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93 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
basic functions of blood (2)
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1. transportation
2. defense against infections and foreign materials |
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what does blood transport? (5)
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1. oxygen and carbon dioxide
2. nutrients (glucose, lipids, amino acids) 3. waste products 4. hormones 5. heat |
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WBC that contain granules (granulocytes) (3)
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1. neutrophils
2. eosinophils 3. basophils |
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WBC without granules (2)
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1. lymphocytes
2. monocytes/ macrophages |
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____ is the source for formation of all cell types
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bone marrow
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Development of stem cells involve ____ and ____ leading to development of progenitor or parent cells in each cell line
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cytokines and growth factors
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normal range for neutrophils
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4.4-11 thou/mcL
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average circulation time for neutrophils
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6-12 hours
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1. mild neutropenia ANC =
2. moderate neutropenia ANC = 3. severe neutropenia ANC = |
1. <1500 /mm3
2. 500-1500 / mm3 3. <500 /mm3 |
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treatment of neutropenia may include (2)
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1. filgastrim
2. pegfilgastrim |
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____ granules are loaded with histamine which is released during allergic reactions
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eosinophils
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1. less effective but similar functions to that of neutrophils
2. primarily directed towards large invaders such as parasites 3. allergic reactions--will release histamines which induce vasodilation and pulmonary vasoconstriction (process prevents more antigens from entering the body) |
eosinophils
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1. in low numbers and their function is not well understood
2. they are involved in type I hypersensitivity responses and have high affinity to IgE leading to release of histamine 3. act in a similar fashion to mast cells with one difference being that these are located in the blood while mast cells are located in the tissue |
basophils
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once monocytes enter the tissue, they mature and become _____
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macrophages
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functions of?
1. initiation of immune responses especially fungal infections 2. regulation of immune response intensity 3. phagocytosis which engulf foreign matter as well as dead and dying cells in the body 4. secretion of monokines such as interferons, tumor necrosis factor, and interleukin-1 |
monocytes
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1. responsible for making antibodies for humoral immunity
2. sometimes referred to as the memory cells since they produce immunoglublin type M (IgM); subsequent exposure to an antigen results in a quicker immun response |
B lymphocytes (B-cells)
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Go after intracellular pathogens and regulate the size and duration of the immune response; sometimes referred to as "suppressor T cells" since they help to down-regulate the immune system
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cytotoxic T cells (CD8)
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Help to regulate the inflammatory reactions through stimulation of B-cell maturation and antibody production; this essentially enhances the production of antibodies by the B cells
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Helper T cells (CD4)
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attacks and destroys tumor cells without prior sensitization
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natural killer cells
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lymphocytosis defined as ______ cells/L
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>4 x 10'9 cells/L
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normal values for platelets
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150,000-450,000
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normal lifespan of RBC
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120 days
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where is erythropoietin secreted from?
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kidneys
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1. a secretory anitbody found in all physiologic fluids including tears, saliva, GI fluids, milk, and mucus
2. neutralizes microorganisms/ toxins before these pathogens enter or cross the epithelium |
IgA
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1. predominately expressed on the surface of B cells
2. physiologic roll in the immune response is unclear |
IgD
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1. almost exclusively found on the surface of mast cells
2. when stimulated, this will cause the release of many allergic mediators and will be involved in parasitic infections |
IgE
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1. most abundant of the immunoglobulins in serum accounting for ~75% of all immunoglobulins in the serum
2. possesses high affinity for antigens and will help to eliminate antigen-bearing cells as well as facilitate natural killer cell activity 3. found in breast milk allowing passive immunity for newborns through breast-feeding |
IgG
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1. first antibody produced by the fetus and also the first antibody to respond to an antigen
2. primary exposure to an antigen leads to the appearance of this which will decrease as IgG synthesis increases |
IgM
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normal values for hemoglobin (Hgb)
male = female= |
male = 14-17.5 g/dL
female = 12.3-15.3 g/dL |
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normal values for hematocrit (Hct)
male = female = |
male = 40.7- 50.3%
female = 36.1-44.3% |
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represents the average volume of RBCs
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mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
normal = 80-100 fL |
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average weight of hemoglobin per volume of cells and is independent of cell size
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Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration
normal = 31-37% |
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percent volume of hemoglobin in a RBC
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mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH)
normal 26-34 pg |
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factors that affect iron absorption (3)
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1. gastric acidity increases the absorption through ionization to the ferrous state
2. phytates (found in graines, brans, and some vegetables) can form insoluble complexes preventing iron absorption 3. situations such as achlorhydria will also prevent iron from being absorbed (state where gastric acid production is low/absent) |
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transport protein which helps deliver iron to the bone marrow and to other organs for storage
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transferrin
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1. indirect measure of iron binding capacity and a very useful test
2. constant, thus one of the tests to determine if one has iron deficiency anemia |
total binding capacity (TBC)
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1. considered stored iron and is proportional to the total iron stores
2. low levels is almost diagnostic for iron deficiency anemia 3. normal to high levels dont really tell you much as this is an acute phase reactant meaning inflammatory responses may cause this to elevate |
serum ferritin
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common causes for decreased RBC production (4)
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1. lack of nutrients including iron, B12, and folate
2. problems involving the ability for bone marrow to produce RBCs including aplastic anemia, mylodysplasia, and red blood cell aplasia 3. suppression of bone marrow function due to drugs, chemo, and radiation 4. reductions in hormones which stimulate RBC production such as EPO, thyroid, and androgens |
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s/s of anemia (8)
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1. fatigue
2. weakness 3. headache 4. faintness 5. loss of skin tone 6. tachycardia 7. breathlessness 8. lightheadedness |
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s/s of iron deficiency anemia (6)
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1. fatigue
2. palpitations 3. tachypnea 4. spooning of the nails 5. brittle nails 6. pica (cravings to eat non-food items) |
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characteristic labs of iron deficiency anemia (5)
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1. low serum iron (may be variable)
2. low ferritin 3. high TIBC 4. low MCV (initially normal but will drop) 5. hypochromic |
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% of elemental iron in ferrous sulfate
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20% (65 mg per 325 mg tab)
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% of elemental iron in ferrous gluconate
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12% (39 mg per 325 mg tab)
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% of elemental iron in ferrous fumerate
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33% (33 mg per 100 mg tab
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% of elemental iron in poly sacharride complex
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150 mg per capsule or 50 mg per tablet (100% elemental iron)
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1. normal dosing for IDA for iron
2. dosing for pregnant women |
1. 200 mg elemental iron divided in 2-3 doses per day
2. 30 mg elemental iron per day |
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SE of oral iron supplementation (5)
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1. nausea
2. constipation 3. epigastric pain/cramping 4. diarrhea 5. dark colored stools |
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main drug interactions with iron (3)
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1. calcium
2. antacids 3. tetracyclines |
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indications for using parenteral iron (5)
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1. noncompliance with oral therapy
2. inability to absorb oral iron 3. large iron boluses required to compensate for chronic blood loss 4. GI disorders which would be aggravated by oral therapy (ex: inflammatory bowel disease) 5. intolerance to oral therapy (fail at least 2 forms) |
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equation for calculating iron deficit to determine how much parenteral iron is used?
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dose of iron (mg) = whole blood hemoglobin deficit (g/dL) x body weight (lb)
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which parenteral iron preparation is indicated for patients with chronic kidney disease (1)
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1. ferumoxytol
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characteristic labs associated with anemia of chronic disease (ACD) (3)
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1. low serum iron
2. normal to high ferritin levels 3. low TIBC |
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when would you use EPO?
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do not initiate unless Hgb is <10 g/dL
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indications for EPO (4)
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1. anemia related to cancer
2. anemia secondary to CKD 3. anemia secondary to HIV 4. prophylaxis prior to surgery to reduce blood transfusions |
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ADR with EPO (4)
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1. HTN
2. headache 3. arthralgias 4. nausea |
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Hgb goal with EPO use
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should not exceed 11 g/dL or rise > 1 g/dL every 2 weeks due to increased mortality and cardiovascular events
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hemolytic anemias (5)
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1. sickle cell disease
2. glucose-6-phosphodiesterase deficiency 3. drug-induced (quinidine, high dose penicillin, methyldopa) 4. autoimmune disease 5. aplastic anemias |
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macrocytic anemias are generally caused by an impairment of DNA synthesis which occurs mainly from deficiencies in ____ and ____ as these are cofactors for DNA synthesis
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1. folic acid
2. cobalamin |
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symptoms of B12 deficiency (10)
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GI
1. glossitis 2. diarrhea 3. anorexia 4. gas 5. nausea 6. abdominal pain neurologic 7. peripheral neuropathies 8. mild personality changes 9. depression 10. dementia/psychosis |
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hypersegmented neutrophils are very sensitive and specific for which anemia?
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megaloblastic anemia
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dose for IM cyanocobalamin
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1000 mg IM weekly for 4-6 weeks then monthly
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Where do B lymphocytes mature?
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bone marrow
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where to T lymphocytes mature
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thymus gland
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general s/s of acute cellular rejection (3)
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1. pain over graft site
2. fever 3. lethargy |
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treatment for acute cellular rejection (2)
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1. thymoglobulin: 1-2 mg/kg IV x 5-10 doses
2. corticosteroids: pulse dose (usually methylprednisolone 500 mg IV x 3-5 doses |
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patients at increased risk for infection (8)
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1. younger patients
2. females > males 3. african americans 4. cadaveric grafts (from deceased patients) 5. donors > 50 yo 6. retransplantation 7. higher levels of preformed antibodies (panel reactive antibodies, PRA) 8. delayed graft function |
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spotting rejection: kidney (2)
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1. increase in SCr
2. decrease in urine output |
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spotting rejection: liver (2)
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1. increase in LFTs
2. serum bilirubin 1.5x ULN |
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spotting rejection: pancreas (2)
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1. elevated blood sugars (need for insulin)
2. elevated amylase and lipase |
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spotting rejection: lung (1)
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1. worsening spirometry parameters (esp FEV1)
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spotting rejection: heart (3)
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1. fatigue
2. shortness of breath 3. edema |
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polyclonal antibodies (2)
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1. thymoglobulin (rabbit)
2. ATGAM (horse) |
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monoclonal antibodies (2)
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1. basiliximab
2. alemtuzumab |
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monitoring for thymoglobulin (3)
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1. absolute lymphocyte count
2. platelets 3. infectious complications |
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blocks IL-2 receptors on activated T-cells, inhibiting the T-cell action against the transplant
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basiliximab
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i. Anti-CD 52 and B-cell depleting antibody
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alemtuzumab
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short term SE of steroids (7)
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1. Hyperglycemia
2. Increased appetite 3. Insomnia 4. Mental status changes 5. Hypernatremia 6. Hypocalcemia 7. Leukocytosis |
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long term SE of steroids (8)
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1. Hypertension
2. Hyperlipidemia 3. Diabetes mellitus 4. Osteoporosis 5. Cataracts 6. Glaucoma 7. Impaired wound healing 8. Peptic ulcer disease |
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calcineurin inhibitors (2)
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1. cyclosporine
2. tacrolimus |
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antiproliferatives (3)
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1. azathioprine
2. mycophenolate/ myfortic 3. alefacept |
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m-TOR inhibitors (2)
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1. sirolimus
2. everolimus |
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binds to cyclophilin and this complex then inhibits calcineurin phosphatases and T-cell activation
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cyclosporine
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monitoring for cyclosporine (6)
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a. Trough
b. CBC c. Electrolytes d. Blood pressure e. LFTs f. Pregnancy category C |
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binds to FKBP12 and this complex inhibits calcineurin phosphatases and T-cell activation
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tacrolamis
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CYP3A4 inhibitors (6)
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a. Azole antifungal
b. Macrolide antibiotics (erythromycin, clarithromycin) c. CCB (diltiazem and verapamil; nifedipine and nicardipine) d. Grapefruit juice e. Statins f. Ritonavir |
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CYP3A4 inducers (5)
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a. Rifampin
b. Phenytoin c. Phenobarbital d. Carbamazepine e. St. John’s wort |
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what does azathioprine have a black box warning for?
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warning for malignancy (lymphoma)
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1. Antagonize purine metabolism
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azathioprine
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SE of azathioprine (5)
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1. Leukopenia
2. Bone marrow depression 3. N/V/D 4. Macrocytosis 5. Liver toxicity (uncommon) |
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DDI with azathioprine (4)
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1. allpurinol--decrease azathioprine by 50-75%
2. 6-mercaptopurine 3. ace inhibitors--anemia, leukopenia 4. warfarin--increase warfarin dose |
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reversible inhibitor of inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase (IMPDH)
a. Key rate limiting enzyme in de novo purine synthesis (i.e. inhibits purine production which is a key step in DNA/RNA synthesis |
mycophenolic acid
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SE of mycophenolic acid (5)
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1. GI--mainly diarrhea
2. nausea 3. neutropenia 4. anemia 5. hypertension |
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DDI with mycophenolic acid (2)
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1. aluminum, magnesium, calcium, iron containing products--physically interact and reduce absorption (separate 2 hours before and after)
2. cholestyramine (same as above) |