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179 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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A nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy that has been diagnosed with respiratory infection. The client is reviewing vancomycin hydrochloride (Vancocin) 500 mg intravenously every 12 hrs. Which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?
A. Cant breath B. cant hear very well C. nauseated |
client indicates he can't hear very well.
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A patient has taken an overdose of aspirin. Which of the following should a nurse most closely monitor for during acute management of this patient?
A. metabolic acidosis B. metabolic alkalosis C. respiratory acidosis D. respiratory alkalosis |
B. Metabolic alkalosis
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Which of the following conditions would a nurse not administer erythromycin?
A: Campylobacterial infection B: Legionnaire’s disease C: Pneumonia D: Multiple Sclerosis |
Answer: D. Multiple Sclerosis
Erythromycin is used to treat conditions A-C. |
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Which of the following are not treated with Prednisone?
A. Cushing's disease B. Testicular cancer C. Lymphomas D. Chronic leukemias |
Answer: B. Testicular cancer is not treated with Prednisone
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Which of the following is not related to a drug toxicity of Prednisone?
A. Cataracts B. Hypotension C. Psychosis D. Acne |
Hypotension
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Which of the following is not directly related to a drug toxicity of Ibuprofen?
A. Nausea B. Renal dysfunction C. Anemia D. Muscle wasting |
Muscle wasting
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What is the process in which drug movement through the body consisting of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion termed?
A. Peak Concentration B. Pharmacodynamics C. Pharmacokinetics D. Metabolism |
C. Pharmacokinetics
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The 3 ways to cross the cell membrane are all the following except:
A. channels & pores B. Direct penetration of the membrane C. arterioles D. transport systems |
C. arterioles
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Factors that affect drug absorption are:
A. Rate of dissolution B. surface area C. blood flow D. lipid solubility E. all the above |
E. all the above
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What is the study of the biochemical and physiologic effects of drugs and molecular mechanisms by which those effects are produced.
A. Pharmacokinetics B. Natural Science C. Pharmacodynamic |
C. Pharmacodynamic
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Drug distribution is influenced by:
A. Blood flow B. drugs affinity to tissue C. protein-binding effect D. all the above |
D. all the above
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What is the enzymatic alteration of drug structure:
A. Pharmacokinetics B. Pharmacodynamics C. Biotransformation |
C. Biotransformation
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Non-Renal Routes of Drug Excretion
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Breast milk, bile, lungs, sweat & saliva
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The time required for the amount of drug in the body to decrease by 50%
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Drug Half-Life
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The most important protein to which drugs can bind
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Plasma Albumin
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Most drug metabolism takes place in the
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Liver
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The most important organ for drug excretion is the
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Kidney
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What are molecules that activate receptors called:
A. Antagonist B. Agonist C. protein binding |
B. Agonist
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Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are commonly used in the treatment of musculoskeletal conditions. It is important for the nurse to remind the client to:
A. Take NSAIDs at least three times per day. B. Exercise the joints at least 1 hour after taking the medication. C. Take antacids 1 hour after taking NSAIDs D. Take NSAIDs with food. |
Answer: D. NSAIDs irritate the gastric mucosa and should be taken with food.
NSAIDs are usually taken one or twice daily. Joint exercise not necessary. Antacids may interfere with absorption of NSAIDs. |
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An elderly client is diagnosed with temporal arteritis. The medication of choice is:
A. Prednisone (Deltasone) B. Naproxen (Naprosyn) C. Aspirin D. Azathioprine (Imuran) |
Answer: Prednisone because temporal arteritis, commonly seen in elderly can result in blindness if not treated quickly with steriods.
Naproxen and aspirin may be used for headache. Azathriopin is used to prevent transplanted organ rejection. |
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Potency
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the amount of drug that must be given to elicit a response
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What is a drug receptor
A. Plasma albumin B. a macromolecule in a cell to which a drug binds to produce its effect C. macromolecule outside a cell to which drugs cannot bind to. |
B. a macromolecule in a cell to which a drug binds to produce its effect
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Enteral Administration
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via the gastrointestinal tract
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What is parenteral Administration?
A. drugs given by penetration of the skin and entry into the underlying tissue B. drugs given orally C. drugs given intramuscular |
A. drugs given by penetration of the skin and entry into the underlying tissue
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Enzyme inducer
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chronically issued drugs accelerate drug metabolism so the more enzymes, the more drugs metabolize.
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Enzyme inhibitor
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Can decrease or delay metabolism. Administration of 2 drugs that compete for the same enzyme.
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PRN means
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as needed
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The factors that affect drug absorption are:
A. rate of dissolution B. surface Area C. Blood flow D. Lipid Solubility E. All the above |
E. All the above
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Drug distribution is influenced by all the following except:
A. Blood Flow B. Drugs affinity to tissue C. Protein-binding effect D. capillary permeability |
D. capillary permeability
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Excretion
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The removal of drugs from the body; majority of excretion occurs in the kidney
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Steps in Renal Drug Excretion are all the following except:
A. glomerular filtration B. passive tubular reabsorption C. blood flow D. active tubular secretion |
c. blood flow
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Factors that modify renal drug excretion
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pH - Dependent ionization
Competition for Active Tubular Transport |
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What is peak and trough level?
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Peak level is highest blood level and trough level is lowest blood level of a drug
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Relative Potency
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the amount of drug we must give to elicit an effect
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Maximal Efficacy
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the largest effect that a drug can produce
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Drug Receptors
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Any functional macromolecule in a cell to which a drug binds to produce effects
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Agonist
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Molecules that activate receptors; has affinity & high intrinsic activity
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Antagonists
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Produce effects by preventing receptor activation
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A large thereapeutic index means the drug is?
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Relatively Safe
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A small therapeutic index indicates that a drug is?
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Relatively Unsafe
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qd
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Every day
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quid
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4 times a day
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qh
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every hour
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qod
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every other day
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Internal factors that influence the stress response are all the following except:
A. race B. genetic predispostion C. age D. Sex |
A. race
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External factors that influence the stress response
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exposure to environmental agents, life experiences, dietary factors and level of social support
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What is the origin and function of Corticotropin
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Released from the hypothalamus; and induces the secretion of the ACTH from the anterior pituitary gland
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What is the origin and function of Cortisol
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Adrenal Cortex and maintains blood glucose levels.
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Selye's General Adaptation Syndrome has three stages. What are they?
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Alarm Stage
Resistance Stage Exhaustion Stage |
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Which stage of the Selye's General Adaptation releases catecholamines and cortisol
A. Alarm Stage B. Exhaustion Stage C. Adaptive Stage D. Resistance Stage |
A. Alarm Stage
Alarm Stage is generalized stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system and the HPA axis, resulting in release of catecholamines and cortisol Resistance Stage: body selects most effective & economic channels of defense (cortisol drop because no longer needed) Exhaustion stage: ensues resources are depleted and signs of "wear & tear" or systemic damage appear. |
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Which stage of the Selye's General Adaptation is endocrine response releasing of hormones "Coping vs not coping" stage
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Resistance Stage
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What do adrenergic medications do?
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Stimulate the sympathetic nervous system
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What do cholinergic drugs do?
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Stimulate the parasympathetic nervous system
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Parasympathomimetics that "mimic" the neurotransmitter acetylcholine are?
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Cholinergics
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In the somatic nervous system, all lower motor neurons release_________ as their neurotransmitter.
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Acetylcholine (ACh)
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Most postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system release ___________ at the site of organ innervation.
A. Epinephrine B. Norepinephrine C. ACh |
B. Norepinephrine
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The principal neurotransmitter released by the adrenal gland is ____________.
A. Norepinephrine B. Epinephrine C. ACh |
B. Epinephrine
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What are some non-pharmacological interventions that can be utilized to reduce a patient's anxiety?
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behavioral and cognitive therapies
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Homeostatsis is dependent on?
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Control Systems and Negative Feedback Systems
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All the following players interact to maintain homeostasis except:
A. Brain B. Hypothalamic C. Pituitary D. Adrenal |
A. Brain
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The Central Nervous System consists of?
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Brain & Spinal Cord
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Peripheral Nervous System consists of?
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Autonomic Nervous System & Somatic Nervous System
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Autonomic Nervous System consists of all the following except:
A. Sympathetic Division B. Parasympathetic Division C. Somatic Nervous System |
C. Somatic Nervous System
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Sympathetic Nervous System functions are all the following except?
A. dilates pupils B. decreased salivation C. decreases heart rate D. vasoconstriction of arteries E. broncodilation F. Bladder relaxation |
C. decreases heart rate
It increases heart rate |
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Parasympathetic Nervous System functions are all the following except:
A. pupillary constriction B. increased heart rate C. increased salivation D. arterial vasodilation & bladder constriction |
B. increased heart rate
it decreases heart rate |
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Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) causes release of:
A. Aldosterone B. Cortisol C. Acetylcysteine |
B. Cortisol
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Corticotropin causes release of:
A. ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) B. Cortisol C. Aldosterone |
A. ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone)
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The sympathetic responses of Alpha 1 are all the following except:
A. Increased Blood Pressure B. Decreased Blood Pressure C. Pupillary dilation D. Bladder Contraction |
B. Decreased Blood Pressure
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The sympathetic responses of Beta 1 are all the following except:
A. Increased rate of impulse conduction B. Increased Renin secretion C. Increased BP D. Increased angiotensin E. Decrease BP |
E. Decrease BP
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The sites of the sympathetic responses of Beta 2 are all the following except:
A. arterioles & lungs B. heart C. GI tract D. liver E. uterus |
B. heart
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Meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol) is prescribed for the client with pain. For which of the following would the nurse monitor as a side effect of this medication?
A. Diarrhea B. Bradycardia C. Hypertension D. Urinary retention |
D. Urinary retention
Side effects of Demerol include respiratory depression, orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia, drowsiness and mental cluding, constipation & urinary retention. |
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The nurse is caring for a client in the emergency room diagnosed with Bell's palsy. The client has been taking acetaminophen (Tylenol), and acetaminiphen overdose is suspected. The nurse anticipates that the antidote to be prescribed is:
A. Pentostatin (Nipent) B. Auranofin (Ridaura) C. Fludarabine (Fludara) D. Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) |
D. Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)
Toxic level of acetaminophen is higher than 50 mcg/mL |
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The client arrives at the emergency department complaining of back spasms. The client states, "I have been taking two to three aspirin every 4 hours for the last week, and it hasn't helped by back." Aspirin intoxication is suspected and the nurses assesses the client for which of the following?
A. Tinnitus B. Diarrhea C. Constipation D. Photosensitivity |
A. Tinnitus
Tiniitus (ringing in the ears) is the most frequent effect noted of intoxication with aspirin. |
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The nurse is caring for a client with severe back pain. Codeine sulfate has been prescribed for the client. Which of the following does the nurse specifically include in the plan of care while the client is taking this medication?
A. Monitor fluid balance B. Monitor bowel activity C. Monitor peripheral pulses D. Monitor for hypertension |
B. Monitor bowel activity
While the client is taking codeine sulfate, the nurse would monitor vital signs and assess for hypotension. The nurse should increase fluid intake and monitor the pattern of daily bowel activity and stool consistency. |
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Most drug metabolism occurs in the:
A. Kidney B. Lungs C. Liver D. Stomach |
C. Liver
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After an oral medication has been absorbed, most of the medication is inactivated as the blood initially passes through the liver, producing little therapeutic effect. This is called:
A. tolerance B. first pass effect C. antagonism D. synergism |
B. first pass effect
Medications that are given orally are taken directly to the liver from the GI tract. Some medications will be completely inactivated as they pass through the liver and thus no therapeutic effects will occur. |
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If the half life of a drug is 24 hours when would you expect 50% of the drug to be decreased in?
A. 12 hours B. 6 hours C. 24 hours D. not at all |
C. 24 hours
if the half life is 24 hours then in 24 hours you would expect 50% of the drug to be decreased. This one made you think :) |
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Which name are drugs marketed under:
A. Trade Name B. Chemical Name C. Generic Name |
A. Trade Name
These names are created by drug companies with the intention that they be easy for nurses, physicians, pharmacists and consumers to recall and pronounce. |
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The time required to reach plateau is equivalent to about:
A. one half life B. four half lives C. two half lives |
B. four half lives
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Which of the following is a transmembrane protein that transports a wide variety of drugs out of cells?
A. Channels and Pores B. Albumin C. P-Glycoprotein |
C. P-Glycoprotein
This transporter is present in cells at many sites, including the liver, kidney, placenta, intestine, and capillaries of the brain. |
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What is the most important factor that affects drug absorption?
A. absorption pattern B. blood flow/blood perfusion C. lipid solubility |
B. Blood flow/blood perfusion
Most important |
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The purpose of inflammation is all the following except:
A. the neutralize and destroy invading and harmful agents B. to limit the spread of harmful agents to other tissues C. To prepare damaged tissue for repair D. helps prevent infection |
D. helps prevent infection
inflammation does not help prevent infection because its already infected |
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A patient that is suffering from pulmonary embolism is said to have which source of injury.
A. exogenous B. acute C. endogenous |
C. endogenous
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Which of the following are the first to respond to acute inflammation.
A. neutrophils B. basophils C. macrophages |
A. neutrophils
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A condition in which there is an increase in the circulating white blood cells.
A. leukocytes B. lymphocytes C. leukocytosis D. macrophages |
C. leukocytosis
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by 48 hours- Which of the following is the primary WBC at the site of the injury.
A. macrophages B. neutrophils C. mast cells D. monocytes |
D. monocytes
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All the following participate in the acute inflammatory response except:
A. Neutrophils B. Monocytes C. Macrophages D. Mast cells |
D. Mast cells
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Within 90 minutes of the injury, ___________ begin to phagocytize (engulf) foreign material & dead cells.
A. Monocytes B. Basophils C. Neutrophils D. Mast cells |
C. Neutrophils
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_____________ phagocytize inflammatory debris.
A. Basophils D. neutrophils C. Eosinophils D. Monocytes |
D. Monocytes
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By 48 hours, the primary WBC at the site transforms into macrophages & phagocytize inflammatory debris, ___________ cleans area so healing can begin.
A. Eosinophils B. Basophils C. Monocytes D. Mast cells |
C. Monocytes
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Red Blood Cells are:
A. leukocytes B. thrombocytes C. neutrophils D. erythrocytes |
D. erythrocytes
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Platlets are:
A. thombocytes B. neutrophils C. erythrocytes D. leukocytes |
A. thrombocytes
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White blood cells are:
A. leukocytes B. neutrophils C. basophils D. eosinophils E. all the above |
E. all the above
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60 to 70% of all WBC's and referred to as "gran" on lab reports are:
A. eosinophils B. neutrophils C. basophils |
B. neutrophils
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Which blood cell develops into macrophages when they migrate from the blood to the tissues?
A. basophils B. neutrophils C. monocytes |
C. monocytes
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What infection do not cause illness in healthy people?
A. Nosocomial infection B. Opportunistic infection C. Community Acquired Infection |
B. Opportunistic infection
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What infection is hospital acquired?
A. Nosocomial infection B. Opportunistic infection C. Community Acquired Infection |
A. Nosocomial infection
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What would be a community acquired infection?
A. Diabetis B. chickpox C. pneumonia |
C. pneumonia
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What would be a first line of defense?
A. immune system response B. Intact (unbroken) skin and mucous membranes C. inflammatory response |
B. intact (unbroken) skin and mucous membranes
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What is second line of defense?
A. immune system response B. inflammatory response C. Intact (unbroken) skin and mucous membranes |
B. inflammatory response
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what is third line of defense?
A. immune system response B. inflammatory response C. mucous membranes |
A. immune system response
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All the following are defense mechanisms except:
A. cough B. bronchial lining cilia C. acidic gastric secretions D. prostatic secretions E. normal flora F. inflammation |
F. inflammation
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Which white blood cells arrives early at the site of inflammation, usually within 90 minutes?
A. neutrophils B. basophils C. erythrocytes D. eosinophils |
A. neutrophils
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All the following cells produce lipid mediators and cytokines that induce inflammation except:
A. macrophages B. eosinophils C. basophils D. mast cells |
A. macrophages
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Viruses enter host cells & develop and replicate intracellularly. Its also a way for them to:
A. acquire immunity B. escape detection C. be less productive |
B. escape detection
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Examples of Bacterial infections are all the following except:
A. Epstein Barr B. Staphylococcus C. Streptococcal pneumoniae D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis E. Escherichia coli |
A. Epstein Barr
is a viral infection like mononucleosis |
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Which bacterial infection can cause gram-negative sepsis?
A. Staphylococcus B. Streptococcal pneumoniae C. Escherichia coli |
Escherichia coli
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Viruses are incapable of replication outside of a living cell. True or False
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True. They must penetrate a susceptible living cell and use the biosynthetic machinery of the cell to produce viral progeny.
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All the following are examples of viruses except:
A. Chicken pox B. Influenza C. Common cold D. Hepatitis A, B, C |
A. Chicken pox
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All the following are true of Shingles (herpes zoster) except:
A. It is contagious B. more people older than 60 years contract the disease C. It is more common in African American D. Persons at risk are HIV infected people as well as those taking chemo & radiation therapy |
C. Is is more common in AFrican American
It is actually less common in African American |
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Which virus is an example of a latent virus:
A. herpes simplex B. herpes zoster (shingles) C. Verrucae |
B. herpes zoster (shingles)
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What is an example of Epstein Barr virus:
A. herpes simplex B. Verrucae C. mononucleosis |
C. mononucleosis
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What is an example of Rickettsia which is transmitted by ticks:
A. mononucleosis B. rocky mountain spotted fever C. chlamydia |
B. rocky mountain spotted fever
usually appears as a rash with fever |
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What is a common sexually transmitted disease:
A. fungi B. mononucleosis C. chlamydia |
C. chlamydia
more common in women than men can cause pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) |
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All the following are types of fungal infections that are local infections except:
A. thrush B. vaginal yeast C. athlete foot D. candidiasis |
D. candidiasis
candidiasis is a systemic mycosal infection |
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Examples of fungal infections that are systemic mycosal infections are all except:
A. thrush B. histoplasmosis C. candidiasis |
A. thrush
thrush is a local infection |
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What is an example of a superficial fungal infection:
A. tinea pedis (athletes foot) B. mold C. histoplasmosis |
A. tinea pedis (athletes foot)
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Which type of disease is spread through contaminated water, such as drinking "water from a creek or a lake" that would cause a GI infection:
A. Prions B. Malaria C. Giardiasis |
C. Giardiasis
Marlaria is spread from mosquitos |
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Prions - malformed proteins is an example of Mad Cow Disease. True or False
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True
Prions cause several neuronal degenerative disease with no cures although UTMB researchers found prions "jump species barrier" which is scary |
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What stage of infectious diseases would have vague symptoms:
A. Full blown symptoms B. Prodromal C. Resolution D. Incubation |
B. Prodromal
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Which of the following is increased WBC and is frequent sign of an inflammatory response, especially caused by bacterial infection:
A. lymphocytosis B. neutrophilia C. neutropenia D. leukocytosis |
D. leukocytosis
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Which of the following increases lymphocytes:
A. leukocytosis B. lymphocytosis C. neutrophilia D. neutropenia |
B. Lymphocytosis
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Which of the following occur with overwhelming infections or an impaired ability to produce WBC:
A. neutropenia B. neutrophilia C. leukocytosis D. leukopenia |
D. leukopenia
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Which of the following is a bacterial infection that produces more neutrophils:
A. neutrophilia B. neutropenia C. leukopenia |
A. neutrophilia
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Which of the following is a viral infection that decrease neutrophils:
A. neutropenia B. neutrophilia C. leukocytosis |
A. neutropenia
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What is the normal value of WBC's:
A. 4,000 to 10,000 B. 15,000 to 20,000 C. 2,000 to 5,000 |
A. 4,000 to 10,000
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Where are WBC's released from:
A. heart B. lungs C. bone marrow |
C. bone marrow
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Once neutrophils are released from bone marrow, they have a life spam of about:
A. 1 hr B. 10 hrs C. 24 hrs |
B. 10 hrs
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The client with a diagnosis of cancer is receiving morphine sulfate for pain. When preparing the plan of care for the client, the nurse includes which priority action?
A. monitor stools B. encourage fluid intake C. monitor the urine output D. encourage the client to cough and deep breathe |
D. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe
Remember the question ask "priority" so remember ABCs airway, breathing, and circulation when ask to prioritize. Recall morphine sulfate suppresses the cough reflex and the respiratory reflex. A, B & C are compoents but it ask to prioritize |
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Inflammation is all the following except:
A. allergic response B. a physiologic reponse to tissue injury C. protective mechanism that occurs when cells are injured D. beginning of the healing process |
A. allergic response
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The purpose of inflammation is all the following except:
A. neutralize and destroy invading and harmful agents B. limit the spread of harmful agents to other tissues C. filtratration of basophils D. to prepare damaged tissue for repair |
C. filtration of basophils
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If a source of injury is said to be exogenous which of the following would you not expect to see:
A. pulmonary embolism B. Trauma C. Burns (chemical or thermal) D. incession from surgery |
A. Pulmonary embolism
PUlmonary embolism and MI (Heart Attack) are Endogenous |
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when an injury occurs and chemical mediators (histamine, cytokines, plasma prteins) are released. What happens at the injury sight:
A. constriction prevents spreading from organisms to other tissues B. vasodilation and increased capillary permeability come to the injury sight C. Fluids move in D. Blood Flow starts preventing clotting |
B. vasodilation and increased capillary membrane permeability come to the injury sight.
Fluids move out of capillaries & into tissue; stagnation of blood flow promotes clotting & dilution of agent restricts spread of agent to other tissue |
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All the following leukocytes participate in the cellular phase of acute inflammatory response except:
A. Neutrophils B. Monocytes C. Macrophages D. Erythrocytes |
D. Erythrocytes (RBCs)
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Activation of beta 1 receptors increases heart rate, force of myocardial contrraction & conduction velocity through the AV node and promotes release of _________:
A. ACH B. histamine C. renin |
C. renin
promotes release of renin by the kidney |
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The primary neurotransmitter released during a parasympathetic response would be:
A. histamine B. cortisol C. acetylcholine |
C. acetylcholine (Ach)
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Which phase of pharmacokinetics refers to a drug's movement from systemic circulation into the tissues?
A. absorption B. distribution C. metabolism D. secretion |
B. Distribution
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Cellular activity is all the following characteristics except:
A. exchange materials B. Obtain energy C. Synthesize D. Blocking actions E. Reproduce |
D. Blocking actions
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Which corresponds to functions of drugs?
A. replace or substitute chemicals B. to increase certain cellular activities C. to depress or slow cellular activities D. interfere with functioning of foreign cells E. all of the above |
E. all of the above
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Drugs that cross the cell membranes go from _______ to ________.
A. low to high B. high to low |
B. high to low
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If a drug is lipid soluble, it can penetrate more easily.
True or False |
True
drugs that are lipd soluable can penetrate more easily |
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Drug distribution is influenced by all the following except:
A. Blood Flow B. nutrition C. Protein binding D. BBB and Placentral drug transfer E. Entering the Cell |
B. Nutrition
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If a patient is suffering from a broken bone, what type of pain would the patient be suffering from:
A. Somatic pain B. Visceral pain C. Referred pain |
A. Somatic pain
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Cognitive appraisal in regards to pain refers to:
A. What the person thinks or knows about pain B. How does it make me feel C. Pain goes from sight of pain to spinal cord to brain |
A. What the person thinks or knows about pain
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The major side effects of NSAIDs are all the following except:
A. Gastric erosion and ulceration B. Bleeding tendencies (acute GI bleeding) C. Renal impairment D. Myocardial infarction |
D. Myocardial infarction
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Which test would be administered to determine toxicity of NSAIDs:
A. Creatine clearance B. BUN C. CBC |
A. Creatine clearance
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Examples of non steroidal anti inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are all the following except:
A. Tylenol B. Aspirin C. Ibuprofen D. Naproxen |
A. Tylenol
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What is the combination of Vicodin:
A. Hydrocodone and cortisone B. Hydrocodone and acetaminophen (5 mg and 500 acetaminophen) C. Hydrocodone and fentanyl |
B. Hydrocodone and acetaminophen (5 mg and 500 acetaminophen)
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Which drug is given as an antagonist to opioid overdose?
A. Naloxone B. Risperdal C. Ibruprofen |
A. Naloxone (Narcan)
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What condition would you expect to see in a opioid naïve person:
A. Respiratory depression B. tinnitus C. increased GI motility |
A. Respiratory depression
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Larger doses of a drug is used to achieve the desired effect:
A. Tolerance B. Physical dependence C. Addiction D. Loading dose |
A. Tolerance
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What opioid effect would be referred to if the patient is itching:
A. Emesis B. Miosis C. Pruritis D. Orthostatic hypotension |
C. Pruritis
Emesis (nausea & vomiting) Miosis (pinpoint pupils) Orthostatic hypotension (histamine release) |
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Which opioid effect would cause pinpoint pupils.
A. Pruritis B. Emesis C. Miosis |
C. Miosis
Pruritis is itching Emesis is nausea & vomiting |
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When giving Morphine orally what equianalgesic dosage would be given to equal 10mg of Morphine given IV, IM or SubQ.
A. 30 mg B. 10 mg C. 20 mg |
A. 30 mg
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Which of the following toxic effects would a nurse monitor for in a patient receiving Meperidine (Demerol):
A. Dysphoria (a sense of anxiety) B. Irritability C. Tremors D. Seizures E. All the above |
E. All the above
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Opioid antagonists, such as Naloxone, act as antagonists at _____ and _______ receptors:
A. Kappa and Delta B. Mu and kappa C. Mu and delta |
B. Mu and Kappa
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Acetaminophen is not an NSAIDs because it:
A. Does not have anti-inflammatory effects B. Does not have anti-pyretic effects C. Doesn’t decrease pain |
A. Does not have anti-inflammatory effects
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When you have inflammation there is always an infection. True or False
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False (With infections there is always inflammation but with inflammation there isn’t always an infection i.e. twisted ankle).
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What side effect would you expect to see in a patient taking Codeine:
A. diarrhea B. bradycardia C. hypertension D. orthostatic hypotension |
D. orthostatic hypotension
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You would expect to see all the following side effects in a patient taking Vicodin except:
A. respiratory depression B. urinary retention C. sedation D. lightheadedness E. All the above |
E. All the above
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What would the most common side effect would you see in a patient that is taking Celecoxib (Celebrex):
A. sedation B. abdominal pain C. bradycardia |
B. abdominal pain
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Patient has elevated (erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR): What would this mean:
A. Indicates Infection B. Indicates low blood sugar C. Indicates Inflammation D. None of the above |
C. Indicates inflammation
ESR measures settling of RBC |
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COX-1 is responsible for all the following except:
A. facilitates inflammatory process B. protects the stomach lining C. supports renal function D. promotes clotting |
A. facilitates inflammatory process
COX-2 is responsible for this |
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COX-2 is responsible for all the following except:
A. facilitates inflammatory process B. sensitizes receptors to pain C. protects the stomach lining D. mediates fever & increases perception of pain |
C. protects the stomach lining
COX-1 is responsible for this |
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What converts arachidonic acid into prostaglandins?
A. proenzyme B. polymerase C. Cyclooxygenase (COX) |
C. Cyclooxygenase (COX)
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What enzyme is found in all tissues:
A. polymerase B. Cyclooxygenase (COX) C. proenzyme |
B. Cycoosygenase (COX)
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Which drug is second generation NSAIDs and inhibits COX-2 only:
A. Prednisone B. Aspirin C. Celecoxib (Celebrex) |
C. Celecoxib (Celebrex)
Prednisone is glucocorticoid Aspirin is first generation NSAIDS and inhibits both COX-1 & COX-2 |
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What would you see a nurse include in her patient teaching on glucocorticoids:
A. increase intake of fluids B. Do not abruptly stop taking medication C. Take with food |
B. Do not abruptly stop taking medication
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All the following would be withdrawal side effects of glucocorticoids except:
A. sweating B. abdominal cramping C. goose bumps D. shaking |
A. sweating
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Indirect acting cholinergic drugs inhibit the action of the cholinesterase enzyme destroying:
A. acetycholine B. cortisol C. gluconeogenesis |
A. acetycholine
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Where are Beta-1 receptors found:
A. Liver B. GI tract C. Heart D. lungs |
C. Heart
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Beta-2 receptors are found in the:
A. GI tract B. Heart C. Kidney |
A. GI tract
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A key adverse effect of Vancomycin is:
A. GI upset B. Nausea C. ototoxcity |
C. Ototoxcity
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Treatment for serious infections with Gentamycin would include all except:
A. Psuedomonas aeruginosa B. Tuberculosis (TB) C. E. Coli D. Klebsiella |
B. Tuberculosis (TB)
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What would the nurse teach a patient about Gentamycin:
A. Advise patient may cause drowsiness B. Good oral hygiene C. Report ringing in ears D. Take medication as needed |
C. Report ringing in ears
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Signs and symptoms of tuberculosis (TB) are all the following except:
A. chronic cough B. hemoptysis C. Low grade fever D. Weight Loss E. Diarrhea |
E. Diarrhea
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Acyclovir can cure a virus: True or False
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False
It controls the symptoms but does not cure the virus |
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What would you expect the physician to precribe for a patient that has an infection caused by herpes simplex:
A. Acyclovir B. Clotrimazole C. Penicillin D. Tetracycline |
A. Acyclovir
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Which of the following is true of MRSA (Methicillin-resistant S. aureus:
A. nosocomial B. resistant to broad spectrum antibiotics C. it is spread through the air D. spreads by direct contact |
C. it is spread through the air
MRSA is not spread through the air but almost always by direct physical contact |
