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459 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
5 radiopacities
air
fat
water
bone
metal
define primary center of ossificiation
1st site where mineralization occurs, usually at center of long bone, marked by nutrient foramen
define secondary centers of ossificiation
later sites of mineralization (epiphyses, apophyses), ex. supraglenoid tubercle
What spinal cord segments contribute to brachial plexus?
C6, C7, C8, T1, T2
What spinal cord segments contribute to lumbosacral plexus?
L4, L5, L6, L7, S1, S2, S3
What is the key nerve which allows animal to bear weight on thoracic limb?
radial n.
What is the key nerve which allows animal to bear weight on pelvic limb?
femoral n.
What do the superficial cervical lymph nodes drain?
superficial neck, lymph nodes of head, most of thoracic limb, craniodorsal thoracic wall
What do the axillary lymph nodes drain?
medial proximal thoracic limb, cranial mammae, accessory axillary ln (if present)
What do the popliteal lymph nodes drain?
distal pelvic limb
What do the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain?
ventral abdomen, caudal mammae, genitalia, medial pelvic limb
What is the blood supply to the diaphragm?
caudal phrenic a.
What is the blood supply to the liver?
hepatic branches of hepatic a.
What is the blood supply to the lesser curvature of the stomach?
R & L gastric aa.
What is the blood supply to the greater curvature of the stomach?
R & L gastroepiploic aa.
What is the blood supply to the descending duodenum?
cranial & caudal pancreaticoduodenal aa.
What is the blood supply to the jejunum?
jejunal aa.
What is the blood supply to the ileum?
antimesenteric branch of cecal a., ileal a.
What is the blood supply to the colon?
ileocolic a.
What is the blood supply to the rectum?
cranial rectal a.
What is the blood supply to the pancreas?
cranial & caudal pancreaticoduodenal aa.
What is the blood supply to the kidneys?
renal aa.
What is the blood supply to the testes?
testicular aa.
What is the blood supply to the ovaries/uterus?
ovarian aa.
define the line of pleural reflection & its importance
8th to 9th costal arch curving dorsally to last rib


line along which costal pleural is reflected to become diaphragmatic pleura

must be cranial to line to enter thoracic cavity (for thoracocentesis)
where would you perform thoracocentesis in a dog & cat?
enter costodiaphragmatic recess: where costal & diaphragmatic pleura contact w/o intervening lung

do both sides

dog: 7th or 8th ICS at CCJ

cat: 8th ICS at CCJ
What do the mediastinal lymph nodes drain?
thoracic viscera & wall
What do the tracheobronchial lymph nodes drain?
lungs
Where is the cardiac notch & what is it used for?
site for cardiac puncture (R ventricle not covered b’twn cranial & middle lung lobes)

R side: 4th to 5th ICS close to sternum (ventral)
What are the points of maximal intensity for the 4 heart valves?
pulmonic: L 3rd ICS at CCJ
aortic: L 4th ICS above CCJ
left AV: L 5th ICS at CCJ
right AV: R 4th ICS at CCJ
What is the approximate location of the heart in the dog & cat?
in middle mediastinum, to L of midline

dog: 3rd-6th ICS

cat: 4th-7th ICS
What is the pathogenesis of PDA?
shunt from L to R side of heart; blood from higher pressure aorta continuously shunted to main pulmonary

main pulmonary a. --> ↑ vol. of blood to lungs --> pulmonary edema, volume overload to L side of heart
What is happening with the heart sounds S1 (lub) & S2 (dub)?
S1: AV valves closing

S2: aortic & pulmonic valves closing
What is the heart doing during systole?
ventricles are contracting & ejecting blood
What is the heart doing during diastole?
ventricles are relaxing & filling
What is meant by valvular stenosis & insufficiency (regurgitation)?
stenosis: valve doesn’t OPEN completely

insufficiency (regurgitation): valve doesn’t CLOSE tightly
What are the attachments of the broad ligament?
female repro tract to dorsolateral body wall
What is the round ligament of females?
lateral free edge of mesometrium (uterus, cervix, cranial vagina to body wall)
What are the attachments of the suspensory ligament?
ovary to body wall
What are the attachments of the proper ligament?
ovary to uterine horn
What are the contents of the spermatic cord?
ductus deferens & blood supply

testicular a,v,n (pampiniform plexus)

lymphatic drainage of testes

CT

vaginal tunic (NOT cremaster m.)
What are the clinical signs of a LMN lesion?
hyporeflexia --> areflexia

hypotonia --> atonia

paresis --> flaccid paralysis
What are the clinical signs of an UMN lesion?
hyperreflexia --> clonus

hypertonia --> tetany

spastic paresis --> paralysis
What are the clinical signs of a cerebellar lesion?
dysmetria
hypertonia
intention tremors
ataxia
What are the clinical signs of a vestibular lesion?
nystagmus
head tilt
ataxia
What are the 3 layers of meninges, from external to internal?
dura mater
arachnoid
pia mater
What are the 5 components required for a reflex to occur?
receptor
sensory neuron
interneuron
motor neuron
target
What signs would be expected with a spinal cord lesion in segments C1-C5?
normal to UMN signs to forelimbs, hindlimbs
What signs would be expected with a spinal cord lesion in segments C6-T2?
LMN signs to forelimbs; normal to UMN sings to hindlimbs
What signs would be expected with a spinal cord lesion in segments T3-L3?
forelimbs normal; normal to UMN sings to hindlimbs
What signs would be expected with a spinal cord lesion in segments L4-S3?
forelimbs normal; LMN signs to hindlimbs, anus
What signs would be expected with a spinal cord lesion in segments Cd1-Cd5?
forelimbs, hindlimbs normal; LMN signs to tail
What are the 5 divisions of the brain?
telencephalon (cerebrum)
diencephalon
mesencephalon (mid-brain)
metencephalon (pons, cerebellum)
myelencephalon (medulla oblongata)
What divisions of the brain make up the brain stem?
diencephalon, mesencephalon, pons, myelencephalon
What is the vertebral formula for the dog & cat?
C7 T13 L7 S3 Cd18-20
What are the 2 main parts of an intervertebral disk?
annulus fibrosis: outer circumferential collagneous fibers

nucleous pulposus: inner gelatinous core
What is the name, function, and innervation of cranial nerve I?
olfactory

sensory

smell
What is the name, function, and innervation of cranial nerve II?
optic

sensory

sight
What is the name, function, and innervation of cranial nerve III?
oculomotor

sensory & motor

extraocular mm., autonomic motor to iris & ciliary body mm.
What is the name, function, and innervation of cranial nerve IV?
trochlear

motor

dorsal oblique m. (eye)
What is the name, function, and innervation of cranial nerve V?
trigeminal

sensory & motor

sensory to head, motor to muscles of mastication
What is the name, function, and innervation of cranial nerve VI?
abducens

motor

lateral rectus, retractor bulbi mm. (eye)
What is the name, function, and innervation of cranial nerve VII?
facial

sensory & motor

sensory for taste, concave surface of pinna
motor to facial mm.
autonomic motor to some salivary & lacrimal glands
What is the name, function, and innervation of cranial nerve VIII?
vestibulocochlear

sensory

hearing, equilibrium
What is the name, function, and innervation of cranial nerve IX?
glossopharyngeal

sensory & motor

sensory to pharynx for taste
motor to pharyngeal mm.
autonomic motor to salivary glands
What is the name, function, and innervation of cranial nerve X?
vagus

sensory & motor

sensory to tongue for taste; to pharynx, esophagus, GI tract
motor to mm. of pharynx, esophagus, larynx
autonomic motor to heart, lungs, gut
What is the name, function, and innervation of cranial nerve XI?
accessory

motor

muscles of thoracic limb
What is the name, function, and innervation of cranial nerve XII?
hypoglossal

motor

tongue mm.
What are the 3 branches of CN V?
CN V: trigeminal n.

maxillary, mandibular, ophthalmic nn.
What is the dental formula for dogs - DECIDUOUS teeth?
I 3/3, C 1/1, P 3/3
What is the dental formula for dogs - PERMANENT teeth?
I 3/3, C 1/1, P 4/4, M 2/3
What is the dental formula for cats - DECIDUOUS teeth?
I 3/3, C 1/1, P 3/2
What is the dental formula for cats - PERMANENT teeth?
I 3/3, C 1/1, P 3/2, M 1/1
How many roots do permanent teeth have in the dog?
incisors, canines: 1 root

Upper: P1 has 1 root, P2, P3 have 2 roots, P4, M1, M2 have 3 roots
(1 has 1, 2 have 2, 3 have 3)

Lower: P1 has 1 root, P2, P3, P4, M1, M2 have 2 roots, M3 has 1 root
(1st & last have 1, rest have 2)
How many roots do permanent teeth have in the cat?
incisors, canines: 1 root

Upper: P2 has 1 root, P3 has 2 roots, P4 has 3 roots, M1 has 2 roots
(1, 2, 3, 2)

Lower: All have 2 roots
What is the vector for Ehrlichia canis & what type of host cell does it infect?
vector: brown dog tick (Rhipicephalus sanguines)

infects monocytes
What is the agent that causes Lyme dz & what is its vector?
Borrelia burgodorferi

deer tick (Ixodes scapularis)
What is the agent that causes Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever & what is its vector?
Rickettsia rickettsii

American dog tick (Dermacentor variablis)
What agent causes cat scratch disease & what is the likely vector?
Bartonella henselae

vector: flea
What are 3 primary causative agent of cutaneous dermatophytosis in dogs & cats?
1. Microsporum canis (dog, cat)
2. Microsporum gypseum (dog; does NOT fluoresce)
3. Trichophyton mentagrophytes (cat)
What are the 3 main types of cartilage?
hyaline cartilage

elastic cartilage

fibrocartilage
Which cells are responsible for the formation of bone?
osteoblasts
Which cells degrade bone?
osteoclasts
What is intramembranous ossification?
replacement of loose CT w/ bone
What is endochondrial ossification?
rreplacement of preformed hyaline cartilage model w/ bone
What type of bone is found in the adult skeleton?
lamellar (layered)

subdivided into compact (cortical) & spongy (cancellous)
What is the immature type of bone that is later replaced in the adult?
woven bone
What is the name for an immature red blood cell?
reticulocyte
What is the function of a ribosome?
translate mRNA into protein
What is the function of the rough endoplasmic reticulum?
segregates proteins made by ribosomes that will be exported from cell
What is the function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
synth. of steroid hormones & lipoproteins
What is the function of the Golgi complex?
modifies & packages newly translated proteins

membrane trafficking
What is the function of a lysosome?
recycling center of cell

protein metabolism

destruction of ingested material
What is the function of the mitochondria?
center or energy production
What is the most common cell type in connective tissue & what is its function?
fibroblast

synthesis of CT fibers & ground substance
What is the organizational scheme of the GI tract layers, starting w/ most internal layer?
mucosa
muscularis mucosa
submucosa
muscularis
adventitia (sometimes bounded by serosa)
What are the layers of the epidermis, starting w/ most superficial layer?
stratum corneum
stratum lucidum
stratum granulosum
stratum spinosum
stratum basale
What is meant by viremic spread of a virus?
spread via the bloodstream
What is a modified live vaccine?
attenuated virus (not pathogenic for vaccinated animal) that retains antigenicity & ability to replicate
What are 4 advantages of modified live vaccines?
-stimulate immunity comparable to natural infection
-efficient stimulators of local & systemic immunity (IgA, IgG, T cells)
-single dose required (replication of virus amplifies dose)
-may be applied by natural route, thus stimulating local immunity
What are 3 disadvantages of modified live vaccines?
-may cause rxn (dz) d/t insufficient attenuation
-possible reversion to virulence
-unstable (may be inactivated by heat, disinfectant, UV)
What are killed (inactivated) vaccines?
composed of viruses that are cultivated in cell culture or embryonated eggs & treated w/ chemicals or by physical means (heat, irradiation, etc.) to destroy infectivity
What are 2 advantages of killed vaccines?
-safe
-stable
What are 4 disadvantages of killed vaccines?
-multiple doses required (ex. RV)
-protection usually of shorter duration than w/ MLV
-poor stimulators of IgA, T cell immunity
-often require adjuvants to increase immunogenicity
What is a subunit vaccine?
composed of viral capsid or envelope proteins instead of intact virions
At what age do puppies & kittens lose their passively acquired Ab's from mom?
2-3 months
What is a recombinant DNA subunit vaccine?
gene for protective antigen from virus inserted into DNA of cloning vectors (bacteriophages, plasmids)

protective antigen: surface protein of virus that elicits production of Ab’s &/or T cells that provide protective immunity
What are 5 advantages of recombinant DNA subunit vaccines?
-safe: lack virulence & lack ability to revert to virulence
-effective: good stimulators of IgG, IgA, & T cell responses
-don’t produce potentially severe rxns
-can make vaccines for viruses that can’t be propagated in cell culture or eggs
-no adjuvant needed
What is a gene deleted vaccine?
removal of certain viral genes that promote virulence w/out harming replication & immunogenic properties of virus
What is a virus vectored vaccine?
DNA copies of viral genes coding for protective antigen inserted into DNA of other viruses (cloning vectors, ex. vaccinia virus)
What is an important fact about corona viruses that may make dx difficult?
antigenic cross-reactivity:

several viruses infect several species & induce Ab’s which may exacerbate dz by facilitating infection of MP’s
-ex. cats can be infected w. canine CV (CCV) & transmissible gastroenteritis virus (TGEV) of pigs

some viruses are indistinguishable antigenically, making it hard to interpret serum Ab titers
-(ex. FIPV vs. FECV)
What percentage of the healthy cat population have Ab's against FIP/FECV (feline enteric corona virus)?
10-40%
What is the pathogenesis of FIP if no cell mediated immune response occurs?
WET form

intense inflammation, complement fixation --> vessel wall damage --> peritoneal, pleural effusion
What is the pathogenesis of FIP w/ a partial cell mediated immune response?
DRY form

weak monocyte & T cell response --> granulomas
What is the pathogenesis of FIP w/ an effective cell mediated immune response?
strong monocyte & T cell response --> NO clinical dz
What type of virus is canine distemper?
paramyxovirus
What determines the dz outcome in canine distemper?
host immune response
What is the outcome of canine distemper with an excellent (high Ab) response?
inapparent infection
What is the outcome of canine distemper with a moderate (low Ab) response?
mild illness

virus cleared from periphery, but persists in CNS --> neuro signs 1-2 mo. post infection --> usually death
What is the outcome of canine distemper with a poor (no Ab) response?
severe dz & death
What are the 3 possible scenarios upon infection w/ feline leukemia virus?
1. cat mounts immune response, develops neutralizing Ab & becomes resistant to future infection (~40%)
2. after initial period of viremia & shedding, cat harbors virus in latent form & becomes a latent carrier: neither recovered nor acutely infected, susceptible to clinical dz (~30%)
3. cat becomes persistently viremic & sheds virus (83% die w/in 3 yrs)
How is feline leukemia virus transmitted?
gains entry (primarily via saliva) thru membranes of nose, eyes, resp. tract

can also be transmitted in milk, by blood transfusions, perhaps across the placenta, perhaps by fleas
What is the efficacy of the vaccine for feline leukemia virus?
approx. 80%
What is the series of steps in an ELISA testing for a virus?
-used to detect soluble viral proteins in clinical specimens such as plasma, urine, ocular secretions (indirect: detects Ab)

-specific Ab absorbed to surface of test plate
-add sample containing suspected virus (if viral Ag present, will bind absorbed Ab)
- rinse
- add specific antiviral Ab labeled w/ enzyme
- rinse
- add substrate for enzyme
- color change = sample positive for Ag
How is paired serum serology used to dx viral infections?
- serum collected from patient during acute clinical phase of dz
- 2-3 wks later, “convalescent” serum sample obtained
- 4 fold rise or more ↑ in Ab titer from acute to convalescence is considered evidence of recent infection w/ test agent
What is the pathogenesis of rabies from animal bite to virus shedding in saliva?
animal bite --> virus replication in myocytes --> spreads up nerves --> virus replication in CNS --> spreads down nerves --> infection of salivary glands, cornea, etc. --> excreted in saliva
What is the incubation period for rabies & what is the significance of this for tx?
incubation period: 2 wks – 1 yr (avg. 3-8 wks)

highly susceptible to Ab during incubation period (BEFORE entry into nerves)
When do animals w/ rabies start shedding virus, and what is the clinical course (length) of the dz?
•virus shedding: ~5 days before onset of clinical signs

•clinical course: 5-10 days (onset of signs --> death)
What are the 2 forms of rabies & what are the associated clinical signs?
o furious form: aggression, viciousness, roaming, loss of fear of man & other animals, altered vocalization, excessive salivation

o dumb form: paralysis of head & neck mm.  inability to swallow, altered vocalization, excessive salivation, coma, respiratory arrest
What are the main reservoirs for rabies in US?
wild carnivores (skunk: central US, fox, raccoon: eastern US, coyote)

insectivorous bats
How is rabies diagnosed?
fluorescent antibody test on brain tissue: current method choice
- will detect infection in up to 98% of affected animals

histopathology: detection of intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies (Negri bodies)
- formed late during course of infection, so animal may die prior to their formation


also virus isolation, PCR (saliva, cornea, brain)
How is FIV transmitted?
fighting (bites): males > females
What are some clinical signs assoc. with FIV infection?
lymphadenopathy, fever, gingivitis, weight loss, chronic rhinitis, anemia, chronic dermatitis, neurological signs, uveitis, persistent diarrhea, abortion
What is the prognosis of cats w/ FIV?
variable: not all cats develop clinical signs
What fact makes prevention of canine adenovirus easier?
immunity for CAV-1 & CAV-2 is cross-protective
What is the pathogenesis & clinical signs of canine adenovirus type 1 (CAV-1), infectious canine hepatitis?
severe systemic dz resulting in damage to endothelium, Kupffer cells, hepatocytes

clinical signs: edema, hemorrhage, hepatitis

blue eye: anterior uveitis & corneal edema that develops 7-10 days after resolution of clinical signs (damage due to immune complexes)
What signs are associated w/ canine adenovirus type 2 (CAV-2)?
uncomplicated infections cause mild resp. dz

severe infections result from 2° infection w/ bacteria (Bordatella, Mycoplasma) --> kennel cough (fatal pneumonia may occur)
What is the tropism of parvoviruses?
can only replicate in mitotically active cells (GI tract, bone marrow, cells of fetus & neonate)
How does feline panleukopenia differ in newborn kittens vs. older kittens?
newborn kittens (-2 to 2 wks): thymus & cerebellum most severely affected (cerebellar hypoplasia)

older kittens: virus replicates in lymphoid tissue of oropharynx, intestinal crypts, bone marrow
How is canine parvovirus transmitted & what aspect of the virus makes it difficult to eradicate?
transmission: fecal-oral (shed in high titers in excretions in acutely infected dogs)

virus is very environmentally resistant: requires good disinfection (ex. 1/40 dilution of bleach)
What is the result of canine herpesvirus infection in dogs > 3 wks of age vs. pups < 3 wks. old born to seronegative moms?
mild resp. dz & genital infection in dogs > 3 wks

fatal, systemic infection in pups < 3 wks born to seronegative mothers
- painful crying, anorexia, hemorrhages in viscera, death w/in 48 hrs
How is canine herpes virus transmitted to puppies?
-seronegative bitch transmits virus to pups during period 3 wks before to 3 wks after parturition (contact w/ infected genital tract, or postnatal via resp. secretions)
-will not occur w/ subsequent pregnancies in same bitch (will have Abs)
What is another name for feline herpesvirus 1?
feline viral rhinotracheitis
What systems are generally affected by feline herpes virus 1 (FVR)?
- causes resp. & ocular dz in young cats
- may cause abortion
- recrudescence of virus in cornea --> keratitis, potential blindness
What is the pathogenesis of herpesviridae (incl. recrudescence)?
1º infection --> spread by viremia & nerve tracts --> latent infection in ganglia --> reactivation due to stress factors --> intermittent shedding +/- recrudescence (2º episodes of dz)
What is the gestation period for dogs?
~65 days (58-68 d.)
What is the gestation period for cats?
64-69 days
What are the methods for diagnosing pregnancy & at what periods of gestation can they be used?
abdominal palpation: 20-30 days or after 50 days

radiography
- 21-42 days: may detect fluid filled uterine horns
- after day 42: may detect varying degrees of fetal ossification

ultrasound
- 16-20 days: fetal vesicles can be visualized w/in uterine horns
- after 24 days: fetal heart beats can be detected
What are the 4 extraembryonic membranes?
amnion
chorion
yolk sac
allantois
What type of placenta do dogs & cats have, based on degree of uterine invasion & shape?
zonary, deciduate (endotheliochorial)

fetal chorion contacts uterine capillary wall
What is teratology?
the study of abnormal development
What are 4 examples of acyanotic heart defects (blood is sufficiently oxygenated)?
pulmonic stenosis
aortic stenosis
interventricular septal defect (IVSD)
interatrial septal defect
What are the 4 defects combined in tetralogy of Fallot?
pulmonic stenosis
IV septal defect
overriding aorta: blood from both ventricles can get into aorta
R ventricular hypertrophy
What are some development GI defects?
congenital megaesophagus
esophageal achalasia
esophageal diverticulum
intestinal stenosis & atresia
persistent ileal (Meckel's) diverticulum
congential umbilical hernia
omphalocele
urorectal fistula
atresia ani
What is spina bifida?
defect in fusion of vertebral arches that allows variable degree of protrusion of spinal cord & meninges
What is cranial bifida?
cleft in skull that allows a variable degree of protrusion of cerebral tissue, fluid, & meninges (signs depend on region involved & extent of protrusion)
What is the most common congential CNS defect?
hydrocephalus
What are some clinical signs of cleft palate?
difficulty suckling: milk runs out of nose, aspiration pneumonia
What is Collie eye anomaly?
thinning of choroid & sclera, resulting in retinal degeneration & detachment
What is microphthamia & what are some potential causes?
very small eye due to insufficient growth of optic vesicle

unilateral of bilateral

can be caused by griseofulvin in kittens, vit. A deficiency in pigs, dogs, cattle
What are some patient factors associated w/ congenital deafness? What is the usual cause?
blue eyes
merle pigmentation
albinism
Dalmatians

cochlear duct degeneration
What are the names for lateral, dorsal,& ventral spinal deviations, & for an abnormal twisting of the cervical spine?
- scoliolis: lateral
- kyphosis: dorsal
- lordosis: ventral
- torticollis (“wryneck”): abnormal twisting of cervical vertebrae
What is cervical stenotic myelopathy & what breeds of dogs are predisposed & what vertebrae?
trauma caused to spinal cord in this area --> ataxia (“wobblers”)

- basset hounds (C2-C3 or C3-C4)
- dobermans/great danes (C5-C7)
What is chondroplasia & what breeds are affected?
retarded growth & ossification of long bones --> shortened bones, dwarfism

malamutes, dachshunds, Pekingese, basset hounds
What are carpus valgus & carpus varus?
angular limb defects

- carpus valgus: distal limb deviated laterally (“knock kneed”)
- carpus varus: distal limb deviated medially (“bow legged”)
What is an ectopic ureter?
ureter has abnormal termination, usually into urethra or vagina instead of bladder --> urine dribbling
What is the most common development limb defect in animals and how does it occur?
arthrogryposis: contracted joints, often in combo w/ facial & spinal defects

1º neuromuscular defect --> abnormal joint formation --> ankylosis (fixation of joints)
What is opsonization?
coating of surface of a pathogen or other particle w/ any molecule that makes its more readily ingested by phagocytes
What is humoral immunity?
immunity that is mediated by antibodies
What is innate immunity?
the host defense mechanisms that act from the start of an infection & do not adapt to a particular pathogen
What is an epitope?
particular part of Ag bound by Ig or T cell receptor
What is the 1st antibody isotype made after exposure to antigen?
IgM
What is the major immunoglobulin in secretions (sweat, saliva, mucus, tears, milk)?
IgA
Which immunoglobulin is found attached to mast cell & basophil mems?
IgE
Which is the smallest immunoglobulin, found in high conc. in serum, lymph, CSF?
IgG
What are the effector cells of innate immunity?
neutrophils, macrophages, natural killer cells
What are the effector cells of acquired immunity?
B & T lymphocytes
What does protein electrophoresis do?
allows separation of proteins based on charge
What type of immune response is stimulated by extracellular pathogens, & what is the major cell type involved?
humoral immune system

B cells (activated by cytokines to produce Abs)
What is an adjuvant?
substance when mixed w/ Ag, that enhances the immune response
What is the definition of primary lymphoid tissues & what are some examples?
where lymphocytes mature in Ag-recognizing cells

bone marrow: source of all hematopoetic cells, where B cells mature

thymus: where T cells mature
What is the definition of secondary lymphoid tissues & what are some examples?
where immune response is initiated

ex. spleen, lymph nodes, MALT, GALT, BALT, Peyer's patches
What type of immune response is stimulated by intracellular pathogens, & what are the major cell types involved?
cell mediated immune response

T cells
What are the 2 types of T lymphocytes, & what do they do?
cytotoxic T cells: CD8+, kill infected cells

helper T cells: CD4+, produce cytokines that activate B cells
What are the 1st cells at the site of inflammation & why?
neutrophils

respond rapidly to chemotactic factors; present in high numbers in blood
What are the cardinal signs of inflammation?
heat
redness
swelling
pain
loss of function
What cytokine is the major endogenous pyrogen?
interleukin-1 (IL-1)
What type of immune response is promoted by T helper 1 vs. T helper 2 lymphocytes?
TH1: promote cell mediated immunity (response dominated by effector cells)

TH2: promote humoral immunity (response dominated by Abs)
What is determined/detected by an indirect vs. direct ELISA?
indirect: detects serum Ab

direct: detects serum Ag
What type of ELISA test is used for FIV & FelV (indirect or direct)?
FIV: indirect (tests for Ab)

FelV: direct (tests for Ag)
What is a hypersensitivity reaction?
normal immune response to Ag resulting in damage to host
What are some examples of type II hypersensitivity rxn?
transfusion rxns
hemolytic dz of newborn
immune mediated cytopenias (d/t drugs, pathogens)
pemphigus
What is a type III hypersensitivity rxn?
immune complex deposition

immune complexes of certain size deposit in tissue & are trapped
complement activated --> acute inflammation at site of deposition
What are some examples of type III hypersensitivity rxns?
blue eye (dog)
COPD
serum sickness
FIP (wet)
immune complex dz (general)
What are some examples of type IV hypersensitivity reactions?
tuberculin test
contact allergies
FIP (dry)
granulomatous dz
What are some examples of type I hypersensitivity reactions?
anaphylaxis

d/t inhalation of allergen: COPD, asthma
d/t ingestion of allergen: food allergy
atopic dermatitis
intradermal: insect bites, vaccine rxns
What is a type II hypersensitivity rxn?
Ab (IgM or IgG) binds to surface cell Ag --> complement activation, opsonization of target --> lysis of target

target cells:
RBCs --> hemolytic anemia
platelets --> thrombocytopenia
What is a type IV hypersensitivity rxn?
delayed type hypersensitivity

charactizered by mononuclear infiltrate (lymphocytes, MPs)
does NOT involve Ab; overactive cell mediated immune response
What is a type I hypersensitivity rxn?
immediate-type hypersensitivity (sensitization required)

IgE bound to mast cell --> Ag-binding sites on mast cell exposed --> cross-linking of receptors --> degranulation --> release of proinflammatory mediators
What does a direct Coombs test test for?
tests for Abs or complement bound to RBCs (indicative of immune mediated hemolytic anemia)
What does an indirect Coombs test test for?
tests for anti-RBC Abs in serum
What does an anti-nuclear Ab (ANA) test test for?
tests to see if serum contains Abs to a nuclear Ag
What are the 4 stages of anesthesia?
stage of voluntary movement (sedation): from initial drug administration to loss of consciousness
stage of involuntary movement (excitement): from loss of consciousness to establishment of regular breathing pattern
stage of surgical anesthesia: unconsciousness, progressive depression of autonomic reflexes (planes: light, moderate, deep (rapidly controlled by changing vaporizer setting))
medullar collapse: death due to cardio/pulmonary decompensation; may be reversed
What is the MAC (minimum alveolar concentration) of an inhaled anesthetic?
minimum alveolar concentration at which 50% of patients will not purposefully move in response to a standardized noxious stimulus
What is the physical classificaiton scheme (ASA) for an animal undergoing anesthesia?
I: normal healthy patient (usually elective procedure)
II: mild, compensated dz (ex. herniated disc)
III: serious systemic dz w/ compensation (ex. diabetic controlled w/ insulin)
IV: serious decompensating systemic dz (ex. diabetic refractory to drug therapy)
V: moribund, not expected to survive 24 hrs

II-V can be further modified w/ designation of emergency case (ex. III-E)
What is the purpose of a vaporizer on an anesthetic machine?
changes a liquid anesthetic into its vapor & adds a specific amt of vapor to gases being delivered to patient
What is the defining characteristic of a rebreathing (circle) system?
part or all of exhaled gases flow back to patient after extraction of CO2
What is the purpose of the pop-off valve in a rebreathing system?
allows venting of gases to scavenging system to prevent build-up of excessive pressure (must keep open)
What is the formula to determine the minimum size of the resevoir bag for a patient undergoing anesthesia?
minimum size: 5 x 15 ml x body wt (kg) = vol (L)
What is the defining characteristic of a non-rebreathing system & what set of patients is this indicated for?
uses no chemical absorbent for CO2 – depends on high fresh gas flow rates to flush out exhaled CO2

used in patients weighing < 8 kg
Define the normal ranges for the following arterial blood gas parameters:

a. pH
b. paO2
c. paCO2
d. HCO3-
a. 7.35-7.45
b. 80-100 mm Hg
c. 35-45 mm Hg
d. 22-27 mEq/L
What change in a blood gas parameter defines the following?

a. respiratory acidosis
b. metabolic acidosis
c. respiratory alkalosis
d. metabolic alkalosis
a. increased paCO2
b. decreased HCO3-
c. decreased paCO2
d. increased HCO3-
What is the appropriate therapy for a respiratory acidosis OR alkalosis?
alter patient's minute volume to inc. or dec. elimination of CO2
(Vmin = tidal vol x resp. rate)

to tx respiratory ACIDOSIS: increase Vmin

to tx respiratory ALKALOSIS:
decrease Vmin
What is the appropriate therapy for metabolic acidosis?
1. tx underlying cause first
2. consider administering sodium bicarbonate if pH <= 7.2
What is hypoxemia?
subnormal oxygenation of arterial blood (↓PaO2 in room air)
What is relative hypoxemia vs. absolute hypoxemia?
absolute: PaO2 < 80 mm Hg

relative: PaO2 less than expected for given PaO2, but still > 80 mm Hg
What is the appropriate therapy for hypoxemia?
provide adequate ventilation
optimize cardiac output
provide supplemental O2 (indicated for patient persistently incapable of maintaining Hg-O2 saturation > 90%)
Why do most anesthetized patients hypoventilate?
b/c of ↓ CNS sensitivity to CO2–evoked alterations in CSF
Under what clinical situations should intermittend positive pressure ventilation (IPPV) be instituted?
when patient ventilation is impaired to point of significant acid-base imbalance or when alveolar hypoventilation becomes a limiting factor in maintaining inhalation anesthesia

(generally, when PexpCO2 ≥ 60 mm Hg)
What are the 4 steps of nociception?
1. transduction: process of damaged tissue communicating this info to PNS
2. transmission: process of communicating info from step 1 to the spinal cord or cranial nerve nucleus
3. modulation: neurons w/in dorsal laminae of each spinal cord segment synapse w/ 1st order neurons transmitting from periphery & decisions are made about what info is sent to higher CNS & autonomic centers
4. perception: at cerebrum, nociceptive info is integrated w/ other info  experience of pain
What is allodynia?
when a normally non-painful stimuli (ex. touch) becomes painful
What is central sensitization (wind-up) as it relates to pain?
2nd order neurons depolarize in response to progressively less stimulation & become more likely to code info from those recruited non-nociceptive neurons (ex. those assoc. w/ touch or pressure) as nociception
What are the 2 basic tenets in pain therapy?
-multimodal

-preemptive
What is the appropriate fluid replacement rate for most healthy animals undergoing short elective procedures?
10 ml/kg/hr
What is the percentage breakdown of body water in the ICF vs. ECF?
ICF: 2/3 of body water
ECF: 1/3 of body water
- 3/4 of ECF is interstitial/transcellular
- 1/4 of ECF is plasma
What factor controls the size of the extracellular fluid compartment?
total body sodium content
What is the definition of isotonic dehydration & what are some causes?
fluid lost is high in sodium (most common type), all comes from ECF

causes: vomiting, diarrhea
What is the definition of hypertonic dehydration & what are some causes?
fluid lost is low in Na (pure H2O), comes from total body water

causes: access to H2O, heat injury
What is the definition of hypotonic dehydration & what are some causes?
caused by ionic loss + drinking some H2O (uncommon)

usually due to diarrhea or severe heart failure treated w/ diuretics
What are some examples of replacement fluids, when are they used, and how much plasma volume expansion do they cause?
LRS, plasmalyte-A

used to tx isotonic dehydration & expand plasma vol. (commonly used during anesthesia)

1 L given --> 200-250 mL expansion of plasma vol
When is hypertonic saline used, and how much plasma volume expansion do they cause?
used for rapid resuscitation of patients from shock using a small vol. of fluid

100 mL given --> 400 mL expansion of plasma vol.
What are some examples of colloids, when are they used, and how much plasma volume expansion do they cause?
starches (hetastarch, dextran), albumin, oxyglobin

 used for resuscitation from circulatory shock or to correct volume-responsive hypotension w/ less total H2O than a replacement fluid
best use is in hypoalbuminemic animals

1 L given --> 1L of plasma vol. expansion
What is the definition of shock?
syndrome characterized by inadequate O2 delivery to a critical mass of tissues (cellular O2 debt)
When are low sodium fluids (ex. 5% dextrose) used, and how much plasma volume expansion do they cause?
used to provide animals w/ distilled H2O in a temporarily isotonic form that won’t lyse RBC’s at tip of IV catheter

NOT used during anesthesia b/c they do NOT support plasma vol.

1 L given --> 50 ml plasma expansion & ↓ osmolality
At which vertebrae does the spinal cord end in the dog & cat?
dog: L6-L7
cat: S1
How do the left & right kidney differ in location?
right kidney usually 1/2 length or more in front of left (left got LEFT behind)

right kidney fits into renal impression of caudate lobe of liver

both are palapable in CAT, more mobile, esp. left, which hangs in a fold of peritoneum
What attaches to the greater omenutum?
the greater curvature of stomach to dorsal body wall
What attaches to the lesser omentum?
the lesser curvature of stomach to liver & duodenum
What is mesentery?
double sheets of peritoneum that attach an organ to the body wall
How many mammary glands do dogs have?

Name the pairs from cranial to caudal.
10

cranial thoracic
caudal thoracic
cranial abdominal
caudal abdominal
inguinal
How many mammary glands do cats have?

Name the pairs from cranial to caudal.
8

caudal thoracic
cranial abdominal
caudal abdominal
inguinal
Name the 4 major regions of the stomach.
cardia
fundus
body
pylorus
What is the normal sequence of blood flow in an adult starting in the right atrium?
R atrium --> R AV valve --> R ventricle --> pulmonic valve --> pulmonary trunk --> lungs --> pulmonary vv. --> L atrium --> L AV valve --> L ventricle --> aortic valve --> aorta --> head & body --> cranial & caudal vena cava --> R atrium
What murmur is associated w/ PDA?
continuous ("machinery") murmur
How many lobes do the left and right lungs have & what are they called?
left: 2 (cranial, caudal)

right: 4 (cranial, middle, caudal, accessory)
What is the pathogenesis of PDA?
d/t failure of closure of ductus arteriosus

shunt from L to R side of heart --> blood from higher pressure aorta continuously shunted to main pulmonary a. --> inc. volume of blood to lungs --> pulmonary edema, volume overload to left heart
How many cusps do each of the heart valves have?
R AV (tricuspid): 2
L AV (mitral): 2
aortic: 3
pulmonic: 3
(aortic & pulmonic called semilunar valves)
What are chordae tendinae & what is their function?
attach cusps of AV valves to septal wall of vetricle via papillary mm.

prevent eversion of cusps during contraction of heart (systole)
When during cardiac cycle do systolic murmurs occur & give 2 examples.
b'twn S1 & S2

aortic/pulmonic stenosis
AV insufficiency
When during cardiac cycle do diastolic murmurs occur & give 2 examples.
b'twn S2 & S1

aortic/pulmonic insufficiency
AV stenosis
What are the determinants of cardiac output?
heart rate x stroke volume
What is the definition of stroke volume?
amt. of blood ejected from ventricle on a single contraction.
What is the definition of afterload?
sum of forces resisting ejection of blood from the heart (~= aortic pressure)
What is the definition of preload?
distending pressure w/in a ventricle just prior to contraction (=end diastolic pressure)
What is the functional residual capacity (FRC)?
amount of air left in lungs after a normal respiration
What is tidal volume (VT)?
volume of air inspired or expired w/ each normal breath
What is accomodation as it relates to vision?
the capacity to focus on near or far objects by changing shape of the lens
How do you do a major & minor crossmatch when blood typing & which one is a major problem?
major: donor RBC + rec. serum

minor: donor serum + rec. RBC

MAJOR is a major problem
What are some causes of a ventilation: perfusion abnormality w/ V/Q > 1?
= dead space ventilation

dehydration
pulmonary emboli
What are some causes of a ventilation: perfusion abnormality w/ V/Q < 1?
= physiologic R --> L shunt

alveolar pneumonia or edema
space occupying mass
atelectasis
lung lobe torsion
What are the etiologies of hypoxemia?
decreased inspired oxygen concentration
hypoventilation
anatomic R --> L shunt
alveolar dead space (V/Q > 1)
physiologic R --> L shunt
What are the effects of alpha-1 adrenergic activation?
vasoconstriction --> inc. BP
contraction
mydriasis
What are the effects of beta-1 adrenergic activation?
(myocardium only)
inc. HR, contractility, conduction velocity
What type of drug is dopamine & what is it used for?
beta-1 agonist

used in short term management of low cardiac output assoc. w/ compromised renal fn as seen in cardiogenic or hypovolemic shock
What type of drug is epinephrine?
non-selective adrenergic agonist
What are 5 adverse effects associated w/ beta blockers?
1. bronchoconstriction (don't use w/ asthma or COPD)
2. altered carb & lipid metabolism (caution w/ diabetics)
3. inc. serum triglycerides
4. dec. serum HDL
5. exercise intolerance
isoproterenol

a. class
b. uses
a. beta agonist
b. used in emergencies to stimulate HR in patients w/ bradycardia or heart block
norepinephrine

a. class
a. alpha-1, alpha-2, beta-1 agonist
sotalol

a. class
b. uses
c. why it's better than propranolol
a. beta antagonist
b. V tach: dogs, hypertension, arrhthymias, HCM: cats
c. also blocks K+ channels --> inc. refractory period of myocardium --> slows rate of depolarization
carvedilol

a. class
b. uses
a. alpha-1, beta-1, beta-2 antagonist
b. heart failure, DCM: dogs
propranolol

a. class
b. uses
a. beta antagonist
b. arrhtyhmias in dogs
timolol

a. class
b. uses
a. beta antagonist
b. tx of open angle glaucoma (to dec. IOP)
What are the effects of alpha-2 adrenergic activation?
presynaptic: dec. release of norepi (feedback mechanism)

postsynaptic: vasoconstriction --> inc. BP
What are the effects of muscarinic activation?
M2: dec. HR, dec. conduction velocity

M3: smooth muscle contraction, increased glandular secretions, miosis, urination, increased peristalsis
What are the effects of beta-2 adrenergic activation?
vasodilation --> dec. BP
relaxation
bronchodilation
What are the effects of nicotinic activation?
Nm: skeletal muscle contraction

Nn (adrenal medulla): release of catecholamines into bloodstream
atenolol

a. class
b. uses
a. beta-1 antagonist
b. cats: various cardiomyopathies
dogs: cheaper alternative to carvedilol for heart failure
cisapride

a. class
b. uses
a. 5-HT4 agonist
b. dogs/cats: disorders of gastric emptying, intestinal, other motility problems
cats: chronic constipation & megacolon

only available thru compounding pharmacies
cimetidine & famotidine

a. class
b. uses
c. cimetidine: potency, duration, other effect
d. famotidine: potency, duration, possible effect in cats
a. H2 antagonists
b. gastric & duodenal ulcers, Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (gastrinoma)
c. cimetidine less potent, shorter acting, inhibits cytochrome p450 enzymes
d. famotidine: more potent, longer duration, can cause hemolysis when given IV to cats
ondansetron

a. class
b. uses
a. 5-HT3 antagonist
b. anti-emetic, esp. w/ chemo
metoclopramide

a. class
b. uses
c. 2 main results
a. dopamine antagonist
b. tx emesis assoc. w/ chemo, delayed gastric emptying, GE reflux, peptic ulcers
c. prokinetic, anti-emetic
clinical uses of nitrovasodilators
acute tx of pulmonary edema assoc. w/ CHF
amlodipine

a. class
b. uses
a. calcium channel blocker
b. cats: drug of choice to tx hypertension (secondary to renal failure, hyperthyroidism, DM), dogs: primary hypertension, CHF
spironolactone

a. class
b. uses
a. aldosterone antagonist (K sparing diuretic)

b. used infrequently, can be used to augment other diuretics or as an adjunct to enalapril to tx CHF
flurbiprofen

a. class
b. uses
a. propionic acid derivative (NSAID)
b. used topically to prevent miosis during ocular sx
carprofen

a. class
b. uses
a. proprionic acid derivative (NSAID)
b. osteoarthritis, post-op pain in dogs
What are the effects of the following PGs on vascular tone?

a. PGA
b. PGE2
c. PGF2alpha
d. PGI2
e. TxA2
a. vasodilation
b. vasodilation
c. vasoconstriction
d. vasodilation
e. vasoconstriction
What are the effects of the following on platelet aggregation?

a. TxA2
b. PGI2
a. increases
b. decreases
How do PGE2 & PGI2 effect the kidneys?
increase renal blood flow, diuretic
How do PGE2 & PGI2 relate to inflammation?
both assoc. w/ pain & edema of inflammation
PGE2 is also pyrogenic
What is the mechanism of action of Class IV antiarrhythmias & give an example & its uses?
calcium channel blockers

diltiazem
uses: HCM in cats, supraventricular arrhythmias
What class of diuretic is furosemide & by what 3 mechanisms do these drugs cause diuresis?
loop diuretic

1. inhibit Na/K/2Cl transporter in thick loop of Henle --> dec. reabsorption
2. prevent K recycling for Mg & Ca
3. inc. PGI2 --> increased renal blood flow
What are the clinical uses of furosemide & give 2 possible drug interactions.
uses: pulmonary edema, liver disease, CHF, vascular dz, acute renal failure, hypercalcemia, hyperkalemia

interactions:
potentiate other diuretics
inhibited by NSAIDS (d/t dec. PGs & share same excretory mechanism)
acetylsalicylate

a. common name
b. contraindications
a. aspirin
b. renal or liver dz, aminoglycoside Abs, GI complications, w/in 2 wks of sx
digoxin

a. class
b. uses
c. 3 mechanisms of action
a. positive inotrope (only oral one)
b. CHF, supraventricular arrhythmias, CM
c. inhibits Na/K pump, inc. baroreceptor sensitivity, parasympathomimetic
Class I antiarrhythmics

a. mechanism
b. most commonly used drug
c. uses
a. local anesthetics (block Na channels)
b. lidocaine
c. drug of choice to tx acute ventricular arrhtyhmias
mannitol

a. class
b. uses
a. osmotic diuretic
b. used to dec. ICP in tx of cerebral edema; used to dec. IOP in tx of acute glaucoma
clomipramine

a. class
b. uses
a. 5-HT (serotonin) agonist
b. dog: seperation anxiety, tail chasing, dominance aggression, lick granulomas
cat: aggression, inappropriate urination, excessive grooming, excessive vocalization, anxiety
buspirone

a. class
b. uses
a. 5-HT (serotonin) agonist
b. generalized anxiety in cats
fluoxetine, paroxetine

a. common names
b. class
a. prozac, paxil
b. 5-HT (serotonin) agonists
flunixin

a. brand name
b. class
c. clinical uses
d. side effects w/ repeat use in dogs
a. Banamine
b. NSAID
c. tx of endotoxic shock & to decrease post-sx ocular inflammation in dogs & cats
d. GI ulceration, renal damage
etodolac

a. brand name
b. class
c. uses
a. Etogesic
b. NSAID
c. osteoarthritis in dogs
tepoxalin

a. brand name
b. mechanisms
c. uses
a. Zubrin
b. non-selective COX & lipoxygenase inhibitor
c. osteoarthritis in dogs
omeprazole

a. brand name
b. class/mechanisms
c. uses
a. Prilosec
b. proton pump inhibitor
c. gastric & dudodenal ulcers, Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
misoprostol

a. class/mechanism
b. uses
a. PGE1 analog
b. given orally to dec. GI ulceration from chronic NSAID use
latanaprost

a. class
b. uses
a. PGF2alpha analog
b. topical anti-glaucoma agent in dogs (NOT cats)
dinoprost tromethamine

a. brand name
b. class
c. uses
a. Lutalyse
b. PGF2alpha analog
c. used to synchronize estrus, induce parturition or abortion, tx pyometra, tx cysticl endometrial hyperplasia-pyometra complex in bitch
5 effects of Angiotensin II
1. vasoconstriciton --> inc. preload & afterload
2. inc. ADH release --> H2O retention, thirst
3. inc. aldosterone release --> Na, H2O retention
4. inc. sympathetic tone --> inc. catecholamine release
5. myocardial remodeling
Class III antiarrhythmic drugs

a. mechanism
b. uses
c. prototype
a. K channel blockers --> prolong AP & refractory period
b. only used in dogs to tx severe arrhythmias refractory to other tx
c. sotalol: beta adrenergic & K channel blocker
thiazide diuretics

a. mechanism
b. clinical uses
c. contraindicated w/
a. inhibit Na/Cl cotransporter in distal tubule --> block Na, Cl reabsorption (only 10% of filtered Na usually reabs. here) --> weaker diuresis than furosemide
b. hypercalciuria --> calculi
c. hypercalcemia b/c they cause inc. Ca reabsorption
deracoxib

a. brand name
b. class
c. uses
d. side effects
a. Deramaxx
b. COX-2 inhibitor (NSAID)
c. osteoarthritis, post-op pain in dogs
d. GI bleeding
meloxicam

a. brand name
b. class
c. uses
d. side effects compared to deracoxib
a. Metacam
b. COX-2 inhibitor (NSAID)
c. osteoarthritis in dogs/cats
d. not as COX-2 selective --> low incidence of GI side effects
enalapril

a. class
b. uses
c. positive effects
d. adverse effects
a. ACE inhibitor
b. tx of CHF
c. dec. preload & afterload, prevents vasoconstrictive effects of angiotensin II, dec. Na, H2O retention, dec. cardiac myocyte hypertrophy & fibrosis ==> improved survivability
d. hypotension (w/ high doses or w/ diuretic), hyperkalemia (NOT common), dec. efficacy if given w/ NSAIDs
Class II antiarrhythmic drugs

a. mechanism
b. uses
a. beta adrenergic blockers
b. tacyarrhythmias, supraventricular arrhythmias, feline HCM or hyperthyroidism, heart failure, glaucoma
carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

a. mechanisms as diuretics
b. uses
c. side effects/contraindication
OLD, not used much

a. block reabsorption of bicarb at prox. tubule --> diuresis, alkaline urine for 12 hrs.
b. glaucoma, urinary alkalinization --> dec. formation of some calculi (only effective for a few days)
c. hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis (d/t significant bicarb loss), DON'T use w/ hepatic encephalopathy (dec. urine loss of ammonia)
acetaminophen

a. brand name
b. class
c. uses
d. major contraindication
e. effects of OD
f. how to tx OD
a. Tylenol
b. NSAID (p-aminophenol derivative)
c. w/ codeine for post-op pain in dogs
d. VERY TOXIC TO CATS
-detoxification of acetaminophen occurs primarily by glucuronide conjugation --> inactive metabolite
-alternative pathway --> toxic metabolites --> detoxification by liver glutathione
-cats are poor glucuronidators, so glutathione system is overwhelmed --> accumulation of toxic metabolites in liver
e. hemolysis, methemoglobinemia, hepatic & renal necrosis
f. acetylcysteine: works best if given w/in 10 hrs of overdose
tropicamide

a. class
b. uses
a. muscarinic antagonist
b. drug of choice for ocular exams (short duration of action: 4-6 hrs; causes mydriasis & cycloplegia)
tx of keratitis & uveitis
glycopyrrolate

a. class
b. uses
c. how it compares to atropine
a. muscarinic antagonist
b. used as pre-anesthetic agent & to reverse excessive vagal stimulation (sinus bradycardia)
c. longer duration, less CNS effects, bit less tachycardia
atipamezole

a. class
b. uses
a. alpha-2 adrenergic antagonist
b. used to reverse hypotension & bradycardiac produced by alpha-2 agonists (medetomidine, xylazine)
atropine

a. class
b. uses
a. muscarinic antagonist
b. tx of cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning (give prior to 2-PAM)
bethanecol

a. class
b. uses
a. muscarinic agonist
b. tx of detrusor atony in dogs, GI atony
physostigmine

a. class
b. uses
a. cholinergic agonist (primarily muscarinic)
b. antidote to anticholinergic agents
atracurium

a. class
b. uses
c. duration of action
a. competitive neuromuscular blocker
b. used as adjuvant to anesthesia
c. ~30 min.
edrophonium

a. class
b. uses
c. duration
a. cholinergic agonist
b. dx myasthenia gravis in dogs, reverse neuromuscular blockade
c. 2-3 min.
ephedrine

a. class
b. uses
a. adrenergic agonist
b. used as a bronchodilator or a decongestant
phenoxybenzamine

a. class
b. uses
a. alpha adrenergic antagonist
b. used to dec. vasoconstriction in tx of peripheral vasospasm, hypertension, pheochromocytoma, visceral ischemia, urethral obstruction in cats
neostigmine

a. class
b. uses
a. cholinergic agonist (reversible cholinesterase inhibitor)
b. tx of myasthenia gravis in dogs, to reverse neuromuscular blockers
succinylcholine

a. class
b. drug interaction
a. depolarizing neuromuscular blocker (cannot be reversed)
b. DON'T use w/ cholinesterase inhibitor - may intensify neuromusclar blockade

no often used in vet med
phenylephrine

a. class
b. uses
a. alpha-1 adrenergic agonist
b. used as a mydriatic prior to cataract sx in DOGS (doesn't cause mydriasis in cats)
used to dx Horner's syndrome, used as a decongenstant
pilocarpine

a. class
b. uses
a. muscarinic agonist
b. topically used to tx glaucoma in dogs & cats (to dec. IOP)
vecuronium

a. class
b. uses
c. contraindications
d. duration of action
a. competitive neuromuscular blocker
b. adjuvant to anesthesia
c. liver dz (metabolized by liver --> cumulative effect)
d. ~60 min.
2-PAM (pralidoxime)

a. class
b. uses
a. cholinesterase reactivator (displaces irreversible cholinesterase inhibitor)
b. tx of organophosphate induced cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning
must be given w/in hrs of exposure
give atropine 1st to block PS effects of toxin
clenbuterol

a. class
b. uses
a. beta-2 adrenergic agonist
b. used to inc. bronchial secretions & mucociliary clearance in COPD
diethylstilbestrol (DES)

a. class
b. uses
a. synthetic estrogen
b. used to tx urinary incontinence secondary to dec. estrogen production in spayed dogs
terbutaline

a. class
b. uses
a. beta-2 adrenergic agonist
b. used to tx obstructive pulmonary disorders (ex. asthma) in dogs & cats (bronchodilator)
used to delay premature labor
phenylpropanolamine (PPA)

a. class
b. uses
c. adverse effect & susceptible breed
a. alpha-1 adrenergic agonist
b. tx of urinary incontinence (esp. in spayed females)
c. CNS stimulation, esp. in Collies
albuterol

a. class
b. uses
a. beta-2 adrenergic agonist
b. tx of obstructive pulmonary dz (ex. asthma) in dogs, cats (bronchodilator)
Which 3 types of drugs are contraindicated w/ competitive neuromuscular blockers and why?
aminoglycoside antibiotics
halothane
Ca channel blockers

alter Ca movement --> intensify neuromuscular blockade
diphenhydramine

a. class
b. uses
a. a. H1 antagonist (antihistamine)
b. prevents motion induced nausea, local anesthetic at high topical doses
cyproheptadine

a. class
a. H1 antagonist (antihistamine), also a 5-HT2A antagonist
uses of 1st generation anti-histamines
allergic & anaphylactic rxns
inflammatory disorders (pruritis, urticaria, dermatitis)
anti-emesis
anti-nauseant
dobutamine

a. class
b. uses
a. alpha-1 agonist & antagonist, beta agonist
b. used for acute management of heart failure
What is the surgical minimum alveolar concentration (MAC)?
amt. of anesthetic at which 95% of patients will be immobile during sx (1.3-1.5x MAC)
What are 3 main factors affecting drug transport?
ionization (only non-ionized fraction of drug penetrates membrane)
blood flow
plasma & tissue binding
What is the major role of the liver in drug metabolism?
to eliminate lipophilic drugs (must be hydrophilic to be secreted by renal or biliary mechanisms)
What is the first pass effect w/ respect to drugs?
potential of all drugs absorbed by GI tract to be metabolized by liver before reaching systemic circulation
What is bioavailability?
fraction of the administered dose of a drug absorbed into systemic circulation after extra-vascular dosing
What is the cardinal sign of oral cavity/pharyngeal dz & what are some associated clinical signs?
DYSPHAGIA: difficulty prehending, chewing, or swallowing food

signs: repeated swallowing efforts, halitosis, pawing at mouth, hypersalivation, nasal discharge or coughing due to laryngotracheal aspiration
What is the muscle content of the esophagus in the cat vs. dog & what are the implications of this?
dog: all skeletal m.
cat: 1st 2/3 skeletal m., rest smooth m.

skeletal m. NOT under voluntary control (Ach from vagus n. --> nicotinic receptors)

dogs predisposed to esophageal weakness as clinical sign of dz that affect skeletal m. or NM transmission (ex. myasthenia gravis)

most pro-motility drugs work best on smooth m.  more tx options for esophageal weakness in cats than in dogs
What is the cardinal sign of esophageal disease?
REGURGITATION: spontaneous expulsion of contents from esophagus as facilitated by body position & gravity (contents never reach stomach)
What are the 3 mediators of gastric HCl secretion & which is most important?
gastrin, histamine, Ach

histamine most important
What is the cardinal sign of gastric dysfunction?
vomiting
What are the 4 major stimuli of the vomiting center & where is the vomiting center found?
vomiting center: reticular formation of brainstem (5-HT & α2 receptors)

1. chemoreceptor trigger zone
2. vestibular apparatus (motion sickness)
3. abdominal viscera
4. cerebral cortex (more important in humans)
What are 3 major metabolic consequences of vomiting in dogs & cats?
loss of HCO3 --> metabolic acidosis
loss of K+ --> hypokalemia
loss of H2O --> dehydration, hypovolemia
What is the major function of the pancreas?
makes & secretes digestive enzymes into dudodenum
What are the 3 major digestive enzymes secreted as zymogens by the pancreas?
trypsinogen
lipase
alpha-amylase
What is the pathology of exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI), what causes it, & how is it diagnosed?
failure of pancreas to manufacture & secrete enzymes

 due to chronic insidious bouts of pancreatitis, some breeds (ex. GSDs) prone to autoimmune dz causes pancreatic cell apoptosis

-diagnosed using test called TLI (trypsinogen-like immunoreactivity)
-normally a small amt. of trypsinogen that leaks from pancreas into bloodstream in a measurable amt.
-w/ EPI, amt. becomes negligible
What is hydrostatic pressure?
pressure exerted by the heart pumping blood, which tends to drive water & other permeable mols out of caps
What is colloid osmotic (oncotic) pressure?
pressure for movement of water w/ its dissolved small mols & ions created by the difference in dissolved protein conc. b’twn blood & interstitial fluid
What is the Na/K pump?
a membrane protein that catalyzes hydrolysis of ATP & couples hydrolysis energy to movement of Na OUT of cell & K INTO cell
What is the function of the dendrites of a neuron?
signals from neighboring neurons
What is the function of the axon of a neuron?
transmits an electrical impulse (AP) from its initial segment at cell body to other end of axon at the presynaptic terminal
What is the function of the presynpatic terminal of a neuron?
transmits a chemical signal to an adjacent cell, usually another nerve or muscle cell
Where is the vestibular system located & what is its function?
located in inner ear bilaterally

informs the brain about the position & motion of the head in space
What are some signs of acute vestibular disease?
a persisting head tilt
compulsive circling or rolling
nystagmus
What is the main function of the cerebellum?
choreographer of motor commands:
constantly compares the intended movement w/ the actual movement & makes appropriate adjustments
What are some signs of cerebellar disease?
wide based gait, ataxia, dysmetria (inappropriate measure of muscular contraction): "goose" stepping, intention tremors
What disease in kittens may be associated w/ cerebellar hypoplasia?
feline panleukopenia virus
What is a ganglion?
collection of nerve cell bodies outside the CNS
From where does the sympathetic nervous system arise?
thoracic & lumbar spinal nerves
From where does the parasympathetic nervous system arise?
cranial nerves & sacral spinal nerves
What NT is secreted by PS, postganglionic neurons?
Ach
What NT is secreted by sympathetic, postganglionic neurons?
norepi
What NT is secreted by PS, preganglionic neurons?
Ach
What is the name given to Ach secreting synapse?
cholinergic
What is the name given to norepi secreting synapse?
adrenergic
How is Ach removed from synaptic cleft?
destroyed by acetylcholinesterase
How is norepi removed from synaptic cleft?
by diffusion & reuptake by presynaptic neuron
What is the name of the white, outer protective layer encasing most of the eyeball?
sclera
What is the transparent anterior portion of the outer covering of the eye; it covers the lens and iris and is continuous with the sclera?
cornea
What is the dark-brown vascular coat of the eye between the sclera and the retina?
choroid
What is the layer of the eye that contains the photoreceptors?
retina
What fills the anterior & posterior chambers of the eye?
aqueous humor
What is the name of the pigmented structure of the eye containing dilator & constrictor smooth muscle fibers arranged to vary the diameter of the pupil?
iris
What is the name of the hole in iris thru which light passes on its way to the retina?
pupil
What is the gelatinous fluid that fills chamber behind the lens of they eye?
vitreous humor
What is the transparent structure behind the iris of the eye that focuses light entering the eye on the retina?
lens
What is the point where the optic nerve enters the retina & that is not sensitive to light?
optic disc
What produces tears in response to parasympathetic nerve stimulation & is located near the lateral canthus of the eye?
lacrimal gland
What is the condition in which the lens becomes more opaque, causing random refraction of light & blurred vision, often eventually leading to blindness?
cataracts
What is the layer in the choroid chiefly of nocturnal mammals that reflects light causing the eyes to glow when light strikes them at night?
tapetum lucidum
What photoreceptors are adapted for night vision?
rods
What photoreceptors are adapted for acute, daylight color vision?
cones
What structure secretes aqueous humor?
ciliary process
Where is most cerebrospinal fluid formed?
choroid plexus
Where are most veterinary spinal taps performed?
cisterna magna: sampling from the subarachnoid space b’twn the skull & 1st cervical vertebra in anesthetized animals
Where is most CSF absorbed?
through arachnoid villi, small finger-like projections of the arachnoid membrane thru the walls of venous sinuses in the dura
What is the spiral-shaped cavity of the inner ear that resembles a snail shell and contains nerve endings essential for hearing?
cochlea
In veterinary medicine, what is the usual cause of deafness in young animals, & with what physical characteristic is it often associated?
usually caused by a congenital defect in the cochlea, frequently linked w/ white coat color
What type of shock is characterized by cardiovascular collapse caused by severe blood loss?
hemorrhagic shock
What type of shock is caused by failure of the heart to pump an adequate amount of blood?
cardiogenic shock
What type of shock is caused by bacterial infections in the blood stream (bacteremia)?
septic shock
What is an area of tissue damage or death caused by interruption of normal blood flow?
infarct
What is the name of the blood pressure within the arteries when the heart muscle is contracting & what is the average value?
systolic pressure

~120 mm Hg
What is the name of the lowest arterial blood pressure reached during any given ventricular cycle & what is the average value?
diastolic pressure

~80 mm Hg
Most of the blood in the systemic circulation is found in which vessels?
veins
What is the acellular or extracellular liquid in blood & what are its 2 main constituents)?
plasma

93% water, 5-7% protein
What are the 3 primary plasma proteins?
albumin
globulin
fibrinogen
What is the hematocrit?
fraction of cells in blood
What is the name for an abnormally high hematocrit?
polycythemia
Where are the normal cardiac pacemaker cells found?
sinoatrial (SA) node in right atrium
In which type of muscle does calcium contribute directly to initiation of actin-myosin cross-bridges cycling & also trigger release of more calcium from SR?
cardiac muscle
What are the components of the specialized conducting system of the heart?
SA node
AV node
AV bundle
bundle braches
Purkinje’s fibers
What is 3rd degree AV block?
complete block of AV node, where no atrial APs are conducted to ventricles
What is 2nd degree AV block?
APs conducted sporadically from atrial to ventricles, so that AV node transmits some but not all atrial APs
What is 1st degree AV block?
every atrial AP is transmitted to ventricles, but AP is propagated even more slowly than normal thru AV node
What is sick sinus syndrome?
bradycardia & insufficient ↑ in HR during exercise d/t sluggish depolarization of SA node pacemaker cells
What is an ectopic pacemaker?
area of myocardial tissue (other than SA node) that depolarizes spontaneously to threshold & initiates a spreading cardiac AP
What cardiac cells serve as auxillary pacemaker cells & when might they play a role in maintaining the function of the heart?
AV node cells

-they spontaneously depolarize toward threshold, but much more slowly than SA node cells
-if SA node is damaged & does not depolarize to threshold, or if the cells at the beginning of the AV node are damaged & do not propagate atrial APs, then AV node pacemaker cells reach threshold eventually & initiate ventricular contractions
What is a congenital portosystemic vascular anomaly & name 2 breeds that are predisposed.
connects portal v. to caudal vena cava

Yorkies, Maltese
What is a neurologic sequela of a portosystemic vascular anomaly & what are some possible signs?
hepatic encephalopathy

salivation, seizures, head pressing, vomiting, odd dietary preferences
Where is bile synthesized?
liver
Where is bile stored?
gall bladder
What percentage of conjugated bile acids are recycled to liver & what percentage are secreted in feces?
95% recycled, 5% in feces
Why are pre- & post-prandial bile acids used to quantify liver function?
if liver function is poor: serum conc. of bile acids ↑ after meal b/c of impaired ability of liver to extract bile acids that area returning via portal v.
What is the important role of bile acids?
fat absorption in intestines
Where in the GI tract is the major site of digestion of carbs, lipids, & proteins?
small intestine
What is the main function of small intestinal cells at:

a. villus tip?
b. crypts?
a. absorption
b. secretion
Does nutrient absorption occur in the:

a. stomach?
b. small intestine?
c. large intestine?
a. no
b. yes
c. no
All dietary carbs are catabolized to 1 of 3 monosaccharides. Name them.
glucose
fructose
galactose
What are 3 main functions of the colon?
microbial fermentation of nutrients to short chain fatty acids
reabsorption of electrolytes (most efficient site of H20 absorption, though largest vol. of H2O absorbed in SI)
storage
What is loss of saliva from mouth due to inadequate swallowing?
pseudoptyalism
What is the excessive secretion of saliva?
ptyalism
What are some signs of small bowel diarrhea?
weight loss, polyphagia, ↑ volume
What are some signs of large bowel diarrhea?
↑ freq., frank blood/mucus, tenesmus
What is the cephalic phase of eating & what is the result?
anticipation, sight, smell, presence of food in mouth  vagal relex
What is the gastric phase of eating & what is the result?
gastric distension, protein products in stomach --> gastrin release, vagal reflex
What is the result of Ach secretion during the cephalic, gastric phases of feeding?
↑ acid secretion (↑ histamine secretion)
What is the result of aldosterone secretion at the salivary glands as a result of hypovolemia or hyperkalemia?
↓ salivation; (↑ absorption of H2O, Na, secretion of K)
What is the result of aldosterone secretion at the distal colon as a result of hypovolemia or hyperkalemia?
↑ absorption of H2O, Na, secretion of K
What are 3 main effects of H+ secretion from the proper gastric glands of the stomach?
converts pepsinogen --> pepsin
kills microbes
denatures protein
What is the effect of pepsinogen released from the proper gastric glands of the stomach?
pepsin partially digests protein, releases vitamin B12
What is the function of mucus released from the cardiac glands of the stomach?
lubricates, protects mucosa
What is the function of bicarbonate released from the cardiac glands of the stomach?
protects mucosa
What is the effect of intrinsic factor secreted from the proper gastric glands (stomach)& the pancreas?
absorbs dietary vitamin B12
What are 4 effects of gastrin release from the G cells of the stomach onto the parietal cells in response to the gastric phase of feeding or to vagal stimulation?
↑ acid secretion (↑ histamine secretion)
regulates mucosal growth
stimulates pepsinogen secretion
stimulates gastric motility
What is the effect of somatostatin release from the proper gastric glands of the stomach in response to low antral pH?
inhibits gastrin & histamine release
What is the effect of histamine release onto parietal cells in response to gastric phase or vagal stimulation?
↑ acid secretion
What are 2 effects of endogenous prostaglandins & nitrous oxide secreted by the gastric mucosa?
inhibit cAMP generation --> ↓ acid secretion
↑ mucus, bicarb secretion
What are 2 effects of secretin release in response to excessive hypertonicity or acidity of contents leaving stomach or acid pH of duodenum?
inhibits gastric emptying

stimulates release of bicarb-rich fluid from pancreatic & biliary ducts into duodenum --> neutralize gastric acid in duodenum
What are 3 effects of cholecystekinin release in response to lipid (carbs, protein) entering prox. duodenum?
inhibits gastric emptying
stimulates digestive enzyme secretion into duodenum from pancreatic acini
causes gall bladder contraction & sphincter of Oddi relaxation --> bile release into prox. duodenum
What is the result of secretion of enteropeptidase from the duodenal brush border into the duodenal lumen in response to the presence of pancreatic zymogens?
converts trypsinogen --> trypsin
What are 2 results of secretion of trypsin from the pancreatic acini into the duodenal lumen in response to its conversion from trypsinogen?
digests protein

activates pancreatic enzymes
What is the result of secretion of alpha-amylase from the pancreatic acini into the duodenal lumen & salivary ducts in response to cholecystokinin?
digests carbs
What is the result of secretion of lipase from the pancreatic acini into the duodenal lumen in response to cholecystokinin?
digests fats
What is the result of secretion of bile from the gall bladder into the proximal duodenum in response to cholecystokinin?
digests fats
What are 2 effects of the release of norepinepherine on GI tract?
↓ contraction & secretion
What is the major filtration site of kidney?
glomerulus
What are Halsted's principles of surgery?
handle tissue gently
preserve vascularity
remove necrotic tissue
accurate hemostasis
approximate tissue w/o tension
obliterate dead space
use strict aseptic technique