate cooling and parasympathetic (2)?

heating and sympathetic?

stimulates hunger?

releases hormones affecting anterior pituitary?
cooling/parasympathetic- anterior and preoptic

heating and sympathetic- posterior and lateral

hunger- lateral

ant. pituitary release- preoptic
what hypothalamic nucleus stimulates savage behavior and obesity?
dorsomedial
leptin inhibits which hypothalamic nuclei?

stimulates which?
inhibits lateral

stimulates ventromedial
in cerebellum, dentate nucleus is most lateral or medial?

fastigial is most lateral or medial?
dentate most lateral

fastigial most medial
which cerebellar peduncle is output?
superior cerebellar peduncle
label from medial to lateral the cerebellar regions:
spinocerebellar
vestibulocerebellar
cerebrocerebellar
just as they are, from medial to lateral
chronic alcohol affects what part of cerebellum?
anterior portion of vermis
(causes a broad-based, staggering gait)
2 most common places of hypertensive stroke
Thalamus and basal ganglia
label which parts of basal ganglia are inhibitory or promovement:
globus pallidus external segment
globus pallidus internal segment
subthalamic nucleus
thalamus
globus pallidus external segment- + (inhibits globus pallidus internal segment and subthalamic nucleus)

globus pallidus internal segment- (-) (inhibits thalamus)

subthalamic nucleus- (-) (inhibits thalamus)

thalamus- + (promovement)
how does substantia nigra pars compacta influence the direct and indirect pathways of striatum
stimulates direct (excitatory) pathway

inhibits indirect (inhibitory) pathway

striatum is caudate and putamen
Wilson's disease can cause parkinsonian'like symptoms because of copper damage in what brain region
putamen
2 COMT inhibitors
entacapone
tolcapone

for parkinsons
deep brain stimulation for parkinsons affects what structure?
subthalamic nucleus
huntington's CAG pneumonic
Caudate loses ACh and GABA
what causes a pure motor lesion?
a pure sensory lesion?
pure motor- posterior limb of the internal capsule

pure sensory- VPL or VPM of thalamus
lesion of not being able to write, calculate, distinguish fingers on the hand, know left from right indicates lesion where
left parietal lobe
top 4 adult brain tumors
metastases
glioblastoma multiforme
meningioma
schwannoma
brain tumor with spindle cells that have psammoma bodies, arises from what cell type?
Meningioma- arises from arachnoid cells
a frontal lobe tumor with possible calcification?
oligodendrocytes (will have "chicken wire" "fried egg" appearance on histo)
brain tumor with small blue cells and rosette
medulloblastoma

(if it was in kindey, rosette would indicate neuroblastoma, also a PNET tumor)
which brain tumor associated with APC gene
medulloblastoma (Turcot Syndrome, will have colon cancer too)
which brain tumor has perivascular pseudorosette?
ependymoma
most common childhood supratentorial tumor
craniopharyngeoma (can be calcified)
what antineoplastic drug class best for brain tumors
nitrosoureas
brain tumor with foamy cells
hemangioblastoma