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137 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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The heart is fully formed at approximately how many weeks of pregnancy?
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10 weeks
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What size is the heart and where is it located?
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It is the size of the patients fist and is located 2/3 left midline.
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The pointy end of the heart is the ____________, which is inferiorly/posteriorly?
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apex
inferiorly |
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The heart rest on the _______________. The rounded portion of the heart is the __________.
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diaphragm
base |
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The Pericardium is also known as _________________ & ___________.
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pericardial sac and parietal pericardium
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What is the function of the pericardium?
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encloses the heart and holds it in place
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What is the thick/outer layer and the thin/inner layer known as?
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outer = fibrous layer
inner = serous |
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What is the epicardium also known as?
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visceral peritoneum
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The epicardium is a _______, transparent _______ layer of the heart wall.
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thin
outer |
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A space between serous pericardium and the epicardium which contains pericardial fluid and provides lubrication.
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Pericardial Cavity
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Abnormal amount of fluid
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pericardial effusions
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What are the layers of the heart?
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epicardium; myocardium; endocardium
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What layer covers the heart and is the same as visceral pericardium?
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epicardium
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What is the cardiac muscle tissues, the bulk of the heart and responsible for heart contractions?
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myocardium (middle)
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What is the inner layer where chambers are located? It covers the valves of the heart and is the inner lining of the myocardium.
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endocardium
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What are the heart chambers?
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RT & LT Atria
RT & LT ventricle |
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The RT & LT atria are the _____/______ chambers and _________ blood from the body.
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superior/upper
receive |
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The RT & LT ventricles are the _______/_______ chambers and _________ blood.
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inferior/lower
discharge |
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The RT atrium ________ blood from _______ parts of the body except __________.
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receives blood
parts lungs |
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Where does the RT atrium receive blood from?
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SVC
IVC Coronary Sinus |
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The Coronary Sinus __________ blood from vessels supplying the __________ of the ________.
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drains
walls heart |
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What are the main valves and what valves are they composed of?
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Atrioventricular: Tricuspid & Bicuspid or Mitral
Semilunar: Pulmonic & Aortic |
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Where is the tricuspid valve located?
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Between the RA & RV
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Where is the bicuspid or mitral valve located?
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between the LA & LV
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Where is the pulmonic valve located?
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where the pulmonary trunk leaves the RV
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Where is the aortic valve located?
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between LV & Aorta
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How many cusps does each semilunar valve have?
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three
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Valve contain _______, which are flaps on each valve.
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cusps
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Why do valves open and close?
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pressure
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What is the "pacemaker" of the heart?
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Sinoatrial Node
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What does the SA node (sinoatrial) do?
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It initiates each cardiac cycle.
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The SA node sends stimuli to the _____________, causing it to __________.
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atria
contract |
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The SA node is located in the ______.
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RA
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The AV node, is stimulated by ________________.
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Bundle of His
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What does the Bundle of His do?
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Distributes charge over medial surface of vents.
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Where does the Bundle of His charge begin?
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AV node and passes through cardiac skeleton
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The charge from the Bundle of His eventually reaches the _______________.
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Purkinji Fibers
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Muscular fibers that cause actual contraction of the ventricles.
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Purkinji Fibers
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Impulse conduction starts at ___________. Impulses then spread in all directions, thru both ___________, causing _______to contract. When impulse reaches AV node, it is relayed to _____ by way of _______ & _____, causing the ____ to contract. _____ beat follows each _____ beat.
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SA NODE
ATRIA ATRIA VENTRICLES BUNDLE OF HIS & PURKINJI FIBERS VENTRICLES VENTRICULAR ATRIAL |
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Irregular heartbeat
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arrhythmia
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Heart rate too fast.
Fetal is above ______. |
tachycardia
180 |
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Heart rate too slow.
Fetal is less than ______ |
bradycardia
100 |
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PVC =
PAC = |
premature ventricular contraction
premature atrial contraction |
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The events of one complete heartbeat consisting of systole & diastole of both atria and ventricles.
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Cardiac Cycle
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What is the active phase or contraction phase of a heartbeat and what should it be between?
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Systole
100-140 |
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What is the passive or relaxing/resting phase of a heartbeat and what should it be between?
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Diastole
60-90 |
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Where does the aorta emerge?
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From the LV
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What are the two portions of the aorta?
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thoracic (above diaphragm) and abdominal (below diaphragm)
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What are the paired branches off of the thoracic aorta?
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RT brachiocephalic artery
common carotid artery (face & brain) subclavian artery (supply to arms) |
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What are the unpaired branches of the abdominal aorta?
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celiac artery
SMA IMA |
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Heart rate too fast.
Fetal is above ______. |
tachycardia
180 |
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Heart rate too slow.
Fetal is less than ______ |
bradycardia
100 |
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PVC =
PAC = |
premature ventricular contraction
premature atrial contraction |
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The events of one complete heartbeat consisting of systole & diastole of both atria and ventricles.
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Cardiac Cycle
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What is the active phase or contraction phase of a heartbeat and what should it be between?
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Systole
100-140 |
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What is the passive or relaxing/resting phase of a heartbeat and what should it be between?
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Diastole
60-90 |
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Where does the aorta emerge?
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From the LV
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What are the two portions of the aorta?
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thoracic (above diaphragm) and abdominal (below diaphragm)
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What are the paired branches off of the thoracic aorta?
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RT brachiocephalic artery
common carotid artery (face & brain) subclavian artery (supply to arms) |
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What are the unpaired branches of the abdominal aorta?
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celiac artery
SMA IMA |
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What are the paired branches off of the abdominal aorta?
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renals
suprarenals common iliacs |
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A fibrous band of connective tissue seen at the apex of the RV.
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Moderator Band
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What receives blood from the right atrium?
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Right Ventricle
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The blood received from the right atrium to the right ventricle is _______________.
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Less Oxygenated
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Small calcification seen within the papillary muscle.
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Intracardiac echogenic focus
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What often contains an intracardiac echogenic focus?
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Left Ventrilce
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What are the 3 unique vascular shunts?
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Ductus Venosus
Foramen Ovale Ductus Arteriosus |
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What is the bypass of the fetal liver?
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Ductus Venosus
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What shunt connects the two sides of the heart?
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Foramen Ovale
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What connects the PA to the descending aorta?
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Ductus Arteriosus
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What are the two functions of the Ductus Arteriosus?
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1. connects PA to descending aorta
2. acts to bypass the non-functioning fetal lungs |
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In the fetus, there are two separate blood supplies entering the RA, what are they?
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1. oxygenated blood supply entering into the RA
2. a poorly oxygenated blood supply entering into the RA |
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Movement of blood from LV to all parts of the body and back to RA.
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Systemic Circulatory System
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Movement of blood from RV to lungs and back to LA.
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Pulmonary Circulatory System
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Movement of blood from vein of pancreas, spleen, stomach, intestines & GB into the hepatic/portal veins of liver.
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Hepato-portal Circulatory System
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What anomaly is defined as an abnormal opening between the atria?
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Atrial Septal Defect
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In the atrial septal defect, communication between the atria __________________. Prenatal diagnosis is ____________.
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persist after birth
unlikely |
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What anomaly is defined as a defect in the septum between the ventricles?
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Ventricular Septal Defect
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What is the most common of all heart anomalies?
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Ventricular Septal Defect
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Ventricular Septal Defect permits blood to be shunted between ___________.
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ventricles
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What is the combination of ASD & VSD?
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atrioventricular septal defects
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What anomaly is defined as underdeveloped left ventricle of the heart?
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Hypoplastic Heart Syndrome
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Hypoplastic Heart Syndrome has enlarged ____ due to cardiac shunting. The ____________ is absent of hypo-plastic. Aortic ________ is also seen. This is a ________ condition.
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RV
mitral valve atresia Lethal |
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What anomaly is defined as the great vessels being transposed so that aorta arises from RV and PA arises from LV?
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Transposition of the Great Vessels
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With the Transposition of the Great Vessels, the aorta arises from the _____, and the PA arises from the _____.
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RV
LV |
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What happens to cause Transposition of the Great Vessels?
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The truncus arteriosis fails to complete it's rotation during the 1st trimester.
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What anomaly is defined as having all or part of the heart located outside the thoracic cavity?
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Ectopia Cordis
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Ectopia Cordis is a defcet of the ____________ and/ or ________ and has a small ________.
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anterior wall
sternum thorax |
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What is frequently associated with ectopia cordis?
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intracardiac anomalies
omphalocele (Pentalogy of Cantrell) |
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What anomaly is defined as ASD or VSD resulting from failure of separation of the mitral and tricuspid vavles?
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Endocardial Cushions Defect
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Endocardial Cushions Defect results in __________________.
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The prominence of ventricular region of the heart
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What are the four combining elements of Tetralogy of Fallot?
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1. Large VSD
2. Aortic Valve defect 3. PA stenosis 4. RV hypertrophy (Is described as and overriding aorta.) |
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What is defined as a failure of the aorta and PA to form as a completely separate vessel?
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Truncus Arteriosis
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Truncus Arteriosis has many _________. Is seen as a _____ artery arising from the _____ of the heart and seen as a common arterial trunk that divides into ______ & ______.
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variations
base aorta PA |
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What is a stricture, or narrowing, anywhere along the lumen of the aortic arch?
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Coarctation of the Aorta
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Coarctation of the Aorta is usually seen on the __________ aorta, but before ________ and is often _________.
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descending
thoracic hereditary |
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What is inferior, or downward, displacement of the tricuspid valve?
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Ebstein's Anomaly
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Ebstein's Anomaly is a faulty implantation of the _____________. The ____ is grossly enlarged. The heartbeat is _______. Live expectancy is _____.
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Tricuspid Vavle
RA irregular normal |
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What are the most common Cardiac Tumors? Are Cardiac tumors rare?
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rhabomyomas
rhabdosarcomas rare |
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What is the most important view when scanning the fetal heart?
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four chamber
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What five things should be demonstrated in the four chamber view image?
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1. apex pointing left at 45* angle
2. Ventricles approx. same size 3. flap of foramen ovale open into left atrium 4. moderator band should be present in the RV 5. valve separate for both atria and ventricles |
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How much time does the fetus spend breathing in the 2nd and 3rd trimester?
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one third
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What two things make respiration vary?
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response to maternal activities and substance ingestion
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Fetal breathing is stimulated by _______ and decreased by _______.
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sugar
smoking |
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How are the fetal lungs best evaluated?
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by examining the cardiac axis in the 4 chamber view
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What is the reduction in lung volume resulting in small, poorly developed lungs?
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Pulmonary Hypoplasia
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What are the causes of Pulmonary Hypoplasia?
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1. prolonged ologohydramnios due to:
kidney abnormalities IUGR/PROM 2. secondary small thorax: structural abnormalities chromosomal abnormalities |
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What percentage of infants die shortly after birth from pulmonary hypoplasia?
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80%
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The accumulation of pleural fluid within the pleural cavity.
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Pleural Effusions
Hydrothorax |
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What are the causes of Pleural Effusions?
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- isolated cases
-fetal anomalies - immune or non-immune cases (Rh) - fetal CHF - chromosomal abnormalities - diaphragmatic hernia |
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What is defined as a condition characterized by the replacement of normal lung tissue with cystic masses, or an overgrowth of normal lung tissue?
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CAML
(Cystic Adenomatoid Malformation of the Lungs |
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CAML is typically unilateral or bilateral?
The cysts can be __________. |
unilateral
small to large |
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What type of CAML is small number of large cyst and has the best prognosis?
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Type I
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What type of CAML has multiple small cysts <1-2 cm and can displace the heart to the right?
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Type II
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What type of CAML has solid echogenic large mass with a medialstinal shift occuring on the enitre lung lobe causing lung compression and hydrops?
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Type III
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What is CAML associated with?
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non-immune hydrops fetalis
polyhdraminos BRA hydrocephalus cardiac anomalies |
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What is the US evaluation seen with CAML?
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non-pulsatile mass
heart displacement signs of hydrops fetalis polyhydraminos |
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Congenital lesions consisting of normal pulmonary tissue that has no connection with the bronchial tree
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Pulmonary sequestration
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what are the two types of pulmonary sequestration?
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intralobar
extralobar |
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Defined as the sharing of pleural covering of the surrounding normal lung; rarely associated with fetal anomalies.
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Intralobar pulmonary sequestration
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Defined as separate pleural covering; associated with other fetal anomalies; often associated with diaphragmatic hernia.
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Extralobar pulmonary seqestration
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In pulmonary sequestration, the lung tissue is __________ & _________. It receives blood from the __________.
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non-functioning
ectopic splenic artery |
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Detection of facial anomalies depends on__________.
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sonographer skill
fetal position amount of fluid around fetal face |
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Most fetuses with facial anomalies will also have__________ or __________________. One in _______ fetus have facial anomalies.
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polyhydramnios
maternal exposure to teratogens 600 |
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Where should you evaluate the forehead? What does this allow?
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profile view
allows diagnosis of anterior encephaloceles which arise from frontal bones |
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Caused by craniosynostosis with frontal or posterior/lateral protrusions.
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Clover Leaf Skull
Frontal Bossing |
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Clover leaf skull is most associated with __________.
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dwarfism or skeletal dysplasia and ventricular megaly
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What is associated with spina bifida, concavity of frontal bones, and banana shaped cerebellum?
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Lemon Head
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What is associated with flattening of frontal bones and occipital lobe of head?
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Strawberry Shaped Skull
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Strawberry shaped skull is due to __________________ and is typically seen with Trisomy ___.
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hypoplasia of the hindbrain
18 |
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What is the most common congenital anomaly of the face?
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Cleft Lip
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Facial clefting can be seen __________.
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unilateral and bilateral
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What does tongue protrusion suggest?
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macroglossa
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Why and when does cleft lip occur?
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Due to a failure of fusion of the primary and secondary palate.
When the lateral palatine processes fail to fuse in the midline |
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A teratoma arising from the oral cavity (from sphenoid bone or hard palate, pharynx, tongue or jaw.)
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Epignathus
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What causes impaired swallowing?
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Epignathus
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What is epignathus also known as?
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Buccal Terartoma
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