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93 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
basic functions of blood (2)
1. transportation
2. defense against infections and foreign materials
what does blood transport? (5)
1. oxygen and carbon dioxide
2. nutrients (glucose, lipids, amino acids)
3. waste products
4. hormones
5. heat
WBC that contain granules (granulocytes) (3)
1. neutrophils
2. eosinophils
3. basophils
WBC without granules (2)
1. lymphocytes
2. monocytes/ macrophages
____ is the source for formation of all cell types
bone marrow
Development of stem cells involve ____ and ____ leading to development of progenitor or parent cells in each cell line
cytokines and growth factors
normal range for neutrophils
4.4-11 thou/mcL
average circulation time for neutrophils
6-12 hours
1. mild neutropenia ANC =
2. moderate neutropenia ANC =
3. severe neutropenia ANC =
1. <1500 /mm3
2. 500-1500 / mm3
3. <500 /mm3
treatment of neutropenia may include (2)
1. filgastrim
2. pegfilgastrim
____ granules are loaded with histamine which is released during allergic reactions
eosinophils
1. less effective but similar functions to that of neutrophils
2. primarily directed towards large invaders such as parasites
3. allergic reactions--will release histamines which induce vasodilation and pulmonary vasoconstriction (process prevents more antigens from entering the body)
eosinophils
1. in low numbers and their function is not well understood
2. they are involved in type I hypersensitivity responses and have high affinity to IgE leading to release of histamine
3. act in a similar fashion to mast cells with one difference being that these are located in the blood while mast cells are located in the tissue
basophils
once monocytes enter the tissue, they mature and become _____
macrophages
functions of?

1. initiation of immune responses especially fungal infections
2. regulation of immune response intensity
3. phagocytosis which engulf foreign matter as well as dead and dying cells in the body
4. secretion of monokines such as interferons, tumor necrosis factor, and interleukin-1
monocytes
1. responsible for making antibodies for humoral immunity
2. sometimes referred to as the memory cells since they produce immunoglublin type M (IgM); subsequent exposure to an antigen results in a quicker immun response
B lymphocytes (B-cells)
Go after intracellular pathogens and regulate the size and duration of the immune response; sometimes referred to as "suppressor T cells" since they help to down-regulate the immune system
cytotoxic T cells (CD8)
Help to regulate the inflammatory reactions through stimulation of B-cell maturation and antibody production; this essentially enhances the production of antibodies by the B cells
Helper T cells (CD4)
attacks and destroys tumor cells without prior sensitization
natural killer cells
lymphocytosis defined as ______ cells/L
>4 x 10'9 cells/L
normal values for platelets
150,000-450,000
normal lifespan of RBC
120 days
where is erythropoietin secreted from?
kidneys
1. a secretory anitbody found in all physiologic fluids including tears, saliva, GI fluids, milk, and mucus
2. neutralizes microorganisms/ toxins before these pathogens enter or cross the epithelium
IgA
1. predominately expressed on the surface of B cells
2. physiologic roll in the immune response is unclear
IgD
1. almost exclusively found on the surface of mast cells
2. when stimulated, this will cause the release of many allergic mediators and will be involved in parasitic infections
IgE
1. most abundant of the immunoglobulins in serum accounting for ~75% of all immunoglobulins in the serum
2. possesses high affinity for antigens and will help to eliminate antigen-bearing cells as well as facilitate natural killer cell activity
3. found in breast milk allowing passive immunity for newborns through breast-feeding
IgG
1. first antibody produced by the fetus and also the first antibody to respond to an antigen
2. primary exposure to an antigen leads to the appearance of this which will decrease as IgG synthesis increases
IgM
normal values for hemoglobin (Hgb)

male =
female=
male = 14-17.5 g/dL
female = 12.3-15.3 g/dL
normal values for hematocrit (Hct)

male =
female =
male = 40.7- 50.3%
female = 36.1-44.3%
represents the average volume of RBCs
mean corpuscular volume (MCV)

normal = 80-100 fL
average weight of hemoglobin per volume of cells and is independent of cell size
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration

normal = 31-37%
percent volume of hemoglobin in a RBC
mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH)

normal 26-34 pg
factors that affect iron absorption (3)
1. gastric acidity increases the absorption through ionization to the ferrous state
2. phytates (found in graines, brans, and some vegetables) can form insoluble complexes preventing iron absorption
3. situations such as achlorhydria will also prevent iron from being absorbed (state where gastric acid production is low/absent)
transport protein which helps deliver iron to the bone marrow and to other organs for storage
transferrin
1. indirect measure of iron binding capacity and a very useful test
2. constant, thus one of the tests to determine if one has iron deficiency anemia
total binding capacity (TBC)
1. considered stored iron and is proportional to the total iron stores
2. low levels is almost diagnostic for iron deficiency anemia
3. normal to high levels dont really tell you much as this is an acute phase reactant meaning inflammatory responses may cause this to elevate
serum ferritin
common causes for decreased RBC production (4)
1. lack of nutrients including iron, B12, and folate
2. problems involving the ability for bone marrow to produce RBCs including aplastic anemia, mylodysplasia, and red blood cell aplasia
3. suppression of bone marrow function due to drugs, chemo, and radiation
4. reductions in hormones which stimulate RBC production such as EPO, thyroid, and androgens
s/s of anemia (8)
1. fatigue
2. weakness
3. headache
4. faintness
5. loss of skin tone
6. tachycardia
7. breathlessness
8. lightheadedness
s/s of iron deficiency anemia (6)
1. fatigue
2. palpitations
3. tachypnea
4. spooning of the nails
5. brittle nails
6. pica (cravings to eat non-food items)
characteristic labs of iron deficiency anemia (5)
1. low serum iron (may be variable)
2. low ferritin
3. high TIBC
4. low MCV (initially normal but will drop)
5. hypochromic
% of elemental iron in ferrous sulfate
20% (65 mg per 325 mg tab)
% of elemental iron in ferrous gluconate
12% (39 mg per 325 mg tab)
% of elemental iron in ferrous fumerate
33% (33 mg per 100 mg tab
% of elemental iron in poly sacharride complex
150 mg per capsule or 50 mg per tablet (100% elemental iron)
1. normal dosing for IDA for iron
2. dosing for pregnant women
1. 200 mg elemental iron divided in 2-3 doses per day
2. 30 mg elemental iron per day
SE of oral iron supplementation (5)
1. nausea
2. constipation
3. epigastric pain/cramping
4. diarrhea
5. dark colored stools
main drug interactions with iron (3)
1. calcium
2. antacids
3. tetracyclines
indications for using parenteral iron (5)
1. noncompliance with oral therapy
2. inability to absorb oral iron
3. large iron boluses required to compensate for chronic blood loss
4. GI disorders which would be aggravated by oral therapy (ex: inflammatory bowel disease)
5. intolerance to oral therapy (fail at least 2 forms)
equation for calculating iron deficit to determine how much parenteral iron is used?
dose of iron (mg) = whole blood hemoglobin deficit (g/dL) x body weight (lb)
which parenteral iron preparation is indicated for patients with chronic kidney disease (1)
1. ferumoxytol
characteristic labs associated with anemia of chronic disease (ACD) (3)
1. low serum iron
2. normal to high ferritin levels
3. low TIBC
when would you use EPO?
do not initiate unless Hgb is <10 g/dL
indications for EPO (4)
1. anemia related to cancer
2. anemia secondary to CKD
3. anemia secondary to HIV
4. prophylaxis prior to surgery to reduce blood transfusions
ADR with EPO (4)
1. HTN
2. headache
3. arthralgias
4. nausea
Hgb goal with EPO use
should not exceed 11 g/dL or rise > 1 g/dL every 2 weeks due to increased mortality and cardiovascular events
hemolytic anemias (5)
1. sickle cell disease
2. glucose-6-phosphodiesterase deficiency
3. drug-induced (quinidine, high dose penicillin, methyldopa)
4. autoimmune disease
5. aplastic anemias
macrocytic anemias are generally caused by an impairment of DNA synthesis which occurs mainly from deficiencies in ____ and ____ as these are cofactors for DNA synthesis
1. folic acid
2. cobalamin
symptoms of B12 deficiency (10)
GI
1. glossitis
2. diarrhea
3. anorexia
4. gas
5. nausea
6. abdominal pain

neurologic
7. peripheral neuropathies
8. mild personality changes
9. depression
10. dementia/psychosis
hypersegmented neutrophils are very sensitive and specific for which anemia?
megaloblastic anemia
dose for IM cyanocobalamin
1000 mg IM weekly for 4-6 weeks then monthly
Where do B lymphocytes mature?
bone marrow
where to T lymphocytes mature
thymus gland
general s/s of acute cellular rejection (3)
1. pain over graft site
2. fever
3. lethargy
treatment for acute cellular rejection (2)
1. thymoglobulin: 1-2 mg/kg IV x 5-10 doses
2. corticosteroids: pulse dose (usually methylprednisolone 500 mg IV x 3-5 doses
patients at increased risk for infection (8)
1. younger patients
2. females > males
3. african americans
4. cadaveric grafts (from deceased patients)
5. donors > 50 yo
6. retransplantation
7. higher levels of preformed antibodies (panel reactive antibodies, PRA)
8. delayed graft function
spotting rejection: kidney (2)
1. increase in SCr
2. decrease in urine output
spotting rejection: liver (2)
1. increase in LFTs
2. serum bilirubin 1.5x ULN
spotting rejection: pancreas (2)
1. elevated blood sugars (need for insulin)
2. elevated amylase and lipase
spotting rejection: lung (1)
1. worsening spirometry parameters (esp FEV1)
spotting rejection: heart (3)
1. fatigue
2. shortness of breath
3. edema
polyclonal antibodies (2)
1. thymoglobulin (rabbit)
2. ATGAM (horse)
monoclonal antibodies (2)
1. basiliximab
2. alemtuzumab
monitoring for thymoglobulin (3)
1. absolute lymphocyte count
2. platelets
3. infectious complications
blocks IL-2 receptors on activated T-cells, inhibiting the T-cell action against the transplant
basiliximab
i. Anti-CD 52 and B-cell depleting antibody
alemtuzumab
short term SE of steroids (7)
1. Hyperglycemia
2. Increased appetite
3. Insomnia
4. Mental status changes
5. Hypernatremia
6. Hypocalcemia
7. Leukocytosis
long term SE of steroids (8)
1. Hypertension
2. Hyperlipidemia
3. Diabetes mellitus
4. Osteoporosis
5. Cataracts
6. Glaucoma
7. Impaired wound healing
8. Peptic ulcer disease
calcineurin inhibitors (2)
1. cyclosporine
2. tacrolimus
antiproliferatives (3)
1. azathioprine
2. mycophenolate/ myfortic
3. alefacept
m-TOR inhibitors (2)
1. sirolimus
2. everolimus
binds to cyclophilin and this complex then inhibits calcineurin phosphatases and T-cell activation
cyclosporine
monitoring for cyclosporine (6)
a. Trough
b. CBC
c. Electrolytes
d. Blood pressure
e. LFTs
f. Pregnancy category C
binds to FKBP12 and this complex inhibits calcineurin phosphatases and T-cell activation
tacrolamis
CYP3A4 inhibitors (6)
a. Azole antifungal
b. Macrolide antibiotics (erythromycin, clarithromycin)
c. CCB (diltiazem and verapamil; nifedipine and nicardipine)
d. Grapefruit juice
e. Statins
f. Ritonavir
CYP3A4 inducers (5)
a. Rifampin
b. Phenytoin
c. Phenobarbital
d. Carbamazepine
e. St. John’s wort
what does azathioprine have a black box warning for?
warning for malignancy (lymphoma)
1. Antagonize purine metabolism
azathioprine
SE of azathioprine (5)
1. Leukopenia
2. Bone marrow depression
3. N/V/D
4. Macrocytosis
5. Liver toxicity (uncommon)
DDI with azathioprine (4)
1. allpurinol--decrease azathioprine by 50-75%
2. 6-mercaptopurine
3. ace inhibitors--anemia, leukopenia
4. warfarin--increase warfarin dose
reversible inhibitor of inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase (IMPDH)
a. Key rate limiting enzyme in de novo purine synthesis (i.e. inhibits purine production which is a key step in DNA/RNA synthesis
mycophenolic acid
SE of mycophenolic acid (5)
1. GI--mainly diarrhea
2. nausea
3. neutropenia
4. anemia
5. hypertension
DDI with mycophenolic acid (2)
1. aluminum, magnesium, calcium, iron containing products--physically interact and reduce absorption (separate 2 hours before and after)
2. cholestyramine (same as above)