Things To Remember

Front 1

5 radiopacities

Back 1

air
fat
water
bone
metal

Front 2

define primary center of ossificiation

Back 2

1st site where mineralization occurs, usually at center of long bone, marked by nutrient foramen

Front 3

define secondary centers of ossificiation

Back 3

later sites of mineralization (epiphyses, apophyses), ex. supraglenoid tubercle

Front 4

What spinal cord segments contribute to brachial plexus?

Back 4

C6, C7, C8, T1, T2

Front 5

What spinal cord segments contribute to lumbosacral plexus?

Back 5

L4, L5, L6, L7, S1, S2, S3

Front 6

What is the key nerve which allows animal to bear weight on thoracic limb?

Back 6

radial n.

Front 7

What is the key nerve which allows animal to bear weight on pelvic limb?

Back 7

femoral n.

Front 8

What do the superficial cervical lymph nodes drain?

Back 8

superficial neck, lymph nodes of head, most of thoracic limb, craniodorsal thoracic wall

Front 9

What do the axillary lymph nodes drain?

Back 9

medial proximal thoracic limb, cranial mammae, accessory axillary ln (if present)

Front 10

What do the popliteal lymph nodes drain?

Back 10

distal pelvic limb

Front 11

What do the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain?

Back 11

ventral abdomen, caudal mammae, genitalia, medial pelvic limb

Front 12

What is the blood supply to the diaphragm?

Back 12

caudal phrenic a.

Front 13

What is the blood supply to the liver?

Back 13

hepatic branches of hepatic a.

Front 14

What is the blood supply to the lesser curvature of the stomach?

Back 14

R & L gastric aa.

Front 15

What is the blood supply to the greater curvature of the stomach?

Back 15

R & L gastroepiploic aa.

Front 16

What is the blood supply to the descending duodenum?

Back 16

cranial & caudal pancreaticoduodenal aa.

Front 17

What is the blood supply to the jejunum?

Back 17

jejunal aa.

Front 18

What is the blood supply to the ileum?

Back 18

antimesenteric branch of cecal a., ileal a.

Front 19

What is the blood supply to the colon?

Back 19

ileocolic a.

Front 20

What is the blood supply to the rectum?

Back 20

cranial rectal a.

Front 21

What is the blood supply to the pancreas?

Back 21

cranial & caudal pancreaticoduodenal aa.

Front 22

What is the blood supply to the kidneys?

Back 22

renal aa.

Front 23

What is the blood supply to the testes?

Back 23

testicular aa.

Front 24

What is the blood supply to the ovaries/uterus?

Back 24

ovarian aa.

Front 25

define the line of pleural reflection & its importance

Back 25

8th to 9th costal arch curving dorsally to last rib


line along which costal pleural is reflected to become diaphragmatic pleura

must be cranial to line to enter thoracic cavity (for thoracocentesis)

Front 26

where would you perform thoracocentesis in a dog & cat?

Back 26

enter costodiaphragmatic recess: where costal & diaphragmatic pleura contact w/o intervening lung

do both sides

dog: 7th or 8th ICS at CCJ

cat: 8th ICS at CCJ

Front 27

What do the mediastinal lymph nodes drain?

Back 27

thoracic viscera & wall

Front 28

What do the tracheobronchial lymph nodes drain?

Back 28

lungs

Front 29

Where is the cardiac notch & what is it used for?

Back 29

site for cardiac puncture (R ventricle not covered b’twn cranial & middle lung lobes)

R side: 4th to 5th ICS close to sternum (ventral)

Front 30

What are the points of maximal intensity for the 4 heart valves?

Back 30

pulmonic: L 3rd ICS at CCJ
aortic: L 4th ICS above CCJ
left AV: L 5th ICS at CCJ
right AV: R 4th ICS at CCJ

Front 31

What is the approximate location of the heart in the dog & cat?

Back 31

in middle mediastinum, to L of midline

dog: 3rd-6th ICS

cat: 4th-7th ICS

Front 32

What is the pathogenesis of PDA?

Back 32

shunt from L to R side of heart; blood from higher pressure aorta continuously shunted to main pulmonary

main pulmonary a. --> ↑ vol. of blood to lungs --> pulmonary edema, volume overload to L side of heart

Front 33

What is happening with the heart sounds S1 (lub) & S2 (dub)?

Back 33

S1: AV valves closing

S2: aortic & pulmonic valves closing

Front 34

What is the heart doing during systole?

Back 34

ventricles are contracting & ejecting blood

Front 35

What is the heart doing during diastole?

Back 35

ventricles are relaxing & filling

Front 36

What is meant by valvular stenosis & insufficiency (regurgitation)?

Back 36

stenosis: valve doesn’t OPEN completely

insufficiency (regurgitation): valve doesn’t CLOSE tightly

Front 37

What are the attachments of the broad ligament?

Back 37

female repro tract to dorsolateral body wall

Front 38

What is the round ligament of females?

Back 38

lateral free edge of mesometrium (uterus, cervix, cranial vagina to body wall)

Front 39

What are the attachments of the suspensory ligament?

Back 39

ovary to body wall

Front 40

What are the attachments of the proper ligament?

Back 40

ovary to uterine horn

Front 41

What are the contents of the spermatic cord?

Back 41

ductus deferens & blood supply

testicular a,v,n (pampiniform plexus)

lymphatic drainage of testes

CT

vaginal tunic (NOT cremaster m.)

Front 42

What are the clinical signs of a LMN lesion?

Back 42

hyporeflexia --> areflexia

hypotonia --> atonia

paresis --> flaccid paralysis

Front 43

What are the clinical signs of an UMN lesion?

Back 43

hyperreflexia --> clonus

hypertonia --> tetany

spastic paresis --> paralysis

Front 44

What are the clinical signs of a cerebellar lesion?

Back 44

dysmetria
hypertonia
intention tremors
ataxia

Front 45

What are the clinical signs of a vestibular lesion?

Back 45

nystagmus
head tilt
ataxia

Front 46

What are the 3 layers of meninges, from external to internal?

Back 46

dura mater
arachnoid
pia mater

Front 47

What are the 5 components required for a reflex to occur?

Back 47

receptor
sensory neuron
interneuron
motor neuron
target

Front 48

What signs would be expected with a spinal cord lesion in segments C1-C5?

Back 48

normal to UMN signs to forelimbs, hindlimbs

Front 49

What signs would be expected with a spinal cord lesion in segments C6-T2?

Back 49

LMN signs to forelimbs; normal to UMN sings to hindlimbs

Front 50

What signs would be expected with a spinal cord lesion in segments T3-L3?

Back 50

forelimbs normal; normal to UMN sings to hindlimbs

Front 51

What signs would be expected with a spinal cord lesion in segments L4-S3?

Back 51

forelimbs normal; LMN signs to hindlimbs, anus

Front 52

What signs would be expected with a spinal cord lesion in segments Cd1-Cd5?

Back 52

forelimbs, hindlimbs normal; LMN signs to tail

Front 53

What are the 5 divisions of the brain?

Back 53

telencephalon (cerebrum)
diencephalon
mesencephalon (mid-brain)
metencephalon (pons, cerebellum)
myelencephalon (medulla oblongata)

Front 54

What divisions of the brain make up the brain stem?

Back 54

diencephalon, mesencephalon, pons, myelencephalon

Front 55

What is the vertebral formula for the dog & cat?

Back 55

C7 T13 L7 S3 Cd18-20

Front 56

What are the 2 main parts of an intervertebral disk?

Back 56

annulus fibrosis: outer circumferential collagneous fibers

nucleous pulposus: inner gelatinous core

Front 57

What is the name, function, and innervation of cranial nerve I?

Back 57

olfactory

sensory

smell

Front 58

What is the name, function, and innervation of cranial nerve II?

Back 58

optic

sensory

sight

Front 59

What is the name, function, and innervation of cranial nerve III?

Back 59

oculomotor

sensory & motor

extraocular mm., autonomic motor to iris & ciliary body mm.

Front 60

What is the name, function, and innervation of cranial nerve IV?

Back 60

trochlear

motor

dorsal oblique m. (eye)

Front 61

What is the name, function, and innervation of cranial nerve V?

Back 61

trigeminal

sensory & motor

sensory to head, motor to muscles of mastication

Front 62

What is the name, function, and innervation of cranial nerve VI?

Back 62

abducens

motor

lateral rectus, retractor bulbi mm. (eye)

Front 63

What is the name, function, and innervation of cranial nerve VII?

Back 63

facial

sensory & motor

sensory for taste, concave surface of pinna
motor to facial mm.
autonomic motor to some salivary & lacrimal glands

Front 64

What is the name, function, and innervation of cranial nerve VIII?

Back 64

vestibulocochlear

sensory

hearing, equilibrium

Front 65

What is the name, function, and innervation of cranial nerve IX?

Back 65

glossopharyngeal

sensory & motor

sensory to pharynx for taste
motor to pharyngeal mm.
autonomic motor to salivary glands

Front 66

What is the name, function, and innervation of cranial nerve X?

Back 66

vagus

sensory & motor

sensory to tongue for taste; to pharynx, esophagus, GI tract
motor to mm. of pharynx, esophagus, larynx
autonomic motor to heart, lungs, gut

Front 67

What is the name, function, and innervation of cranial nerve XI?

Back 67

accessory

motor

muscles of thoracic limb

Front 68

What is the name, function, and innervation of cranial nerve XII?

Back 68

hypoglossal

motor

tongue mm.

Front 69

What are the 3 branches of CN V?

Back 69

CN V: trigeminal n.

maxillary, mandibular, ophthalmic nn.

Front 70

What is the dental formula for dogs - DECIDUOUS teeth?

Back 70

I 3/3, C 1/1, P 3/3

Front 71

What is the dental formula for dogs - PERMANENT teeth?

Back 71

I 3/3, C 1/1, P 4/4, M 2/3

Front 72

What is the dental formula for cats - DECIDUOUS teeth?

Back 72

I 3/3, C 1/1, P 3/2

Front 73

What is the dental formula for cats - PERMANENT teeth?

Back 73

I 3/3, C 1/1, P 3/2, M 1/1

Front 74

How many roots do permanent teeth have in the dog?

Back 74

incisors, canines: 1 root

Upper: P1 has 1 root, P2, P3 have 2 roots, P4, M1, M2 have 3 roots
(1 has 1, 2 have 2, 3 have 3)

Lower: P1 has 1 root, P2, P3, P4, M1, M2 have 2 roots, M3 has 1 root
(1st & last have 1, rest have 2)

Front 75

How many roots do permanent teeth have in the cat?

Back 75

incisors, canines: 1 root

Upper: P2 has 1 root, P3 has 2 roots, P4 has 3 roots, M1 has 2 roots
(1, 2, 3, 2)

Lower: All have 2 roots

Front 76

What is the vector for Ehrlichia canis & what type of host cell does it infect?

Back 76

vector: brown dog tick (Rhipicephalus sanguines)

infects monocytes

Front 77

What is the agent that causes Lyme dz & what is its vector?

Back 77

Borrelia burgodorferi

deer tick (Ixodes scapularis)

Front 78

What is the agent that causes Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever & what is its vector?

Back 78

Rickettsia rickettsii

American dog tick (Dermacentor variablis)

Front 79

What agent causes cat scratch disease & what is the likely vector?

Back 79

Bartonella henselae

vector: flea

Front 80

What are 3 primary causative agent of cutaneous dermatophytosis in dogs & cats?

Back 80

1. Microsporum canis (dog, cat)
2. Microsporum gypseum (dog; does NOT fluoresce)
3. Trichophyton mentagrophytes (cat)

Front 81

What are the 3 main types of cartilage?

Back 81

hyaline cartilage

elastic cartilage

fibrocartilage

Front 82

Which cells are responsible for the formation of bone?

Back 82

osteoblasts

Front 83

Which cells degrade bone?

Back 83

osteoclasts

Front 84

What is intramembranous ossification?

Back 84

replacement of loose CT w/ bone

Front 85

What is endochondrial ossification?

Back 85

rreplacement of preformed hyaline cartilage model w/ bone

Front 86

What type of bone is found in the adult skeleton?

Back 86

lamellar (layered)

subdivided into compact (cortical) & spongy (cancellous)

Front 87

What is the immature type of bone that is later replaced in the adult?

Back 87

woven bone

Front 88

What is the name for an immature red blood cell?

Back 88

reticulocyte

Front 89

What is the function of a ribosome?

Back 89

translate mRNA into protein

Front 90

What is the function of the rough endoplasmic reticulum?

Back 90

segregates proteins made by ribosomes that will be exported from cell

Front 91

What is the function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

Back 91

synth. of steroid hormones & lipoproteins

Front 92

What is the function of the Golgi complex?

Back 92

modifies & packages newly translated proteins

membrane trafficking

Front 93

What is the function of a lysosome?

Back 93

recycling center of cell

protein metabolism

destruction of ingested material

Front 94

What is the function of the mitochondria?

Back 94

center or energy production

Front 95

What is the most common cell type in connective tissue & what is its function?

Back 95

fibroblast

synthesis of CT fibers & ground substance

Front 96

What is the organizational scheme of the GI tract layers, starting w/ most internal layer?

Back 96

mucosa
muscularis mucosa
submucosa
muscularis
adventitia (sometimes bounded by serosa)

Front 97

What are the layers of the epidermis, starting w/ most superficial layer?

Back 97

stratum corneum
stratum lucidum
stratum granulosum
stratum spinosum
stratum basale

Front 98

What is meant by viremic spread of a virus?

Back 98

spread via the bloodstream

Front 99

What is a modified live vaccine?

Back 99

attenuated virus (not pathogenic for vaccinated animal) that retains antigenicity & ability to replicate

Front 100

What are 4 advantages of modified live vaccines?

Back 100

-stimulate immunity comparable to natural infection
-efficient stimulators of local & systemic immunity (IgA, IgG, T cells)
-single dose required (replication of virus amplifies dose)
-may be applied by natural route, thus stimulating local immunity

Front 101

What are 3 disadvantages of modified live vaccines?

Back 101

-may cause rxn (dz) d/t insufficient attenuation
-possible reversion to virulence
-unstable (may be inactivated by heat, disinfectant, UV)

Front 102

What are killed (inactivated) vaccines?

Back 102

composed of viruses that are cultivated in cell culture or embryonated eggs & treated w/ chemicals or by physical means (heat, irradiation, etc.) to destroy infectivity

Front 103

What are 2 advantages of killed vaccines?

Back 103

-safe
-stable

Front 104

What are 4 disadvantages of killed vaccines?

Back 104

-multiple doses required (ex. RV)
-protection usually of shorter duration than w/ MLV
-poor stimulators of IgA, T cell immunity
-often require adjuvants to increase immunogenicity

Front 105

What is a subunit vaccine?

Back 105

composed of viral capsid or envelope proteins instead of intact virions

Front 106

At what age do puppies & kittens lose their passively acquired Ab's from mom?

Back 106

2-3 months

Front 107

What is a recombinant DNA subunit vaccine?

Back 107

gene for protective antigen from virus inserted into DNA of cloning vectors (bacteriophages, plasmids)

protective antigen: surface protein of virus that elicits production of Ab’s &/or T cells that provide protective immunity

Front 108

What are 5 advantages of recombinant DNA subunit vaccines?

Back 108

-safe: lack virulence & lack ability to revert to virulence
-effective: good stimulators of IgG, IgA, & T cell responses
-don’t produce potentially severe rxns
-can make vaccines for viruses that can’t be propagated in cell culture or eggs
-no adjuvant needed

Front 109

What is a gene deleted vaccine?

Back 109

removal of certain viral genes that promote virulence w/out harming replication & immunogenic properties of virus

Front 110

What is a virus vectored vaccine?

Back 110

DNA copies of viral genes coding for protective antigen inserted into DNA of other viruses (cloning vectors, ex. vaccinia virus)

Front 111

What is an important fact about corona viruses that may make dx difficult?

Back 111

antigenic cross-reactivity:

several viruses infect several species & induce Ab’s which may exacerbate dz by facilitating infection of MP’s
-ex. cats can be infected w. canine CV (CCV) & transmissible gastroenteritis virus (TGEV) of pigs

some viruses are indistinguishable antigenically, making it hard to interpret serum Ab titers
-(ex. FIPV vs. FECV)

Front 112

What percentage of the healthy cat population have Ab's against FIP/FECV (feline enteric corona virus)?

Back 112

10-40%

Front 113

What is the pathogenesis of FIP if no cell mediated immune response occurs?

Back 113

WET form

intense inflammation, complement fixation --> vessel wall damage --> peritoneal, pleural effusion

Front 114

What is the pathogenesis of FIP w/ a partial cell mediated immune response?

Back 114

DRY form

weak monocyte & T cell response --> granulomas

Front 115

What is the pathogenesis of FIP w/ an effective cell mediated immune response?

Back 115

strong monocyte & T cell response --> NO clinical dz

Front 116

What type of virus is canine distemper?

Back 116

paramyxovirus

Front 117

What determines the dz outcome in canine distemper?

Back 117

host immune response

Front 118

What is the outcome of canine distemper with an excellent (high Ab) response?

Back 118

inapparent infection

Front 119

What is the outcome of canine distemper with a moderate (low Ab) response?

Back 119

mild illness

virus cleared from periphery, but persists in CNS --> neuro signs 1-2 mo. post infection --> usually death

Front 120

What is the outcome of canine distemper with a poor (no Ab) response?

Back 120

severe dz & death

Front 121

What are the 3 possible scenarios upon infection w/ feline leukemia virus?

Back 121

1. cat mounts immune response, develops neutralizing Ab & becomes resistant to future infection (~40%)
2. after initial period of viremia & shedding, cat harbors virus in latent form & becomes a latent carrier: neither recovered nor acutely infected, susceptible to clinical dz (~30%)
3. cat becomes persistently viremic & sheds virus (83% die w/in 3 yrs)

Front 122

How is feline leukemia virus transmitted?

Back 122

gains entry (primarily via saliva) thru membranes of nose, eyes, resp. tract

can also be transmitted in milk, by blood transfusions, perhaps across the placenta, perhaps by fleas

Front 123

What is the efficacy of the vaccine for feline leukemia virus?

Back 123

approx. 80%

Front 124

What is the series of steps in an ELISA testing for a virus?

Back 124

-used to detect soluble viral proteins in clinical specimens such as plasma, urine, ocular secretions (indirect: detects Ab)

-specific Ab absorbed to surface of test plate
-add sample containing suspected virus (if viral Ag present, will bind absorbed Ab)
- rinse
- add specific antiviral Ab labeled w/ enzyme
- rinse
- add substrate for enzyme
- color change = sample positive for Ag

Front 125

How is paired serum serology used to dx viral infections?

Back 125

- serum collected from patient during acute clinical phase of dz
- 2-3 wks later, “convalescent” serum sample obtained
- 4 fold rise or more ↑ in Ab titer from acute to convalescence is considered evidence of recent infection w/ test agent

Front 126

What is the pathogenesis of rabies from animal bite to virus shedding in saliva?

Back 126

animal bite --> virus replication in myocytes --> spreads up nerves --> virus replication in CNS --> spreads down nerves --> infection of salivary glands, cornea, etc. --> excreted in saliva

Front 127

What is the incubation period for rabies & what is the significance of this for tx?

Back 127

incubation period: 2 wks – 1 yr (avg. 3-8 wks)

highly susceptible to Ab during incubation period (BEFORE entry into nerves)

Front 128

When do animals w/ rabies start shedding virus, and what is the clinical course (length) of the dz?

Back 128

•virus shedding: ~5 days before onset of clinical signs

•clinical course: 5-10 days (onset of signs --> death)

Front 129

What are the 2 forms of rabies & what are the associated clinical signs?

Back 129

o furious form: aggression, viciousness, roaming, loss of fear of man & other animals, altered vocalization, excessive salivation

o dumb form: paralysis of head & neck mm.  inability to swallow, altered vocalization, excessive salivation, coma, respiratory arrest

Front 130

What are the main reservoirs for rabies in US?

Back 130

wild carnivores (skunk: central US, fox, raccoon: eastern US, coyote)

insectivorous bats

Front 131

How is rabies diagnosed?

Back 131

fluorescent antibody test on brain tissue: current method choice
- will detect infection in up to 98% of affected animals

histopathology: detection of intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies (Negri bodies)
- formed late during course of infection, so animal may die prior to their formation


also virus isolation, PCR (saliva, cornea, brain)

Front 132

How is FIV transmitted?

Back 132

fighting (bites): males > females

Front 133

What are some clinical signs assoc. with FIV infection?

Back 133

lymphadenopathy, fever, gingivitis, weight loss, chronic rhinitis, anemia, chronic dermatitis, neurological signs, uveitis, persistent diarrhea, abortion

Front 134

What is the prognosis of cats w/ FIV?

Back 134

variable: not all cats develop clinical signs

Front 135

What fact makes prevention of canine adenovirus easier?

Back 135

immunity for CAV-1 & CAV-2 is cross-protective

Front 136

What is the pathogenesis & clinical signs of canine adenovirus type 1 (CAV-1), infectious canine hepatitis?

Back 136

severe systemic dz resulting in damage to endothelium, Kupffer cells, hepatocytes

clinical signs: edema, hemorrhage, hepatitis

blue eye: anterior uveitis & corneal edema that develops 7-10 days after resolution of clinical signs (damage due to immune complexes)

Front 137

What signs are associated w/ canine adenovirus type 2 (CAV-2)?

Back 137

uncomplicated infections cause mild resp. dz

severe infections result from 2° infection w/ bacteria (Bordatella, Mycoplasma) --> kennel cough (fatal pneumonia may occur)

Front 138

What is the tropism of parvoviruses?

Back 138

can only replicate in mitotically active cells (GI tract, bone marrow, cells of fetus & neonate)

Front 139

How does feline panleukopenia differ in newborn kittens vs. older kittens?

Back 139

newborn kittens (-2 to 2 wks): thymus & cerebellum most severely affected (cerebellar hypoplasia)

older kittens: virus replicates in lymphoid tissue of oropharynx, intestinal crypts, bone marrow

Front 140

How is canine parvovirus transmitted & what aspect of the virus makes it difficult to eradicate?

Back 140

transmission: fecal-oral (shed in high titers in excretions in acutely infected dogs)

virus is very environmentally resistant: requires good disinfection (ex. 1/40 dilution of bleach)

Front 141

What is the result of canine herpesvirus infection in dogs > 3 wks of age vs. pups < 3 wks. old born to seronegative moms?

Back 141

mild resp. dz & genital infection in dogs > 3 wks

fatal, systemic infection in pups < 3 wks born to seronegative mothers
- painful crying, anorexia, hemorrhages in viscera, death w/in 48 hrs

Front 142

How is canine herpes virus transmitted to puppies?

Back 142

-seronegative bitch transmits virus to pups during period 3 wks before to 3 wks after parturition (contact w/ infected genital tract, or postnatal via resp. secretions)
-will not occur w/ subsequent pregnancies in same bitch (will have Abs)

Front 143

What is another name for feline herpesvirus 1?

Back 143

feline viral rhinotracheitis

Front 144

What systems are generally affected by feline herpes virus 1 (FVR)?

Back 144

- causes resp. & ocular dz in young cats
- may cause abortion
- recrudescence of virus in cornea --> keratitis, potential blindness

Front 145

What is the pathogenesis of herpesviridae (incl. recrudescence)?

Back 145

1º infection --> spread by viremia & nerve tracts --> latent infection in ganglia --> reactivation due to stress factors --> intermittent shedding +/- recrudescence (2º episodes of dz)

Front 146

What is the gestation period for dogs?

Back 146

~65 days (58-68 d.)

Front 147

What is the gestation period for cats?

Back 147

64-69 days

Front 148

What are the methods for diagnosing pregnancy & at what periods of gestation can they be used?

Back 148

abdominal palpation: 20-30 days or after 50 days

radiography
- 21-42 days: may detect fluid filled uterine horns
- after day 42: may detect varying degrees of fetal ossification

ultrasound
- 16-20 days: fetal vesicles can be visualized w/in uterine horns
- after 24 days: fetal heart beats can be detected

Front 149

What are the 4 extraembryonic membranes?

Back 149

amnion
chorion
yolk sac
allantois

Front 150

What type of placenta do dogs & cats have, based on degree of uterine invasion & shape?

Back 150

zonary, deciduate (endotheliochorial)

fetal chorion contacts uterine capillary wall

Front 151

What is teratology?

Back 151

the study of abnormal development

Front 152

What are 4 examples of acyanotic heart defects (blood is sufficiently oxygenated)?

Back 152

pulmonic stenosis
aortic stenosis
interventricular septal defect (IVSD)
interatrial septal defect

Front 153

What are the 4 defects combined in tetralogy of Fallot?

Back 153

pulmonic stenosis
IV septal defect
overriding aorta: blood from both ventricles can get into aorta
R ventricular hypertrophy

Front 154

What are some development GI defects?

Back 154

congenital megaesophagus
esophageal achalasia
esophageal diverticulum
intestinal stenosis & atresia
persistent ileal (Meckel's) diverticulum
congential umbilical hernia
omphalocele
urorectal fistula
atresia ani

Front 155

What is spina bifida?

Back 155

defect in fusion of vertebral arches that allows variable degree of protrusion of spinal cord & meninges

Front 156

What is cranial bifida?

Back 156

cleft in skull that allows a variable degree of protrusion of cerebral tissue, fluid, & meninges (signs depend on region involved & extent of protrusion)

Front 157

What is the most common congential CNS defect?

Back 157

hydrocephalus

Front 158

What are some clinical signs of cleft palate?

Back 158

difficulty suckling: milk runs out of nose, aspiration pneumonia

Front 159

What is Collie eye anomaly?

Back 159

thinning of choroid & sclera, resulting in retinal degeneration & detachment

Front 160

What is microphthamia & what are some potential causes?

Back 160

very small eye due to insufficient growth of optic vesicle

unilateral of bilateral

can be caused by griseofulvin in kittens, vit. A deficiency in pigs, dogs, cattle

Front 161

What are some patient factors associated w/ congenital deafness? What is the usual cause?

Back 161

blue eyes
merle pigmentation
albinism
Dalmatians

cochlear duct degeneration

Front 162

What are the names for lateral, dorsal,& ventral spinal deviations, & for an abnormal twisting of the cervical spine?

Back 162

- scoliolis: lateral
- kyphosis: dorsal
- lordosis: ventral
- torticollis (“wryneck”): abnormal twisting of cervical vertebrae

Front 163

What is cervical stenotic myelopathy & what breeds of dogs are predisposed & what vertebrae?

Back 163

trauma caused to spinal cord in this area --> ataxia (“wobblers”)

- basset hounds (C2-C3 or C3-C4)
- dobermans/great danes (C5-C7)

Front 164

What is chondroplasia & what breeds are affected?

Back 164

retarded growth & ossification of long bones --> shortened bones, dwarfism

malamutes, dachshunds, Pekingese, basset hounds

Front 165

What are carpus valgus & carpus varus?

Back 165

angular limb defects

- carpus valgus: distal limb deviated laterally (“knock kneed”)
- carpus varus: distal limb deviated medially (“bow legged”)

Front 166

What is an ectopic ureter?

Back 166

ureter has abnormal termination, usually into urethra or vagina instead of bladder --> urine dribbling

Front 167

What is the most common development limb defect in animals and how does it occur?

Back 167

arthrogryposis: contracted joints, often in combo w/ facial & spinal defects

1º neuromuscular defect --> abnormal joint formation --> ankylosis (fixation of joints)

Front 168

What is opsonization?

Back 168

coating of surface of a pathogen or other particle w/ any molecule that makes its more readily ingested by phagocytes

Front 169

What is humoral immunity?

Back 169

immunity that is mediated by antibodies

Front 170

What is innate immunity?

Back 170

the host defense mechanisms that act from the start of an infection & do not adapt to a particular pathogen

Front 171

What is an epitope?

Back 171

particular part of Ag bound by Ig or T cell receptor

Front 172

What is the 1st antibody isotype made after exposure to antigen?

Back 172

IgM

Front 173

What is the major immunoglobulin in secretions (sweat, saliva, mucus, tears, milk)?

Back 173

IgA

Front 174

Which immunoglobulin is found attached to mast cell & basophil mems?

Back 174

IgE

Front 175

Which is the smallest immunoglobulin, found in high conc. in serum, lymph, CSF?

Back 175

IgG

Front 176

What are the effector cells of innate immunity?

Back 176

neutrophils, macrophages, natural killer cells

Front 177

What are the effector cells of acquired immunity?

Back 177

B & T lymphocytes

Front 178

What does protein electrophoresis do?

Back 178

allows separation of proteins based on charge

Front 179

What type of immune response is stimulated by extracellular pathogens, & what is the major cell type involved?

Back 179

humoral immune system

B cells (activated by cytokines to produce Abs)

Front 180

What is an adjuvant?

Back 180

substance when mixed w/ Ag, that enhances the immune response

Front 181

What is the definition of primary lymphoid tissues & what are some examples?

Back 181

where lymphocytes mature in Ag-recognizing cells

bone marrow: source of all hematopoetic cells, where B cells mature

thymus: where T cells mature

Front 182

What is the definition of secondary lymphoid tissues & what are some examples?

Back 182

where immune response is initiated

ex. spleen, lymph nodes, MALT, GALT, BALT, Peyer's patches

Front 183

What type of immune response is stimulated by intracellular pathogens, & what are the major cell types involved?

Back 183

cell mediated immune response

T cells

Front 184

What are the 2 types of T lymphocytes, & what do they do?

Back 184

cytotoxic T cells: CD8+, kill infected cells

helper T cells: CD4+, produce cytokines that activate B cells

Front 185

What are the 1st cells at the site of inflammation & why?

Back 185

neutrophils

respond rapidly to chemotactic factors; present in high numbers in blood

Front 186

What are the cardinal signs of inflammation?

Back 186

heat
redness
swelling
pain
loss of function

Front 187

What cytokine is the major endogenous pyrogen?

Back 187

interleukin-1 (IL-1)

Front 188

What type of immune response is promoted by T helper 1 vs. T helper 2 lymphocytes?

Back 188

TH1: promote cell mediated immunity (response dominated by effector cells)

TH2: promote humoral immunity (response dominated by Abs)

Front 189

What is determined/detected by an indirect vs. direct ELISA?

Back 189

indirect: detects serum Ab

direct: detects serum Ag

Front 190

What type of ELISA test is used for FIV & FelV (indirect or direct)?

Back 190

FIV: indirect (tests for Ab)

FelV: direct (tests for Ag)

Front 191

What is a hypersensitivity reaction?

Back 191

normal immune response to Ag resulting in damage to host

Front 192

What are some examples of type II hypersensitivity rxn?

Back 192

transfusion rxns
hemolytic dz of newborn
immune mediated cytopenias (d/t drugs, pathogens)
pemphigus

Front 193

What is a type III hypersensitivity rxn?

Back 193

immune complex deposition

immune complexes of certain size deposit in tissue & are trapped
complement activated --> acute inflammation at site of deposition

Front 194

What are some examples of type III hypersensitivity rxns?

Back 194

blue eye (dog)
COPD
serum sickness
FIP (wet)
immune complex dz (general)

Front 195

What are some examples of type IV hypersensitivity reactions?

Back 195

tuberculin test
contact allergies
FIP (dry)
granulomatous dz

Front 196

What are some examples of type I hypersensitivity reactions?

Back 196

anaphylaxis

d/t inhalation of allergen: COPD, asthma
d/t ingestion of allergen: food allergy
atopic dermatitis
intradermal: insect bites, vaccine rxns

Front 197

What is a type II hypersensitivity rxn?

Back 197

Ab (IgM or IgG) binds to surface cell Ag --> complement activation, opsonization of target --> lysis of target

target cells:
RBCs --> hemolytic anemia
platelets --> thrombocytopenia

Front 198

What is a type IV hypersensitivity rxn?

Back 198

delayed type hypersensitivity

charactizered by mononuclear infiltrate (lymphocytes, MPs)
does NOT involve Ab; overactive cell mediated immune response

Front 199

What is a type I hypersensitivity rxn?

Back 199

immediate-type hypersensitivity (sensitization required)

IgE bound to mast cell --> Ag-binding sites on mast cell exposed --> cross-linking of receptors --> degranulation --> release of proinflammatory mediators

Front 200

What does a direct Coombs test test for?

Back 200

tests for Abs or complement bound to RBCs (indicative of immune mediated hemolytic anemia)

Front 201

What does an indirect Coombs test test for?

Back 201

tests for anti-RBC Abs in serum

Front 202

What does an anti-nuclear Ab (ANA) test test for?

Back 202

tests to see if serum contains Abs to a nuclear Ag

Front 203

What are the 4 stages of anesthesia?

Back 203

stage of voluntary movement (sedation): from initial drug administration to loss of consciousness
stage of involuntary movement (excitement): from loss of consciousness to establishment of regular breathing pattern
stage of surgical anesthesia: unconsciousness, progressive depression of autonomic reflexes (planes: light, moderate, deep (rapidly controlled by changing vaporizer setting))
medullar collapse: death due to cardio/pulmonary decompensation; may be reversed

Front 204

What is the MAC (minimum alveolar concentration) of an inhaled anesthetic?

Back 204

minimum alveolar concentration at which 50% of patients will not purposefully move in response to a standardized noxious stimulus

Front 205

What is the physical classificaiton scheme (ASA) for an animal undergoing anesthesia?

Back 205

I: normal healthy patient (usually elective procedure)
II: mild, compensated dz (ex. herniated disc)
III: serious systemic dz w/ compensation (ex. diabetic controlled w/ insulin)
IV: serious decompensating systemic dz (ex. diabetic refractory to drug therapy)
V: moribund, not expected to survive 24 hrs

II-V can be further modified w/ designation of emergency case (ex. III-E)

Front 206

What is the purpose of a vaporizer on an anesthetic machine?

Back 206

changes a liquid anesthetic into its vapor & adds a specific amt of vapor to gases being delivered to patient

Front 207

What is the defining characteristic of a rebreathing (circle) system?

Back 207

part or all of exhaled gases flow back to patient after extraction of CO2

Front 208

What is the purpose of the pop-off valve in a rebreathing system?

Back 208

allows venting of gases to scavenging system to prevent build-up of excessive pressure (must keep open)

Front 209

What is the formula to determine the minimum size of the resevoir bag for a patient undergoing anesthesia?

Back 209

minimum size: 5 x 15 ml x body wt (kg) = vol (L)

Front 210

What is the defining characteristic of a non-rebreathing system & what set of patients is this indicated for?

Back 210

uses no chemical absorbent for CO2 – depends on high fresh gas flow rates to flush out exhaled CO2

used in patients weighing < 8 kg

Front 211

Define the normal ranges for the following arterial blood gas parameters:

a. pH
b. paO2
c. paCO2
d. HCO3-

Back 211

a. 7.35-7.45
b. 80-100 mm Hg
c. 35-45 mm Hg
d. 22-27 mEq/L

Front 212

What change in a blood gas parameter defines the following?

a. respiratory acidosis
b. metabolic acidosis
c. respiratory alkalosis
d. metabolic alkalosis

Back 212

a. increased paCO2
b. decreased HCO3-
c. decreased paCO2
d. increased HCO3-

Front 213

What is the appropriate therapy for a respiratory acidosis OR alkalosis?

Back 213

alter patient's minute volume to inc. or dec. elimination of CO2
(Vmin = tidal vol x resp. rate)

to tx respiratory ACIDOSIS: increase Vmin

to tx respiratory ALKALOSIS:
decrease Vmin

Front 214

What is the appropriate therapy for metabolic acidosis?

Back 214

1. tx underlying cause first
2. consider administering sodium bicarbonate if pH <= 7.2

Front 215

What is hypoxemia?

Back 215

subnormal oxygenation of arterial blood (↓PaO2 in room air)

Front 216

What is relative hypoxemia vs. absolute hypoxemia?

Back 216

absolute: PaO2 < 80 mm Hg

relative: PaO2 less than expected for given PaO2, but still > 80 mm Hg

Front 217

What is the appropriate therapy for hypoxemia?

Back 217

provide adequate ventilation
optimize cardiac output
provide supplemental O2 (indicated for patient persistently incapable of maintaining Hg-O2 saturation > 90%)

Front 218

Why do most anesthetized patients hypoventilate?

Back 218

b/c of ↓ CNS sensitivity to CO2–evoked alterations in CSF

Front 219

Under what clinical situations should intermittend positive pressure ventilation (IPPV) be instituted?

Back 219

when patient ventilation is impaired to point of significant acid-base imbalance or when alveolar hypoventilation becomes a limiting factor in maintaining inhalation anesthesia

(generally, when PexpCO2 ≥ 60 mm Hg)

Front 220

What are the 4 steps of nociception?

Back 220

1. transduction: process of damaged tissue communicating this info to PNS
2. transmission: process of communicating info from step 1 to the spinal cord or cranial nerve nucleus
3. modulation: neurons w/in dorsal laminae of each spinal cord segment synapse w/ 1st order neurons transmitting from periphery & decisions are made about what info is sent to higher CNS & autonomic centers
4. perception: at cerebrum, nociceptive info is integrated w/ other info  experience of pain

Front 221

What is allodynia?

Back 221

when a normally non-painful stimuli (ex. touch) becomes painful

Front 222

What is central sensitization (wind-up) as it relates to pain?

Back 222

2nd order neurons depolarize in response to progressively less stimulation & become more likely to code info from those recruited non-nociceptive neurons (ex. those assoc. w/ touch or pressure) as nociception

Front 223

What are the 2 basic tenets in pain therapy?

Back 223

-multimodal

-preemptive

Front 224

What is the appropriate fluid replacement rate for most healthy animals undergoing short elective procedures?

Back 224

10 ml/kg/hr

Front 225

What is the percentage breakdown of body water in the ICF vs. ECF?

Back 225

ICF: 2/3 of body water
ECF: 1/3 of body water
- 3/4 of ECF is interstitial/transcellular
- 1/4 of ECF is plasma

Front 226

What factor controls the size of the extracellular fluid compartment?

Back 226

total body sodium content

Front 227

What is the definition of isotonic dehydration & what are some causes?

Back 227

fluid lost is high in sodium (most common type), all comes from ECF

causes: vomiting, diarrhea

Front 228

What is the definition of hypertonic dehydration & what are some causes?

Back 228

fluid lost is low in Na (pure H2O), comes from total body water

causes: access to H2O, heat injury

Front 229

What is the definition of hypotonic dehydration & what are some causes?

Back 229

caused by ionic loss + drinking some H2O (uncommon)

usually due to diarrhea or severe heart failure treated w/ diuretics

Front 230

What are some examples of replacement fluids, when are they used, and how much plasma volume expansion do they cause?

Back 230

LRS, plasmalyte-A

used to tx isotonic dehydration & expand plasma vol. (commonly used during anesthesia)

1 L given --> 200-250 mL expansion of plasma vol

Front 231

When is hypertonic saline used, and how much plasma volume expansion do they cause?

Back 231

used for rapid resuscitation of patients from shock using a small vol. of fluid

100 mL given --> 400 mL expansion of plasma vol.

Front 232

What are some examples of colloids, when are they used, and how much plasma volume expansion do they cause?

Back 232

starches (hetastarch, dextran), albumin, oxyglobin

 used for resuscitation from circulatory shock or to correct volume-responsive hypotension w/ less total H2O than a replacement fluid
best use is in hypoalbuminemic animals

1 L given --> 1L of plasma vol. expansion

Front 233

What is the definition of shock?

Back 233

syndrome characterized by inadequate O2 delivery to a critical mass of tissues (cellular O2 debt)

Front 234

When are low sodium fluids (ex. 5% dextrose) used, and how much plasma volume expansion do they cause?

Back 234

used to provide animals w/ distilled H2O in a temporarily isotonic form that won’t lyse RBC’s at tip of IV catheter

NOT used during anesthesia b/c they do NOT support plasma vol.

1 L given --> 50 ml plasma expansion & ↓ osmolality

Front 235

At which vertebrae does the spinal cord end in the dog & cat?

Back 235

dog: L6-L7
cat: S1

Front 236

How do the left & right kidney differ in location?

Back 236

right kidney usually 1/2 length or more in front of left (left got LEFT behind)

right kidney fits into renal impression of caudate lobe of liver

both are palapable in CAT, more mobile, esp. left, which hangs in a fold of peritoneum

Front 237

What attaches to the greater omenutum?

Back 237

the greater curvature of stomach to dorsal body wall

Front 238

What attaches to the lesser omentum?

Back 238

the lesser curvature of stomach to liver & duodenum

Front 239

What is mesentery?

Back 239

double sheets of peritoneum that attach an organ to the body wall

Front 240

How many mammary glands do dogs have?

Name the pairs from cranial to caudal.

Back 240

10

cranial thoracic
caudal thoracic
cranial abdominal
caudal abdominal
inguinal

Front 241

How many mammary glands do cats have?

Name the pairs from cranial to caudal.

Back 241

8

caudal thoracic
cranial abdominal
caudal abdominal
inguinal

Front 242

Name the 4 major regions of the stomach.

Back 242

cardia
fundus
body
pylorus

Front 243

What is the normal sequence of blood flow in an adult starting in the right atrium?

Back 243

R atrium --> R AV valve --> R ventricle --> pulmonic valve --> pulmonary trunk --> lungs --> pulmonary vv. --> L atrium --> L AV valve --> L ventricle --> aortic valve --> aorta --> head & body --> cranial & caudal vena cava --> R atrium

Front 244

What murmur is associated w/ PDA?

Back 244

continuous ("machinery") murmur

Front 245

How many lobes do the left and right lungs have & what are they called?

Back 245

left: 2 (cranial, caudal)

right: 4 (cranial, middle, caudal, accessory)

Front 246

What is the pathogenesis of PDA?

Back 246

d/t failure of closure of ductus arteriosus

shunt from L to R side of heart --> blood from higher pressure aorta continuously shunted to main pulmonary a. --> inc. volume of blood to lungs --> pulmonary edema, volume overload to left heart

Front 247

How many cusps do each of the heart valves have?

Back 247

R AV (tricuspid): 2
L AV (mitral): 2
aortic: 3
pulmonic: 3
(aortic & pulmonic called semilunar valves)

Front 248

What are chordae tendinae & what is their function?

Back 248

attach cusps of AV valves to septal wall of vetricle via papillary mm.

prevent eversion of cusps during contraction of heart (systole)

Front 249

When during cardiac cycle do systolic murmurs occur & give 2 examples.

Back 249

b'twn S1 & S2

aortic/pulmonic stenosis
AV insufficiency

Front 250

When during cardiac cycle do diastolic murmurs occur & give 2 examples.

Back 250

b'twn S2 & S1

aortic/pulmonic insufficiency
AV stenosis

Front 251

What are the determinants of cardiac output?

Back 251

heart rate x stroke volume

Front 252

What is the definition of stroke volume?

Back 252

amt. of blood ejected from ventricle on a single contraction.

Front 253

What is the definition of afterload?

Back 253

sum of forces resisting ejection of blood from the heart (~= aortic pressure)

Front 254

What is the definition of preload?

Back 254

distending pressure w/in a ventricle just prior to contraction (=end diastolic pressure)

Front 255

What is the functional residual capacity (FRC)?

Back 255

amount of air left in lungs after a normal respiration

Front 256

What is tidal volume (VT)?

Back 256

volume of air inspired or expired w/ each normal breath

Front 257

What is accomodation as it relates to vision?

Back 257

the capacity to focus on near or far objects by changing shape of the lens

Front 258

How do you do a major & minor crossmatch when blood typing & which one is a major problem?

Back 258

major: donor RBC + rec. serum

minor: donor serum + rec. RBC

MAJOR is a major problem

Front 259

What are some causes of a ventilation: perfusion abnormality w/ V/Q > 1?

Back 259

= dead space ventilation

dehydration
pulmonary emboli

Front 260

What are some causes of a ventilation: perfusion abnormality w/ V/Q < 1?

Back 260

= physiologic R --> L shunt

alveolar pneumonia or edema
space occupying mass
atelectasis
lung lobe torsion

Front 261

What are the etiologies of hypoxemia?

Back 261

decreased inspired oxygen concentration
hypoventilation
anatomic R --> L shunt
alveolar dead space (V/Q > 1)
physiologic R --> L shunt

Front 262

What are the effects of alpha-1 adrenergic activation?

Back 262

vasoconstriction --> inc. BP
contraction
mydriasis

Front 263

What are the effects of beta-1 adrenergic activation?

Back 263

(myocardium only)
inc. HR, contractility, conduction velocity

Front 264

What type of drug is dopamine & what is it used for?

Back 264

beta-1 agonist

used in short term management of low cardiac output assoc. w/ compromised renal fn as seen in cardiogenic or hypovolemic shock

Front 265

What type of drug is epinephrine?

Back 265

non-selective adrenergic agonist

Front 266

What are 5 adverse effects associated w/ beta blockers?

Back 266

1. bronchoconstriction (don't use w/ asthma or COPD)
2. altered carb & lipid metabolism (caution w/ diabetics)
3. inc. serum triglycerides
4. dec. serum HDL
5. exercise intolerance

Front 267

isoproterenol

a. class
b. uses

Back 267

a. beta agonist
b. used in emergencies to stimulate HR in patients w/ bradycardia or heart block

Front 268

norepinephrine

a. class

Back 268

a. alpha-1, alpha-2, beta-1 agonist

Front 269

sotalol

a. class
b. uses
c. why it's better than propranolol

Back 269

a. beta antagonist
b. V tach: dogs, hypertension, arrhthymias, HCM: cats
c. also blocks K+ channels --> inc. refractory period of myocardium --> slows rate of depolarization

Front 270

carvedilol

a. class
b. uses

Back 270

a. alpha-1, beta-1, beta-2 antagonist
b. heart failure, DCM: dogs

Front 271

propranolol

a. class
b. uses

Back 271

a. beta antagonist
b. arrhtyhmias in dogs

Front 272

timolol

a. class
b. uses

Back 272

a. beta antagonist
b. tx of open angle glaucoma (to dec. IOP)

Front 273

What are the effects of alpha-2 adrenergic activation?

Back 273

presynaptic: dec. release of norepi (feedback mechanism)

postsynaptic: vasoconstriction --> inc. BP

Front 274

What are the effects of muscarinic activation?

Back 274

M2: dec. HR, dec. conduction velocity

M3: smooth muscle contraction, increased glandular secretions, miosis, urination, increased peristalsis

Front 275

What are the effects of beta-2 adrenergic activation?

Back 275

vasodilation --> dec. BP
relaxation
bronchodilation

Front 276

What are the effects of nicotinic activation?

Back 276

Nm: skeletal muscle contraction

Nn (adrenal medulla): release of catecholamines into bloodstream

Front 277

atenolol

a. class
b. uses

Back 277

a. beta-1 antagonist
b. cats: various cardiomyopathies
dogs: cheaper alternative to carvedilol for heart failure

Front 278

cisapride

a. class
b. uses

Back 278

a. 5-HT4 agonist
b. dogs/cats: disorders of gastric emptying, intestinal, other motility problems
cats: chronic constipation & megacolon

only available thru compounding pharmacies

Front 279

cimetidine & famotidine

a. class
b. uses
c. cimetidine: potency, duration, other effect
d. famotidine: potency, duration, possible effect in cats

Back 279

a. H2 antagonists
b. gastric & duodenal ulcers, Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (gastrinoma)
c. cimetidine less potent, shorter acting, inhibits cytochrome p450 enzymes
d. famotidine: more potent, longer duration, can cause hemolysis when given IV to cats

Front 280

ondansetron

a. class
b. uses

Back 280

a. 5-HT3 antagonist
b. anti-emetic, esp. w/ chemo

Front 281

metoclopramide

a. class
b. uses
c. 2 main results

Back 281

a. dopamine antagonist
b. tx emesis assoc. w/ chemo, delayed gastric emptying, GE reflux, peptic ulcers
c. prokinetic, anti-emetic

Front 282

clinical uses of nitrovasodilators

Back 282

acute tx of pulmonary edema assoc. w/ CHF

Front 283

amlodipine

a. class
b. uses

Back 283

a. calcium channel blocker
b. cats: drug of choice to tx hypertension (secondary to renal failure, hyperthyroidism, DM), dogs: primary hypertension, CHF

Front 284

spironolactone

a. class
b. uses

Back 284

a. aldosterone antagonist (K sparing diuretic)

b. used infrequently, can be used to augment other diuretics or as an adjunct to enalapril to tx CHF

Front 285

flurbiprofen

a. class
b. uses

Back 285

a. propionic acid derivative (NSAID)
b. used topically to prevent miosis during ocular sx

Front 286

carprofen

a. class
b. uses

Back 286

a. proprionic acid derivative (NSAID)
b. osteoarthritis, post-op pain in dogs

Front 287

What are the effects of the following PGs on vascular tone?

a. PGA
b. PGE2
c. PGF2alpha
d. PGI2
e. TxA2

Back 287

a. vasodilation
b. vasodilation
c. vasoconstriction
d. vasodilation
e. vasoconstriction

Front 288

What are the effects of the following on platelet aggregation?

a. TxA2
b. PGI2

Back 288

a. increases
b. decreases

Front 289

How do PGE2 & PGI2 effect the kidneys?

Back 289

increase renal blood flow, diuretic

Front 290

How do PGE2 & PGI2 relate to inflammation?

Back 290

both assoc. w/ pain & edema of inflammation
PGE2 is also pyrogenic

Front 291

What is the mechanism of action of Class IV antiarrhythmias & give an example & its uses?

Back 291

calcium channel blockers

diltiazem
uses: HCM in cats, supraventricular arrhythmias

Front 292

What class of diuretic is furosemide & by what 3 mechanisms do these drugs cause diuresis?

Back 292

loop diuretic

1. inhibit Na/K/2Cl transporter in thick loop of Henle --> dec. reabsorption
2. prevent K recycling for Mg & Ca
3. inc. PGI2 --> increased renal blood flow

Front 293

What are the clinical uses of furosemide & give 2 possible drug interactions.

Back 293

uses: pulmonary edema, liver disease, CHF, vascular dz, acute renal failure, hypercalcemia, hyperkalemia

interactions:
potentiate other diuretics
inhibited by NSAIDS (d/t dec. PGs & share same excretory mechanism)

Front 294

acetylsalicylate

a. common name
b. contraindications

Back 294

a. aspirin
b. renal or liver dz, aminoglycoside Abs, GI complications, w/in 2 wks of sx

Front 295

digoxin

a. class
b. uses
c. 3 mechanisms of action

Back 295

a. positive inotrope (only oral one)
b. CHF, supraventricular arrhythmias, CM
c. inhibits Na/K pump, inc. baroreceptor sensitivity, parasympathomimetic

Front 296

Class I antiarrhythmics

a. mechanism
b. most commonly used drug
c. uses

Back 296

a. local anesthetics (block Na channels)
b. lidocaine
c. drug of choice to tx acute ventricular arrhtyhmias

Front 297

mannitol

a. class
b. uses

Back 297

a. osmotic diuretic
b. used to dec. ICP in tx of cerebral edema; used to dec. IOP in tx of acute glaucoma

Front 298

clomipramine

a. class
b. uses

Back 298

a. 5-HT (serotonin) agonist
b. dog: seperation anxiety, tail chasing, dominance aggression, lick granulomas
cat: aggression, inappropriate urination, excessive grooming, excessive vocalization, anxiety

Front 299

buspirone

a. class
b. uses

Back 299

a. 5-HT (serotonin) agonist
b. generalized anxiety in cats

Front 300

fluoxetine, paroxetine

a. common names
b. class

Back 300

a. prozac, paxil
b. 5-HT (serotonin) agonists

Front 301

flunixin

a. brand name
b. class
c. clinical uses
d. side effects w/ repeat use in dogs

Back 301

a. Banamine
b. NSAID
c. tx of endotoxic shock & to decrease post-sx ocular inflammation in dogs & cats
d. GI ulceration, renal damage

Front 302

etodolac

a. brand name
b. class
c. uses

Back 302

a. Etogesic
b. NSAID
c. osteoarthritis in dogs

Front 303

tepoxalin

a. brand name
b. mechanisms
c. uses

Back 303

a. Zubrin
b. non-selective COX & lipoxygenase inhibitor
c. osteoarthritis in dogs

Front 304

omeprazole

a. brand name
b. class/mechanisms
c. uses

Back 304

a. Prilosec
b. proton pump inhibitor
c. gastric & dudodenal ulcers, Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

Front 305

misoprostol

a. class/mechanism
b. uses

Back 305

a. PGE1 analog
b. given orally to dec. GI ulceration from chronic NSAID use

Front 306

latanaprost

a. class
b. uses

Back 306

a. PGF2alpha analog
b. topical anti-glaucoma agent in dogs (NOT cats)

Front 307

dinoprost tromethamine

a. brand name
b. class
c. uses

Back 307

a. Lutalyse
b. PGF2alpha analog
c. used to synchronize estrus, induce parturition or abortion, tx pyometra, tx cysticl endometrial hyperplasia-pyometra complex in bitch

Front 308

5 effects of Angiotensin II

Back 308

1. vasoconstriciton --> inc. preload & afterload
2. inc. ADH release --> H2O retention, thirst
3. inc. aldosterone release --> Na, H2O retention
4. inc. sympathetic tone --> inc. catecholamine release
5. myocardial remodeling

Front 309

Class III antiarrhythmic drugs

a. mechanism
b. uses
c. prototype

Back 309

a. K channel blockers --> prolong AP & refractory period
b. only used in dogs to tx severe arrhythmias refractory to other tx
c. sotalol: beta adrenergic & K channel blocker

Front 310

thiazide diuretics

a. mechanism
b. clinical uses
c. contraindicated w/

Back 310

a. inhibit Na/Cl cotransporter in distal tubule --> block Na, Cl reabsorption (only 10% of filtered Na usually reabs. here) --> weaker diuresis than furosemide
b. hypercalciuria --> calculi
c. hypercalcemia b/c they cause inc. Ca reabsorption

Front 311

deracoxib

a. brand name
b. class
c. uses
d. side effects

Back 311

a. Deramaxx
b. COX-2 inhibitor (NSAID)
c. osteoarthritis, post-op pain in dogs
d. GI bleeding

Front 312

meloxicam

a. brand name
b. class
c. uses
d. side effects compared to deracoxib

Back 312

a. Metacam
b. COX-2 inhibitor (NSAID)
c. osteoarthritis in dogs/cats
d. not as COX-2 selective --> low incidence of GI side effects

Front 313

enalapril

a. class
b. uses
c. positive effects
d. adverse effects

Back 313

a. ACE inhibitor
b. tx of CHF
c. dec. preload & afterload, prevents vasoconstrictive effects of angiotensin II, dec. Na, H2O retention, dec. cardiac myocyte hypertrophy & fibrosis ==> improved survivability
d. hypotension (w/ high doses or w/ diuretic), hyperkalemia (NOT common), dec. efficacy if given w/ NSAIDs

Front 314

Class II antiarrhythmic drugs

a. mechanism
b. uses

Back 314

a. beta adrenergic blockers
b. tacyarrhythmias, supraventricular arrhythmias, feline HCM or hyperthyroidism, heart failure, glaucoma

Front 315

carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

a. mechanisms as diuretics
b. uses
c. side effects/contraindication

Back 315

OLD, not used much

a. block reabsorption of bicarb at prox. tubule --> diuresis, alkaline urine for 12 hrs.
b. glaucoma, urinary alkalinization --> dec. formation of some calculi (only effective for a few days)
c. hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis (d/t significant bicarb loss), DON'T use w/ hepatic encephalopathy (dec. urine loss of ammonia)

Front 316

acetaminophen

a. brand name
b. class
c. uses
d. major contraindication
e. effects of OD
f. how to tx OD

Back 316

a. Tylenol
b. NSAID (p-aminophenol derivative)
c. w/ codeine for post-op pain in dogs
d. VERY TOXIC TO CATS
-detoxification of acetaminophen occurs primarily by glucuronide conjugation --> inactive metabolite
-alternative pathway --> toxic metabolites --> detoxification by liver glutathione
-cats are poor glucuronidators, so glutathione system is overwhelmed --> accumulation of toxic metabolites in liver
e. hemolysis, methemoglobinemia, hepatic & renal necrosis
f. acetylcysteine: works best if given w/in 10 hrs of overdose

Front 317

tropicamide

a. class
b. uses

Back 317

a. muscarinic antagonist
b. drug of choice for ocular exams (short duration of action: 4-6 hrs; causes mydriasis & cycloplegia)
tx of keratitis & uveitis

Front 318

glycopyrrolate

a. class
b. uses
c. how it compares to atropine

Back 318

a. muscarinic antagonist
b. used as pre-anesthetic agent & to reverse excessive vagal stimulation (sinus bradycardia)
c. longer duration, less CNS effects, bit less tachycardia

Front 319

atipamezole

a. class
b. uses

Back 319

a. alpha-2 adrenergic antagonist
b. used to reverse hypotension & bradycardiac produced by alpha-2 agonists (medetomidine, xylazine)

Front 320

atropine

a. class
b. uses

Back 320

a. muscarinic antagonist
b. tx of cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning (give prior to 2-PAM)

Front 321

bethanecol

a. class
b. uses

Back 321

a. muscarinic agonist
b. tx of detrusor atony in dogs, GI atony

Front 322

physostigmine

a. class
b. uses

Back 322

a. cholinergic agonist (primarily muscarinic)
b. antidote to anticholinergic agents

Front 323

atracurium

a. class
b. uses
c. duration of action

Back 323

a. competitive neuromuscular blocker
b. used as adjuvant to anesthesia
c. ~30 min.

Front 324

edrophonium

a. class
b. uses
c. duration

Back 324

a. cholinergic agonist
b. dx myasthenia gravis in dogs, reverse neuromuscular blockade
c. 2-3 min.

Front 325

ephedrine

a. class
b. uses

Back 325

a. adrenergic agonist
b. used as a bronchodilator or a decongestant

Front 326

phenoxybenzamine

a. class
b. uses

Back 326

a. alpha adrenergic antagonist
b. used to dec. vasoconstriction in tx of peripheral vasospasm, hypertension, pheochromocytoma, visceral ischemia, urethral obstruction in cats

Front 327

neostigmine

a. class
b. uses

Back 327

a. cholinergic agonist (reversible cholinesterase inhibitor)
b. tx of myasthenia gravis in dogs, to reverse neuromuscular blockers

Front 328

succinylcholine

a. class
b. drug interaction

Back 328

a. depolarizing neuromuscular blocker (cannot be reversed)
b. DON'T use w/ cholinesterase inhibitor - may intensify neuromusclar blockade

no often used in vet med

Front 329

phenylephrine

a. class
b. uses

Back 329

a. alpha-1 adrenergic agonist
b. used as a mydriatic prior to cataract sx in DOGS (doesn't cause mydriasis in cats)
used to dx Horner's syndrome, used as a decongenstant

Front 330

pilocarpine

a. class
b. uses

Back 330

a. muscarinic agonist
b. topically used to tx glaucoma in dogs & cats (to dec. IOP)

Front 331

vecuronium

a. class
b. uses
c. contraindications
d. duration of action

Back 331

a. competitive neuromuscular blocker
b. adjuvant to anesthesia
c. liver dz (metabolized by liver --> cumulative effect)
d. ~60 min.

Front 332

2-PAM (pralidoxime)

a. class
b. uses

Back 332

a. cholinesterase reactivator (displaces irreversible cholinesterase inhibitor)
b. tx of organophosphate induced cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning
must be given w/in hrs of exposure
give atropine 1st to block PS effects of toxin

Front 333

clenbuterol

a. class
b. uses

Back 333

a. beta-2 adrenergic agonist
b. used to inc. bronchial secretions & mucociliary clearance in COPD

Front 334

diethylstilbestrol (DES)

a. class
b. uses

Back 334

a. synthetic estrogen
b. used to tx urinary incontinence secondary to dec. estrogen production in spayed dogs

Front 335

terbutaline

a. class
b. uses

Back 335

a. beta-2 adrenergic agonist
b. used to tx obstructive pulmonary disorders (ex. asthma) in dogs & cats (bronchodilator)
used to delay premature labor

Front 336

phenylpropanolamine (PPA)

a. class
b. uses
c. adverse effect & susceptible breed

Back 336

a. alpha-1 adrenergic agonist
b. tx of urinary incontinence (esp. in spayed females)
c. CNS stimulation, esp. in Collies

Front 337

albuterol

a. class
b. uses

Back 337

a. beta-2 adrenergic agonist
b. tx of obstructive pulmonary dz (ex. asthma) in dogs, cats (bronchodilator)

Front 338

Which 3 types of drugs are contraindicated w/ competitive neuromuscular blockers and why?

Back 338

aminoglycoside antibiotics
halothane
Ca channel blockers

alter Ca movement --> intensify neuromuscular blockade

Front 339

diphenhydramine

a. class
b. uses

Back 339

a. a. H1 antagonist (antihistamine)
b. prevents motion induced nausea, local anesthetic at high topical doses

Front 340

cyproheptadine

a. class

Back 340

a. H1 antagonist (antihistamine), also a 5-HT2A antagonist

Front 341

uses of 1st generation anti-histamines

Back 341

allergic & anaphylactic rxns
inflammatory disorders (pruritis, urticaria, dermatitis)
anti-emesis
anti-nauseant

Front 342

dobutamine

a. class
b. uses

Back 342

a. alpha-1 agonist & antagonist, beta agonist
b. used for acute management of heart failure

Front 343

What is the surgical minimum alveolar concentration (MAC)?

Back 343

amt. of anesthetic at which 95% of patients will be immobile during sx (1.3-1.5x MAC)

Front 344

What are 3 main factors affecting drug transport?

Back 344

ionization (only non-ionized fraction of drug penetrates membrane)
blood flow
plasma & tissue binding

Front 345

What is the major role of the liver in drug metabolism?

Back 345

to eliminate lipophilic drugs (must be hydrophilic to be secreted by renal or biliary mechanisms)

Front 346

What is the first pass effect w/ respect to drugs?

Back 346

potential of all drugs absorbed by GI tract to be metabolized by liver before reaching systemic circulation

Front 347

What is bioavailability?

Back 347

fraction of the administered dose of a drug absorbed into systemic circulation after extra-vascular dosing

Front 348

What is the cardinal sign of oral cavity/pharyngeal dz & what are some associated clinical signs?

Back 348

DYSPHAGIA: difficulty prehending, chewing, or swallowing food

signs: repeated swallowing efforts, halitosis, pawing at mouth, hypersalivation, nasal discharge or coughing due to laryngotracheal aspiration

Front 349

What is the muscle content of the esophagus in the cat vs. dog & what are the implications of this?

Back 349

dog: all skeletal m.
cat: 1st 2/3 skeletal m., rest smooth m.

skeletal m. NOT under voluntary control (Ach from vagus n. --> nicotinic receptors)

dogs predisposed to esophageal weakness as clinical sign of dz that affect skeletal m. or NM transmission (ex. myasthenia gravis)

most pro-motility drugs work best on smooth m.  more tx options for esophageal weakness in cats than in dogs

Front 350

What is the cardinal sign of esophageal disease?

Back 350

REGURGITATION: spontaneous expulsion of contents from esophagus as facilitated by body position & gravity (contents never reach stomach)

Front 351

What are the 3 mediators of gastric HCl secretion & which is most important?

Back 351

gastrin, histamine, Ach

histamine most important

Front 352

What is the cardinal sign of gastric dysfunction?

Back 352

vomiting

Front 353

What are the 4 major stimuli of the vomiting center & where is the vomiting center found?

Back 353

vomiting center: reticular formation of brainstem (5-HT & α2 receptors)

1. chemoreceptor trigger zone
2. vestibular apparatus (motion sickness)
3. abdominal viscera
4. cerebral cortex (more important in humans)

Front 354

What are 3 major metabolic consequences of vomiting in dogs & cats?

Back 354

loss of HCO3 --> metabolic acidosis
loss of K+ --> hypokalemia
loss of H2O --> dehydration, hypovolemia

Front 355

What is the major function of the pancreas?

Back 355

makes & secretes digestive enzymes into dudodenum

Front 356

What are the 3 major digestive enzymes secreted as zymogens by the pancreas?

Back 356

trypsinogen
lipase
alpha-amylase

Front 357

What is the pathology of exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI), what causes it, & how is it diagnosed?

Back 357

failure of pancreas to manufacture & secrete enzymes

 due to chronic insidious bouts of pancreatitis, some breeds (ex. GSDs) prone to autoimmune dz causes pancreatic cell apoptosis

-diagnosed using test called TLI (trypsinogen-like immunoreactivity)
-normally a small amt. of trypsinogen that leaks from pancreas into bloodstream in a measurable amt.
-w/ EPI, amt. becomes negligible

Front 358

What is hydrostatic pressure?

Back 358

pressure exerted by the heart pumping blood, which tends to drive water & other permeable mols out of caps

Front 359

What is colloid osmotic (oncotic) pressure?

Back 359

pressure for movement of water w/ its dissolved small mols & ions created by the difference in dissolved protein conc. b’twn blood & interstitial fluid

Front 360

What is the Na/K pump?

Back 360

a membrane protein that catalyzes hydrolysis of ATP & couples hydrolysis energy to movement of Na OUT of cell & K INTO cell

Front 361

What is the function of the dendrites of a neuron?

Back 361

signals from neighboring neurons

Front 362

What is the function of the axon of a neuron?

Back 362

transmits an electrical impulse (AP) from its initial segment at cell body to other end of axon at the presynaptic terminal

Front 363

What is the function of the presynpatic terminal of a neuron?

Back 363

transmits a chemical signal to an adjacent cell, usually another nerve or muscle cell

Front 364

Where is the vestibular system located & what is its function?

Back 364

located in inner ear bilaterally

informs the brain about the position & motion of the head in space

Front 365

What are some signs of acute vestibular disease?

Back 365

a persisting head tilt
compulsive circling or rolling
nystagmus

Front 366

What is the main function of the cerebellum?

Back 366

choreographer of motor commands:
constantly compares the intended movement w/ the actual movement & makes appropriate adjustments

Front 367

What are some signs of cerebellar disease?

Back 367

wide based gait, ataxia, dysmetria (inappropriate measure of muscular contraction): "goose" stepping, intention tremors

Front 368

What disease in kittens may be associated w/ cerebellar hypoplasia?

Back 368

feline panleukopenia virus

Front 369

What is a ganglion?

Back 369

collection of nerve cell bodies outside the CNS

Front 370

From where does the sympathetic nervous system arise?

Back 370

thoracic & lumbar spinal nerves

Front 371

From where does the parasympathetic nervous system arise?

Back 371

cranial nerves & sacral spinal nerves

Front 372

What NT is secreted by PS, postganglionic neurons?

Back 372

Ach

Front 373

What NT is secreted by sympathetic, postganglionic neurons?

Back 373

norepi

Front 374

What NT is secreted by PS, preganglionic neurons?

Back 374

Ach

Front 375

What is the name given to Ach secreting synapse?

Back 375

cholinergic

Front 376

What is the name given to norepi secreting synapse?

Back 376

adrenergic

Front 377

How is Ach removed from synaptic cleft?

Back 377

destroyed by acetylcholinesterase

Front 378

How is norepi removed from synaptic cleft?

Back 378

by diffusion & reuptake by presynaptic neuron

Front 379

What is the name of the white, outer protective layer encasing most of the eyeball?

Back 379

sclera

Front 380

What is the transparent anterior portion of the outer covering of the eye; it covers the lens and iris and is continuous with the sclera?

Back 380

cornea

Front 381

What is the dark-brown vascular coat of the eye between the sclera and the retina?

Back 381

choroid

Front 382

What is the layer of the eye that contains the photoreceptors?

Back 382

retina

Front 383

What fills the anterior & posterior chambers of the eye?

Back 383

aqueous humor

Front 384

What is the name of the pigmented structure of the eye containing dilator & constrictor smooth muscle fibers arranged to vary the diameter of the pupil?

Back 384

iris

Front 385

What is the name of the hole in iris thru which light passes on its way to the retina?

Back 385

pupil

Front 386

What is the gelatinous fluid that fills chamber behind the lens of they eye?

Back 386

vitreous humor

Front 387

What is the transparent structure behind the iris of the eye that focuses light entering the eye on the retina?

Back 387

lens

Front 388

What is the point where the optic nerve enters the retina & that is not sensitive to light?

Back 388

optic disc

Front 389

What produces tears in response to parasympathetic nerve stimulation & is located near the lateral canthus of the eye?

Back 389

lacrimal gland

Front 390

What is the condition in which the lens becomes more opaque, causing random refraction of light & blurred vision, often eventually leading to blindness?

Back 390

cataracts

Front 391

What is the layer in the choroid chiefly of nocturnal mammals that reflects light causing the eyes to glow when light strikes them at night?

Back 391

tapetum lucidum

Front 392

What photoreceptors are adapted for night vision?

Back 392

rods

Front 393

What photoreceptors are adapted for acute, daylight color vision?

Back 393

cones

Front 394

What structure secretes aqueous humor?

Back 394

ciliary process

Front 395

Where is most cerebrospinal fluid formed?

Back 395

choroid plexus

Front 396

Where are most veterinary spinal taps performed?

Back 396

cisterna magna: sampling from the subarachnoid space b’twn the skull & 1st cervical vertebra in anesthetized animals

Front 397

Where is most CSF absorbed?

Back 397

through arachnoid villi, small finger-like projections of the arachnoid membrane thru the walls of venous sinuses in the dura

Front 398

What is the spiral-shaped cavity of the inner ear that resembles a snail shell and contains nerve endings essential for hearing?

Back 398

cochlea

Front 399

In veterinary medicine, what is the usual cause of deafness in young animals, & with what physical characteristic is it often associated?

Back 399

usually caused by a congenital defect in the cochlea, frequently linked w/ white coat color

Front 400

What type of shock is characterized by cardiovascular collapse caused by severe blood loss?

Back 400

hemorrhagic shock

Front 401

What type of shock is caused by failure of the heart to pump an adequate amount of blood?

Back 401

cardiogenic shock

Front 402

What type of shock is caused by bacterial infections in the blood stream (bacteremia)?

Back 402

septic shock

Front 403

What is an area of tissue damage or death caused by interruption of normal blood flow?

Back 403

infarct

Front 404

What is the name of the blood pressure within the arteries when the heart muscle is contracting & what is the average value?

Back 404

systolic pressure

~120 mm Hg

Front 405

What is the name of the lowest arterial blood pressure reached during any given ventricular cycle & what is the average value?

Back 405

diastolic pressure

~80 mm Hg

Front 406

Most of the blood in the systemic circulation is found in which vessels?

Back 406

veins

Front 407

What is the acellular or extracellular liquid in blood & what are its 2 main constituents)?

Back 407

plasma

93% water, 5-7% protein

Front 408

What are the 3 primary plasma proteins?

Back 408

albumin
globulin
fibrinogen

Front 409

What is the hematocrit?

Back 409

fraction of cells in blood

Front 410

What is the name for an abnormally high hematocrit?

Back 410

polycythemia

Front 411

Where are the normal cardiac pacemaker cells found?

Back 411

sinoatrial (SA) node in right atrium

Front 412

In which type of muscle does calcium contribute directly to initiation of actin-myosin cross-bridges cycling & also trigger release of more calcium from SR?

Back 412

cardiac muscle

Front 413

What are the components of the specialized conducting system of the heart?

Back 413

SA node
AV node
AV bundle
bundle braches
Purkinje’s fibers

Front 414

What is 3rd degree AV block?

Back 414

complete block of AV node, where no atrial APs are conducted to ventricles

Front 415

What is 2nd degree AV block?

Back 415

APs conducted sporadically from atrial to ventricles, so that AV node transmits some but not all atrial APs

Front 416

What is 1st degree AV block?

Back 416

every atrial AP is transmitted to ventricles, but AP is propagated even more slowly than normal thru AV node

Front 417

What is sick sinus syndrome?

Back 417

bradycardia & insufficient ↑ in HR during exercise d/t sluggish depolarization of SA node pacemaker cells

Front 418

What is an ectopic pacemaker?

Back 418

area of myocardial tissue (other than SA node) that depolarizes spontaneously to threshold & initiates a spreading cardiac AP

Front 419

What cardiac cells serve as auxillary pacemaker cells & when might they play a role in maintaining the function of the heart?

Back 419

AV node cells

-they spontaneously depolarize toward threshold, but much more slowly than SA node cells
-if SA node is damaged & does not depolarize to threshold, or if the cells at the beginning of the AV node are damaged & do not propagate atrial APs, then AV node pacemaker cells reach threshold eventually & initiate ventricular contractions

Front 420

What is a congenital portosystemic vascular anomaly & name 2 breeds that are predisposed.

Back 420

connects portal v. to caudal vena cava

Yorkies, Maltese

Front 421

What is a neurologic sequela of a portosystemic vascular anomaly & what are some possible signs?

Back 421

hepatic encephalopathy

salivation, seizures, head pressing, vomiting, odd dietary preferences

Front 422

Where is bile synthesized?

Back 422

liver

Front 423

Where is bile stored?

Back 423

gall bladder

Front 424

What percentage of conjugated bile acids are recycled to liver & what percentage are secreted in feces?

Back 424

95% recycled, 5% in feces

Front 425

Why are pre- & post-prandial bile acids used to quantify liver function?

Back 425

if liver function is poor: serum conc. of bile acids ↑ after meal b/c of impaired ability of liver to extract bile acids that area returning via portal v.

Front 426

What is the important role of bile acids?

Back 426

fat absorption in intestines

Front 427

Where in the GI tract is the major site of digestion of carbs, lipids, & proteins?

Back 427

small intestine

Front 428

What is the main function of small intestinal cells at:

a. villus tip?
b. crypts?

Back 428

a. absorption
b. secretion

Front 429

Does nutrient absorption occur in the:

a. stomach?
b. small intestine?
c. large intestine?

Back 429

a. no
b. yes
c. no

Front 430

All dietary carbs are catabolized to 1 of 3 monosaccharides. Name them.

Back 430

glucose
fructose
galactose

Front 431

What are 3 main functions of the colon?

Back 431

microbial fermentation of nutrients to short chain fatty acids
reabsorption of electrolytes (most efficient site of H20 absorption, though largest vol. of H2O absorbed in SI)
storage

Front 432

What is loss of saliva from mouth due to inadequate swallowing?

Back 432

pseudoptyalism

Front 433

What is the excessive secretion of saliva?

Back 433

ptyalism

Front 434

What are some signs of small bowel diarrhea?

Back 434

weight loss, polyphagia, ↑ volume

Front 435

What are some signs of large bowel diarrhea?

Back 435

↑ freq., frank blood/mucus, tenesmus

Front 436

What is the cephalic phase of eating & what is the result?

Back 436

anticipation, sight, smell, presence of food in mouth  vagal relex

Front 437

What is the gastric phase of eating & what is the result?

Back 437

gastric distension, protein products in stomach --> gastrin release, vagal reflex

Front 438

What is the result of Ach secretion during the cephalic, gastric phases of feeding?

Back 438

↑ acid secretion (↑ histamine secretion)

Front 439

What is the result of aldosterone secretion at the salivary glands as a result of hypovolemia or hyperkalemia?

Back 439

↓ salivation; (↑ absorption of H2O, Na, secretion of K)

Front 440

What is the result of aldosterone secretion at the distal colon as a result of hypovolemia or hyperkalemia?

Back 440

↑ absorption of H2O, Na, secretion of K

Front 441

What are 3 main effects of H+ secretion from the proper gastric glands of the stomach?

Back 441

converts pepsinogen --> pepsin
kills microbes
denatures protein

Front 442

What is the effect of pepsinogen released from the proper gastric glands of the stomach?

Back 442

pepsin partially digests protein, releases vitamin B12

Front 443

What is the function of mucus released from the cardiac glands of the stomach?

Back 443

lubricates, protects mucosa

Front 444

What is the function of bicarbonate released from the cardiac glands of the stomach?

Back 444

protects mucosa

Front 445

What is the effect of intrinsic factor secreted from the proper gastric glands (stomach)& the pancreas?

Back 445

absorbs dietary vitamin B12

Front 446

What are 4 effects of gastrin release from the G cells of the stomach onto the parietal cells in response to the gastric phase of feeding or to vagal stimulation?

Back 446

↑ acid secretion (↑ histamine secretion)
regulates mucosal growth
stimulates pepsinogen secretion
stimulates gastric motility

Front 447

What is the effect of somatostatin release from the proper gastric glands of the stomach in response to low antral pH?

Back 447

inhibits gastrin & histamine release

Front 448

What is the effect of histamine release onto parietal cells in response to gastric phase or vagal stimulation?

Back 448

↑ acid secretion

Front 449

What are 2 effects of endogenous prostaglandins & nitrous oxide secreted by the gastric mucosa?

Back 449

inhibit cAMP generation --> ↓ acid secretion
↑ mucus, bicarb secretion

Front 450

What are 2 effects of secretin release in response to excessive hypertonicity or acidity of contents leaving stomach or acid pH of duodenum?

Back 450

inhibits gastric emptying

stimulates release of bicarb-rich fluid from pancreatic & biliary ducts into duodenum --> neutralize gastric acid in duodenum

Front 451

What are 3 effects of cholecystekinin release in response to lipid (carbs, protein) entering prox. duodenum?

Back 451

inhibits gastric emptying
stimulates digestive enzyme secretion into duodenum from pancreatic acini
causes gall bladder contraction & sphincter of Oddi relaxation --> bile release into prox. duodenum

Front 452

What is the result of secretion of enteropeptidase from the duodenal brush border into the duodenal lumen in response to the presence of pancreatic zymogens?

Back 452

converts trypsinogen --> trypsin

Front 453

What are 2 results of secretion of trypsin from the pancreatic acini into the duodenal lumen in response to its conversion from trypsinogen?

Back 453

digests protein

activates pancreatic enzymes

Front 454

What is the result of secretion of alpha-amylase from the pancreatic acini into the duodenal lumen & salivary ducts in response to cholecystokinin?

Back 454

digests carbs

Front 455

What is the result of secretion of lipase from the pancreatic acini into the duodenal lumen in response to cholecystokinin?

Back 455

digests fats

Front 456

What is the result of secretion of bile from the gall bladder into the proximal duodenum in response to cholecystokinin?

Back 456

digests fats

Front 457

What are 2 effects of the release of norepinepherine on GI tract?

Back 457

↓ contraction & secretion

Front 458

What is the major filtration site of kidney?

Back 458

glomerulus

Front 459

What are Halsted's principles of surgery?

Back 459

handle tissue gently
preserve vascularity
remove necrotic tissue
accurate hemostasis
approximate tissue w/o tension
obliterate dead space
use strict aseptic technique