The Pharmacy Technician Workbook And Certification 5Th Edition, Reeves College-Downtown Calgary

Front 1

"A local anesthetic found in coca leaves."

Back 1

"cocaine"

Front 2

"The natural drug derived from the bark of a white willow tree, used by the Ancient Greeks to relieve pain, and the natural forerunner to the active ingredient in aspirin."

Back 2

"salicylic acid"

Front 3

"A drug for malaria found in cinchona bark."

Back 3

"quinine"

Front 4

"The complete set of genetic information in the human cell."

Back 4

"human genome"

Front 5

"A cure-all."

Back 5

"panacea"

Front 6

"The study of drugs—their properties, uses, application, and effects.

Back 6

"pharmacology"

Front 7

"A drug produced by a fungus that kills bacteria."

Back 7

"penicillin"

Front 8

"Services provided by a pharmacist that look at all the medi- cations a patient is taking."

Back 8

"MTM services"

Front 9

"A substance that acts against a toxin in the body."

Back 9

"antitoxin"

Front 10

"A substance that harms or kills microorganisms like bacteria and fungi."

Back 10

"antibiotic"

Front 11

"Chemicals produced by the body that regulate body func- tions and processes."

Back 11

"hormones"

Front 12

"The study of physical, chemical, biochemical, and biological properties of drugs.

Back 12

"pharmacognosy"

Front 13

"Expanded the role of the pharmacist to provide MTM services to some Medicare patients."

Back 13

"Medicare Modernization Act"

Front 14

"Lists of drugs that are approved for use by patients."

Back 14

"formularies"

Front 15

"Combining simpler chemicals into more complex com- pounds not found in nature."

Back 15

"synthetic"

Front 16

"1. The natural drug that is the forerunner to aspirin comes from the cinchona tree."

Back 16

False

Front 17

"2. Most drugs used today are made synthetically."

Back 17

True

Front 18

"3. Digitalis comes from the foxglove plant."

Back 18

True

Front 19

"4. Cocaine was the first general anesthetic."

Back 19

False

Front 20

"5. In 1900 the average American lived only until their 40s."

Back 20

True

Front 21

"6. More pharmacists and technicians are employed in community pharmacies than in any other setting.

Back 21

True

Front 22

"7. The second largest area of employment for pharmacists and technicians is home care."

Back 22

False

Front 23

"8. The field of biotechnology has become the least dynamic area of pharmaceutical research and development."

Back 23

False

Front 24

"9. According to Gallup Polls, pharmacists consistently rank as one of the most highly trusted and ethical professions in the United States."

Back 24

True

Front 25

"10. iPads are not currently used to access drug information."

Back 25

False

Front 26

"1. The drug digitalis comes from the fox- glove plant and is used to treat some __________________ conditions. a. liver
b. kidney
c. heart
d. lung"

Back 26

Heart

Front 27

"2. The first publicized operation using general anesthesia was performed using __________ as the anesthetic. a. cocaine
b. foxglove
c. quinine
d. ether"

Back 27

Ether

Front 28

"3. The field of ____________________ has resulted from the study of the human genome.
a. pharmacology
b. biotechnology
c. natural medicine
d. discovery"

Back 28

biotechnology

Front 29

"4. The drug form of cocoa leaves is used for
a. local anesthesia.
b. diabetes.
c. heart disease.
d. hypertension."

Back 29

local anesthesia.

Front 30

"5. The first cloned mammal was a
a. rat.
b. rabbit.
c. sheep.
d. monkey."

Back 30

sheep

Front 31

"6. ________________________ advocated “bleeding” to maintain balance of the “humours.”
a. Charaka
b. Shen Nung
c. Pontos
d. Galen

Back 31

Galen

Front 32

"7. ____________________ developed an oral polio vaccine.
a. Watson and Crick
b. Sabin
c. Fleming
d. Hippocrates"

Back 32

Sabin

Front 33

"8. An authoritative listing of drugs and issues related to their use is a (an)
a. pharmacopeia.
b. materia medica.
c. panacea.
d. Sumerian."

Back 33

pharmacopeia

Front 34

"9. Care that is managed by an insurer is
a. home care.
b. managed care.
c. short-term care.
d. long-term care.

Back 34

managed care.

Front 35

"10.A substance that harms or kills microorganisms is called a(an)
a. antitoxin.
b. anesthetic.
c. antibiotic.
d. vaccine."

Back 35

antibiotic.

Front 36

What individuals may and may not do in their jobs.

Back 36

Scope of Practice

Front 37

To assess characteristics, skills, qualities, etc

Back 37

Personal Inventory

Front 38

The requirement of health-care providers to keep all patient information private among the patient, the patient’s insurer, and the providers directly involved in the patient’s care.

Back 38

Confidentiality

Front 39

The most important consideration in health care.

Back 39

Patient Welfare

Front 40

Exam offered by the Pharmacy Technician Certification Board.

Back 40

PTCE

Front 41

A legal proof or document that an individual meets certain objective standards, usually provided by a neutral profes- sional organization.

Back 41

Certification

Front 42

Individuals who are given a basic level of training designed to help them perform specific tasks.

Back 42

Technicians

Front 43

Individuals who receive extensive and advanced levels of education before being allowed to practice, such as physi- cians and pharmacists.

Back 43

Professionals

Front 44

Technicians always work under their direct supervision

Back 44

Pharmacist

Front 45

Employer documents employee’s job competency.

Back 45

Performance Review

Front 46

Has model curriculum for technician training

Back 46

ASHP

Front 47

Exam given by the National Healthcareer Association

Back 47

EXCPT

Front 48

A critical element in maintaining competency for pharmacy technicians.

Back 48

Continuing Education

Front 49

Law that makes health-care providers responsible for the privacy and security of a patient’s health information.

Back 49

HIPAA

Front 50

1. Specific technician responsibilities differ by setting and job description.

Back 50

True

Front 51

2. Technicians may sometimes provide counseling services to patients

Back 51

False

Front 52

3. Most pharmacy technicians are employed in hospitals

Back 52

False

Front 53

4. Mathematics skills are very important to the pharmacy technician.

Back 53

True

Front 54

5. It is essential for technicians to have good interpersonal skills.

Back 54

True

Front 55

6. The U.S. government sets standards for technician training.

Back 55

False

Front 56

7. PHI is considered public information

Back 56

False

Front 57

8. As a technician, your employer is legally responsible for your performance.

Back 57

True

Front 58

9. Studies have shown that certified technicians have lower turnover

Back 58

True

Front 59

10. Every two years a CPhT must complete 40 contact hours of continuing education

Back 59

False

Front 60

1. When technicians perform appropriate essential tasks, this allows the pharmacist time for tasks requiring more advanced professional expertise such as
a. telephoning insurance companies.
b. consulting with patients.
c. counting tablets.
d. ringing the cash register.

Back 60

consulting with patients

Front 61

2. Taking routine patient information is a duty of the
a. consultant.
b. cashier.
c. pharmacist.
d. pharmacy technician.

Back 61

pharmacy technician

Front 62

3. Pharmacy technicians should be detail oriented. This means a. technicians’ work can always be done by pharmacists.
b. technicians are not as important as pharmacists. c. patients must receive medications exactly
as they are prescribed.
d. tardiness is acceptable.

Back 62

patients must receive medications exactly
as they are prescribed.

Front 63

4. Do pharmacy technicians need to maintain good physical and mental health?
a. Yes, to decrease the chance of making
serious mistakes.
b. Yes, because some belong to labor unions.
c. No. Pharmacists are always responsible
for the technician, so technicians don’t have to worry about getting enough sleep.
d. No. Pharmacists have more education and so will catch all errors made.

Back 63

Yes, to decrease the chance of making
serious mistakes.

Front 64

5. According to HIPAA, it is okay to
a. discuss patient information within earshot of other patients.
b. bill insurance using HIPAA-compliant EDI
c. bill insurance using non secure EDI.
d. casually discuss a patient’s condition
with a patient’s spouse.

Back 64

bill insurance using HIPAA-compliant EDI

Front 65

6._________________ refers to being qualified for or capable of performing a task or job.
a. Scope of practice
b. Compounding
c. Dependability
d. Competent

Back 65

Competent

Front 66

7. _______________________ are regularly scheduled events to monitor and document technician competency.
a. PTCE
b. PTCB
c. Performance reviews
d. TJC

Back 66

Performance reviews

Front 67

8. ____________________ is a legal proof or document that an individual meets certain objective standards, usually provided by a neutral professional organization.
a. Registration
b. Certification
c. Documentation
d. Prior authorization

Back 67

Certification

Front 68

9. CPhT stands for
a. Certified Pharmacy Trainer.
b. Complete Pharmacy Technician.
c. Certified Pharmacy Technician.
d. Certified Pharmacist Technician.

Back 68

Certified Pharmacy Technician

Front 69

10.To pass the ExCPT, candidates must score at least
a. 550.
b. 600.
c. 390.
d. 750.

Back 69

390

Front 70

Each drug has a high potential for abuse and no accepted medical use in the United States. It may not be prescribed. Heroin, various opium derivatives, and hallucinogenic substances are included on this schedule.

Back 70

Schedule I

Front 71

Each drug has a high potential for abuse and may lead to physical or psychological dependence, but also has a currently accepted medical use in the United States. Amphetamines, opium, cocaine, methadone, and various opiates are included on this schedule.

Back 71

Schedule II

Front 72

Each drug’s potential for abuse is less than those in Schedules I and II and there is a currently accepted medical use in the United States, but abuse may lead to moderate or low physical dependence or high psychological dependence. Anabolic steroids and various compounds containing limited quantities of narcotic substances such as codeine are included on this schedule.

Back 72

Schedule III

Front 73

Each drug has a low potential for abuse relative to Schedule III drugs and there is a current accepted medical use in the United States, but abuse may lead to limited physical dependence or psychological dependence. Phenobarbital, the sedative chloral hydrate, and the anesthetic methohexital are included in this group.

Back 73

Schedule IV

Front 74

Each drug has a low potential for abuse relative to Schedule IV drugs and there is a current accepted medical use in the United States, but abuse may lead to limited physical dependence or psychological dependence. Compounds containing limited amounts of a narcotic such as codeine are included in this group.

Back 74

Schedule V

Front 75

The number all prescribers of controlled substances are assigned and which must be used on all controlled drug prescriptions.

Back 75

DEA Drug (Enforcement Administration) Number

Front 76

A court order preventing a specific action, such as the distri- bution of a potentially dangerous drug.

Back 76

Injunction

Front 77

An inactive substance given in place of a medication.

Back 77

Placebo

Front 78

An unintended side affect of a medication that is negative or in some way injurious to a patient’s health

Back 78

Adverse Effect

Front 79

Any drug which requires a prescription and this “legend” on the label: Rx only

Back 79

Legend Drug

Front 80

Failing to do something you should have done.

Back 80

Negligence

Front 81

Having to do with the treatment of children.

Back 81

Pediatric

Front 82

Important associated information that is not on the label of a drug product itself.

Back 82

Product Labelling

Front 83

A drug that has prescription and OTC status.

Back 83

Dual Marketing Status

Front 84

Means you can be prosecuted for misconduct.

Back 84

Liability

Front 85

The action taken to remove a drug from the market and have it returned to the manufacturer.

Back 85

Recall

Front 86

1970 law that established schedules of controlled substances.

Back 86

Controlled Substances Act

Front 87

The number on a manufacturer’s label indicating the manu- facturer and product information.

Back 87

NDC (National Drug Code)

Front 88

Drugs that do not require a prescription

Back 88

OTC Drugs (Over The Counter)

Front 89

1. Childproof packaging was required by the Fair Packaging and Labeling Act.

Back 89

False

Front 90

2. The CMEA sets daily and monthly restrictions on the sale of pseudoephedrine.

Back 90

True

Front 91

3. Only about 25% of drugs tested on humans are approved for use by the FDA.

Back 91

True

Front 92

4. Over-the-counter medications do not require a prescription but sometimes prescrip- tions are written for them.

Back 92

True

Front 93

5. The name of the prescriber must appear on the label of a dispensed prescription con- tainer.

Back 93

True

Front 94

6. A Class III recall is most likely to cause harm or death.

Back 94

False

Front 95

7. Negligence is the most common form of misconduct.

Back 95

True

Front 96

8. Schedule III, IV, and V drugs may be stored openly on shelves in retail and hospital settings.

Back 96

True

Front 97

9. All controlled substances must be ordered using a DEA controlled substance order form.

Back 97

False

Front 98

10. Beneficence means the actions should be in the best interests of the patient.

Back 98

True

Front 99

Amphetamines, opium, cocaine, methadone, and various opiates are included on this schedule.

Back 99

Schedule II Drugs

Front 100

Anabolic steroids and various compounds containing limited quantities of narcotic substances such as codeine are included on this schedule.

Back 100

Schedule III Drugs

Front 101

When a product is not likely to cause adverse effects

Back 101

Class III Recall

Front 102

Compounds containing limited amounts of a narcotic such as codeine are included in this group.

Back 102

Schedule V Drugs

Front 103

When a product may cause temporary but reversible adverse effects, or in which there is little likelihood of serious adverse effects.

Back 103

Class II Recall

Front 104

Heroin, various opium derivatives, and hallucinogenic sub- stances are included on this schedule.

Back 104

Schedule I Drugs

Front 105

Phenobarbital, the sedative chloral hydrate, and the anes- thetic methohexital are included in this group.

Back 105

Schedule IV Drugs

Front 106

When there is a strong likelihood that the product will cause serious adverse effects or death.

Back 106

Class I Recall

Front 107

1. In what kind of container should this medication be dispensed?

http://online.vitalsource.com/books/9781617310737/content/image/v2/553246736447566b5831394832686c70626a7a63304b4f355a7a70514c3463557179747a726d524f4a39733d0a?format=jpg&width=1200

Back 107

Tight, Light, Resistant

Front 108

2. Who is the manufacturer of this drug product?

Back 108

Qualitest Pharmaceuticals

Front 109

3. What is the product’s brand name?

Back 109

Endocet, R

Front 110

4. What is the product’s generic name?

Back 110

Oxycodone and Acetaminophen

Front 111

5. What is the drug form?

Back 111

Tablets

Front 112

6. What are the active ingredients?

Back 112

Oxycodone And Acetaminophen

Front 113

7. What control level is the drug product?

Back 113

C-II

Front 114

8. What are the storage requirements?

Back 114

Room Temperature

Front 115

9. What is the expiration date?

Back 115

06/2014

Front 116

1. The __________________ defined what drugs require a prescription. a. 1970 Poison Prevention Packaging Act
b. 1962 Kefauver-Harris Amendment
c. Sherley Amendment
d. 1951 Durham-Humphrey Amendment

Back 116

1951 Durham-Humphrey Amendment

Front 117

2. A need for tighter drug regulations from the thalidomide lesson led to the
a. Kefauver-Harris Amendment.
b. Durham-Humphrey Amendment.
c. Food and Drug Act of 1906.
d. Food Drug and Cosmetic Act.

Back 117

Kefauver-Harris Amendment

Front 118

3. Legend drugs should have the legend ___________________ on the manufacturer’s label. a. “Federal law prohibits transfer of this
prescription”
b. “Store at room temperature”
c. “For external use only”
d. “RX only”

Back 118

RX only

Front 119

4. In clinical trials, the testing is done
a. on mice
b. on people.
c. in vitro.
d. on dogs.

Back 119

on people

Front 120

5. The main purpose of phase II clinical trials is
a. efficacy.
b. dosage.
c. safety.
d. economics.

Back 120

efficacy

Front 121

6. The monthly sales limit of pseudoephedrine base is
a. 7.5 g per household.
b. 7.5 g per purchaser.
c. 7.5 g per transaction.

Back 121

7.5 g per purchaser

Front 122

7. The national drug code (NDC) is assigned by the
a. FDA.
b. DEA.
c. CDER.
d. manufacturer.

Back 122

manufacturer

Front 123

8. DEA form __________ is used to order Schedule II controlled substances.
a. 41
b. 106
c. 222
d. 224

Back 123

222

Front 124

9. In each state, pharmacists are licensed by the
a. DEA.
b. FDA.
c. federal government.
d. state board of pharmacy.

Back 124

state board of pharmacy

Front 125

10.Ethical value that patients have the right to choose their treatment:
a. autonomy.
b. beneficence.
c. non-maleficence.
d. justice.

Back 125

autonomy

Front 126

"1. Buccal administration is a parenteral route of administration."

Back 126

False

Front 127

"2. Oral administration is the most frequently used route of administration."

Back 127

True

Front 128

"3. With oral formulations, drugs administered by solid dosage forms generally reach the systemic circulation faster than liquid dosage forms."

Back 128

False

Front 129

"4. A low pH value such as 1 or 2 indicates a high acidity.

Back 129

True

Front 130

"5. In an emulsion, if the oleaginous component is present as droplets, the emulsion is called water-in-oil."

Back 130

False

Front 131

"6. Phlebitis can be a complication of intravenous administration."

Back 131

True

Front 132

"7. The needle length for a subcutaneous injection is generally shorter than the needle length for an intramuscular injection."

Back 132

True

Front 133

"8. It takes about 20 seconds for an intravenously administered drug to circulate throughout the body."

Back 133

True

Front 134

"9. Ophthalmic ointment tubes typically hold about 3.5 g of ointment."

Back 134

True

Front 135

"10. Toxic shock syndrome is a disease caused by a bacterial infection."

Back 135

True

Front 136

"When the drug activity is at the site of administration (e.g., eyes, ears, nose, skin)."

Back 136

Local Effect

Front 137

"When a drug is introduced into the circulatory system by any route of administration and carried to the site of activity."

Back 137

Systemic Effect

Front 138

"Ingredients designed to control the pH of a product."

Back 138

Buffer System

Front 139

"Solid formulations to be mixed with water or juice."

Back 139

Bulk Powders

Front 140

"The pouch between the cheeks and teeth in the mouth."

Back 140

Buccal

Front 141

"Absorbs water."

Back 141

Hydrates

Front 142

"Coating that will not let the tablet disintegrate until it reaches the higher pHs of the intestine."

Back 142

Enteric coated

Front 143

"The property of a substance being able to dissolve in water."

Back 143

Water Soluble

Front 144

"Under the tongue."

Back 144

Sublingual

Front 145

"Measure of acidity or alkalinity of a substance."

Back 145

pH

Front 146

"Any route that does not involve the alimentary tract."

Back 146

Parenteral

Front 147

"Increase in cell death."

Back 147

Necrosis

Front 148

"Related to the eye."

Back 148

Ophthalmic

Front 149

"Injections administered into the top layer of the skin using short needles."

Back 149

Intradermal Injections

Front 150

"The veins of the antecubital area (in front of the elbow), the back of the hand, and some of the larger veins in the foot."

Back 150

Intravenous Sites

Front 151

"Painful/swollen veins in the anal/rectal area."

Back 151

Hemorrhoid

Front 152

"Liquid formulations in which the drug does not completely dissolve in the solvent."

Back 152

Suspensions

Front 153

"Tear ducts."

Back 153

Lacrimal Cabalicula

Front 154

"Drug transfer into the eye."

Back 154

Transcorneal Transport

Front 155

"A mixture of two liquids that do not mix with each other in which one liquid is spread through the other by mixing and use of a stabilizer."

Back 155

Emulsion

Front 156

"Gluteal (buttocks), deltoid (upper arm), and vastus lateralis (thigh) muscles."

Back 156

Intramuscular Injection sites

Front 157

"Ease with which a suspension can be drawn into a syringe."

Back 157

Syringeability

Front 158

"The thickness of a liquid."

Back 158

Aqueous

Front 159

"Water-based"

Back 159

Alveoli

Front 160

"A raised blister-like area on the skin, as caused by an intradermal injection."

Back 160

Wheal

Front 161

"The gland that produces tears for the eye."

Back 161

Lacrimal Gland

Front 162

"Breaking a part of a tablet into smaller pieces."

Back 162

Desintegration

Front 163

"Suspended formulation with particle size up to a hundred times smaller than a suspension."

Back 163

Colloids

Front 164

"Injection technique for medications that stain the skin."

Back 164

Z-tract Injection

Front 165

"The cellular lining of the nose."

Back 165

Nasal Mucosa

Front 166

"Device used to convert liquid to a spray."

Back 166

Atomizer

Front 167

"A device that contains a drug that is vaporized by inhalation."

Back 167

Nasal Inhaler

Front 168

"Ease of flow when a suspension is injected into a patient."

Back 168

Injectability

Front 169

"Aerosols that use special metering valves to deliver a fixed dose when the aerosol is actuated."

Back 169

Metered dose Inhalers

Front 170

"The absorption of drugs through the skin, often for a systemic effect."

Back 170

Percutaneous Absorption

Front 171

"When the smaller pieces of a disintegrated tablet dissolve in solution."

Back 171

Dissolution

Front 172

"Concentrated solutions of sugar in water."

Back 172

Syrups

Front 173

"Free of microorganisms."

Back 173

Sterile

Front 174

"A rare and potentially fatal disease that results from a severe bacterial infection of the blood."

Back 174

Toxic Shock

Front 175

"A solvent that dissolves a freeze-dried powder or dilutes a solution."

Back 175

Diluent

Front 176

"An intrauterine contraceptive device that is placed in the uterus for a prolonged period of time."

Back 176

IUD (Intrauterine Contraceptive)

Front 177

"1. _____________________ tablets are placed under the tongue.
a. Enteric coated
b. Buccal
c. Sublingual
d. TSS"

Back 177

Sublingual

Front 178

"2. The pH of the stomach is around
a. 1–2
b. 4–5.
c. 5–6.
d. 6–7

Back 178

1–2

Front 179

"3. __________________ injections are administered directly into veins.
a. Subcutaneous
b. Intravenous
c. Transdermal
d. Intramuscular"

Back 179

Intravenous

Front 180

"4. Inflammation of a vein is also known as ________________ and can be a complication associated with intravenous administration.
a. thrombus
b. toxic shock
c. phlebitis
d. embolus"

Back 180

phlebitis

Front 181

"5. The gradual intravenous injection of a volume of fluid into a patient is called
a. transdermal.
b. infiltration.
c. infusion.
d. suspension

Back 181

infusion

Front 182

"6. The most common kind of oral solution:
a. nonaqueous solutions.
b. aqueous solutions.
c. elixirs.
d. tinctures"

Back 182

aqueous solutions

Front 183

"7. __________ contain the drug and other ingredients packaged in a gelatin shell.
a. Tablets
b. Capsules
c. Emulsions
d. Gels

Back 183

Capsules

Front 184

"8. A disadvantage of solutions:
a. may require additives or techniques to
mask the objectionable taste.
b. completely homegenous doses.
c. immediately available for absorption.
d. doses can be easily adjusted."

Back 184

may require additives or techniques to
mask the objectionable taste.

Front 185

"9. Fits needle recommendations for subcutaneous injection:
a. 27 gauge 1/2”
b. 27 gauge 1.5”.
c. 19 gauge 3/8”.
d 20 gauge 1.5”

Back 185

27 gauge 1/2”

Front 186

"10.A device that goes between an aerosol’s mouthpiece and the patient’s mouth is a/an
a. atomizer.
b. nebulizer.
c. spacer.
d. MDI."

Back 186

space

Front 187

"11.MDIs are used to deliver drugs by
a. inhalation.
b. infusion.
c. injection

Back 187

inhalation

Front 188

"12.___________________ absorption is the absorption of drugs through the skin, often for systemic effect. a. Intravenous
b. Intramuscular
c. Subcutaneous
d. Percutaneous"

Back 188

Percutaneous

Front 189

"13. The most common injection route for insulin is
a. subcutaneous.
b. intramuscular.
c. sublingual.
d. intradermal."

Back 189

subcutaneous

Front 190

"14. Devices that have special metering valves to administer drugs by inhalation:
a. spacers
b. adapters
c. atomizers
d. MDI aerosols

Back 190

MDI aerosols

Front 191

ADME

Back 191

"Blood concentrations are the result of four simultaneously acting processes: absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion."

Front 192

"The study of the factors associated with drug products and physiological processes, and the resulting systemic concentrations of the drugs."

Back 192

Biopharmaceutics

Front 193

"The process of metabolism and excretion."

Back 193

Elimination

Front 194

"The cellular material at the site of action that interacts with the drug."

Back 194

Receptor

Front 195

"The movement of the drug from the dosage form to the blood."

Back 195

Absorption

Front 196

"Drugs that activate receptors to accelerate or slow normal cell function."

Back 196

Agonists

Front 197

"Drugs that bind with receptors but do not activate them. They block receptor action by preventing other drugs or substances from activating them."

Back 197

Antagonists

Front 198

"When different molecules associate or attach to each other."

Back 198

Complexation

Front 199

"The time the drug concentration is above the MEC (Minimum Effective Concentration)

Back 199

Onset of action

Front 200

"A drug’s blood concentration range between its minimum effective concentration (MEC) and minimum toxic concentration (MTC).

Back 200

Duration of Action

Front 201

"A term sometimes used to refer to all of the ADME processes together."

Back 201

Disposition

Front 202

"The movement of drugs from an area of higher concentration to lower concentration."

Back 202

Passive Diffusion

Front 203

"The movement of drug molecules across membranes by active means, rather than passive diffusion."

Back 203

Active Transport

Front 204

"Water repelling; cannot associate with water."

Back 204

Hydrophobic

Front 205

"Capable of associating with or absorbing water."

Back 205

Hydrophilic

Front 206

"Fat-like substance."

Back 206

Lipoidal

Front 207

"The time a drug will stay in the stomach before it is emptied into the small intestine."

Back 207

Gastric Emptying time

Front 208

"When acids dissociate."

Back 208

Ionized

Front 209

"The attachment of a drug molecule to a plasma or tissue protein, effectively making the drug inactive, but also keeping it within the body."

Back 209

Protein Binding

Front 210

"The substance resulting from the body’s transformation of an administered drug."

Back 210

Metabolite

Front 211

"A complex protein that causes chemical reactions in other substances."

Back 211

Enzyme

Front 212

"The increase in enzyme activity that results in greater metabolism of drugs."

Back 212

Enzyme Induction

Front 213

"The decrease in enzyme activity that results in reduced metabolism of drugs."

Back 213

Enzyme Inhibition

Front 214

"The substantial degradation of a drug caused by enzyme metabolism in the liver before the drug reaches the systemic circulation."

Back 214

First Pass Metabolism

Front 215

"The transfer of drugs and their metabolites from the liver to the bile in the gall bladder and then into the intestine."

Back 215

Enterohepatic Cycling

Front 216

"The functional unit of the kidneys."

Back 216

Nephron

Front 217

"Drugs that are more lipid soluble."

Back 217

Unionized

Front 218

"The relative amount of an administered dose that reaches the general circulation and the rate at which this occurs."

Back 218

Bioavailability

Front 219

"The comparison of bioavailability between two dosage forms."

Back 219

Bioequivalency

Front 220

"Drug products that contain identical amounts of the same active ingredients in the same dosage form."

Back 220

Pharmaceutical Equivalents

Front 221

"Drug products that contain the same active ingredients, but not necessarily in the same amount or dosage form."

Back 221

Pharmaceutical Alternatives

Front 222

"Pharmaceutical equivalents that produce the same effects in patients."

Back 222

Therapeutic Equivalents

Front 223

"Receptors are located on the surfaces of cell membranes and inside cells."

Back 223

True

Front 224

"Like a lock and key, only certain drugs are able to interact with certain receptors"

Back 224

True

Front 225

"Antagonists bind to cell receptors but do not activate them."

Back 225

True

Front 226

"After all receptors are occupied by a drug, its effect can still be increased by increasing the dose."

Back 226

False

Front 227

"A drug’s concentration in its blood is not related to its effect.

Back 227

False

Front 228

"Most patients receive the maximum benefit from drug therapy when the amount of the drug in the blood is between the minimum effective and minimum toxic concentration."

Back 228

True

Front 229

"Five times the half-life is used to estimate how long it takes for elimination from the body."

Back 229

True

Front 230

"Concentrations decrease during absorption, before absorption reaches complexation."

Back 230

False

Front 231

"Most orally administered drugs are absorbed from the stomach."

Back 231

False

Front 232

"Protein binding can result in the gradual release of a drug into the bloodstream."

Back 232

True

Front 233

"Erythromycin capsules and erythromycin tablets are pharmaceutical equivalents."

Back 233

False

Front 234

"1. ____________________ are drugs that activate receptors to accelerate or slow normal cellular function.
a. Channels
b. Agonists
c. Antagonists
d. Protein binding"

Back 234

Agonists

Front 235

"2. The time between the onset of action and the time when the MEC is reached by declining blood concentrations is the
a. duration of action.
b. MTC.
c. therapeutic window.
d. dose-response curve."

Back 235

duration of action.

Front 236

"3. When studying concentration and effect, __________________ is the time MEC is reached and the response occurs.
a. therapeutic window
b. MTC
c. onset of action
d. blood concentration"

Back 236

onset of action

Front 237

"4. Most absorption of oral drugs occurs in the
a. stomach.
b. small intestine.
c. large intestine."

Back 237

small intestine

Front 238

"5. Complex proteins in the liver that catalyze chemical reactions are
a. enzymes.
b. metabolites.
c. antagonists.
d. nephrons."

Back 238

enzymes

Front 239

"6. ________________________ refers to the transfer of drug into the blood from an administered drug product.
a. Absorption
b. Excretion
c. Distribution
d. Metabolism"

Back 239

Absorption

Front 240

"7. “First-pass metabolism” occurs at the
a. stomach.
b. kidney.
c. liver.
d. small intestine."

Back 240

liver

Front 241

"8. The main functional unit of the kidney is the/an
a. glomerulus.
b. enzyme.
c. metabolite.
d. nephron."

Back 241

nephron

Front 242

"9. The body’s process of transforming drugs is called
a. distribution.
b. metabolism.
c. excretion.
d. absorption."

Back 242

metabolism

Front 243

"10. When bases dissociate, they become
a. biological.
b. acids.
c. ionized.
d. unionized

Back 243

unionized

Front 244

"11. The ___________________ filter the blood and remove waste materials from it.
a. kidneys
b. liver
c. gall bladder
d. small intestine

Back 244

kidneys

Front 245

"12. Enzyme induction results in _____________ metabolism of drugs.
a. the same rate of
b. reduced
c. greater

Back 245

greater

Front 246

"13. Enzyme inhibition results in _____________ metabolism of drugs.
a. reduced
b. greater
c. the same rate of"

Back 246

reduced

Front 247

"14. Drug products that contain the same active ingredients in the same dosage form but dif- ferent salt forms are
a. pharmaceutical equivalents.
b. bioequivalent drug products.
c. pharmaceutical alternatives.
d. antagonist drug products."

Back 247

pharmaceutical alternatives

Front 248

"An abnormal sensitivity generally resulting in an allergic reaction."

Back 248

Hypersensitivity

Front 249

"A potentially fatal hypersensitivity reaction that produces severe respiratory distress and cardiovascular collapse."

Back 249

Anaphylactic Shock

Front 250

"An unexpected reaction the first time a drug is taken, generally due to genetic causes."

Back 250

Idiosyncrasy

Front 251

"Toxicity of the liver."

Back 251

Hepatotoxicity

Front 252

"The ability of a substance to harm the kidneys."

Back 252

Nephrotoxicity

Front 253

"The ability of a substance to cause cancer."

Back 253

Carcinogenicity

Front 254

"The ability of a substance to cause abnormal fetal development when given to pregnant women."

Back 254

Teratogenicity

Front 255

"When one drug with no inherent activity of its own increases the activity of another drug, producing an effect."

Back 255

Potentiation

Front 256

"Field of study that defines the hereditary basis of individual differ- ences in ADME processes."

Back 256

Pharmacogenomics

Front 257

"When one drug blocks the activity of metabolic enzymes in the liver."

Back 257

Enzyme Inhibition

Front 258

"When one drug is moved from protein binding sites by a second drug, resulting in increased effects of the displaced drug."

Back 258

Displacement

Front 259

"Obstruction of bile duct causing accumulations in the liver."

Back 259

Obstructive Jaundice

Front 260

"A drug that antagonizes the toxic effect of another."

Back 260

Antidote

Front 261

"A condition in which thyroid hormone secretions are below normal, often referred to as an underactive thyroid."

Back 261

Hypothyroidism

Front 262

"A condition in which thyroid hormone secretions are above normal, often referred to as an overactive thyroid."

Back 262

Hyperthyroidism

Front 263

"When two different molecules associate or attach to each other."

Back 263

Complexion

Front 264

"A chronic and potentially fatal liver disease causing loss of func- tion and resistance to blood flow through the liver."

Back 264

Cirrhosis

Front 265

"An unintended side effect that is negative."

Back 265

Adverse Drug Reaction

Front 266

"Physiological changes in pregnancy tend to increase the rate of absorption of drugs."

Back 266

False

Front 267

"Adults experience a decrease in many physical functions between the ages of 30 and 70 years."

Back 267

True

Front 268

"Lower cardiac output in the elderly tends to slow the distribution of drugs."

Back 268

True

Front 269

"Foods containing tyramine, such as aged cheeses, may produce dangerous interactions with some medications."

Back 269

True

Front 270

"Ibuprofen can cause nephrotoxicity."

Back 270

True

Front 271

"The activity of metabolizing enzymes in the liver is reduced in hypothyroidism."

Back 271

True

Front 272

"Some anticancer drugs are considered carcinogenic."

Back 272

True

Front 273

"Iron salts form nonabsorbable complexes with tetracycline."

Back 273

True

Front 274

"Phenobarbital is an example of an enzyme inducer."

Back 274

True

Front 275

"Eating too much spinach can cause problems for patients who are taking some types of anticoagulants."

Back 275

True

Front 276

"1. A potentially fatal allergic reaction is called
a. nephrotoxicity.
b. idiosyncrasy.
c. teratogenicity.
d. anaphylactic shock.

Back 276

anaphylactic shock

Front 277

"2. Placebo effects can be due to
a. pregnancy.
b. psychological factors.
c. body weight.
d. gender."

Back 277

psychological factors

Front 278

"3. __________ has decreased elimination in cirrhosis.
a. Atenolol
b. Digoxin.
c. Metoprolol
d. Ranitidine"

Back 278

Metoprolol

Front 279

"4. Hypersensitivity generally happens because a patient develops
a. anaphylaxis.
b. anorexia.
c. antibodies.
d. hepatotoxicity."

)

Back 279

anorexia

Front 280

"Hepatotoxicity is associated with the
a. central nervous system.
b. liver.
c. kidneys.
d. small intestine."

Back 280

liver

Front 281

"Unpleasant physical symptoms when some drugs are discontinued is called
a. psychological dependence.
b. idiosyncrasy.
c. anaphylaxis.
d. physiological dependence.

Back 281

physiological dependence

Front 282

"7. Antineoplastics can cause bone marrow suppression; and this is an example of
a. hematological effects.
b. carcinogenicity.
c. teratogenicity.
d. nephrotoxicity."

Back 282

hematological effects

Front 283

"8. The ability of a substance to cause abnormal fetal development when given to pregnant women is called
a. hematological effects.
b. idiosyncrasy.
c. nephrotoxicity.
d. teratogenicity."

Back 283

teratogenicity

Front 284

"9. ____________________ occurs when two drugs with similar pharmacological effects produce greater effects than the sum of individual effects when taken together.
a. Synergism
b. Additive effects
c. Interference
d. Displacement"

Back 284

Synergism

Front 285

"10.Drugs that increase activity of metabolizing enzymes in the liver cause
a. glomerular filtration.
b. enzyme induction.
c. renal secretion.
d. enzyme inhibition

Back 285

enzyme induction

Front 286

"11.A drug given to block or reduce toxic effects of another drug is called a(n)
a. antidote.
b. synergist.
c. inducer.
d. MAO inhibitor."

Back 286

antidote

Front 287

"12.Amoxicillin with clavulanic acid is an example of
a. synergism
b. potentiation

Back 287

potentiation

Front 288

"13.In general, increased dietary carbohydrates _____________ metabolism.
a. increases
b. decreases

Back 288

decreases

Front 289

"Depending on state law, pharmacists may administer routine vaccinations."

Back 289

Pharmacist Immunization Programs

Front 290

"Skills involving relationships between people."

Back 290

Interpersonal Skills

Front 291

"Clinics in some pharmacies that provide treatment for a limited number of common conditions."

Back 291

Walk-in Clinics

Front 292

"Counter areas designated for taking prescriptions and for delivering them to patients."

Back 292

Transaction Windows

Front 293

"Counter area for providing noncompounded medications."

Back 293

Prescription Counter

Front 294

"Some questions and calls require the pharmacist’s judgement."

Back 294

Pharmacists judgement

Front 295

"Information about the patient that is entered into the computer."

Back 295

Patient Profile

Front 296

"A book or electronic device to provide verification that a prescription was picked up."

Back 296

Signature log

Front 297

"The amount of the retailer’s sales price minus their purchase price."

Back 297

Markup

Front 298

"Child resistant caps required of all dispensed prescription vials."

Back 298

Safety Caps

Front 299

"A tray designed for counting pills."

Back 299

Counting Tray

Front 300

"Stickers with bar codes that can be scanned for inventory identification.

Back 300

Shelf Stickers

Front 301

"Provide one-on-one pharmacist-patient consultation to help manage chronic diseases and conditions."

Back 301

Disease State Management Programs

Front 302

"Labels regarding specific warnings and usage information."

Back 302

Auxiliary Labels

Front 303

"For example, the price for one ounce of a liquid cold remedy."

Back 303

Unit Price

Front 304

"Almost two-thirds of all drugs in the United States are sold at community pharmacies."

Back 304

True

Front 305

"Many states put limits on the number of technicians assisting the pharmacist at a given time."

Back 305

True

Front 306

"The pharmacy technician should not recommend OTC products to pharmacy customers."

Back 306

True

Front 307

"The dispensing code is only required for controlled substance prescriptions."

Back 307

False

Front 308

"HIPAA regulations do not apply to disease state management services provided by pharmacists."

Back 308

False

Front 309

"Safety caps are not used for patients who request an easy open cap."

Back 309

True

Front 310

"Schedule II controlled substance orders must be checked and signed for by the pharmacist."

Back 310

True

Front 311

"When a technician prepares a prescription, it is always checked by the pharmacist before dispensing to the patient."

Back 311

True

Front 312

"Signature logs serve as proof to third-party payers that the prescription was dispensed to the patient."

Back 312

True

Front 313

"OTC products may be purchased without a prescription because they are without risk."

Back 313

False

Front 314

"Walk-in clinics are usually staffed by nurse practitioners."

Back 314

True

Front 315

"1. Community pharmacies within stores, like Walmart or Kmart, that are part of regional or national mass merchandise chains are
a. chain pharmacies.
b. mass merchandiser pharmacies.
c. independent pharmacies.
d. food store pharmacies.

Back 315

mass merchandiser pharmacies.

Front 316

"2. Pharmacy technicians can help with immunization by
a. taking patient information.
b. administering the vaccine.
c. writing prescriptions.
d. counseling patients."

Back 316

taking patient information.

Front 317

"3. The refrigerator in a community pharmacy must store medications between
a. 2° and 8° Fahrenheit.
b. 32° and 40° Celsius.
c. 2° and 8° Celsius.
d. 32° and 40° Fahrenheit."

Back 317

2° and 8° Celsius.

Front 318

"4. Medicare Part D relies on __________ to provide medication coverage to eligible patients.
a. Medicaid
b. patient assistance programs
c. Prescription Drug Plans
d. state welfare programs"

Back 318

Prescription Drug Plans

Front 319

"5. The Red Flag Rule was enacted to
a. help prevent identity theft.
b. limit sales of pseudoephedrine.
c. create PDPs.
d. provide counseling to Medicaid patients."

Back 319

help prevent identity theft.

Front 320

"6. The final check of a new prescription is per- formed by
a. the pharmacist.
b. the prescribing physician.
c. a certified technician.
d. the senior technician."

Back 320

the pharmacist.

Front 321

"7. OTC product recommendations should be made by
a. certified technicians.
b. technicians with seniority.
c. pharmacists.
d. technicians with more than two years of
experience."

Back 321

pharmacists.

Front 322

"8. When receiving orders for Schedule II con- trolled substances, they must be checked and signed by the a. certified pharmacy technician.
b. pharmacy technician.
c. pharmacist.
d. third party."

Back 322

pharmacist.

Front 323

"9. Pharmacy technicians are responsible for all of the following EXCEPT:
a. reordering stock.
b. recommending OTC products to pharmacy technicians.
c. keeping the pharmacy neat and clean.
d. product stock duties."

Back 323

recommending OTC products to pharmacy technicians.

Front 324

"10.Separation of trash in pharmacies is in accordance with
a. HIPAA.
b. CMEA.
c. OBRA.
d. PDP."

Back 324

HIPAA.

Front 325

"Addition of water or other diluent to a powdered drug form to make a solution or suspension."

Back 325

Reconstitute

Front 326

"A system in which the prescriber enters orders directly into the computer system."

Back 326

CPOE

Front 327

"A computerized patient medical record. "

Back 327

Electronic Medical Record

Front 328

"A package containing the amount of a drug required for one dose."

Back 328

Unit Dose

Front 329

"A standard medication order for patients to receive medication at scheduled intervals."

Back 329

Standing Order

Front 330

"An order for medication to be administered only on an as needed basis."

Back 330

PRN Order

Front 331

"An order for medication to be administered immediately."

Back 331

STAT Order

Front 332

"A form that tracks the medications administered to a patient."

Back 332

Medication Administration Record (MAR)

Front 333

"A locked cart of medications designed for emergency use only."

Back 333

Code Cart

Front 334

"The main inpatient pharmacy in a hospital that has satellite pharmacies."

Back 334

Central Pharmacy

Front 335

"A pharmacy located in a hospital that serves only those patients in the hospital and its ancillary areas."

Back 335

Inpatient Pharmacy

Front 336

"A branch of the inpatient pharmacy."

Back 336

Pharmacy Satellite

Front 337

"Work station for medical personnel located on a nursing unit."

Back 337

Nurse's Station

Front 338

"Areas designed for the preparation of sterile products."

Back 338

Clean Rooms

Front 339

"A pharmacy attached to a hospital servicing patients who have left the hospital or who are visiting doctors in a hospital outpatient clinic."

Back 339

Outpatient Pharmacy

Front 340

"Documentation of required policies, procedures, and disciplinary actions in a hospital."

Back 340

Policy and Procedure manual

Front 341

"A review of a nursing unit to ensure compliance with hospital medication policies."

Back 341

Unit Inspection

Front 342

"Technicians working the front counter do not handle phone calls."

Back 342

False

Front 343

"Medication carts in hospitals contain a 72–hour supply of medications."

Back 343

False

Front 344

"Technicians often prepare IV admixtures in hospitals."

Back 344

True

Front 345

"The pharmacy technician supervisor is often responsible for training technicians."

Back 345

True

Front 346

"Lot numbers and expiration dates are not needed in bulk compounding logs."

Back 346

False

Front 347

"All departments within a hospital are required to maintain a policy and procedure manual."

Back 347

True

Front 348

"The pharmacy inventory staff is often responsible for removal of drug recalls from the pharmacy inventory."

Back 348

True

Front 349

"1. All of the following are ancillary areas EXCEPT
a. radiology.
b. nurse’s station.
c. emergency room.
d. cardiac catheterization lab."

Back 349

nurse’s station.

Front 350

"2. A health-care provider who assists with the evaluation, treatment, and care of patients with breathing problems:
a. PCT
b. RT
c. LPN
d. PA

Back 350

RT

Front 351

"3. A health-care provider who is concerned with factors such as a patient’s ability to pay for medications is a(an)
a. Pharm.D.
b. R.Ph.
c. N.P.
d. M.S.W.

Back 351

M.S.W.

Front 352

"4. Includes preparing and delivering medications for drug studies:
a. investigational drug service
b. unit dose
c. cart fill
d. inventory control

Back 352

investigational drug service

Front 353

"5. A pharmacy attached to a hospital that serves patients who have left the hospital or who are visiting doctors in a hospital outpatient clinic is a(an)
a. inpatient pharmacy.
b. pharmacy satellite.
c. central pharmacy.
d. outpatient pharmacy.

Back 353

outpatient pharmacy.

Front 354

"6. Pharmacy technicians working in this satellite require special training and chemotherapy certification from the pharmacy department.
a. oncology
b. pediatric
c. OR
d. radiology

Back 354

oncology

Front 355

"7. Each individual drawer in a medication cart is filled with
a. the most commonly used medications for a given floor.
b. large volume parenteral that do not require patient specific labeling.
c. controlled substances only.
d. daily medication for a given patient.

Back 355

daily medication for a given patient.

Front 356

"8. The unit dose package type used or ointments and creams is a(an)
a. plastic blister.
b. ampule.
c. tube.
d. vial.

Back 356

tube

Front 357

"9. Orders for medications that are needed right away are called
a. PRN orders.
b. parenteral.
c. STAT orders.
d. standing orders."

Back 357

STAT orders.

Front 358

"10.A locked cart of medications designed for emergency use is called a
a. PCU.
b. code cart.
c. satellite.
d. IP."

Back 358

code cart

Front 359

"11.Rooms designed for the preparation of sterile products are called
a. satellites.
b. clean rooms.
c. CPs.
d. PCUs.

Back 359

clean rooms

Front 360

"12.Which of the following agencies is responsible for approving hospitals so they may receive Medicaid reimbursement?
a. BOP
b. TJC
c. HCFA
d. DPH

Back 360

TJC

Front 361

"Delivery of prescriptions by mail (primarily for maintenance therapy). Mail order pharmacies are generally large-scale operations that are highly automated. They use assembly line processing in which each step in the prescription fill process is completed or managed by a person who specializes in that step."

Back 361

"mail order pharmacy"

Front 362

"Therapy for chronic conditions that include depression, gastrointestinal disorders, heart disease, hypertension, and diabetes."

Back 362

"maintenance therapy"

Front 363

"Mail order pharmacies must follow federal and state requirements in processing prescriptions, but are not necessarily licensed in each state to which they send medications."

Back 363

"regulation"

Front 364

"Pharmacists review mail order prescriptions before and after filling.

Back 364

"pharmacist review"

Front 365

"A type of mail order pharmacy that uses the Internet to advertise and take orders for drugs."

Back 365

"online drugstore"

Front 366

"Care in the home, generally supervised by a registered nurse who works with a physician, pharmacist, and others to administer a care plan that involves the patient or another caregiver."

Back 366

"home care"

Front 367

"Infusion administered in the home, the fastest growing area of home health care. The primary therapies provided by home infusion services are: antibiotic therapy, parenteral nutrition, pain management, and chemotherapy."

Back 367

"home infusion"

Front 368

"Pumps that control infusion. There are pumps for specific therapies or multiple therapies, as well as ambulatory pumps that can be worn by patients."

Back 368

"infusion pumps"

Front 369

"In home infusion, the patient or their caregiver is educated about their therapy: how to self-administer, monitor, report problems, and so on."

Back 369

"In home infusion, the patient or their caregiver is educated about their therapy: how to self-administer, monitor, report problems, and so on."

Front 370

"The same rules apply to preparing parenteral admixtures in the home infusion setting as in the hospital."

Back 370

"admixture preparation"

Front 371

"Facilities that provide care for people unable to care for themselves because of mental or physical impairment. Because of limited resources, most long-term care facilities will contract out dispensing and clinical pharmacy services."

Back 371

"long-term care"

Front 372

"A long-term care pharmacist responsible for making sure patients receive the correct medicines that were ordered."

Back 372

"distributive pharmacist "

Front 373

"A long-term care pharmacist who develops and maintains an individualized pharmaceutical plan for every long-term care resident."

Back 373

"consultant pharmacist"

Front 374

"Locked kits containing emergency medications, similar to code carts used in hospitals"

Back 374

"emergency kits"

Front 375

"Automated units that dispense medications at the point of use."

Back 375

"automated dispensing systems"

Front 376

"Specially licensed and regulated pharmacies that prepare and dispense radiopharmaceuticals."

Back 376

"nuclear pharmacy

Front 377

"Generally drugs cost less in the United States than in Canada."

Back 377

False

Front 378

"Mail order pharmacies are often used to handle maintenance medications."

Back 378

True

Front 379

"Code carts are never found in long-term care facilities."

Back 379

False

Front 380

"Antibiotic therapy is a common home infusion service used in treating AIDS related and other infections."

Back 380

True

Front 381

"On the home care team, the technician works under the supervision of a home care aide."

Back 381

False

Front 382

"Institutional care always provides better quality of life for the patient than home care."

Back 382

False

Front 383

"Nuclear pharmacies typically operate 365 days a year."

Back 383

True

Front 384

"PET scans use radiopharmaceuticals."

Back 384

True

Front 385

"1. In the United States, a mail order pharmacy can provide services to
a. only the states where the company has
pharmacies.
b. only the state of the main campus.
c. only the state of the main campus and
adjacent states.
d. any state in the United States

Back 385

any state in the United States

Front 386

"2. A medication that is required on a continuing basis for the treatment of a chronic condition is called
a. PRN medication.
b. PO medication.
c. STAT medication.
d. maintenance medication.

Back 386

maintenance medication.

Front 387

"3. Medication counseling for mail order pharmacies is done by
a. registered nurses.
b. certified technicians.
c. nurses.
d. pharmacists."

Back 387

pharmacists.

Front 388

"4. In some long-term care facilities the medication carts are usually filled with enough medications to last
a. one week.
b. one day.
c. one month.
d. 24 hours."

Back 388

one week.

Front 389

"5. Medications used from emergency kits in long-term care pharmacies are charged to
a. the patient.
b. the pharmacy.
c. the long-term care facility.
d. none of the above."

Back 389

the patient.

Front 390

"6. The type of infusion therapy that usually involves infusion of narcotics for patients with painful terminal illness or severe chronic pain is called
a. laxative therapy.
b. maintenance therapy.
c. pain management therapy.
d. infection therapy."

Back 390

pain management therapy.

Front 391

"7. Regulation of hazardous waste procedures associated with chemotherapy applies to all of the following EXCEPT:
a. storage.
b. disposal.
c. transportation.
d. pricing.

Back 391

pricing.

Front 392

"8. Which member of the home care team is responsible for educating the patient?
a. R.Ph.
b. physician
c. registered nurse
d. Pharm.D."

Back 392

registered nurse

Front 393

"9. Radiopharmaceuticals are considered
a. hazardous materials.
b. OTC medications.
c. safe to store in unrestricted areas.
d. exempt narcotics."

Back 393

hazardous materials.

Front 394

"10.Body badges for technicians that work with radiopharmaceuticals are typically monitored
a. weekly.
b. monthly.
c. quarterly.
d. yearly."

Back 394

monthly.

Front 395

Respiratory Agent

Back 395

Albuterol

Front 396

Psychotropic Agent

Back 396

Alprazoalm

Front 397

Cardiovascular Agent

Back 397

Amlodipine

Front 398

Anti-Infective

Back 398

"Amoxicillin/Clavulanate"

Front 399

Anti-Infective

Back 399

"Ampicillin"

Front 400

Cardiovascular Agent

Back 400

"Atenolol"

Front 401

Cardiovascular Agent

Back 401

"Atorvastatin"

Front 402

Anti-Infective

Back 402

"Azithromycin"

Front 403

"Musculoskeletal Agent"

Back 403

"Carisoprodol"

Front 404

Cardiovascular Agent

Back 404

"Carvedilol"

Front 405

Anti-Infective

Back 405

"Cefaclor"

Front 406

Respiratory Agent

Back 406

"Cetirizine"

Front 407

Anti-Infective

Back 407

"Ciprofloxacin"

Front 408

Psychotropic Agent

Back 408

"Citalopram"

Front 409

Anti-Infective

Back 409

"Clarithromycin"

Front 410

Cardiovascular Agent

Back 410

"Clopidogrel"

Front 411

Dermatologiacal Agent

Back 411

"Clotrimazole/Betamethasone"

Front 412

Cardiovascular Agent

Back 412

"Diltiazem"

Front 413

Gastrointestinal Agent

Back 413

"Docusate sodium"

Front 414

Cardiovascular Agent

Back 414

" Doxazosin"

Front 415

Psychotropic Agent

Back 415

"Escitalopram"

Front 416

Anti-Infective Agent

Back 416

"Fluconazole"

Front 417

Respiratory Agent

Back 417

"Fluticasone"

Front 418

Cardiovascular Agent

Back 418

"Furosemide"

Front 419

Antidiabetic

Back 419

"Glyburide"

Front 420

Cardiovascular Agent

Back 420

"Heparin"

Front 421

Dermatological Agent

Back 421

"Hydrocortisone cream"

Front 422

Analgesic

Back 422

"Ibuprofen"

Front 423

Antidiabetic Agent

Back 423

"Insulin"

Front 424

Gastrointestinal Agent

Back 424

"Lactulose"

Front 425

Anti-Infective Agent

Back 425

"Levofloxacin"

Front 426

Cardiovascular Agent

Back 426

"Lisinopril"

Front 427

Gastrointestinal Agent

Back 427

"Loperamide"

Front 428

Cardiovascular Agent

Back 428

"Metoprolol"

Front 429

Cardiovascular Agent

Back 429

"Nifedipine"

Front 430

Cardiovascular Agent

Back 430

"Nitroglycerin"

Front 431

Gastrointestinal Agent

Back 431

"Omeprazole"

Front 432

Gastrointestinal Agent

Back 432

"Pantoprazole"

Front 433

Electrolytic Agent

Back 433

"Potassium chloride"

Front 434

Anesthetic

Back 434

"Procaine"

Front 435

Psychotropic Agent

Back 435

"Sertraline"

Front 436

Dermatological Agent

Back 436

"Silver sulfadiazine"

Front 437

Electrolytic Agent

Back 437

"Sodium chloride"

Front 438

Antineoplastic

Back 438

"Tamoxifen"

Front 439

Analgesic

Back 439

"Tramadol"

Front 440

Gastrointestinal Agent

Back 440

"Trimethobenzamide"

Front 441

Anti-Infective

Back 441

"Trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole"

Front 442

Cardiovascular Agent

Back 442

"Warfarin"

Front 443

Analgesics (Brand Name)

Back 443

Analgesics (Generic Name)

Front 444

"Tylenol w/Codeine"

Back 444

"acetaminophen w/codeine"

Front 445

"Ultram "

Back 445

"tramadol"

Front 446

"Fioricet"

Back 446

"butalbital/acetaminophen/caffeine"

Front 447

"Ecotrin"

Back 447

"aspirin enteric-coated"

Front 448

"Percocet"

Back 448

"oxycodone w/acetaminophen"

Front 449

"Ultracet"

Back 449

"tramadol HCl/acetaminophen"

Front 450

"Vicodin"

Back 450

"hydrocodone/acetaminophen"

Front 451

"anti-inFeCtives (Brand Name)

Back 451

"anti-inFeCtives (Generic names)

Front 452

"Bactrim"

Back 452

"trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole"

Front 453

"Augmentin"

Back 453

"amoxicillin/clavulanate"

Front 454

"Keflex "

Back 454

"cephalexin"

Front 455

"Vibramycin"

Back 455

"doxycycline"

Front 456

"Cleocin "

Back 456

"clindamycin"

Front 457

"Zithromax "

Back 457

"azithromycin"

Front 458

"Flagyl "

Back 458

"metronidazole"

Front 459

"Biaxin"

Back 459

"clarithromycin"

Front 460

Cardiovascular agents (Brand Name)

Back 460

Cardiovascular Agents (Generic Name)

Front 461

"Betapace "

Back 461

"sotalol"

Front 462

"Zocor"

Back 462

"lovastatin"

Front 463

"Pravachol "

Back 463

"pravastatin"

Front 464

"Coreg"

Back 464

"carvedilol"

Front 465

"Vasotec "

Back 465

"enalapril"

Front 466

"Mevacor"

Back 466

"lovastatin"

Front 467

"Coumadin"

Back 467

"warfarin"

Front 468

"Lopid"

Back 468

"gemfibrozil"

Front 469

Dermatologicals (Brand Name)

Back 469

Dermatologicals (Generic Name)

Front 470

"Elocon"

Back 470

"mometasone"

Front 471

"Monistat"

Back 471

"miconazole"

Front 472

"Hytone "

Back 472

"hydrocortisone"

Front 473

"Lotrisone"

Back 473

"clotrimazole/betamethasone"

Front 474

"Temovate"

Back 474

"clobetasol"

Front 475

"Bactroban"

Back 475

"mupirocin"

Front 476

"Nizoral"

Back 476

"ketoconazole"

Front 477

"Lidex "

Back 477

"fluocinonide"

Front 478

"gastrointestinal agents (Brand Name)

Back 478

"gastrointestinal agents (Generic Name)

Front 479

"Zantac"

Back 479

"ranitidine"

Front 480

"Protonix"

Back 480

"pantoprazole"

Front 481

"Tigan"

Back 481

"trimethobenzamide"

Front 482

"Bentyl"

Back 482

"dicyclomine"

Front 483

"Pepcid"

Back 483

"famotidine"

Front 484

"Zofran"

Back 484

"ondansetron"

Front 485

"Lomotil"

Back 485

"diphenoxylate w/atropine"

Front 486

"Prilosec"

Back 486

"omeprazole"

Front 487

"hormones & modiFiers: adrenal CortiCosteroids (Brand Name)

Back 487

"hormones & modiFiers: adrenal CortiCosteroids (Generic Name)

Front 488

"Sterapred"

Back 488

"prednisone"

Front 489

"Medrol"

Back 489

"methylprednisolone"

Front 490

"Prelone"

Back 490

"prednisolone"

Front 491

"Kenalog"

Back 491

"triamcinolone"

Front 492

"hormones & modiFiers: oral antidiaBetiCs (Brand name)

Back 492

"hormones & modiFiers: oral antidiaBetiCs (Generic name)

Front 493

"Glucovance"

Back 493

"glyburide/metformin"

Front 494

"Diabeta"

Back 494

"glyburide"

Front 495

"Amaryl"

Back 495

"glimepiride"

Front 496

"Glucotrol"

Back 496

"glipizide"

Front 497

"Glucophage"

Back 497

"metformin"

Front 498

"musCulosKeletal agents (Brand name)

Back 498

"musCulosKeletal agents (Generic Brand)

Front 499

"Flexeril"

Back 499

"cyclobenzaprine"

Front 500

"Soma"

Back 500

"carisoprodol"

Front 501

"Fosamax"

Back 501

"alendronate"

Front 502

"Zanaflex "

Back 502

"tizanidine"

Front 503

"Robaxin"

Back 503

"methocarbamol"

Front 504

"Zyloprim"

Back 504

"allopurinol"

Front 505

neurologiCal agents (Brand Name)

Back 505

neurologiCal agents (Generic Name)

Front 506

"Dilantin"

Back 506

"phenytoin"

Front 507

"Requip "

Back 507

"ropinirole"

Front 508

"Concerta"

Back 508

"methylphenidate"

Front 509

"Cogentin"

Back 509

"benztropine"

Front 510

"Adderall"

Back 510

"amphetamine salt combination"

Front 511

"Tegretol"

Back 511

"carbamazepine"

Front 512

"Sinemet"

Back 512

"carbidopa/levodopa"

Front 513

"Neurontin"

Back 513

"gabapentin"

Front 514

"psyChotropiC agents (Brand name)

Back 514

psyChotropiC agents (Generic name)

Front 515

"Xanax"

Back 515

"alprazolam"

Front 516

"Zoloft "

Back 516

"sertraline"

Front 517

"Buspar"

Back 517

"buspirone"

Front 518

"Prozac"

Back 518

"fluoxetine"

Front 519

"Ativan "

Back 519

"lorazepam"

Front 520

"Celexa"

Back 520

citalopram

Front 521

"Valium"

Back 521

"diazepam"

Front 522

"Klonopin"

Back 522

"clonazepam"

Front 523

"respiratory agents (Brand Name)

Back 523

"respiratory agents (Generic name)

Front 524

"Allegra"

Back 524

"fexofenadine"

Front 525

"QVAR"

Back 525

"beclomethasone"

Front 526

"Tessalon"

Back 526

"benzonatate"

Front 527

"Vistaril"

Back 527

"hydroxyzine pamoate"

Front 528

"Phenergan"

Back 528

"promethazine"

Front 529

"Ventolin"

Back 529

"albuterol"

Front 530

"Flonase"

Back 530

"fluticasone"

Front 531

"Once a suggested nonproprietary name for a drug is officially approved, it becomes the generic name of the drug."

Back 531

True

Front 532

"Meperidene is a naturally occurring opiate."

Back 532

False

Front 533

"Medullary paralysis is associated with an overdose of analgesic."

Back 533

False

Front 534

"Ringworm is a type of fungal infection."

Back 534

True

Front 535

"Vasopressors are used to treat hypertension."

Back 535

False

Front 536

"Some antacids have significant drug interactions with tetracycline."

Back 536

True

Front 537

"Hematopoietic drugs are used to treat excessive bleeding."

Back 537

False

Front 538

"Insulin is a cure for diabetes."

Back 538

False

Front 539

"Calcium channel blockers are sometimes used to prevent migraine headaches."

Back 539

True

Front 540

"Meprobamate is a barbiturate."

Back 540

False

Front 541

"1. The _________ designates nonproprietary
names for drugs.
a. manufacturer
b. FDA
c. USAN
d. DEA

Back 541

USAN

Front 542

"2. ___________________ is a neurotransmitter.
a. Estrogen
b. Testosterone
c. Insulin
d. Epinephrine

Back 542

Epinephrine

Front 543

"3. A common, naturally occurring opiate-type
drug is
a. codeine.
b. cocaine.
c. meperidine.
d. propoxyphene."

Back 543

codeine

Front 544

"4. An inhalation anesthetic is
a. propofol.
b. isoflurane.
c. etomidate.
d. methohexital."

Back 544

isoflurane.

Front 545

"5. An antifungal drug is
a. metronidazole.
b. nystatin.
c. indinavir.
d. tetracycline."

Back 545

nystatin.

Front 546

"6. The term used to denote the presence of a life-threatening cancerous group of cells or tumor is
a. malignant.
b. remission.
c. benign.
d. viral."

Back 546

malignant.

Front 547

"7. Drugs that decrease blood pressure by decreasing blood volume are called
a. beta blockers.
b. calcium channel blockers.
c. diuretics.
d. vasodilators."

Back 547

diuretics.

Front 548

"8. Drugs that act to increase blood pressure are
a. vasodilators.
b. antihypertensives.
c. vasopressors.
d. ACE inhibitors."

Back 548

vasopressors

Front 549

"9. A type of skin cancer:
a. basal cells.
b. keratoses.
c. dandruff.
d. cellulitus"

Back 549

basal cells.

Front 550

"10.The histamine receptor antagonist with the most drug interactions is
a. ranitidine.
b. cimetidine.
c. famotidine.
d. nizatidine."

Back 550

cimetidine.

Front 551

"11.A commonly ordered stool softener is
a. docusate sodium.
b. lactulose.
c. bismuth subsalicylate.
d. loperamide."

Back 551

docusate sodium.

Front 552

"12.______________ is used for vitamin B12 deficiency.
a. Vitamin K
b. Cyanocobalamin
c. Ferrous sulfate
d. Plasminogen"

Back 552

Cyanocobalamin

Front 553

"13.A posterior lobe hormone of the pituitary gland:
a. oxytocin.
b. thyroid.
c. insulin.
d. glucagon."

Back 553

oxytocin.

Front 554

"14.A drug that reduces uric acid and is used to treat gout is
a. celecoxib.
b. ibuprofen.
c. allopurinol.
d. cyclobenzaprine."

Back 554

allopurinol.

Front 555

"15.A drug commonly used to treat epilepsy is
a. phenobarbital.
b. sumatriptan.
c. tacrine.
d. donepezil."

Back 555

phenobarbital.