The Pharmacy Technician 5Th Edition

Front 1

"combining simpler chemicals into more complex ones, creating a new chemical not found in nature."

Back 1

Synthectic

Front 2

"a cure-al"

Back 2

Panacea

Front 3

"a substance that acts against a toxin in the body."

Back 3

Antitoxin

Front 4

"a substance that harms or kills microorganisms like bacteria and fungi."

Back 4

Antibiotic

Front 5

"chemicals produced by the body that regulate body functions and processes."

Back 5

Hormones

Front 6

"the complete set of genetic material contained in a human cell."

Back 6

Human Genome

Front 7

"the study of physical, chemical, biochemical, and biological properties of drugs as well as the search for new drugs from natural sources."

Back 7

Pharmacognosi

Front 8

"information that is entered into and stored in a com- puter system."

Back 8

Data

Front 9

"generally pharmacology ,but also refers to the drugs in use."

Back 9

Materia Medica

Front 10

"of or about drugs; also, a drug product."

Back 10

Pharmaceutical

Front 11

"1. The first physician known by name was
a. Prometheus.
b. Hippocrates.
c. Imhotep.
d. Aesculapius."

Back 11

Imhotep

Front 12

"2. Hippocrates’ approach to medicine was based on
a. superstition.
b. careful observation.
c. astrology.
d. animal behavior."

Back 12

Careful Observation

Front 13

"3. The ancient Greek goddess of Medicinal Herbs was
a. Pandora.
b. Panacea.
c. Hippocrates.
d. Euphrates."

Back 13

Panacea

Front 14

"4. Derived from the bark of a Peruvian tree, Jesuit’s powder, used with other preventive measures, helps keep this disease under control.
a. smallpox
b. malaria
c. polio
d. tuberculosis"

Back 14

Malaria

Front 15

"5. Aspirin is made from salicylic acid from the bark of the ___________________ tree.
a. white willow
b. cinchona
c. tea
d. fig"

Back 15

White Willow

Front 16

"6. ____________________ was the first effective local anesthetic.
a. Quinine
b. Cocaine
c. Heroin
d. Morphine"

Back 16

Cocaine

Front 17

"7. From 200 B.C., an early forerunner to the FDA approved drug list
a. De Materia Medica
b. Papyrus Ebers
c. Pen Tsao Kang Mu
d. Shen Nung Pen Tsao"

Back 17

Shen Nung Pen Tsao

Front 18

"8. The __________ from ______ is an 1,100- page scroll document containing about 800 prescriptions using 700 drugs mostly derived from plants.
a. Pen Tsao, 200 B.C.
b. herbal, 200 B.C.
c. Papyrus Ebers, 1500 B.C.
d. De Materia Medica, 77 B.C."

Back 18

Papyrus Ebers, 1500 B.C.

Front 19

"9. The first great book of Indian medicine describing over 500 herbal drugs that had been used for centuries was written in
a. 500 B.C.
b. 500 A.D.
c. 100 A.D.
d. 1000 A.D."

Back 19

100 A.D.

Front 20

"10. The Persian Rhazes who wrote one of the most popular textbooks of medicine in the middle ages was a man of science and
a. an alchemist.
b. a sorcerer.
c. a politician.
d. a god."

Back 20

An Alchemist

Front 21

"11. __________ was a(n) ______ physician who wrote a five volume encyclopedia in _____, one of which was devoted to natural medicines and another compounding drugs from individual medications.
a. Li Shi Zen, Chinese, 1580 A.D.
b. Zabdiel Boylston, colonial, 1721 A.D.
c. William Withering, British, 1785 A.D.
d. Avicenna, Islamic, 1000 A.D."

Back 21

Avicenna, Islamic, 1000 A.D.

Front 22

"12. The first operation with general anesthesia used
a. digitalis.
b. morphine.
c. ether.
d. cocaine."

Back 22

Ether

Front 23

"13. ____________________________ showed that heat can be used to kill microorgan- isms associated with food spoilage.
a. Pasteur
b. Banting and Best
c. Watson and Crick
d. Fleming"

Back 23

Pasteur

Front 24

"14. ______________________ discovered penicillin could kill some bacteria.
a. Banting and Best
b. Watson and Crick
c. Fleming
d. Marker"

Back 24

Fleming

Front 25

"15. _________________________ are substances produced by the body to regulate body functions and processes.
a. Hormones
b. Antitoxins
c. Antibiotics
d. Genomes"

Back 25

Hormones

Front 26

"16. _____________________________ identified the structure of DNA.
a. Watson and Crick
b. Banting and Best
c. Serturner
d. Koller"

Back 26

Watson and Crick

Front 27

"17. The pharmaceutical manufacturing industry devotes about _____________ of its income to research and development.
a. 1/10
b. 1/6
c. 1/3
d. 1/2"

Back 27

1/6

Front 28

"18.____________________ protect(s) against illegal copying of new discoveries.
a. Generics
b. Brand names
c. Patenting
d. The FDA"

Back 28

Patenting

Front 29

"19. The FDA is required to
a. ensure that a drug is safe and effective for its intended use.
b. to monitor a drug after it is marketed to ensure it works as intended.
c. to monitor a drug for any adverse effects.
d. all of the above."

Back 29

All of the Above

Front 30

"20. The length of time from the beginning of development of a new drug to FDA approval is often more than ___________ years.
a. two
b. five
c. ten
d. twenty"

Back 30

Ten (10)

Front 31

"21. The first vaccine to target a cause of cancer:
a. smallpox
b. cowpox
c. diphtheria
d. Gardasil"

Back 31

Gardisil

Front 32

"22. The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) requires pharmacists to provide
a. counseling services to all patients.
b. mail-order medication to Medicaid
patients.
c. counseling services to Medicaid
patients.
d. HMO coverage to all patients."

Back 32

Counseling Services to Medicaid patients

Front 33

"23. To become a pharmacist in the United States,
a. an individual must graduate from an accredited college of pharmacy, pass a state licensing exam, and perform experiential training working under a licensed pharmacist.
b. an individual must graduate from a nonaccredited college of pharmacy and pass a state licensing exam.
c. no internship experience is required unless the pharmacist intends to practice in community pharmacy.
d. an individual must graduate from an accredited college of pharmacy, and perform an internship working under a licensed pharmacist, however, no examination is required."

Back 33

An individual must graduate from an accredited college of pharmacy, pass a state licensing exam, and perform experiential training working under a licensed pharmacist

Front 34

"24. The area of greatest employment for pharmacists is
a. hospitals.
b. mail order operations.
c. community pharmacies.
d. managed care."

Back 34

Community pharmacies

Front 35

"25. Medicare Modernization Act (MMA) expanded the role of the pharmacist to include
a. counseling.
b. MTM services.
c. home delivery.
d. dispensing."

Back 35

MTM Services

Front 36

"26. In managed care, care is managed by a(an)
a. patient.
b. physician.
c. pharmacist.
d. insurer."

Back 36

Insurer

Front 37

"27. Pharmacy computer systems generally offer
a. labeling.
b. pricing.
c. prescriber profile.
d. all of the above."

Back 37

All of the above

Front 38

"28. Information that is entered and stored into a computer, such as a patient’s name, is called
a. product.
b. inventory.
c. data.
d. billing."

Back 38

Data

Front 39

"a. what individuals may and may not do in their jobs."

Back 39

Scope of Practice

Front 40

"b. an assessment of one’s personal characteristics, skills, qualities, etc."

Back 40

Personal Inventory

Front 41

"c. the requirement of health-care providers to keep all patient information private among the patient, the patient’s insurer, and the providers directly involved in the patient’s care."

Back 41

Confidentiality

Front 42

"d. being qualified and capable to perform a task or job."

Back 42

Competent

Front 43

"e. a legal proof or document that an individual meets cer- tain objective standards, usually provided by a neutral professional organization."

Back 43

Certification

Front 44

"f. individuals who are given a basic level of training designed to help them perform specific tasks."

Back 44

Technicians

Front 45

"g. individuals who receive extensive and advanced levels of education before being allowed to practice, such as physicians and pharmacists."

Back 45

Professionals

Front 46

"1.______________ are individuals who are given a basic level of training designed to help them perform specific tasks.
a. LPNs
b. DOs
c. Professionals
d. Technicians"

Back 46

Technicians

Front 47

"2. In pharmacy, technicians perform essential tasks that do not require _______________ skill or expertise.
a. the clerk’s
b. the pharmacist’s
c. scientific
d. mathematical"

Back 47

The pharmacists

Front 48

"3. Specialized technician jobs in hospitals have ______________ compensation than entry level positions.
a. less
b. about the same
c. greater"

Back 48

Greater

Front 49

"4. Specific responsibilities and tasks for pharmacy technicians differ by setting and are described in writing by each
a. technician.
b. local police department.
c. employer.
d. state board of pharmacy."

Back 49

Employer

Front 50

"5. The pharmacy technician can do the fol- lowing functions except
a. take patient information.
b. fill prescription orders.
c. compound prescription orders.
d. advise patients on medications."

Back 50

Advise patients on medications

Front 51

"6. What individuals may and may not do on their jobs is referred to as their
a. job responsibilities.
b. scope of practice.
c. opinion.
d. employee guidelines."

Back 51

Scope of practice

Front 52

"7. The term that describes making an accounting of items on hand is a/an
a. policy.
b. inventory.
c. ordering.
d. reordering.

Back 52

Inventory

Front 53

"8. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996
a. governs how often insurance companies can merge with each other.
b. makes insurers accountable to patients for reimbursement of approved medi- cal costs.
c. is a set of general rather than legal guidelines regarding the privacy of patient health information.
d. requires health-care providers to be responsible for the privacy and security of a patient’s protected health information."

Back 53

requires health-care providers to be responsible for the privacy and security of a patient’s protected health information

Front 54

"9. Under HIPAA, PHI stands for
a. Personal Health Information.
b. Protected Health Information.
c. Professional Health Information.
d. Programmed Health Information."

Back 54

Protected Health Information.

Front 55

"10. Pharmacy technicians should be detail oriented. This means
a. patients must receive medications exactly as they have been prescribed.
b. an incorrect strength will always be detected by the pharmacist.
c. technicians do not need to be careful because the pharmacist is supposed to find and correct all technician errors.
d. it is unusual for a technician to pay attention to details."

Back 55

Patients must receive medications exactly as they have been prescribed.

Front 56

"11. Good hygiene is important for pharmacy technicians because of the interactions with other persons and the expectation of performing in ________________ conditions.
a. warm
b. cold
c. infection free
d. sunny"

Back 56

infection free

Front 57

"12. Pharmacy technicians must be capable and competent in mathematics and prob- lem solving because
a. all medications that are available on prescription cannot lead to overdose death.
b. pharmacists always check their work. c. all medications come premixed and
prepackaged.
d. mathematical calculations are rou-
tinely used."

Back 57

mathematical calculations are routinely used.

Front 58

"13. Pharmacy technicians must be capable and competent with computer skills because
a. pharmacists will check their data entry.
b. pharmacists do all of the computer work.
c. pharmacists should operate the com- puter.
d. technicians regularly use computers."

Back 58

technicians regularly use computers

Front 59

"14. Pharmacy technicians must be capable and competent in the area of interper- sonal skills. This means
a. they must be able to communicate, cooperate, and work effectively.
b. they must socialize with their co- workers.
c. the pharmacist should obtain all con- fidential information from the patient. d. they must "

Back 59

they must be able to communicate, cooperate, and work effectively.

Front 60

"15. Training and certification requirements for pharmacy technicians are set by
a. each state’s board of pharmacy.
b. the ASHP
c. the PTCB.
d. the federal government."

Back 60

each state’s board of pharmacy.

Front 61

"16. The _____ is the leading association for pharmacists practicing in hospitals and other health-care systems.
a. ASHP
b. PTCB
c. PTEC
d. APhA"

Back 61

ASHP

Front 62

"17._________________ typically monitor and document competency of pharmacy technicians.
a. Employers
b. Technicians
c. Pharmacists
d. PTCB"

Back 62

Employers

Front 63

"18. Any complaints received regarding an employee’s employment
a. are discarded after two weeks.
b. are discarded after one year.
c. are discarded within one week after
the complaint was received.
d. may be kept in the employee’s performance/personnel file."

Back 63

may be kept in the employee’s performance/personnel file.

Front 64

"19. Training that occurs in actual workplace settings is called
a. performance-based training.
b. on-the-job training.
c. community college training.
d. certified training."

Back 64

on-the-job training.

Front 65

"20. _________________ is another term for being qualified and capable.
a. Realistic
b. Competent
c. Professional
d. Technical"

Back 65

Competent

Front 66

"21. In the United States, two organizations that performs pharmacy technician certifi- cation are the
a. APhA and ASHP.
b. PTCB and NHA.
c. ASHP and PTEC.
d. PTEC and APhA."

Back 66

PTCB and NHA.

Front 67

"22. The ExCPT exam contains _______ multiple choice questions.
a. 90
b. 100
c. 110
d. 120"

Back 67

110

Front 68

"23. To take the PTCE exam, candidates
a. need only submit an application form.
b. must be working at a pharmacy.
c. need to have completed an ASHP
accredited training program.
d. must have a high school diploma or GED by the application deadline and have never been convicted of a felony or a pharmacy or drug-related
misdemeanor."

Back 68

must have a high school diploma or GED by the application deadline and have never been convicted of a felony or a pharmacy or drug-related
misdemeanor.

Front 69

"24. Certification must be renewed every
a. three years.
b. year.
c. two years.
d. four years."

Back 69

Two years

Front 70

"25. After passing a pharmacy technician national certification exam, pharmacy technicians may use the following desig- nation after their name:
a. PT
b. RPhT
c. CPhT
d. none of the above"

Back 70

CPhT

Front 71

"26. CPhTs need _____________ of continu- ing education every _______________ years to renew certification.
a. 30 hours, 2
b. 10 hours, 1
c. 30 hours, 3
d. 20 hours, 2

Back 71

20 hours, 2

Front 72

"27. Continuing education for CPhTs must contain ___________ in pharmacy law every __________ years.
a. one hour, one
b. two hours, one
c. one hour, two
d. two hours, two

Back 72

one hour, two

Front 73

"a. medications with habit-forming ingredients that can be dispensed without a prescription by a pharmacist to persons at least 18 years of age."

Back 73

Exempt Narcotics

Front 74

"b. any drug that requires a prescription and this legend on the label: Rx only."

Back 74

Legend Drug

Front 75

"c. failing to do something you should have done."

Back 75

Negligence

Front 76

"d. important associated information that is not on the label of a drug product itself."

Back 76

Product labeling

Front 77

"e. legal responsibility for costs or damages arising from misconduct or negligence."

Back 77

Liability

Front 78

"f. status of medications like Plan B® that are classified as both prescription and OTC drugs."

Back 78

Dual Marketing

Front 79

"g. the action taken to remove a drug from the market and have it returned to the manufacturer."

Back 79

Recall

Front 80

"h. the mark (CII–CV) that indicates the control category of a drug with a potential for abuse."

Back 80

Controlled substance mark

Front 81

"I. Federal law that sets daily and monthly limits on OTC sale of pseudoephedrine and ephedrine."

Back 81

Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act (CMEA)

Front 82

"j. an inactive substance given in place of a medication."

Back 82

Placebo

Front 83

"k. having to do with the treatment of children."

Back 83

Pediatric

Front 84

"l. drug products that contain identical amounts of the same active ingredients in the same dosage form."

Back 84

Pharmaceutical Equivalent

Front 85

"m. pharmaceutical equivalents that produce the same effects in patients."

Back 85

Therapeutic Equivalent

Front 86

"n. five groups of drugs identified by the 1970 Controlled Substances Act (CSA) as having the potential for abuse and whose distribution is therefore strictly controlled by five control schedules set forth in the CSA."

Back 86

Controlled substances

Front 87

"o. an unintended side effect of a medication that is nega- tive or in some way injurious to a patient’s health."

Back 87

Adverse Effect

Front 88

"p. a court order preventing a specific action, such as the distribution of a potentially dangerous drug."

Back 88

Injunction

Front 89

"q. specific guideline for practice."

Back 89

Protocol

Front 90

"r. doing what is required."

Back 90

Compliance

Front 91

"s. a branch of philosophy that helps determine what should be done in a principled sense."

Back 91

Ethics

Front 92

"1. The _______________________ prohibited interstate commerce in adulterated or misbranded food, drinks, and drugs.
a. 1938 Food, Drug, and Cosmetic (FDC) Act
b. Food and Drug Act of 1906
c. Harrison Act
d. 1990 Omnibus Budget Reconciliation
Act (OBRA)"

Back 92

Food and Drug Act of 1906

Front 93

"2. In response to growing addiction to opiates and cocaine-containing medi- cines, the Harrison Narcotic Act of 1914 required that all manufacturers, importers, and physicians prescribing narcotics be
a. licensed.
b. taxed.
c. licensed and taxed.
d. fined."

Back 93

licensed and taxed.

Front 94

"3. The Food and Drug Administration was initially named the
a. Food, Drug, and Alcohol Commission.
b. Food, Drug, and Weapons
Administration.
c. Food, Drug, and Hazardous Substance
Regulatory Agency.
d. Food, Drug, and Insecticide
Administration.

Back 94

Food, Drug, and Insecticide
Administration.

Front 95

"4. Because of fatal poisoning from liquid sulfanilamide, the ___________________ required new drugs be shown to be safe before marketing.
a. Food and Drug Act of 1906
b. 1938 Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
c. 1951 Durham Humphrey Amendment
d. 1990 Omnibus Budget Reconciliation
Act (OBRA)"

Back 95

1938 Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act

Front 96

"5. The ________________ required child- proof packaging for most prescription drugs.
a. Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
b. Poison Prevention Packaging Act
c. Durham-Humphrey Amendment
d. Kefauver-Harris Amendment"

Back 96

Poison Prevention Packaging Act

Front 97

"6. The 1984 Hatch-Watchman Act allowed for
a. quicker introduction of generic drugs only.
b. extension of drug patent terms only.
c. quicker introduction of drugs and
extension of drug patent terms.
d. introduction of generic versions of trade drugs regardless of patent terms."

Back 97

quicker introduction of drugs and
extension of drug patent terms.

Front 98

"7. Pharmacists were required to offer coun- seling to Medicaid patients by the
a. Durham-Humphrey Amendment.
b. 1990 Omnibus Budget Reconciliation
Act (OBRA).
c. Kefauver-Harris Amendment.
d. Harrison Act."

Back 98

1990 Omnibus Budget Reconciliation
Act (OBRA).

Front 99

"8. Drugs that require prescriptions are ________________ drugs.
a. Durham
b. Humphrey
c. legend
d. Kefauver"

Back 99

legend

Front 100

"9. Both domestic and imported drugs require approval by (a/the) ___________ before they can be marketed in the United States.
a. FDA
b. U.S. Marshal
c. DEA
d. U.S. Customs"

Back 100

FDA

Front 101

"10. An inactive substance given in place of a medication during clinical trials is a
a. pediatric.
b. phase 2.
c. phase 3.
d. placebo."

Back 101

placebo

Front 102

"11. The FDA requires ____________ phases of testing in humans.
a. two
b. three
c. four
d. five"

Back 102

three

Front 103

"12. The main purpose of phase 2 clinical tri- als is
a. dosage.
b. economics.
c. animals.
d. effectiveness."

Back 103

effectiveness

Front 104

"13. Phase 3 clinical trials generally have ________________ participants.
a. several hundred to several thousand
b. 20–100 patients
c. less than 10
d. up to several hundred patients"

Back 104

several hundred to several thousand

Front 105

"14. After a patent has expired for a medication, other manufacturers may copy the drug and release it under the ______________ name.
a. generic
b. trade
c. brand
d. patent"

Back 105

generic

Front 106

"15. Drugs that do not require a prescription are _____________ drugs.
a. FDA
b. OTC
c. Durham-Humphrey
d. legend"

Back 106

OTC

Front 107

"16. The Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act requires that OTC cold and allergy medications containing which of the fol- lowing drugs be kept behind the counter?
a. antihistamine
b. methamphetamine
c. ephedrine and pseudoephedrine
d. antitussive"

Back 107

ephedrine and pseudoephedrine

Front 108

"17. Purchasers of exempt narcotics must be at least _____ years of age.
a. 12
b. 16
c. 18
d. 21"

Back 108

18

Front 109

"18. There are limits to how many dosage units of an exempt narcotic can be sold in a _____–hour period.
a. 24
b. 48
c. 72
d. 96"

Back 109

48

Front 110

"19. A prescription to dispense Plan B®
a. is not required.
b. is required for patients under 17.
c. is required for patients 17 years of age
and under.
d. is required for patients 17 years of age
and under unless otherwise allowed by state law."

Back 110

is required for patients under 17.

Front 111

"20. The second set of digits in an NDC rep- resents the
a. manufacturer.
b. name of drug and strength.
c. package size.
d. lot number."

Back 111

name of drug and strength.

Front 112

"21. Of the following Schedule of drugs, which one deals with drugs that have no accept- ed medical use in the United States?
a. Schedule I
b. Schedule II
c. Schedule III
d. Schedule IV"

Back 112

Schedule I

Front 113

"22. Amphetamines, opium, cocaine, and methadone are in DEA Schedule _____ because they have accepted medical use, but have a high potential for abuse and may lead to physical or psychological dependence.
a. II
b. III
c. IV
d. V"

Back 113

II

Front 114

"23. The form for ordering Schedule II con- trolled substances is DEA Form
a. 106.
b. 222.
c. 224.
d. 363."

Back 114

222

Front 115

"24. The FDA reporting system for adverse effects that occur from use of approved drugs is called
a. Class I.
b. MedWatch.
c. VAERS.
d. Class II."

Back 115

MedWatch

Front 116

"25.________________ drug recalls are issued by manufacturers when there is a strong likelihood that the product will cause serious adverse effects or death.
a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV"

Back 116

Class I

Front 117

"26. Basic criminal and civil laws, like theft, discrimination, sexual harassment, and fraud, apply to pharmacy technicians.
a. True
b. False"

Back 117

True

Front 118

"27. Pharmacies located in health-care institu- tions (hospitals, etc.) are required to fol- low regulations of this organization:
a. ASHP
b. USP
c. ASCP
d. TJC"

Back 118

TJC

Front 119

"a. absorbs water."

Back 119

Hydrates

Front 120

"b. ingredients in a formulation designed to control the pH."

Back 120

Buffer System

Front 121

"c. mixture of two non-miscible liquids where one is dis- persed throughout the other as tiny droplets."

Back 121

Emulsions

Front 122

"d. water based."

Back 122

Aqueous

Front 123

"e. when drug activity is at the site of administration."

Back 123

Local Effect

Front 124

"f. pouch between the teeth and cheek in the mouth."

Back 124

Buccal

Front 125

"g. painful swollen veins in the anal/rectal area, generally caused by strained bowel movements from hard stools."

Back 125

Hemorrhoid

Front 126

"h. solvent that dissolves a freeze-dried powder or dilutes a solution."

Back 126

Diluent

Front 127

"i. the ease of flow when a suspension is injected into a patient."

Back 127

Injectability

Front 128

"j. the area in the muscle where the formulation is injected during an intramuscular injection."

Back 128

Depot

Front 129

"k. particles up to a hundred times smaller than those in suspensions that are, however, also suspended in a solution."

Back 129

Colloids

Front 130

"l. not irritating; does not promote infection or abscess."

Back 130

Biocompatibility

Front 131

"m. the gland that produces tears for the eye."

Back 131

Lacrimal Gland

Front 132

"n. the tear ducts."

Back 132

Lacrimal canalicula

Front 133

"o. the eyelid lining."

Back 133

Conjunctiva

Front 134

"p. the small sacs of specialized tissue that transfer oxygen out of inspired air into the blood and carbon dioxide out of the blood and into the air for exhalation."

Back 134

Alveolar sacs (Alveoli)

Front 135

"q. an intrauterine contraceptive device that is placed in the uterus for a prolonged period of time."

Back 135

Intrauterine Device (IUD)

Front 136

"r. device or formulation designed to prevent pregnancy."

Back 136

Contraceptive

Front 137

"s. the cavity behind the nose and above the roof of the mouth that filters air and moves mucus and inhaled contaminants outward and away from the lungs."

Back 137

Nasal Cavity

Front 138

"t. a device that contains a drug that is vaporized by inhalation."

Back 138

Nasal Inhaler

Front 139

"u. the cellular lining of the nose."

Back 139

Nasal Mucosa

Front 140

"v. the breaking apart of a tablet into smaller pieces."

Back 140

Disintegration

Front 141

"w. when the smaller pieces of a disintegrated tablet dissolve in solution."

Back 141

Dissolution

Front 142

"x. a stabilizing agent in emulsions."

Back 142

Emulsifier

Front 143

"a. a condition that is free of all microorganisms."

Back 143

Sterile

Front 144

"b. the absorption of drugs through the skin, often for a systemic effect."

Back 144

Percutaneous Absorption

Front 145

"c. related to the eye"

Back 145

Ophthalmic

Front 146

"d. a measure of a liquid’s thickness or resistance to flow."

Back 146

Viscosity

Front 147

"e. under the tongue."

Back 147

Sublingual

Front 148

"f. when a drug is introduced into the circulatory system and carried to the site of activity."

Back 148

Systemic Effect

Front 149

"g. measures the acidity or the opposite (alkalinity) of a substance."

Back 149

pH

Front 150

"h. the ease with which a suspension can be drawn from a container into a syringe.

Back 150

Syringiability

Front 151

"I. a raised, blister-like area on the skin caused by an intradermal injection."

Back 151

Wheal

Front 152

"j. the outermost cell layer of the epidermis."

Back 152

Stratum Corneum

Front 153

"k. able to dissolve in water."

Back 153

Water Soluble

Front 154

" l. increase in cell death."

Back 154

Necrosis

Front 155

"m. a clear liquid made up of one or more substances dis- solved in a solvent."

Back 155

Solution

Front 156

"1. Which route of administration is not a parenteral route?
a. intranasal
b. buccal
c. inhalation
d. ophthalmic"

Back 156

ophthalmic

Front 157

"2. A local effect occurs
a. at the site of administration.
b. throughout the body.
c. only after intravenous administration.
d. only within the alimentary tract."

Back 157

at the site of administration

Front 158

"3. The stomach has a pH of
a. 3–4.
b. 7–8.
c. 5–6.
d. 1–2."

Back 158

1–2

Front 159

"4. A dissolution step would not be neces- sary for drug absorption from a/an
a. tablet.
b. enteric coated tablet.
c. oral syrup.
d. bulk powder."

Back 159

oral syrup

Front 160

"5. Modified release tablets might be called
a. extended release.
b. prolonged action.
c. long acting.
d. all of the above."

Back 160

all of the above

Front 161

"6. Nonaqueous solutions often contain glycerin, alcohol, and
a. polyethylene glycol.
b. polyvinyl alcohol.
c. propylene glycol.
d. chloroform."

Back 161

propylene glycol

Front 162

"7. Which oral formulation is characterized by a high sucrose content?
a. solution
b. syrup
c. elixir
d. suspension"

Back 162

syrup

Front 163

"8. An oral liquid formulation in which one non-miscible liquid is dispersed throughout another in the form of small droplets is called
a. an emulsion.
b. a suspension.
c. a gel.
d. a solution."

Back 163

an emulsion

Front 164

"9. ____________ tablets are placed under the tongue.
a. Enteric coated
b. Buccal
c. Sublingual
d. Sugar coated"

Back 164

Sublingual

Front 165

"10. Which statement is false?
a. Rectal administration can be used for systemic effect.
b. Drug absorption from rectal administration is erratic and unpredictable.
c. Rectal suppositories are intended to
spread around the anal opening.
d. Rectal enemas create an urge to defecate"

Back 165

Rectal suppositories are intended to
spread around the anal opening

Front 166

"11. Which statement is true?
a. Parenteral formulations containing active drug(s) also serve as buffers.
b. Parenteral formulations can be administered in non-enteral routes.
c. Parenteral formulations must be administered through a syringe.
d. All of the above."

Back 166

Parenteral formulations can be administered in non-enteral routes

Front 167

"12. Which is not an injection dependent parenteral route?
a. subcutaneous
b. inhalation
c. intramuscular
d. epidural"

Back 167

inhalation

Front 168

"13. Which will not be caused by particulate material in an intravenous injection?
a. air emboli
b. thrombus
c. phlebitis
d. blood clots"

Back 168

air emboli

Front 169

"14. The gradual intravenous injection of a volume of fluid into a patient is called
a. bolus.
b. infiltration.
c. infusion.
d. Z-tracking."

Back 169

infusion

Front 170

"15. Which order of the absorption rate (from fastest to slowest) is correct when considering IM administration?
a. aqueous solutions > oleaginous solutions > colloids > suspensions
b. oil-in-water emulsions > oleaginous solutions > aqueous solutions > suspensions
c. colloids > suspensions > oleaginous solutions > aqueous solutions
d. oleaginous solutions > colloids > aqueous solutions > suspensions"

Back 170

aqueous solutions > oleaginous solutions > colloids > suspensions

Front 171

"16. Needles for subcutaneous injection are generally ____ inches long and ____G.
a. 3/8 to 1, 18 to 20
b. 1 to 1.5, 24 to 27
c. 3/8 to 1, 24 to 27
d. 1 to 1.5, 18 to 20"

Back 171

3/8 to 1, 24 to 27

Front 172

"17. A raised, blister-like area on the skin caused from an intradermal injection is called a
a. thrombus.
b. pachyderma.
c. wheal.
d. phlebitis."

Back 172

wheal

Front 173

"18. Which ophthalmic formulation will maintain drug contact with the eye for the longest period of time?
a. solution
b. suspension
c. gel
d. ointment"

Back 173

ointment

Front 174

"19. When administering ophthalmic drops, why is instilling two drops at a time not recommended?
a. The eye only holds about 10 microliters.
b. The second drop will be lost due to spillage.
c. The average drop size is 50 microliters.
d. The second drop will cause corneal abrasion."

Back 174

The second drop will be lost due to spillage

Front 175

"20. Do not use an ophthalmic solution if it is/ has
a. particles.
b. discolored.
c. developed gas bubbles.
d. all of the above."

Back 175

all of the above

Front 176

"21. What percent of an administered ophthalmic solution is delivered to the eye?
a. 5%
b. 20%
c. 50%
d. 75%"

Back 176

20%

Front 177

"22. When administering a nasal spray,
a. lay on the bed with the head hanging over the edge.
b. keep both nostrils open.
c. breathe through the nostril while
spraying the solution.
d. exhale immediately."

Back 177

breathe through the nostril while
spraying the solution

Front 178

"23. A drug is administered by inhalation using a metered dose inhaler (MDI) aerosol. Which pathway will the drug follow?
a. mouth, trachea, alveoli, bronchioles
b. mouth, bronchioles, trachea, alveoli
c. mouth, trachea, bronchioles, alveoli
d. bronchioles, alveoli, nasal cavity,
trachea"

Back 178

mouth, trachea, bronchioles, alveoli

Front 179

"24. Which is the barrier to drug absorption after dermal administration?
a. stratum corneum layer
b. epidermis layer
c. dermis layer
d. subcutaneous tissue"

Back 179

stratum corneum layer

Front 180

"25. Dermal formulations can deliver about ______mg/day of active drug.
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 10"

Back 180

2

Front 181

"26. Plasters are generally used with the ________ route of administration.
a. dermal
b. rectal
c. intranasal
d. vaginal"

Back 181

dermal

Front 182

"27. The primary reason to use a vaginal applicator is to
a. prevent a “mess” during application.
b. prevent patients from using oral tablets by the route.
c. place the formulation high in the vaginal tract.
d. enable patients to retrieve the formulation if needed."

Back 182

place the formulation high in the vaginal tract

Front 183

"a. the substantial degradation of an orally administered drug caused by enzyme metabolism in the liver before the drug reaches the systemic circulation."

Back 183

First - Pass Metabolism

Front 184

"b. the increase in hepatic enzyme activity that results in greater metabolism of drugs."

Back 184

Enzyme Induction

Front 185

"c. the comparison of bioavailability between two dosage forms."

Back 185

Bioequivalency

Front 186

"d. the amount of an administered dose that reaches the general circulation and the rate at which this occurs."

Back 186

Bioavailability

Front 187

"e. water repelling; cannot associate with water."

Back 187

Hydrophobic

Front 188

"f. capable of associating with or absorbing water."

Back 188

Hydrophilic

Front 189

"g. the blood filtering process of the nephron."

Back 189

Glomerular filtration

Front 190

"h. the time a drug will stay in the stomach before it is emptied into the small intestine."

Back 190

Gastric emptying time

Front 191

"I. the decrease in hepatic enzyme activity that results in reduced metabolism of drugs."

Back 191

Enzyme inhibition

Front 192

"j. a complex protein that catalyzes chemical reactions."

Back 192

Enzyme

Front 193

"k. the transfer of drugs and their metabolites from the liver to the bile in the gall bladder, then into the intestine, and then back into circulation."

Back 193

Enterohepatic cycling

Front 194

"l. the process of metabolism and excretion."

Back 194

Elimination

Front 195

"m. the time the drug concentration is above the MEC."

Back 195

Duration of action

Front 196

"n. a term sometimes used to refer to all the ADME processes together."

Back 196

Disposition

Front 197

"o. when different molecules associate or attach to each other."

Back 197

Complexation

Front 198

"p. the movement of drugs from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration; requires cellular energy."

Back 198

Active transport

Front 199

"q. the movement of a drug from the dosage formulation to the blood."

Back 199

Absorption

Front 200

"r. drugs that activate receptors to accelerate or slow normal cellular function."

Back 200

Agonists

Front 201

"s. drugs that bind with receptors but do not activate them."

Back 201

Antagonists

Front 202

"t. fat-like substance."

Back 202

Lipoidal

Front 203

"u. the bioavailability a drug product compared to the same drug in a rapidly administered IV solution."

Back 203

Absolute bioavailability

Front 204

"a. the attachment of a drug molecule to a protein, effectively making the drug inactive."

Back 204

Protein Binding

Front 205

"b. the cellular material that interacts with a drug."

Back 205

Receptor

Front 206

"c. the movement of drugs from an area of higher concentration to lower concentration."

Back 206

Passive Diffusion

Front 207

"d. the characteristic of a drug that makes its action specific to certain receptors."

Back 207

Selective (Action)

Front 208

"e. the location where an administered drug produces an effect."

Back 208

Site of Action

Front 209

"f. the blood concentration needed for a drug to produce a response."

Back 209

Minimum Effective Concentration (MEC)

Front 210

"g. the time MEC is reached and the response occurs."

Back 210

Onset of action

Front 211

"h. a drug’s blood concentration range between its MEC and MTC.

Back 211

Therapeutic window

Front 212

"I. the upper limit of the therapeutic window."

Back 212

Minimum toxic concentration (MTC)

Front 213

"j. the substance resulting from the body’s transformation of an administered drug."

Back 213

Metabolite

Front 214

"k. the functional unit of the kidney."

Back 214

Nephron

Front 215

"l. drug products that contain identical amounts of the same active ingredient in the same dosage form."

Back 215

Pharmaceutical Equivalent

Front 216

"m. pharmaceutical equivalents that produce the same effects in patients."

Back 216

Therapeutic Equivalent

Front 217

"n. drug products that contain the same active ingredient but not necessarily in the same salt form, amount, or dosage form."

Back 217

Pharmaceutical Alternative

Front 218

"o. the bioavailability of a drug product compared to the same drug in any other dosage form than a rapidly administered IV solution."

Back 218

Relative Bioavailability

Front 219

"1. The place where a drug causes an effect to occur is called the
a. site of action.
b. site of administration.
c. therapeutic window.
d. minimum toxic concentration (MTC)."

Back 219

Site of action

Front 220

"2. When a drug produces an effect, it is acting at a/an _____________________ level.
a. tissue
b. atomic
c. cellular
d. organ"

Back 220

Cellular

Front 221

"3. Drug action can be determined by the
a. number of receptors occupied.
b. number of receptors present.
c. sensitivity of the receptors.
d. all of the above."

Back 221

all of the above

Front 222

"4. An agonist will
a. not bind to a receptor.
b. accelerate a normal body process.
c. prevent other drugs from binding to a
receptor.
d. increase the number of stimulated
receptors."

Back 222

accelerate a normal body process

Front 223

"5. Blood concentrations are the result of ____ simultaneously occurring processes.
a. two
b. four
c. three
d. five"

Back 223

four

Front 224

"6. Blood concentration–time profiles can be used to predict the amount of drug at the site of action because
a. blood is in rapid equilibrium with the site of administration and the site of action.
b. blood is in rapid equilibrium with the site of action.
c. blood is in rapid equilibrium with the receptor.
d. blood can be repeatedly sampled."

Back 224

blood is in rapid equilibrium with the site of administration and the site of action

Front 225

"7. In a blood concentration–time curve, the range between the minimum toxic concentration (MTC) and the minimum effective concentration (MEC) is called the
a. onset of action.
b. concentration at site of action.
c. duration of action.
d. therapeutic window."

Back 225

therapeutic window

Front 226

"8. If the blood concentration–time pro- file reflects the amount of drug at the site of action, the maximum therapeutic response would occur
a. at the onset of action.
b. at the MEC.
c. at the peak blood concentration.
d. when elimination is the predominant
process."

Back 226

at the peak blood concentration

Front 227

"9. Which drug would not typically be monitored with peak and trough blood concentrations?
a. vancomycin
b. valproic acid
c. promethazine
d. phenytoin"

Back 227

promethazine

Front 228

"10. For elimination of a drug to be essentially complete, ____ times the half-life must elapse.
a. two
b. three
c. five
d. seven"

Back 228

five

Front 229

"11. Unionized drugs are
a. actively transported.
b. hydrophobic drugs.
c. passively diffused through membranes.
d. hydrophilic drugs."

Back 229

hydrophobic drugs

Front 230

"12. The transfer of a drug out of a dosage form and into the blood is called
a. absorption.
b. dissolution.
c. metabolism.
d. elimination."

Back 230

absorption

Front 231

"13. Which processes can influence the absorption of drugs given orally?
a. first-pass metabolism
b. intestinal transit time
c. gastric emptying
d. all of the above"

Back 231

all of the above

Front 232

"14. Which formulation does not have an absorption step?"
a. rapidly administered solution
b. intramuscular emulsion
c. topical cream
d. vaginal suppository
intravenous"

Back 232

rapidly administered solution

Front 233

"15. Why is a plasma protein bound drug essentially “inactive”?
a. bound drug cannot enter the site of action
b. bound drug can enter the site of metabolism
c. bound drug can move through tissue membranes and cellular openings.
d. bound drug can be displaced by a drug with a stronger binding capacity."

Back 233

bound drug cannot enter the site of action

Front 234

"16. First-pass metabolism refers to the substantial degradation of the drug following
a. passage through the small intestine.
b. oral absorption.
c. distribution to the liver.
d. interaction with liver enzymes."

Back 234

distribution to the liver

Front 235

"17. When some drugs are chronically administered, the liver will decrease its enzyme activity. This is called
a. enzyme induction.
b. enzyme inhibition.
c. enzyme secretion.
d. first pass metabolism."

Back 235

enzyme inhibition

Front 236

"18. Enterohepatic recycling occurs when
a. a drug is metabolized to a metabolite.
b. drug is secreted into the intestines
along with the bile
c. drug is secreted into the intestines
along with the bile and reabsorbed
back into the blood circulation.
d. all of the above."

Back 236

drug is secreted into the intestines
along with the bile and reabsorbed
back into the blood circulation

Front 237

"19. Elimination is
a. absorption and metabolism.
b. metabolism and excretion.
c. distribution and excretion.
d. distribution and metabolism."

Back 237

metabolism and excretion

Front 238

"20. Which set of circumstances will result in a drug undergoing urinary reabsorption?
a. basic drug in high urine pH
b. basic drug in low urine pH
c. acidic drug in high urine pH
d. none of the above"

Back 238

basic drug in high urine pH

Front 239

"21. The amount of drug excreted in the urine is the amount
a. filtered + secreted + reabsorbed.
b. filtered + secreted - reabsorbed.
c. filtered - secreted + reabsorbed.
d. filtered - secreted - reabsorbed."

Back 239

filtered + secreted - reabsorbed

Front 240

"22. The amount of drug that is delivered to the site of action and the rate at which it becomes available is the drug’s
a. bioequivalence.
b. bioavailability.
c. biotransformation.
d. biopharmaceutics."

Back 240

bioavailability

Front 241

"23. To determine the bioavailability of a drug product, it must be compared to another product containing the same drug. If the second product is a rapidly administered intravenous solution, the bioavailability is termed _________ availability.
a. relative
b. bioequivalent
c. redundant
d. absolute"

Back 241

absolute

Front 242

"24. The _____ requires drug manufacturers to perform bioequivalency studies on their products before they are approved for marketing.
a. DEA
b. AMA
c. FDA
d. USP"

Back 242

FDA

Front 243

"a. when two different molecules associate or attach to each other."

Back 243

Complexation

Front 244

"b. an abnormal sensitivity resulting in an allergic reaction."

Back 244

Hypersensitivity

Front 245

"c. a potentially fatal hypersensitivity reaction producing severe respiratory distress and cardiovascular collapse."

Back 245

Anaphylactic shock

Front 246

"d. an unexpected reaction the first time a drug is taken, generally due to genetic causes."

Back 246

Idiosyncrasy

Front 247

"e. the ability of a substance to cause cancer."

Back 247

Carcinogenicity

Front 248

"f. when two drugs with similar pharmacological actions produce an effect equal to the sum of their individual effects."

Back 248

Additive Effects

Front 249

"g. when two drugs with similar pharmacological actions produce an effect greater than the sum of their individual effects."

Back 249

Synergism

Front 250

"h. a drug that antagonizes the toxic effect of another drug."

Back 250

Antidote

Front 251

"i. a chronic and potentially fatal liver disease causing loss of function and increased resistance to blood flow through the liver."

Back 251

Cirrhosis

Front 252

"j. an inflammatory liver condition caused by viruses."

Back 252

Acute Viral Hepatitis

Front 253

"k. when elements of ingested nutrients interact with a drug and this affects the disposition of the drug."

Back 253

Drug-diet interactions

Front 254

"l. an obstruction of the bile duct that causes hepatic waste products and bile to accumulate in the liver."

Back 254

Obstructive jaundice

Front 255

"m. a condition in which thyroid hormone secretions are above normal; having an overactive thyroid."

Back 255

Hyperthyroidism

Front 256

"n. a condition in which thyroid secretions are below normal, often referred to as an underactive thyroid."

Back 256

Hypothyroidism

Front 257

"o. a field of study that defines the hereditary basis of individual differences in the ADME processes."

Back 257

Pharmacogenomics

Front 258

"p. an unintended side effect of a medication that is negative or in some way injurious to the patient’s health."

Back 258

Adverse Drug Reaction

Front 259

"q. an effect produced when one drug with no inherent activity of its own increases the activity of another drug."

Back 259

Potentiation

Front 260

"r. a drug bound to a plasma protein is removed when another drug of greater binding potential binds to the same protein."

Back 260

Displacement

Front 261

"s. the decrease in hepatic enzyme activity that results in reduced metabolism of drugs."

Back 261

Enzyme inhibition

Front 262

"t. the increase in hepatic enzyme activity that results in greater metabolism of drugs."

Back 262

Enzyme Induction

Front 263

"1. What criteria is commonly used to define the elderly?
a. age greater than 55
b. age greater than 65
c. age greater than 70
d. age greater than 80"

Back 263

age greater than 70

Front 264

"2. Children between the ages of _______ metabolize certain drugs more rapidly than adults.
a. 0 and 6 months
b. 6 and 18 months
c. 1 and 2 years
d. 1 and 12 years"
(Press 328)

Back 264

1 and 12 years

Front 265

"3. Some drugs given to children require a higher than normal adult dose. Why?
a. Children have a more rapid renal excretion than adults.
b. Children metabolize some drugs faster than adults.
c. Children have a more immature renal function than adults.
d. Children have a higher cardiac output than adults."

Back 265

Children metabolize some drugs faster than adults.

Front 266

"4. The distribution of drugs may be differ- ent between men and women due to
a. normal fluctuations.
b. age.
c. body composition.
d. activity."

Back 266

body composition

Front 267

"5. The placebo effect is a
a. psychological variable.
b. gender variable.
c. hypersensitive reaction.
d. drug dependence variable."

Back 267

psychological variable

Front 268

"6. Adults have a gradual decline in many physiological functions between the ages of
a. 12–20 years.
b. 20–40 years.
c. 30–70 years.
d. 40–75 years."

Back 268

30–70 years

Front 269

"7. Adults that have greater than _____ body fat have significant changes in drug dis- tribution and renal excretion.
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 40%"

Back 269

30%

Front 270

"8. Decreased blood circulation can affect drug metabolism by
a. shunting blood away from functioning hepatic cells.
b. changing the rate at which drugs move from the blood into hepatic cells.
c. reducing drug clearance.
d. all of the above"

Back 270

all of the above

Front 271

"9. In end-stage renal disease, _________ levels increase and _________ levels decrease.
a. albumin, orosomucoid
b. orosomucoid, albumin
c. anastomoses, orosomucoid
d. albumin, thyroid"

Back 271

orosomucoid, albumin

Front 272

"10. Which endogenous compound is used to monitor renal function?
a. cortisol
b. creatinine
c. cholesterol
d. calcium"

Back 272

creatinine

Front 273

"11. When hepatic function is decreased by a hepatic disease, it is expected that
a. first-pass metabolism will increase.
b. urinary excretion will decrease.
c. first-pass metabolism will decrease.
d. hepatic blood flow will increase."

Back 273

first-pass metabolism will decrease

Front 274

"12. Acute viral hepatitis is an inflammatory condition caused by
a. chronic alcohol abuse.
b. obstructive jaundice.
c. decreased hepatic blood flow.
d. viruses."

Back 274

viruses

Front 275

"13. Which set of conditions is required for an adverse drug reaction to occur?
a. normal drug dosage, affects only the organ being treated, occurs in most patients taking the drug
b. normal drug dosage, affects all of the organs, occurs in most patients taking the drug
c. elevated drug dosage, affects only the organ being treated, occurs in a few patients
d. none of the above"

Back 275

none of the above

Front 276

"14. Hypersensitivity generally happens because a patient develops
a. anaphylaxis.
b. anorexia.
c. antibodies.
d. hepatotoxicity."

Back 276

antibodies

Front 277

"15. The ability of a substance to cause abnor- mal fetal development when given to pregnant women is called
a. hematological effects.
b. idiosyncrasy.
c. nephrotoxicity.
d. teratogenicity."

Back 277

teratogenicity

Front 278

"16. Anaphylactic shock usually occurs within
a. minutes.
b. hours.
c. days.
d. weeks."

Back 278

minutes

Front 279

"17. Ciprofloxacin bioavailability can be reduced when given with calcium, magnesium, and aluminumion containing drugs. What type of drug–drug interaction is this?
a. additive
b. potentiation
c. induction
d. complexation"

Back 279

complexation

Front 280

"18. Induction and inhibition involve enzymes in the ______ system.
a. gastric
b. circulatory
c. hepatic
d. renal

Back 280

hepatic

Front 281

"19. If a drug is _____ plasma protein bound, a displacement interaction will probably be significant.
a. 10%
b. 30%
c. 60%
d. 90%

Back 281

90%

Front 282

"20. The renal excretion of a drug is a combination of
a. glomerular filtration plus renal secretion.
b. glomerular filtration plus urinary reabsorption minus renal secretion.
c. glomerular filtration plus renal secretion minus urinary reabsorption.
d. glomerular filtration plus renal secretion plus urinary reabsorption."

Back 282

glomerular filtration plus renal secretion minus urinary reabsorption.

Front 283

"21. In acidic urine, acidic drugs are reabsorbed and basic drugs are not. This occurs because
a. acidic drugs are more unionized in acidic urine.
b. acidic drugs are more ionized in acidic urine.
c. basic drugs are more unionized in acidic urine.
d. basic drugs are more ionized in basic urine."

Back 283

acidic drugs are more unionized in acidic urine.

Front 284

"22. When two drugs with similar pharmacological actions produce an effect equal to the sum of the individual effects, the interaction is called
a. an additive effect.
b. a complexation effect.
c. an induction effect.
d. a displacement effect."

Back 284

an additive effect

Front 285

"23. A/an ______________ is a drug that antagonizes the toxic effects of another drug.
a. agonist
b. synergist
c. antidote
d. inducer"

Back 285

antidote

Front 286

"24. Which effect will the presence of food in the gastrointestinal tract have on drug absorption?
a. react chemically with the drug and decrease absorption
b. alter the solubility of a drug by increasing bile secretion
c. alter the gastric emptying time
d. all of the above"

Back 286

all of the above

Front 287

"25. Drug–diet interactions that alter drug absorption can be minimized by separating the administration of the drug and food intake by
a. 15 minutes.
b. 30 minutes.
c. 2 hours.
d. 4 hours."

Back 287

2 hours

Front 288

"26. A high carbohydrate (low protein) diet would be expected to _______________ the metabolism of many drugs.
a. decrease
b. have no effect
c. increase"

Back 288

decrease

Front 289

"27. What do these foods have in common: beer, red wine, yeast products, chicken livers, and aged cheeses?
a. They inhibit hepatic metabolism.
b. They contain tyramine.
c. They contain monoamine oxidase
inhibitors.
d. They contain an inherent anticoagu-
lant activity."

Back 289

They contain tyramine

Front 290

"skills involving relationships between people."

Back 290

"interpersonal skills"

Front 291

"counter areas designated for taking prescriptions and for dispensing them to patients."

Back 291

"transaction windows"

Front 292

"a child-resistant cap."

Back 292

"safety caps"

Front 293

"the price of a unit of medication (such as an ounce of a liquid cold remedy)."

Back 293

"unit price"

Front 294

"a tray designed for counting pills."

Back 294

"counting tray"

Front 295

"specific warnings that are placed on filled prescriptions."

Back 295

"auxiliary labels"

Front 296

"book which patients sign for the prescriptions they receive, for legal and insurance purposes; may be electronic"

Back 296

"signature log"

Front 297

"the amount of the retailer’s sale price minus their purchase price."

Back 297

"markup"

Front 298

"stickers with bar codes that can be scanned for inventory identification."

Back 298

"shelf stickers"

Front 299

"automated machines that fill and label pill bottles with correct quantities of ordered drugs."

Back 299

"automated filling and dispensing machines"

Front 300

"federal legislation enacted to regulate over-the-counter sales of ephedrine and pseudoephedrine."

Back 300

"Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act
(CMEA)"

Front 301

"federal legislation designed to protect patients’ personal and medical information and also to encourage use of electronic data interchange in the United States."

Back 301

"Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)"

Front 302

"federal legislation requiring pharmacists to provide counseling to Medicaid patients who are receiving new prescriptions."

Back 302

"Omnibus Budget and Reconciliation Act (OBRA)"

Front 303

"a set of provisions created by the Federal Trade Com- mission (FTC) to help prevent identity theft from patient billing accounts maintained by medical and financial institutions."

Back 303

"Red Flag Rule"

Front 304

"federal legislation that created Medicare Part D and made allowance for Medicare recipients to receive Medicare medical coverage through private health insurance plans."

Back 304

"Medicare Prescription Drug Improvement and Modernization Act"

Front 305

"1. ____________________________ are skills involving relationships between people.
a. Computer skills
b. Data management skills
c. Transaction skills
d. Interpersonal skills

Back 305

Interpersonal skills

Front 306

"2. More technicians and pharmacists are employed in ________________ than any other type of pharmacy.
a. community pharmacy
b. hospital pharmacy
c. mail order pharmacy
d. long-term care"

Back 306

community pharmacy

Front 307

"3. Community pharmacies that are indi- vidually owned local pharmacies are
a. food store pharmacies.
b. mass merchandiser pharmacies.
c. chain pharmacies.
d. independent pharmacies.

Back 307

independent pharmacies.

Front 308

"4. Community pharmacies, such as CVS and Walgreens, that are part of regional or national pharmacy chains are
a. independent pharmacies.
b. food store pharmacies.
c. chain pharmacies.
d. mass merchandiser pharmacies."

Back 308

chain pharmacies.

Front 309

"5. Examples of pharmacist clinical services programs include
a. teaching diabetic patients to use a blood glucose meter.
b. recommending a medication change to a patient’s physician.
c. administering a vaccination to a patient.
d. all of the above.

Back 309

all of the above.

Front 310

"6. _____________________ require(s) community pharmacists to offer counseling to Medicaid patients regarding medications.
a. Medicare Part D
b. The 1990 Omnibus Budget and Reconciliation Act (OBRA)
c. HIPAA
d. The DEA"

Back 310

The 1990 Omnibus Budget and Reconciliation Act (OBRA)

Front 311

"7. The HIPAA laws
a. require pharmacists to provide counselling on all new medications.
b. requires that health information be kept confidential.
c. allows pharmacy staff to discuss a patient’s health information outside the pharmacy.
d. none of the above."

Back 311

requires that health information be kept confidential.

Front 312

"8. The Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act limits the over-the-counter sales of
a. acetaminophen.
b. aspirin.
c. pseudoephedrine.
d. laxatives."

Back 312

pseudoephedrine.

Front 313

"9. Individual states
a. do not regulate pharmacy practice.
b. may require national pharmacy technician certification or may have their
own certification process.
c. regulate the scope of pharmacy technician practice, including the ratio of
pharmacists to technicians.
d. b & c
(Press 416)
Press, Perspective. The Pharmacy Technician, 5th Edition. Morton Publishing Company, 02/01/2013. VitalBook file.

Back 313

b. may require national pharmacy technician certification or may have their
own certification process. and c. regulate the scope of pharmacy technician practice, including the ratio of
pharmacists to technicians.

Front 314

"10. The refrigerator in a community pharmacy may be used to store
a. drugs only.
b. drugs as well as lunches of pharmacy
personnel.
c. drugs and sealed containers of soda
pop.
d. drugs and the pharmacist’s lunch."

Back 314

drugs only.

Front 315

"11. Completed prescriptions are generally placed in bins or on shelves
a. alphabetically by the name of the drug being dispensed.
b. alphabetically by the customer’s last name.
c. randomly. d. in the same order in which they were
completed."

Back 315

alphabetically by the customer’s last name.

Front 316

"12. Pharmacy technicians
a. must be calm and courteous when interacting with customers.
b. must know when to refer a customer complaint or customer question to the pharmacist.
c. must be familiar with the layout of the store.
d. all of the above.

Back 316

a. must be calm and courteous when interacting with customers.
b. must know when to refer a customer complaint or customer question to the pharmacist.
c. must be familiar with the layout of the store.

Front 317

"13. Good interpersonal skills include
a. making eye contact.
b. calling the customer by name.
c. listening carefully.
d. all of the above."

Back 317

a. making eye contact.
b. calling the customer by name.
c. listening carefully.

Front 318

14. A patient’s questions regarding medications or general health
a. can be handled by the technician
b. should be referred to the pharmacist.
c. can be answered by the pharmacy technician or by the pharmacist, depending on state regulations.
d. can sometimes be answered by the pharmacy technician and sometimes by the pharmacist, depending on the technician’s judgement.

Back 318

should be referred to the pharmacist.

Front 319

15. "The patient profile information
a. includes the patient’s name, date of birth, and current address.
b. can be bypassed by the pharmacy technician if the customer is in a rush.
c. may include the customer’s preferences such as child-proof caps or easy-open caps.
d. a and c"

Back 319

a. includes the patient’s name, date of birth, and current address. and c. may include the customer’s preferences such as child-proof caps or easy-open caps.

Front 320

16. "When entering a new prescription into the pharmacy computer, the technician must enter the following information:
a. the prescription number
b. the dispensing code
c. the sig
d. b and c"

Back 320

b. the dispensing code
c. the sig

Front 321

"17. An NDC number
a. is nine-digits long and is the same for some drugs.
b. is the same as the prescription number
c. is an 11-digit number unique to each
product.
d. None of the above."

Back 321

is an 11-digit number unique to each
product.

Front 322

"18. All dispensed prescriptions must have a _________________ cap unless that patient specifies a ________________ cap.
a. child-resistant, non-child-resistant
b. child-resistant, child-resistant
c. non-child-resistant, non-child-resistant
d. non-child-resistant, child-resistant"

Back 322

child-resistant, non-child-resistant

Front 323

"19. A Kirby-Lester® is
a. a medication specially mixed by a pharmacist.
b. a machine to measure liquids such as syrups.
c. an automatic pill counter.
d. a counting tray."

Back 323

an automatic pill counter.

Front 324

"20. The pharmacist _______ check the final product dispensed by an automated filling machine.
a. must
b. may
c. does not need to

Back 324

must

Front 325

"21. Products such as eye drops, insulin vials, and inhalers are all examples of
a. prepackaged medications.
b. unpackaged medications.
c. unlabeled medications.
d. none of the above."

Back 325

prepackaged medications.

Front 326

"22. Labels that are placed on the prescription container in addition to the prescription label and provide specific warnings are called
a. poison labels.
b. flags.
c. prescription labels.
d. auxiliary labels.

Back 326

auxiliary labels.

Front 327

"23. The pharmacist always checks the prescription
a. after it is filled by the technician.
b. when the patient signs the log.
c. after it is rung on the cash register.
d. as it is given to the patient."

Back 327

after it is filled by the technician.

Front 328

"24. A(n) ____________________ is a book that patients sign for prescriptions they receive.
a. exempt narcotic book.
b. patient register book.
c. patient compliance book.
d. signature log."

Back 328

signature log

Front 329

"25. A few of the many tasks that pharmacy technicians are responsible for include
a. keeping the pharmacy in clean, neat, and proper working order.
b. entering new and refill prescriptions into the computer.
c. both A and B.
d. none of the above."

Back 329

a. keeping the pharmacy in clean, neat, and proper working order.
b. entering new and refill prescriptions into the computer.

Front 330

"26. Ordering stock is a responsibility of the
a. computer system.
b. prescription counter.
c. pharmacy technician.
d. third party."

Back 330

pharmacy technician.

Front 331

"27. Operating a cash register generally requires
a. handling cash payments.
b. handling credit cards and checks.
c. using a bar-code scanner.
d. all of the above."

Back 331

a. handling cash payments.
b. handling credit cards and checks.
c. using a bar-code scanner.

Front 332

"28. Unit price information is found on shelf stickers for
a. Schedule III, IV, and V medications.
b. Schedule II medications.
c. OTC products.
d. legend drugs."

Back 332

OTC products.

Front 333

"29. All unused documents and labels containing protected health information
a. can be used as scrap paper.
b. must be shredded.
c. can be removed from the pharmacy
daily in the regular trash.
d. must be disposed of in sharps containers."

Back 333

must be shredded.

Front 334

"the process of quickly obtaining an out-of-stock medication in an urgent situation."

Back 334

"emergency drug procurement"

Front 335

"area designed for the preparation of sterile products"

Back 335

"clean room"

Front 336

"a system in which medications are dispensed from an automated unit at the point of use."

Back 336

"automated dispensing system"

Front 337

"the main inpatient pharmacy in a hospital that has pharmacy satellites."

Back 337

"central pharmacy"

Front 338

"advance preparation of large quantities of unit-dose oral solutions/suspensions or small volume parenterals for future use."

Back 338

"batching"

Front 339

"a record of medications compounded in the pharmacy."

Back 339

"bulk compounding log"

Front 340

"medications that must be prepared by following a specific recipe or formula, usually because they are not available commercially."

Back 340

"extemporaneous compounds"

Front 341

"a type of formulary that requires physicians to order only the medications on the formulary list."

Back 341

"closed formulary"

Front 342

"a computerized patient medical record; also known as an electronic health record (EHR)."

Back 342

"electronic medical record (EMR)"

Front 343

"a device placed at the end of an IV line that is used to remove particulate matter."

Back 343

"final filter"

Front 344

"a process in which the pharmacy technician goes to specific nursing units to find out what IV drips will be needed later that day."

Back 344

"drip rounds"

Front 345

"a system in which the physician or the physician’s agent enters orders directly into the hospital computer system."

Back 345

"CPOE"

Front 346

"a sterile, preservative-free medication administered into a patient’s epidural space."

Back 346

"epidural"

Front 347

"voluntary or involuntary removal of a drug product by the manufacturer, usually pertaining to a particular shipment or lot number."

Back 347

"drug recall"

Front 348

"a locked cart of medications and other medical equipment for emergency use only."

Back 348

"code cart"

Front 349

"a form that tracks medications that have been administered to a patient."

Back 349

"medication administration record"

Front 350

"the amount of a drug product that should be kept on the pharmacy shelf."

Back 350

"par"

Front 351

"protein, carbohydrates, and essential nutrients given to the patient through an IV line."

Back 351

"total parenteral nutrition (TPN)"

Front 352

"a branch of the inpatient pharmacy responsible for preparing, dispensing, and monitoring medications for specific patient areas."

Back 352

"pharmacy satellite"

Front 353

"a system that shuttles objects through a tube using com- pressed air as the force."

Back 353

"pneumatic tube"

Front 354

"an order for medication to be administered only on an as-needed basis."

Back 354

"PRN order"

Front 355

"a hospital pharmacy that services patients who have left the hospital or who are visiting doctors in a hospital outpatient clinic."

Back 355

"outpatient pharmacy"

Front 356

"making a solution or suspension by adding water or other diluent to a premade powder form of a drug in a drug bottle or vial."

Back 356

"reconstitute"

Front 357

"medication that will expire soon after preparation (i.e., within 1–6 hours after preparation)."

Back 357

"short stability"

Front 358

"an order to give medication at scheduled intervals."

Back 358

"standing order"

Front 359

"an order to administer medication immediately."

Back 359

"STAT order"

Front 360

"a package containing the amount of a drug required for one dose."

Back 360

"unit dose"

Front 361

"drugs not on the formulary list and not regularly stocked in the pharmacy."

Back 361

"non-formulary drugs"

Front 362

"work station for medical personal on a nursing unit."

Back 362

"nurses’ station"

Front 363

"a review of a nursing unit to ensure compliance with hospital medication policies."

Back 363

"unit inspection"

Front 364

"a policy approved by the hospital P&T Committee allowing the pharmacist to change a medication order to a therapeutically equivalent formulary medication."

Back 364

"therapeutic interchange"

Front 365

"a small volume parenteral added into or piggybacked onto a large volume parenteral (LVP).

Back 365

"intravenous piggyback (IVPB)"

Front 366

"a pharmacy located in a hospital that services only those patients in the hospital and its ancillary areas."

Back 366

"inpatient pharmacy"

Front 367

"a list of drugs stocked at the hospital that have been selected based on therapeutic factors as well as cost."

Back 367

"formulary"

Front 368

"1. In a hospital, patients are admitted to different nursing units based on similar
a. medical insurance.
b. medical problems.
c. demographics.
d. income."

Back 368

medical problems.

Front 369

"2. The main responsibilities of a pharmacy technician may include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. preparing medications orders.
b. conducting unit inspections.
c. administering medications to patients.
d. monitoring patients drug therapy."

Back 369

administering medications to patients.

Front 370

"3. A pharmacy technician who is working in the clean room may be responsible for preparing
a. parenteral nutrition.
b. oral medications.
c. extemporaneous oral compounds.
d. enteral nutrition."

Back 370

parenteral nutrition.

Front 371

"4. Non-formulary medications
a. must always be stocked in the pharmacy.
b. may not be in supply and could take several days before they can be stocked in the pharmacy.
c. are commonly used when a hospital has a closed formulary.
d. are always inexpensive."

Back 371

may not be in supply and could take several days before they can be stocked in the pharmacy.

Front 372

"5. HIPAA is a federal law that protects a patient’s private information when it is
a. spoken.
b. written.
c. electronically transferred.
d. all of the above"

Back 372

a. spoken.
b. written.
c. electronically transferred.

Front 373

"6. An IVPB is due at 2 p.m. What time would that be using military time?
a. 02:00
b. 12:00
c. 14:00
d. 20:00"

Back 373

14:00

Front 374

"7. In order to determine what rate a patient’s dopamine drip is running, the pharmacy technician must look in the __________________ section of a patient’s medical chart.
a. lab/test results
b. demographics
c. progress notes
d. documentation flow sheet"

Back 374

documentation flow sheet"

Front 375

"8. A(n) __________ order is an order for a medication to be administered as needed.
a. PRN
b. STAT
c. Routine
d. NPO"

Back 375

PRN

Front 376

"9. Nurses track medication administration on a(an)
a. PCU.
b. PRN.
c. STAT.
d. MAR."

Back 376

MAR."

Front 377

"10. Automatic stop orders
a. can only be ordered by certain physicians in a hospital.
b. limit the period of time the order will remain active.
c. require approval from the appropriate service before the medication can be dispensed.
d. allow medications to be ordered for long periods of time."

Back 377

limit the period of time the order will remain active.

Front 378

"11. A medication order reads, “Ciprofloxacin 400 mg q 12 hours X 7 days.” What essential information is missing from this order?
a. dose
b. route
c. drug interactions
d. timing"

Back 378

route

Front 379

"12. If a medication has been dispensed by the pharmacy and the nurse calls stating the medication is missing, where might the medication be found?
a. In the automated dispensing cabinet.
b. On another unit from which the
patient was recently transferred.
c. In the pharmacy ready to be delivered.
d. All of the above."

Back 379

a. In the automated dispensing cabinet.
b. On another unit from which the
patient was recently transferred.
c. In the pharmacy ready to be delivered.

Front 380

"13. Hepatitis B vaccine requires refrigeration. This means it must be kept between
a. 2 ̊–8 ̊C.
b. 8 ̊–15 ̊C.
c. 15 ̊–25 ̊C.
d. 25 ̊–30 ̊C.

Back 380

2 ̊–8 ̊C.

Front 381

"14. Bulk bottles used for extemporaneous oral compounding MUST be labeled with the name of drug, expiration date, and
a. concentration, lot number specific to the hospital, and pharmacist initials.
b. concentration, lot numbers for all ingredients used in the preparation of the product, and pharmacist initials.
c. manufacturer for all ingredients used in the preparation of the product, and pharmacist initials.
d. manufacturer for all ingredients used in the preparation of the product, and technician initials."

Back 381

concentration, lot number specific to the hospital, and pharmacist initials.

Front 382

"15. When the pharmacy technician prepacks oral liquids the syringes MUST be
a. amber colored.
b. at least 5 ml in volume.
c. able to accept a needle.
d. unable to accept a needle."

Back 382

unable to accept a needle."

Front 383

"16. A single dose vial
a. can be used for 30 days after opening.
b. should never be used in a hospital.
c. contains no preservative.
d. must always be reconstituted."

Back 383

contains no preservative.

Front 384

"17. A code cart
a. should never be locked.
b. is where Material Safety Data Sheets
(MSDS) should be stored.
c. contains different medications and
equipment commonly used in emergency situations. d. is a cart used for pharmacy technicians to delivery medications through- out the hospital."

Back 384

contains different medications and
equipment commonly used in emergency situations.

Front 385

"18. If a patient’s current rate of NaCl 0.9% is 125 ml/hr, how many one liter intravenous bags will be necessary to fill a 24-hour supply?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 4"

Back 385

3

Front 386

"19. How many doses of amoxicillin 500 mg can be drawn up from a 250 ml bottle of amoxicillin 250 mg/5ml oral suspension?
a. 10
b. 50
c. 25
d. 20"

Back 386

25

Front 387

"20. A medication order reads: gentamicin 120 mg iv 8 hours. The last dose was given to the patient at 16:00. When is the next dose due?
a. 14:00
b. 18:00
c. 12:00
d. 00:00"

Back 387

00:00

Front 388

"21. Ampicillin/sulbactam (Unasyn®) 3 grams is reconstituted with 6.4 ml to give a final concentration of 375 mg/ml. How many ml are required to give a dose of 2 grams?
a. 4.3 ml
b. 5.3 ml
c. 6.4 ml
d. 7.5 ml"

Back 388

5.3 ml

Front 389

"22. An IV infusion order calls for dopamine 800 mg in 250 ml of D5W to be infused at 10 mcg/kg/min. The patient weighs 55 kg. What will the flow rate be in ml/hr?
a. 0.2 ml/hr
b. 10.3 ml/hr
c. 22.7 ml/hr
d. 105.6 ml/hr"

Back 389

10.3 ml/hr

Front 390

"23. An order arrives in the IV room for 1,000 ml of dextrose 15%. How many ml of dextrose 70% will be needed to be added to sterile water make this solution?
a. 184 ml
b. 214 ml
c. 150 ml
d. 70 ml"

Back 390

214 ml

Front 391

"continuing condition that requires ongoing treatment for a prolonged period."

Back 391

"chronic condition"

Front 392

"a sudden condition requiring immediate treatment."

Back 392

"acute condition"

Front 393

"a common home infusion service used in treating AIDS related and other infections."

Back 393

"antibiotic therapy"

Front 394

"a system in which medication orders are communicated electronically and dispensed from an automated unit at the point-of-use."

Back 394

"automated dispensing system"

Front 395

"develops and maintains an individual pharmaceutical plan for each long-term care patient."

Back 395

"consultant pharmacist "

Front 396

"a medication that is required on a continuing basis for the treatment of a chronic condition."
(Press 471)
Press, Perspective. The Pharmacy Technician, 5th Edition. Morton Publishing Company, 02/01/2013. VitalBook file.

Back 396

"maintenance medication"

Front 397

"businesses that provide a range of home nursing care services, including infusion."

Back 397

"home care agencies"

Front 398

"makes sure long-term care patients receive the correct medications ordered."

Back 398

"distributive pharmacist"

Front 399

"1. Mail order pharmacies are used for maintenance medications, for chronic conditions. Which of the following conditions would NOT be likely to require maintenance medication?
a. root canal
b. HIV/AIDS
c. depression
d. hypertension"

Back 399

root canal

Front 400

"2. The delivery time for mail order medications is at least
a. 24 to 48 hours.
b. 2 weeks.
c. 4 weeks.
d. 6 weeks."

Back 400

24 to 48 hours.

Front 401

"3. A sudden condition requiring immediate treatment is a(an)
a. chronic condition.
b. PRN condition.
c. acute condition.
d. maintenance condition."

Back 401

acute condition.

Front 402

"4. A continuing condition that requires ongoing treatment for a prolonged period is called a(an)
a. chronic condition.
b. acute condition.
c. infectious condition.
d. maintenance condition."

Back 402

chronic condition.

Front 403

"5. Mail order pharmacies must follow ______________ requirements.
a. only state
b. federal and state
c. international
d. only federal"

Back 403

federal and state

Front 404

"6. The type of order processing used by mail order pharmacies in which each step in the prescription fill process is completed or managed by a person who specializes in that step is called
a. extemporaneous processing.
b. assembly line processing.
c. bin fill processing.
d. automated processing."

Back 404

assembly line processing.

Front 405

"7. The majority of long-term care services are
a. psychiatric institutions.
b. rehabilitation facilities.
c. nursing homes.
d. urgent care centers."

Back 405

nursing homes.

Front 406

"8. Long-term care facilities must have pharmacy services available
a. 9 am–5 pm.
b. 7 am–7 pm.
c. 7 am–11 pm.
d. 24 hours a day."

Back 406

24 hours a day."

Front 407

"9. The distributive pharmacist for a long- term care facility mainly works outside the facility.
a. True
b. False"

Back 407

True

Front 408

"10. A licensed pharmacist must perform a drug regimen review for each nursing home patient
a. at least once a month.
b. at least twice a month.
c. at least three times a month.
d. every week."

Back 408

at least once a month.

Front 409

"11. The requirement for pharmacy services in nursing homes to meet the needs of each patient is in the Code of Federal Regulations.
a. True
b. False"

Back 409

True

Front 410

"12. The type of infusion therapy associated with patients with digestive disorders or AIDS is called
a. admixture therapy.
b. PO.
c. NPO.
d. parenteral nutrition therapy."

Back 410

parenteral nutrition therapy."

Front 411

"13. The type of infusion therapy generally associated with an oncology program at a hospital or clinic is called
a. chemotherapy.
b. antibiotic therapy.
c. PO.
d. NPO."

Back 411

chemotherapy.

Front 412

"14. Compounding parenteral admixtures for home infusion requires all of the following EXCEPT:
a. aseptic practices.
b. laminar flow hoods.
c. ointment tiles.
d. use of clean rooms."

Back 412

ointment tiles.

Front 413

"15. Which member of the home care team orders the infusion therapy?
a. R.Ph.
b. physician
c. Pharm.D.
d. pharmacy technician"

Back 413

physician

Front 414

"16. Which member of the home care team coordinates and monitors the care plan?
a. home care aide
b. registered nurse
c. R.Ph.
d. Pharm.D."

Back 414

registered nurse

Front 415

"17. Which member of the home care team works with the supervising nurse to select the appropriate infusion device?
a. home care aide
b. physician
c. pharmacy technician
d. pharmacist"

Back 415

pharmacist"

Front 416

"18. Which member of the home care team may be involved with compounding, labeling, delivery, and other non-consulting activities?
a. R.Ph.
b. home care aide
c. pharmacy technician
d. Pharm.D."

Back 416

pharmacy technician

Front 417

"19. Which member of the home care team works under the supervision of the registered nurse?
a. home care aide
b. pharmacy technician
c. R.Ph.
d. Pharm.D."

Back 417

home care aide

Front 418

"20. Which member of the home care team is not involved in medication therapy?
a. pharmacy technician
b. nurse
c. home care aide
d. physician"

Back 418

home care aide

Front 419

"21. Procedures to prepare radiopharmaceuticals follow _____________standards.
a. USP <102> and <104>
b. USP <355> and <356>
c. USP <795> and <797>
d. none of the above"

Back 419

USP <795> and <797>

Front 420

"22. Prescription orders for radiopharmaceuticals consist of the agent to be administered, the amount of radioactivity, the time of administration , and ___________.
a. lot number
b. expiration date
c. patient name
d. DEA number"

Back 420

patient name

Front 421

"23. Patients are administered radiopharmaceuticals by the intravenous route only.
a. True
b. False"

Back 421

False

Front 422

"inflammation of the conjunctiva (eyelid lining)."

Back 422

"conjunctivitis"

Front 423

"another term for an antagonist drug, because antago- nists block the action of neurotransmitters."

Back 423

"blocker"

Front 424

"a state in which pain is not felt even though a painful condition exists."

Back 424

"analgesia"

Front 425

"reduces fever."

Back 425

"antipyretic"

Front 426

"drug that destroys worms."

Back 426

"anthelmintic "

Front 427

"bacteria killing."

Back 427

"bactericidal"

Front 428

"bacteria inhibiting."

Back 428

"bacteriostatic"

Front 429

"a product used to treat a skin condition."

Back 429

"dermatological"

Front 430

"when a compound breaks down and separates into smaller components."

Back 430

"dissociation"

Front 431

"a substance that in solution forms ions that conduct an electrical current."

Back 431

"electrolytes"

Front 432

"the fluid outside the body’s individual cells found in plasma and tissue fluid."

Back 432

"extracellular fluids"

Front 433

"the semiliquid form of food as it enters the intestinal tract."

Back 433

"chyme"

Front 434

"factors in the blood coagulation process."

Back 434

"clotting factors"

Front 435

"Factor I."

Back 435

"fibrinogen"

Front 436

"the fiber that serves as the structure for clot formation."

Back 436

"fibrin"

Front 437

"a decrease in hemoglobin or red blood cells."

Back 437

Anemia

Front 438

"a system of glands that secrete hormones into the bloodstream.

Back 438

Endocrine System

Front 439

"male sex characteristic hormones."

Back 439

Androgens

Front 440

"female sex characteristic hormone that are involved in calcium and phosphorus conservation."

Back 440

Estrogens

Front 441

"hormonal steroid substances produced by the cortex of the adrenal gland."

Back 441

Corticosteroid

Front 442

"a condition in which the body does not produce enough insulin or is unable to use it efficiently."

Back 442

Diabetes Mellitus

Front 443

"a negatively charged ion."

Back 443

Anion

Front 444

"a positively charged ion."

Back 444

Cation

Front 445

"chemicals produced by the body that regulate body functions and processes."

Back 445

"hormone"

Front 446

"a type of white blood cell that helps the body defend itself against bacteria an diseased cells."

Back 446

"lymphocyte"

Front 447

"a hormone that helps convert amino acids to glucose."

Back 447

"glucagon"

Front 448

"electrically charged particles."

Back 448

Ions

Front 449

"abnormally high pressure within the eye leading to optic nerve damage and loss of vision."

Back 449

Glaucoma

Front 450

"the body covering, i.e., skin, hair, and nails."

Back 450

integumentary system

Front 451

"a painful inflammatory condition in which excess uric acid accumulates in the joints."

Back 451

Gout

Front 452

"a hormone that controls the body’s use of glucose."

Back 452

Insulin

Front 453

"specialized cells of the pancreas that secrete insulin."

Back 453

"Islands (or islets) of Langerhans"

Front 454

"the state of equilibrium of the body."

Back 454

"homeostasis"

Front 455

"drugs that dilate the pupil."

Back 455

Mydriatics

Front 456

"inside the eye."

Back 456

Intraocular

Front 457

"drugs used to treat anemia."

Back 457

"hematopoietics"

Front 458

"cell fluid."

Back 458

"intracellular fluid"

Front 459

"drugs that prevent excessive bleeding."

Back 459

"hemostatic drugs"

Front 460

"tissue fluid."

Back 460

"interstitial fluid"

Front 461

"underproduction of thyroid hormone."

Back 461

"hypothyroidism"

Front 462

"when cancer cells spread beyond their original site."

Back 462

"metastasis"

Front 463

"overproduction of thyroid hormone."

Back 463

"hyperthyroidism"

Front 464

"another term for an agonist, because agonists imitate or mimic the action of the neurotransmitter."

Back 464

mimetic

Front 465

"a new and abnormal tissue growth, often referring to cancer cells."

Back 465

"neoplasm"

Front 466

"chemicals released by nerves that interact with receptors to cause an effect."

Back 466

"neurotransmitter"

Front 467

"an overdose of anesthesia that paralyzes the respiratory and heart centers of the medulla, leading to death."

Back 467

"medullary paralysis"

Front 468

"a disorder characterized by weight-bearing bone deterioration, decreasing range of motion, pain, and deformity."

Back 468

"osteoarthritis"

Front 469

"a chronic and often progressive inflammatory condition with symptoms that include swelling, feelings of warmth, and joint pain."

Back 469

"rheumatoid arthritis"

Front 470

"drugs used to treat gout that increase the elimination of uric acid."

Back 470

"drugs used to treat gout that increase the elimination of uric acid."

Front 471

"the stage of anesthesia in which surgery can be safely conducted."

Back 471

"the stage of anesthesia in which surgery can be safely conducted."

Front 472

"an antiviral used for HIV and hepatitis C that blocks the enzyme responsible for viral replication."

Back 472

"an antiviral used for HIV and hepatitis C that blocks the enzyme responsible for viral replication."

Front 473

"a state in which cancer cells are inactive."

Back 473

Remission

Front 474

"the wave-like motion of the intestines that moves food through them."

Back 474

Peristalsis

Front 475

"drugs used for minor bleeding when sutures are not appropriate."

Back 475

Topical Hemostatics

Front 476

"blood sugar."

Back 476

Serum Glucose

Front 477

"a female sex characteristic hormone involved in ovulation prevention."

Back 477

Profesterone

Front 478

"the primary androgen."

Back 478

Testosterone