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102 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
1. usually caused by an acute injury
2. musculoskeletal, soft tissue, skin
3. dull, aching, sharp, constant, "ouch" pain
4. localized and readily identifiable
5. mediated by prostaglandins, acute phase reactants
nociceptive or somatic pain
1. cause may be unknown
2. usually involves internal organs (liver, pancreas, GI, GU tracts)
3. difficult to localize
4. may describe as "nausea" or "gnawing" feeling
5. mediated by enteric and sympathetic nervous systems
visceral pain
1. caused by nerve injury, irritation or damage
2. central (spinal cord injury, stroke)
3. peripheral (diabetic neuropathy, post-herpetic neuralgia_
4. burning, shooting tingling, numbness
5. associated with: hyperalgesia, allodynia
neuropathic pain
indications for NSAIDs (6)
1. rheumatoid and osteoarthritis
2. chronic inflammatory conditions
3. musculoskeletal
4. bony pain (tumor, etc.)
5. lower back pain (?)
6. post-operative pain (celebrex--doesn't affect platelets)
contraindications for NSAIDs (6)
1. peptic ulcer disease (PUD)
2. renal insufficiency
3. platelet dysfunction
4. uncontrolled CHF/ HTN (Na and fluid retention)
5. ASA-sensitive asthma
6. pregnancy (esp. in last 3-6 months)
risk factors for GI toxicity (7)
1. history of complicated ulcer
2. multiple NSAIDs (including ASA)
3. high doses of NSAIDs
4. use of anticoagulant
5. age >70
6. use of corticosteroids
7. SSRI?--affect platelet function
pain indications for pregabalin (3)
1. post-herpetic neuropathy
2. diabetic peripheral neuropathy
3. fibromyalgia
pain indications for gabapentin (1)
1. post-herpetic neuropathy
state of adaptation that is manifested by a drug class specific withdrawal syndrome that can be produced by abrupt cessation, rapid dose reduction, decreasing blood level of the drug, and/or administration of an antagonist
physical dependence
state of adaptation in which exposure to a drug induces changes that result in diminution of one or more the the drug's effects over time
tolerance
primary, chronic, neurobiologic disease, with genetic, psychosocial, and environmental factors influencing its development and manisfestations. it is characterized by behaviors that include one or more of the following: imparied control over drug use, compulsive use, continued use despite harm and craving
addiction
presentation of acute pain (7)
1. tachycardic
2. tachypneic
3. increase in BP
4. increase in temperature
5. diaphoretic
6. agitated/delirious
7. restlessness
presentation of chronic pain (4)
1. vitals normal
2. uncomfortable
3. no CNS changes
4. no autonomic changes
side effects of opioids (6)
1. nausea
2. vomiting
3. rash
4. pruritis
5. sedation
6. hallucinations
1. natural opioid (IR, ER)
2. used first line in acute pain
3. dose: 1-2 mg IV q 4h; 15 mg PO q 4h; 1 mg IV q 10 min for PCA
4. SE: nausea, itching, constipation
5. active metabolites are cleared renally (reduce dose if renal impairment)
morphine
1. semi-synthetic opioid (IR, ER)
2. 10 mg IV morphine = 1.5 mg IV of this medication
3. less itching than morphine
4. dose: 0.2 mg IV q 4h; 2-4 mg PO q 4h; 0.2 mg q 10 min PCA
5. active metabolites renally cleared (reduce dose if renal impairment)
hydromorphone
1. synthetic (fewer histamine-related effects)
2. used for anesthesia in higher doses
3. no active metabolites (may be used in renal impairment)
4. dosing is in MCG (PCA 10 mcg IV q 10 min)
5. fast onset of action (IV) and very short half life
6. continuous infusion may lead to accumulation in fatty tissues
7. no standard oral dosage forms
8. transmucosal products: for breakthrough pain in cancer patients; only in patients who are already taking opioids
fentanyl
oral semi-synthetic opioids (3)
1. oxycodone (IR/ER) with or without APAP--5 mg q 4-6h
2. hydrocodone (IR only) with APAP--5 mg q 4-6h
3. oxymorphone (IR/ER)--10 mg q 4-6h

**all oral formulations
1. not a good choice
2. lots of nausea, histamine release
3. converted to morphine in the liver by CYP 2D6
4. pharmacogenetic differences: rapid metabolizers = morphine toxicity; slow metabolizers = very little or no morphine
codeine
agents in phase 1 of metabolism that go through cyp 2D6 activity (4)
1. codeine
2. tramadol
3. hydrocodone
4. oxycodone
agents in phase 1 of metabolism that go through CY3A4 activity (5)
1. methadone
2. buprenorphine
3. fentanyl
4. tramadol
5. oxycodone
which glucuronate of morphine is 10x more effective?
M-6-glucuronide
which agents are ok to use in renal insufficiency (4)
1. fentanyl
2. methadone
3. oxycodone
4. hydrocodone
what to do if persistant sedation from opioid? (3 steps)
1. hold 1-2 doses of opioid
2. restart with 25% reduction of dose
3. dose more frequently
at risk populations for respiratory depression (4)
1. extremes of age
2. concurrent CNS depression
3. severe lung disease
4. sleep apnea
treatment for nausea/vomiting in patients using opioid (3)
1. promethazine/prochlorperazine
2. 5-HT3 antagonist (ondansetron)
3. consider changing opioid
treatment for itching in patients using opioids (5)
1. antihistamine (not always effective)
2. nalbuphine
3. naloxone
4. ondansetron (?)
5. consider switching opioid (morphine>hydromorphone>fentanyl, methadone)
mediators of the immune system involved in RA (5)
1. immunoglobulins
2. rheumatoid factors (antibodies)
3. the complement system
4. interleukins (interleukin 1)
5. T cells and B cells (cellular components)
main targets for newer treatment options for RA because these two agents cause inflammation and cartilage/ bone destruction (2)
1. tumor necrosis factor (TNF)
2. interleukin-1
diagnosis of RA depends on what factors (3)
1. characteristic symptoms
2. lab tests
3. radiographic findings
first sites involved in RA (2)
1. metacarpolphalangeal joints (MCP)
2. proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints

**within the hands
key features in diagnosing RA (5)
1. evidence of clinical synovitis
2. morning stiffness or stiffness after prolonged period of inactivity (key feature: morning stiffness lasting longer than 1 hour)
3. generalized complaints of fever and fatigue
4. examination of hands--tells if patient is having early, late, or progressive disease
5. other joints involved
other joints involved in RA (7)
1. wrists (almost always)
2. elbows (frequently)
3. shoulder (late in disease)
4. feet (common)
5. hip
6. spine (especially cervical)
7. knees
non-pharmacological treatment options for RA (3)
1. joint protection
2. conservation of energy
3. motion and strengthening exercises
role of corticosteroids in RA (3)
1. bridge therapy to control symptoms during the initial phases of disease modifying antirheumatic drugs or during flare-ups
2. intra-articular injections of acutely inflamed joints
3. pregnancy
cautions with corticosteroids in RA (4)
1. avoid using without DMARDs
2. try to taper to lowest effective dose and limit therapy to <6 months
3. supplement with calcium and vitamin D
4. consider use of bisphosphonates
how long does it take to see the efficacy of hydroxychloroquine?
3-6 months; not considered failure until after 6 months
1. dose: 200 mg BID
2. MOA: categorized as anti-malaria agent whose mechanism is unknown; deemed moderately effective for RA
3. onset of action: efficacy may not be apparent for 3-6 months
4. AE: relatively benign with nausea and epigastric pain being most common; serious AE are rare; hemolysis may occur in those with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency; retinal damage may occur
5. monitoring: visual field checks at baseline and ever 6-12 months
6. misc: likely the least effective of DMARDs and is more useful in mild disease or in combo with other DMARDs; one of the largest advantages is the safety profile
hydroxychloroquine
dosing for MTX
initiate with 7.5 mg q weekly then increase by 5 mg every 1-2 months up to weekly dose of 20-30 mg
MOA of MTX
folate antagonist--interferes with synthesis of DNA and cell reproduction

mechanism inRA is unclear but believed to have anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects
onset of action for MTX in RA
4-6 weeks but could be as early as 2-3 weeks
GI adverse effects of MTX (4)
1. nausea
2. vomiting
3. diarrhea
4. stomatitis
hematologic adverse effects of MTX (2)
1. thrombocytopenia
2. leukopenia (less likely)
pulmonary adverse effects of MTX (2)
1. hypersensitivity pneumonitis
2. pulmonary fibrosis
hepatic adverse effects of MTX (1)
1. elevations in liver enzymes
monitoring parameters for MTX (3)
1. LFTs
2. CBC with platelets
3. renal function q 4-8 weeks
what is considered the DMARD of choice for initial treatment in moderate to severe RA
MTX

**also forms basis or anchor drug for combination therapy with other DMARDs
MTX is best to avoid in? (3)
1. underlying hepatic disease
2. significant alcohol use
3. severe renal disease
1. dose: load with 100 mg QD x 3 days then 20 mg QD
2. MOA: prodrug whose metabolite inhibits pyrimidine synthesis and decreases proliferation of lymphocytes
3. indication: approved as monotherapy for RA or in combination with NSAIDs/ corticosteroids
4. onset of action: usually within 1 month
5. AE: diarrhea, alopecia (reversible), rash, increase in LFT
6. monitoring: LFTs, CBC, creatinine q 4-8 weeks
7. as effective as MTX in established and recent RA
8. loading dose required due to the half life of the drug
9. d/c and ingest cholestyramine 8 grams TID x 11 days before considering child conception
10. has been combined with MTX but need to watch liver function!
leflunomide (Arava)
what do patients need to be screened for before starting biologic DMARDs or biologic response modifiers ? (2)--these two are of primary concern also important to screen for other infections/diseases before starting
1. tuberculosis--patients with dormant disease can have their TB reactivated
2. fungal infections
TNF-alpha inhibitor selection based on (3)
1. willingness to self-inject
2. willingness to make frequent office visits
3. willingness of insurance to pay/insurance preferance
when will patients notice improvement with TNF-alpha inhibitors?
1-4 weeks after initiation but may take up to 3 months to see full effect
TNF-alpha inhibitors

recent FDA warning added to include risk of infection from ____ and ___
1. legionella
2. listeria
which biologic agent is approved only for use with MTX and not as a monotherapy
inflixamab
which biological DMARD is reserved for patients who have failed other biologics because of its ability of variation dosing
inflixamab
1. anti-TNF alpha monoclonal antibody which is cloned 100% from human segments; it is indistinguishable from human IgG1
2. approved for the treatment of moderately to severely active RA in adult patients who have displayed inadequate response to 1 or more DMARDs
adalimumab (Humira)
which TNF alpha inhibitor is given only once monthly?
golimumab (Symponi)
1. humanized antibody Fab fragment conjugated to polyethylene glycol (pegylation process)
2. more rapid onset of action and fewer injection site reactions
certolizumab pegol (cimzia)
TNF alpha inhibitor agents (5)
1. etanercept (Enbrel)
2. infliximab (Remicade)
3. adalimumab (Humira)
4. golimumab (Symponi)
5. certolizumab pegol (Cimzia)
1. MOA: co-stimulation modulator; prevents one of two stimulation mechanism for t-cell activation and results in reduction in the release of cytokines (IL-1, TNF, IL-6)
2. indication: moderate to severe RA in patients who have had an inadequate response to MTX and TNF antagonists
3. onset: within 2 weeks; full effect noted within 3 months
4. caution in those with underlying COPD--may have increased development of adverse effects
5. should not be administered with other BRMs due to lack of added benefit (fine to give with MTX)
abatacept (Orencia)--T-lymphocyte therapy
1. two 1000 mg IV infusions separated by 2 weeks; methylprednisolone 10 mg (or equivalent) given 30 min before infusion to minimize infusion related reaction; suggested premedication before infusion with APAP and antihistamine
2. MOA: monoclonal IgG kappa antibody which selectively targets CD-20 inflammatory process
3. combination with MTX in those with moderate to severe disease and who have had an inadequate response to one or more TNF antagonist therapies
5. onset: with in 16 weeks
6. CARDIAC monitoring throughout infusion
retuximab (Rituxin)
B-lymphocyte therapy
1. initiate with 4 mg/kg by IV infusion over 60 minutes every 4 weeks then increase to 8 mg/kg based on clinical response
2. MOA: interleukin-6 receptor inhibitor which blocks the IL-6 induced t-cell activation; will also block local joint production of IL-6
3. need to monitor for myelosuppression and negative effects on lipids
tocilizumab (Actemra)
indication for use of what biologic?

1. in combo with MTX for those with early RA who have never received DMARDs and have high disease activity
2. those with intermediate and longer duration of RA in those who have had prior MTX therapy with an inadequate response
anti-TNF agent (interchangeably)
indication for use of what biologic?

used in patients for whome MTX in combination with DMARDs or sequential administration of other nonbiological DMARDs led to an inadequate response and at least moderate disease activity and features of a poor prognosis
abatacept
indication for use of what biologic?

used in patient for whome MTX in combination with DMARDs or sequential administration of non-biologic DMARDs led to an inadequate response and high disease activity and features of a poor prognosis
rituximab
___ invariably are the center of SLE pathogenesis
B-lympocytes
which co-morbidities have been associated with lupus? (5)
1. infection
2. cardiovascular disease
3. osteoporosis
4. avascular necrosis
5. malignancies
drugs most commonly associated with lupus (2)
1. procainamide
2. hydralazine
other drugs associated with lupus that have good evidence linking them to lupus (5)
1. chlorpromazine
2. isoniazid
3. methyldopa
4. minocycline
5. quinidine
1. considered first-line therapy for those with mild symptoms of lupus
2. particularly useful for fever, arthritis, and other musculoskeletal symptoms
3. choice of agent in class is empiric; dosing typically higher
NSAIDs
1. mainstay of treatment in patients with lupus especially during flares
2. these will inhibit b-cell and t-cell responses
corticosteroids

mild disease: prednisone 10-20 mg QD
severe disease: prednisone 1-2 mg/kg/day
patients may also receive IV pulse therapy with methylprednisolone (30 mg/kg max 1 g/day)
1. considered first line treatment (along with NSAIDs) for treatment of mild lupus
2. agent will cause a down-regulation of interferon-alpha and decrease the antigen processing for autoantigen presentation
3. dosing is 200-400 mg QD and the medication is fairly benign
4. max effect not present for 3-6 months
hydroxychloroquine
1. inactive until metaoblized into mercaptopurine after which it inhibits DNA synthesis thus preventing cell proliferation in the immune system
2. considered to be a steroid-sparing agent
3. dosing 1-3 mg/kg/day
4. AE: typical toxicity is GI--oral ulcers, NVD, epigastric pain
5. dose related toxicities myelosuppression may occur including leukopenia and less commonly thrombocytopenia
azathioprine (imuran)
1. often considered an induction agent for lupus flares (other immunosuppressive agents are preferred for maintenance)
2. optimal dosing has not been defined however IV pulse therapy based on body surface area is employed
3. toxicities often limit use--myelosuppression, malignancy, immunosuppression, hemorrhagic cystitis
cyclophosphamide
1. pro-drug of mycophonolic acid which inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase; causes disruption of an essential step for DNA synthesis in lymphocytes with the end result of blocking proliferation of activated T and B lymphocytes
2. useful for both induction and remission of SLE
3. dosing is 500-3000 mg QD (typical dose of 2000 mg)
4. adverse effects are mainly GI (NVD; rarely will cause leukopenia)
mycophenolate mofetil
LUPUS

1. agent will deplete B cells from the peripheral blood but has a sparing effect on the T cell sthus less immnuosuppressive than other agents
2. dosing is 500-1000 mg q 2 weeks x 2 doses; then 375 mg/mm2 q weekly for 2-4 doses
3. requires pretreatment with corticosteroid, antihistamine,and APAP to reduce infusion related reactions (fever, chills, hypertension, arthralgias, pruritis)
rituximab
1. this is a monoclonal antibody which binds to and inhibits the action of the soluble form of the b-lymphocyte stimulator (BLyS)--it is known that levels of BLyS are increased in many patients with lupus and some have proposed the levels can be correlated to disease severity
2. indicated for those with active, auto-antibody positive, SLE who are receiving standard therapy (not recommended in combo with other bioligcs or IV cyclophosphamide)
3. dosing 10 mg/kg IV over an hour at 2 week intervals for first 3 doses; then 4 week intervals thereafter
4. serious infections, depression, avoidance of live vaccines are a few warnings
5. common ADR: N/D, fever, infection, depression, and migraines however d/c rates are similar to placebo
belimumab (Benlysta)
agents use for lupus therapy (8)
1. NSAIDs
2. corticosteroids
3. hydroxychloroquine
4. azathioprine
5. cyclophosphamide
6. mycophenolate mofetil
7. rituximab
8. belimumab (Benlysta)
how would you treat mild/moderate nephritis?
pulse corticosteroids and long term suppression with azathioprine with or without coritcosteroids
how would you treate severe/unresponseive lupus nephritis?
1. pulse IV corticosteroids and/or oral cyclophosphamide or azathioprine (IV pulse cyclophosphamide has been preferred)
2. mycophenolate mofetil considered a viable option and often preferred in place of IV cyclophosphamide; also shown to be option in those who are refractory to pulse IV cyclophosphamide)
1. need agressive therapy to reduce the potential for mortality
2. best managed by agressive IV pulse cyclophophamide and corticosteroids

which form of lupus?
neuropsychiatric lupus
1. typically start with NSAIDs
2. corticosteroids may also be used especially for refractory cases

which complication of lupus?
pericarditis and pleuritis
leading causes of death in 1905 (5)
1. infection
2. diseases of early infancy (diarrhea, enteritis)
3. diseases of circulatory system
4. diseases of nervous system
5. violence
leading causes of death in 2005 (8)
1. cardiac
2. cancer
3. CVA (cerebrovascular accident)
4. chronic respiratory
5. accidents
6. diabetes related
7. alzheimer's disease
8. influenza/pneumonia
Proof that medicare requires that deems patient still eligible for hospice benefit (4)
1. losing weight
2. sleeping more than awake
3. active symptoms requiring intervention
4. tissue documented disease
acute effects of radiation therapy (7)

may be seen during and may persist for several weeks
1. erythema
2. nausea
3. vomiting
4. anorexia
5. mucositis
6. dry mouth
7. local edema
indications for radiation therapy (4)
1. pain (bone mets, visceral pain from soft tissue mets, neuropathic pain secondary to tumor in nerve tissue)
2. local pressure (spinal canal compression, cranial nerve palsies)
3. obstruction (bowel/Gi, superior vena cava, limb swelling)
4. bleeding (hematuria, vaginal, rectal)
ways to prevent constipation (5)
1. encourage activity (if tolerated)
2. maintain adequate hydration
3. dietary modification
4. anticipate constipating effects of drugs and alter if possible
5. create favorable environment
1. binds ions and water in the colonic lumen thereby increasing the bulk and water content of the stool

2. aids to stimulate reflex peristalsis

3. increase intestinal gas/bloating/fecal impaction

4. requires adequate water intake otherwise will get the opposite effect
bulk forming agents

1. psyllium (metamucil)

2. methylcellulose (citrucil)

3. polycarbophil (fibercon)
1. claimed to be non-absorbed, pharmcologically inert

2. useful in combinate
emollient agents (stool softeners)

1. docusate sodium (colace)

2. docusate calcium (Surfak)
1. non-absorbable sugars that are metabolized by colonic bacteria to low molecular weight acids

2. create an osmotic effect whereby the pH of the stool is lowered and there is an increase in intraluminal fluid
osmotic agents

1. sorbitol

2. lactulose

3. polyethyleneglycol (PEG) (Miralax)

4. glycerin suppositories
1. poorly absorbed anions and cations create an osmotic effect resulting in retention of fluid in the lumen

2. magnesium containing products are the most commonly used and in addition to the above mechanism, this cation also stimulates the release of cholecystokinin which is a hormone that stimulates bowel motility and fluid retention
saline laxative

1. milk of magnesia (PRN use)

2. magnesium citrate (usually bowel preps?)
1. selective for GI tract

2. intended for outpatients who have failed other regimens
opioid antagonists

1. methylnaltrexone (relistor)
1. directly stimulate myenteric plexus to cause stimulation of colonic activity

2. _____ will stimulate mucosal nerve plexus of the colon
stimulant laxatives

1. sennosides (senakot)

2. bisacodyl (dulcolax)---answer to point 2
1. usually reserved (patient preference) however very effective in evacuating colon

2. _____ are not preferred due to irritating effects and risk of colitis and/ proctitis
enemas

1. tap water

2. saline

3. soap suds (answer to point 2)
pharmacological options that are used to help palliative care patients increase appetite (5)
1. corticosteroids (easiest)
2. medroxyprogesterone (at hight doses)
3. mirtazepine/ tricyclic antidepressants
4. methylphenidate
5. dronabinol (marinol)
pharmacological options that are used to help reduce oral secretion in palliative care patients (3)
1. scopolamine patch

2. atropine (subQ/IV OR eye drops used orally)

3. glycopyrrolate (SubQ/IV or oral tab)
what is mirtazepine useful for in palliative care patients (4)
1. stimulation of appetite

2. sleep

3. anxiety

4. depression
what is nortriptyline useful for in palliative care patients (4)
1. pain

2. depression

3. sleep

4. appetite
what are SSRIs useful for in palliative care patients (2)
1. depression

2. anxiety

citalopram generally used
what is in a ABH suppository?
1. ativan 1 mg

2. benadryl 12.5 mg

3. haloperidol 2 mg
what is in a DBR suppository?
1. decadron (aka dexamethasone) 4 mg

2. benadryl 25 mg

3. reglan (aka metoclopramide) 10 mg