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841 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What army manual covers first aid for soldiers?
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FM 4-25.11
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What Document covers map reading and land nav
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FM 3-25.26
|
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whats a map
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A graphic representation of the earths surface.
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whats the purpose of a map
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to provide accurate info about existance, location, and distance between ground features.
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how many map scales are there and what are there names?
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3
small, medium, and large |
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Name several types of maps.
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topographic, planimetric, photomap, and terrain
|
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What is a topographic map?
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A map showing terrain features,as well as relief.
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What is a photomap?
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An aerial photograph of the earths surface.
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What is a planimetric map?
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A map that shows the horizontal positions of features.
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What is marginal information?
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Instuctions about use, size, and area
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Where is the map sheet name found?
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2 places center upper margin and right or left side lower margin
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What is a map usually named after?
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Most prominent geographical or cultuaral feature, orthe largest city on the map
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Where is a map sheet number found?
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Upper left margin
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Where is the series number found?
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Upper right and lower left margins.
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Where is the scale of the map found.
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upper left after series name, and in lower margin at the center.
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What is HIV
|
Human Immunovirus
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Where is the edition number of the map found?
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Upper margin and lower left margin
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What should be applied if bleeding continues after applying a field dressing?
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Apply a pressure dressing after applying manual pressure, and elevation of the injury.
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Where is the declination diagram found?
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Lower margin of lage scale maps
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What are two types of artificial respiration?
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mouth to mouth and back pressure arm lift
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Where are the bar scales of a map located?
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In the center of the lower margin
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What is a bar scale?
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Ruler used to convert map distance to ground distance.
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What are signs of shock?
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cool clamy skin
confusion nausea, or vomitting restlessness or nerveousness fast breathing fainting spells excesive sweating blotched or bluish skin especially around mouth or lips |
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What are the three units of measure in a bar scale?
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meters, staute miles, nautical miles.
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When should a casualty not be placed in the shock position?
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When there is a head wound, abdominal injury, or unsplinted fracture leg/legs
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Where is the contour interval note found?
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Below the bar scales in middle of lower margin
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What is the treatment for shock?
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move to cover, lay on back, elevate legs, loosen clothing at waist, ankles, and feet.prevent chilling or overheating.keep them calm
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What is a contour interval?
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Vertical distance of the space between contour lines.
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Where is the legend of a map found?
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Lower left margin
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What is in a map legend?
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symbols representing topographic features
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How many colors does a map usually have? What are the colors?
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5
black, blue, green, brown, red |
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What do the colors of a map stand for?
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black- man made features
blue- water green- vegetation brown- all relief features and elevation |
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What is longitude?
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A meaure of distance east or west of the prime meridian
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What is the correct method of artificial respiration used during an NBC attack, and why.
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The back pressure arm lift method because during an NBC attack both of you will be masked.
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In what city is the prime meridian?
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Greenwhich, England
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When is a casualtys clothing not removed in order to expose a wound?
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When the clothing is stuck to the wound or in an NBC environment.
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In which direction are lines of longitude drawn?
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NORTH AND SOUTH
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Lines of longitude are also known as what?
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meridians
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What is latitude?
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The distance north or south of the equator
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What is a heat injury?
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General dehydration brought on by loss of water and salt through activity in the heat.
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What is the starting point for latitude?
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The equator
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What are three categories of heat injuries?
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cramps, exaution, and stroke
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Lines of latitude are also known as what
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parallels
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Describe the signs of heat cramps
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muscle cramps of the legs, arms, and abdomen, excessive sweating.
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What type of map does the us military use?
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The universal transverse mercator grid. UTM
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Describe the treatment of heat cramps.
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move casualty in shade, loosen clothing and give cool water.
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What portion of the world is the UTM designed for?
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lat 84 north and lat 80 degrees south
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Name the signs and symtpoms of heat exaution.
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Pale moist and cool clamy skin
headache, muscle cramps,excessive sweating, weakness, nausea, dizziness, cramps, urge to defecate, chills, rapid breathing, confusion, tingling of hands and feet. |
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What is basic rule for finding coordinates on a map?
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Beginning at left read right and up
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How should heat exhaution be treated?
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move to a cool, shaded area, loosen any tight clothing, have them drink cool water, elevate legs and monitor.
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How close will you get to a location with a 8 digit grid coordinate.
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within 10 meters
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Describe the signs and symptoms of heat stroke.
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loss of sweat, skin is dry and hot, fast pulse, headache, dizziness, nausea, vomitting, confusion, weakness, and seizures.
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what information is used to make a map useful.
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marginal data
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How should heat stroke be treated?
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immerse in the coldest water available or remove the clothing and wet entire body while fanning, transport to the nearest medical facility.
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What is the difference between an aerial photograph and a photomap?
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A photomap is a reproduction of an aerial photograph.
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What are the 2 most common types of fractures?
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Open and closed
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What is a map overlay and what is it on?
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a sheet of clear or transparent paper with information plotted on it at the same scale as the map or aerial photograph.
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What is a map overlay used for?
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shows current information about friendly and enemy troop positions, as well as any pepertinent data a leader may need to know about a certain area.
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Name the 3 types of contour lines.
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index, supplementary, and intermediate.
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How does the index contour line differ from the other contour lines.
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Index lines are heavier, have an elevation number at some point along the line, and occur every fifth line.
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What is shock and why is it dangerous?
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Shock is inadequet blood flow to the vital organs and tissues. If shock is uncorrected it may result in death.
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What is an azimuth
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It is a direction a horizontal angle which is measured in degrees or mils from the north
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What does the key word COLD mean in cold weather prevention?
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C-keep it clean
O-Avoid overheating L-wear loose clothing in layers D-keep it dry |
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What is a back azimuth
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An azimuth that is 180 degrees in reverse of a given azimuth
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Name 5 types of cold and wet weather injuries.
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Frostbite, hypothermia, immersion foot/trench foot, chilblain, snow blindness
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How is a back azimuth found
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Add or subtract 180 degrees
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Describe the signs and symptoms of frostbite.
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Loss of sensation or numb feeling.
Sudden whitinening of the skin in the affected area, followed by a momentary tingling feeling. Redness of the skin in light skinned soldiers; grayish coloring in dark skinned soldiers. Blisters Swollen/and or tender areas Loss of previous feeling of pain Pale, yellowish, waxy looking skin. Frozen area that feels solid or wooden to the touch. |
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What is resection
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Finding your known position by using the back azimuth or two known points.
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What is the treatment for frostbite.
|
Warm the area
face ears or nose cover with hands or buddys hands. hands- place in clothing close to body and clothing. feet- place in clothing and closee to body of another soldier Loosen or remove tight clothing and jewelry Cover withblanket or dry material. |
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What is intersection?
|
Finding an unknown point by shooting an azimuth to it from two known points the location is where the lines of the azimuth intersect.
|
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What precautions should b followed with frostbite.
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Dont soak it
Dont rub it with snow Dont expose it to any extreme heat source. Dont rub or move the fostbitten part in anyway. Dont allow them to smoke or drink alcohol. Do not treat seriously frostbitten areas if casualty needs to walk or travel to recieve further treatment. |
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Name the 5 major terrain features on a map.
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hill, ridge, valley, saddle, and depression
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What are the minor terrain features
|
draw spur cliff cut fill
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What is the 2 types of hypothermia.
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Mild and severe
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Name some types of compasses
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Lensatic, artillery, wrist/pocket and protractor
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Describe the symptoms of hypothermia
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cold, shivering stops but temp is low, conciousness altered, uncoordinated movement, shock and coma may be set,
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What are the 2 most common compasses used in the army
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Lensatic and artillery
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What is the treatment for hypothermia
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Rewarm the body evenly with a heat source.
Keep dry and protect from elemets. Warm liquids given gradually Prepare to start basic life support. Seek medical help immediately |
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How many scales are on the lensatic compass.
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2 one in mils one in degrees
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What are the signs and symptoms of immersion foot.
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Affected parts are cold numb and painless. Parts may become hot with sharp shooting pain. In advanced stages skin is pale with a bluish tint and pulse decreases. Blistering swelling heat and hemoraging maay occur gangrene may follow.
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How many mils are on a compass
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6400
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How is trench foot and immersion foot acquired?
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It results from fairly long expose of the feet to wet and cold. Inactive feet in wet or damp socks and boots or tightly laced boots impair circulation and can cause it
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What branch of the army uses mils
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The artillery
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How is tranch foot immersion foot treated?
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rewarm the injury gradually by exposing it to warm air.
Do not massage it Do not moisten the skin Do not apply heat or ice protect the affected area from further trauma. Keep Dry and avoid walking Seek medical treatment |
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The artillery compass is also known as what kind of compass.
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An m2 compass
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What are the symptoms of chilblain.
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The affected areas are red hot swollen tender and itchy. Continued exposures will lead to blisters or bleeding skin lesions.
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Describe the treatmet for chilblain.
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The affected area usually responds to locally applied rewarming with body heat
Dont rub or massage the area. |
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What is snow blindness
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The affect that glare from an icefield or snowfiled has on the eyes
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Why does a bezel click?
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It was designed as an aid to determin degrees in the night
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What are the symptoms of snow blindness
|
A sensation of grit or sand in the eyes, pain in and over the eyes which feels worse when the eyeball moves.
Also watering, redness, headache,and pain on exposure to light |
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What are two characteristic of the lensatic compass that makes it able to use at night
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Luminous sighting dots, luminous magnetc arrow, short luminous line, click of the bezel ring, illuminous east and west
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Define magnetic declination
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variation from true north to magnetic north. Declination variation is found in diagram at bottom margin of map
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What is a bench mark?
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a surveyors sign which indicates elevation
|
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How would you hold a lensatic compass?
|
Level and firm away from electrical and metal interferece
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What is the best one man carry that can be used for transporting a casualty long distance?
|
pistol belt carry
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Describe the fastest way to orient a map
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place a compass on a mapalign with grid lines insuring compasses needle points north
|
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Describe the three degrees of burns
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1-reddining skin
2-blistering 3-charred flesh |
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How would you orient a map without a compass?
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Align it with observabe terrain features
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What is the most important thing to do in case of serious burn
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keep it clean and apply dry sterile dressing.
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Name the quadrants of a map
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northeast northwest southeast southwest
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What 3 elements are necessary for dead recogning in land nav
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known starting point, distance and azimuth
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What is a flot
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forward line of own troops
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What colors are used in a mapoverlay and what do they mean
|
blk-boundaries
blue-friendlys red-enemy yellow-contaminated green-enginees obstacles |
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Should large amounts of water be given to a burn victim
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No one qrt per hr
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when colors are not used what symbol is used for enemy forces
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double lines
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what size unit is indicated by three dots?
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a platoon or detachment
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What army manual covers drill and ceremony
|
FM 3-21.5
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What is the first aid for snake bites?
|
Do not cut open or suck bite
Bite on arm or legs:place constricting bands above and below the bite Keep injury below heart level Keep them quiet Wash with some and water no ointment Nothing by mouth Move jewelry from affected limb identify snake or kill it for identification |
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FM 3-21.5 is descended from what document?
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The blue book
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What is the best position for a casualty with a stomach wound
|
on back with knees flexed
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Who wrote the blue book
|
Baron Freidrich von Steuban
|
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What is the first aid for bee stings
|
Remove the stinger
wash the area apply ice or freeze pack be prepared to do basic life saving procedures, seek medical help |
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Who was freidrich von stueban?
|
prussian former staff officer for Fredrick the Great, who was hired by general george washington
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When are snakes most active
|
from twilight to daylight
|
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Whats the purpose of drill
|
Enable commander to move unit orderly and in a timely manner.
promotes, dicipline, temwork, pride, confidence, and attention to detail |
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Whats the purpose of ceremonies
|
adds color and pageantry to military life preserves tradion and espirit de corps
|
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What are three methods of teaching drill
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step by step
talk through by the numbers |
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What are the symptoms of skin reactions to poison ivy, poison sumac or poison oak?
|
redness, swelling, itching,rashes or blisters, burning sensations and general headache or fever.
|
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how are poison oak, poison ivy, and poison sumac treated?
|
expose area
clean rubbing alcohol calamine lotion avoid dressing seek medical help |
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What does AIDS stand for
|
Aquired immunodeficiency syndrome
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describe a rank
|
a line one element in depth
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What causes aids?
|
The HIV virus
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what is a file?
|
a column having a front of one element
|
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Give 2 examples of pit vipers.
|
Rattlesnakes, and copperheads
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What is Interval
|
Lateral distance between elements.
|
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Define distance
|
The space between elements either in column or file.
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Decribe how arms are swung while marching
|
9 to the front 6 to the rear
|
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Describe a drill command
|
oral order of leader or commander.
|
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How many steps per min in quick time march
|
120
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How many steps per minute in double time march
|
180
|
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Which person in a platoon is never out of step?
|
The platoon guide or leader
|
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Who is responsible for the appearance and training of the unit color gaurd
|
CSM
|
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What are the 2 types of platoon formation
|
column and line
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Descibe what an element is
|
Any unit serving as part of a bigger unit
|
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Where is the head of an element
|
The leading element of a column
|
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What is the post of a formation?
|
A correct place that an officer or NCO will stand in a prescribed formation
|
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What is the depth of a formation
|
Its the disance from the front to the rear, including front and rear elements
|
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What is a flank?
|
The right or left side of a formation
|
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What is a cordon?
|
A line of soldiers to honor a dignity upon enetering or exiting from a place or vehicle
|
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What side of the body are sabers and swords worn
|
the left side
|
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who wears sabers
|
officers while participating in ceremonies
|
|
What are the 4 prescribed formation of a company
|
company in line/platoon in line
company and platoon in column company in column platoon in line company mass formation |
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Does everbody turn there head on eyes right?
|
no. right file remains looking forward
|
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what command brings you back to attention from route step march
|
quick time march
|
|
What does cover mean?
|
elements dress directly behind eachother
|
|
What type of squad formation is used when counting off
|
Line or column
|
|
What date was the trade center attacked by al queda
|
tuesday, september 11 2001
|
|
How many aircrafts were hijacked on 9/11
|
4
|
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On what date did the us invade Afganistan starting operation enduring freedom?
|
sunday oct 7 2001
|
|
On what date did the us invade Iraq beginning operation Iraqi freedom
|
wed march 19th 2003
|
|
What does AER stand for?
|
Army Emergency Relief
|
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What is AER about?
|
Non profit organization with the sole purpose of helping army personnel and their families
|
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What publication covers AER
|
AR 930-4
|
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How does the AER help?
|
provide money through no-interest loans, grants, or both
|
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Will AER help retired members
|
yes and that of deceased soldiers as well
|
|
What is the AER slogan
|
Helping the army take care of its own
|
|
What does AEREAP stand for?
|
Army Emergency Relief Educational Assistance Program
|
|
What does the AEREAP do?
|
provides college education money to unmarried dependents of army personnel
|
|
Describe what SEAP is all about
|
Spouse Education Assistance Program for eduaction assistance to army spouses of active, retired, or deceased soldiers
|
|
What is AERS only scholarship program
|
MJ James Ursano Scholarship fund
|
|
What is Tricare?
|
Health care program for all service members
|
|
What are the 3 tricare options
|
Prime, standard, and extra
|
|
What is Tricare standard?
|
Former champus program and the most expensive tricare program. Have a higher co pay and can see civilian doctors
|
|
Are in laws or parents of military personell eligible for Tricare
|
NO
|
|
Where does AER get its money?
|
voluntary tax deductible contributions
|
|
What is the motto of ACS
|
Self help service and stability
|
|
Name 6 army programs available to army personell and retired service members
|
TRICARE, ACS, Red Cross, AER, ADAPCP, Morale Welfare and Recreation activities(MWR),
|
|
What does DEERS stand for
|
Defense Enrollment Eligibilty Reporting System
|
|
Describe the purpose of DEERS
|
Designed to determine eligible military dependents and secure ID cards for them
|
|
What steps are taken if a person needs AER assistance
|
Complete DA 1103
LES |
|
What are some services Red Cross provides?
|
disaster assistance, emergency financial assistance, emergency communication between family and soldier, reporting service for emergency leave purpose, counsling for personel and family problems
|
|
What are some activities red cross provides
|
blood donation, cpr course, first aid and water safety
|
|
How does the Red Cross usually help the soldier?
|
Red cross should know if a relative beomes terminally ill or dies. They will contact the proper change of comand for Emergency leave.
|
|
what is the manual for ware and apperance of army uniforms
|
fm 670-1
|
|
what reg discribes the policies and procedures for us army awards
|
ar 600-8-22,military arwards
|
|
what is the standard for female hair apperance
|
hair should not extend below bottom edge of collar, hair still will not interfear with the wearing of head gear and protective mask,hair will not fall over the eye brows, berrets pins and clips must be stransperant to hair color
|
|
discribe what a appurtenance is
|
divices worn on ribbons to denote additional awards,or distinguished characteristics of the award
|
|
can any soldier wheres keys for belt or belt loops
|
no, only the armoror or charge of couters
|
|
what are some types of appurtenence
|
oak leaf clusters, numerals, v devices, clasps, survice stars,
|
|
explains the reg regarding the waring of the female knee length skirt or dress
|
skirt and dress length will not be more than one inch above or to inches below the crease in the back of the knee
|
|
what form is formaly used for recommending a soldier for an award
|
da form 638-1
|
|
how should the service strip be worn
|
bottom half left sleeve center four inches from the bottom
|
|
how many personel were awarded the congressional medal of honor for there actions in operation iraqi freedom or operation enduring freedom since sept 9 2001
|
5 as march 31 2008
|
|
what item of military clothing can be worn with civilian clothes
|
all weather coat, low quarters, wind breaker
|
|
what is the time limit for recomendation of an award or decoration
|
2 years from the act
|
|
how are service ribbons worn on the female uniform
|
left side, centered with the bottom row, parellel with the botton edge of name plate, on the coats of the army green classic, white and blue uniform and maternity tunic.
|
|
what is the time limit for recomendation of a purple heart award
|
3 years
|
|
how should the name plate be place on the female class a uniform
|
center horizontaly on the right between 1 and 2 inches above the top button
|
|
what is the armies highest war time metal
|
medal of honor
|
|
if authorized by medical profile what is the mazimum length the beart may grow
|
1/4 of an inch
|
|
who approves the good conduct medel
|
company comander
|
|
how should insignia disk be worn on female class a uniforms
|
center the bottom of the disk on the collar 5/8 inch up form the notch the center line of the insinia must be parellel to the inside edge of the label
|
|
what types of head gear may be worn the green dress uniform
|
service cap and the garison cap
|
|
what is the highest peace time award givin by the army
|
distinguished service medal
|
|
how many pine on special skill badges may be worn on the acu
|
5
|
|
who can approve a recomindation for a army achevment medal
|
lt colonel and above
|
|
what is the correct length of long sleeve shirts
|
the sleeve should reach the center of the wrist bone
|
|
name a medal not awarded to general officers
|
commendation medal,joint servic acheivement medal, army acheivement metal
|
|
what is the proper sleeve lenght of uniform coats and jackets
|
the sleeve will be one inch below the wrist bone
|
|
who can approve a recomendation for an army comindation medal
|
colonel and above
|
|
what is the proper sleeve lengh of the black allweather coat
|
half inch longer than the service coat
|
|
what is ar 600-8-22 definition of valor
|
heroism performed under combat conditions
|
|
how long must the black all weather coat be for males
|
the bottom of the coat will reach to a point 1 1/2 inches below the midpoint of the knee
|
|
what is ar 600-8-22 definition of herosim
|
extrem courage deminstrated in attaning a noble end
|
|
what is a brassard
|
a badge or piece of cloth worn aroun the left sleeve of the outer garmet
|
|
what is ar 600-8-22 definition of key individual
|
a person who is occupying a position that is indispinalbe to a organization, activity, are project
|
|
discribe the proper fit of trousers
|
trousers should be worn with the lower edge of the wast band at the top of the hip bone, plus or minus 1/2 inch. the front crease will reach to the top of the instep and be cut diagonally to a point about mid way between the top of the heel and the top of the standard shoe in the back.
|
|
discribe the difference between decorations and awards
|
decoration are given to individuals and awards are given to individuals and units
|
|
discribe the fit of slacks
|
slacks must be fitted and worn so that the center of the waist band is at the natural waist line
|
|
name some types of unit awards
|
presidential unit citation,joint meritorious unit award, valorous unit award,
|
|
discribe the wearing of special skills taps
|
1/2 inch below the right shoulder sem on class a uniform
|
|
how many special skill tab can be worn with the army uniform
|
2
|
|
what appurtenance denotes more than one good conduct medal
|
the good conduct medal clasp
|
|
how is the name plate worn with the black pull over sweater
|
will be worn 1/2 above the bottom of the patch
|
|
who was the only female to receive the congressional medal of honor
|
doctor mary edward walker in 1865
|
|
how is distinctive unit insignia worn with the black pull over sweater
|
centered left to right, top to bottom of name plate
|
|
in what year did african americans finaly recieve the congressional medal of honor reconition for there heroism in ww2
|
jan 1997
|
|
how are special skill and combat badges worn on the male class a uniform
|
centered 1/4 inch above the pocket top or ribons
|
|
how many african americans were awarded the congressional medal of honor for there actions during ww2
|
7
|
|
what does the phrase ta50 stand for
|
cta50-900,common table of allowances
|
|
where balck americans awared the congressional medal of honor during the civil war
|
yes
|
|
how are unit awards worn on female class a uniforms
|
centered on the right of the uniform bottom edge 1/2 inch above the top edge of the name plate
|
|
how many blacks served in the civil war
|
200/000 served 38,000 were killed
|
|
when does a soldier salute inside a building
|
when he is called to report, when presenting honors, or reporting for pay
|
|
what is the army publication regarding field sanitation
|
fm 21-10
|
|
what two songs are played at retreat
|
retreat and too the colors
|
|
what is sanitation
|
to maintain a clean inviroment and saft guard food and water to control insects pest and rodents
|
|
discribe the positions soldiers should assume when retreat is played
|
in formation parade rest, otherwise attention
|
|
what is military sanitation
|
keep yourself,equipment, and area of operations clean
|
|
does and officer always have to salute to and enlisted person
|
yes, except at pay call
|
|
what are some deceases carried by flies
|
typhoid, cholera,dysentery,
|
|
who enters a military vehicle first
|
the junior member others follow in inverse order
|
|
what are some deceases carried by mosquetos
|
malaria, yellow fever,encephalitis,
|
|
at what distance is an officer saluted
|
6 paces and more
|
|
the army has grouped 5 communicable deceases what are they
|
insect born, intestinal,resperatory,venereal, misc
|
|
what is retreat
|
retreat is the ceremony of honoring the flag as it is lowered
|
|
define a vector
|
any organism that can carry a disease causing virus
|
|
what is palatable
|
Water that taste clean but may be unsafe
|
|
what are two ways to purify water
|
iodine tablets and boiling
|
|
who is entitled to the saluted
|
commissioned officers,warrant offices,and officers of allied nations
|
|
what are the five f in field sanitation
|
flys, fingers,food,feces,fluid
|
|
water that isnt properly treated can spread what diseases
|
common diarrhea,dysentery, cholera, typhoid,paratyphoid fever,
|
|
discribe the origin of the salute.
|
traced back to early roman times the right hand was raises to show no weapons where carried, in medevil times knights lifted there visors so they may be reconized
|
|
where should a latrine be located in relation to a mess hall
|
down hill or down stream at least 100 meters
|
|
where is the one place a person under arms removes head gear
|
in a chapel
|
|
what is the best protections against decease or biological contamination
|
good personal hygeine and immunization
|
|
who wrote the star spangled banner
|
francis scott key, on 14 sept 1814 during the british bonbardment of fort mchenry while he was held as a pow
|
|
what are some methods of human waste disposal
|
urine soak pitts,stradle trinch,pail latrines,deep pitt,bore hole latrines,burn out latrines,mound latrines
|
|
discribe the original intent of retreat
|
its purpose was to notify sentries to start challenging until sunrise
|
|
what is artificial immunity
|
resistance ro deceased obtained threw immunization
|
|
what should you do if you are riding in a military vehicle and you see an officer
|
the front right hand passenger should salute
|
|
give the dimensions of a straddle trench
|
one foot wide four foot long 2 1/2 feet deep
|
|
what bugal call is the longest
|
the tatoo 28 bars long
|
|
who is responsibly for the health of the unit
|
the commander
|
|
why are the boots revearsed in the stirrups of the riderless black horse in a military funeral procession
|
simbolizes that the deceased is an honored fallen warrior
|
|
what document assist leaders in the development in execution of realistic traing programs
|
fm 7-1
|
|
discribe when and what is the tattoo
|
tattoo is the bugle call at night that means lights out and quite in the barracks
|
|
what is battle focused traing
|
it is a concept used to derive peace time traing requirments from wartime missions
|
|
what is military courtesy
|
it is the respect and consideration shown to others
|
|
fm 7-0 is a close relitive to what military manual
|
fm 7-1
|
|
discribe the origin of to the colors
|
it is the old calvery call to the standard in us from about 1835
|
|
what is the title of fm 7-0
|
training the force
|
|
what is the difference in a saluted when reporting or rendering and when in formation
|
when one is reporting or rendering courtesy one should turn the head and eyes toward the person addressed
|
|
what does metl stand for
|
mission- essential-task-list
|
|
at what time is a gun salute rendered to the united states on the forth of 4 july
|
at 1200 hours
|
|
define metl
|
a collection of crutial jobs or task that must be successfully performed if an organization is accomplish its war time mission
|
|
what is the reason for the gun salute on the forth of july
|
it is rendered in commemoration of the decloration of independants
|
|
who is the head trainer
|
the commander
|
|
how many guns are fired in commemoration of the declaration of indepents on the 4 july
|
equal to the number of states in the union at that time
|
|
what are the two types of training assessments in bft
|
testing and arteps
|
|
when are even numbered gun saluted rendered to persons
|
guns saluteds in honor of individuals are always odd
|
|
what is the lowest level unit to have metl
|
a company
|
|
is it necessary to stand at attition when symbolic songs such as a devision song school song state song are played
|
yes
|
|
discribe multiechelon training
|
the simultaneous conduct of different exercise's by a unit or the training of different task by elements of the unit
|
|
is head gear alwas removed when indoors and unharmed
|
yes
|
|
what are precombat checks
|
they detailed final checks that all units conduct before and durning combat operations
|
|
discribe preexecution checkes
|
informal planing and detailed coordination conducted during preparation for traing
|
|
what are the four types of evaluations
|
informal, formal,internal,external
|
|
what army publication covers equal opportunity
|
600-20
|
|
what is an infomal evaluation
|
used at battalion level and below,conduct by all leaders in the chain of command,continous,provides immediate feedback or training proficiency
|
|
discribre the eo policy of the army
|
all soldiers will be treated the same without regard for race color religion gender or national origin, will be provided an environment free of sexual harassment
|
|
discribe the elements of a formal evaluation
|
usaully schedualed on long range or short range calender, some times unannounced, such as edre
|
|
what is fraternization
|
it is association with someone or some thing
|
|
what is an internal evaulation
|
it is a planned resourced and conducted by the unit undergoing the evaulation
|
|
discribe some types of fraternization prohibited by the army eo policies
|
inappropriate relations between officers and enlisted,soldiers of different rankes, permanent party soldiers and iet, iat, military school students
|
|
discribe a external evaluation
|
usually planned resourced and conducted by the head quarters to levels abouve the unit being evaluated
|
|
does a unit have to let a soldiers attend religious services
|
yes, unless military duty is a necessity
|
|
why is aar not a critique
|
it does not determine the success or failure of a particular event
|
|
what is affirmative action
|
planned and positive movement to identify and eliminate discriminatory practices of any kind past or present
|
|
what are three types of training plans
|
long range, short range, near term
|
|
discribe the objective of the army affirmative action plan
|
army requires all personel be treated according to the merit, fittness, capability and job/related facors and not on race color sex age origin religion are irrelevant
|
|
how much time does a long range plan cover
|
1 year and up
|
|
what army publication specifically prohibits the formation of military labor unions
|
ar 600-20- eo
|
|
when is a battalion long range plan posted
|
4 months prior to the fiscal year
|
|
when can soldiers hold public office
|
when they are not on active duty, extended active duty, or a tour of ead a soldier agreed to perform as a condition for receiving traing or schooling at goverment expence
|
|
how much time does short range plan cover
|
3 month or 1/4 of the year
|
|
when is a short range plan published
|
3 months prior to the start of the plan
|
|
what level unit makes short range plan
|
battalion or higher
|
|
what length of time is covered in a near term plan
|
6 to 8 weeks
|
|
what level unit makes near term plan
|
battalion and lower
|
|
when is a nearterm plan published
|
4 to 6 weeks prior to execution
|
|
discribe the requirments for training exexution
|
adequate preparation,effective presintation, practice, evaluation
|
|
what are the steps of the training ladder
|
collective training, leader training, individual training
|
|
what publication covers the code of conduct
|
ar 350-30
|
|
what is the code of conduct
|
it a minimum set of guid lines and standards americans are required to maintain when captured by the enemy
|
|
when was the code of conduct established
|
aug17 1955, by presedent eisenhower
|
|
what is the first sentence of the code of conduct
|
iam an american, fighting in the forces which guard my country and our why of life
|
|
are you required to try and escape as a pow under the code of conduct
|
yes, acourding to article 3
|
|
what is the only information you are required to give as a pow
|
name, rank, ss, date of birth
|
|
when was the code of conduct amended
|
may 1998
|
|
What does ASAP stand for?
|
Army Substance Abuse Program
(AR 600-85 Mar 2006) |
|
What is the mission of ASAP?
|
The ASAP’s mission is to strengthen the overall fitness and effectiveness of the Army’s total
workforce and to enhance the combat readiness of its Soldiers. |
|
What are the objectives of ASAP?
|
Increase individual fitness and overall unit readiness.
Provide services, which are adequate and responsive to the needs of the total workforce and emphasize alcohol and other drug abuse deterrence, prevention, education and treatment. Implement alcohol and other drug risk reduction and prevention strategies that respond to potential problems before they jeopardize readiness, productivity and careers. Restore to duty those substance-impaired Soldiers who have the potential for continued military service. Provide effective alcohol and other drug abuse prevention and education at all levels of command, and encourage commanders to provide alcohol and drug-free leisure activities. Ensure all military and civilian personnel assigned to ASAP staff are appropriately trained and experienced to accomplish their mission. Achieve maximum productivity and reduce absenteeism and attrition among DA civilian employees by reducing the effects of the abuse of alcohol and other drugs. Improve readiness by extending services to the total Army. Ensure quality customer service. |
|
What is meant by deglamorization of alcohol?
|
Personnel will not promote any function glamorizing the use of alcohol through drinking contests,
games, initiations, or the awarding of alcoholic beverages as prizes in contests. |
|
What army Regulation covers ASAP?
|
AR 600-85
|
|
Is ASAP participation mandatory for Individuals that are command referred?
|
ASAP participation is mandatory for all Soldiers who are command referred. Failure to attend a
mandatory counseling session may constitute a violation of Article 86 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ). |
|
What will happen to Soldiers who fail to participate in or fail to respond successfully to
rehabilitation? |
Soldiers who fail to participate adequately in, or to respond successfully to, rehabilitation will be
processed for administrative separation and not be provided another opportunity for rehabilitation except under the most extraordinary circumstances, as determined by the CD in consultation with the unit commander |
|
What are the ways that Soldiers can be identified as having a substance abuse problem?
|
Voluntary (self-identification)
Commander / Supervisor Identification Biochemical Identification Medical Identification Investigation and or Apprehension |
|
What are the objectives of rehabilitation with ASAP?
|
Return Soldiers to full duty as soon as possible.
Identify Soldiers who cannot be rehabilitated within the scope of this regulation and to advise their unit commanders. Assist and refer Soldiers who cannot be rehabilitated in the ASAP to a treatment facility in the vicinity where they reside after discharge from the Army. Help resolve alcohol and other drug abuse problems in the family, with the ultimate goal of enabling the Soldier to perform more effectively. |
|
What are the objectives of bio-chemical testing (also called a urinalysis)?
|
The objectives of Army’s Biochemical Testing Program are to:
Deter Soldiers, including those members on initial entry on AD after enlistment or appointment, from abusing drugs (including illegal drugs, other illicit substances, and prescribed medication). Facilitate early identification of alcohol and/or other drug abuse. Enable commanders to assess the security, military fitness, good order and discipline of their units, and to use information obtained to take appropriate action (for example, UCMJ, administrative, or other actions, including referral to the ASAP counseling center for screening, evaluation, and possible treatment). Monitor rehabilitation of those enrolled for alcohol and/or other drug abuse. Collect data on the prevalence of alcohol and/or other drug abuse within the Army |
|
Commanders may direct drug testing under what conditions?
|
Unit inspections. (either the entire or part of a unit)
Search and seizures/probable cause. Competence for Duty. Rehabilitation. Mishap or Safety Inspection. Consent (specimen may be provided voluntarily by a Soldier). New Entrant. Medical. |
|
All ASAP referrals are accomplished by the Commander or 1SG using what form?
|
da 8003 refferral form
|
|
Can Soldiers that are enrolled in an ASAP rehabilitation program reenlist?
|
no
|
|
Will Soldiers who are command referred to ASAP be flagged?
|
yes
|
|
What does ACS stand for?
|
Army Community Service
|
|
What does the ACS symbol represent?
|
The heart= giving, the cross= help, the gyroscope= stability
|
|
What is the ACS mission statement?
|
The mission of the ACS center is to—
Facilitate commander’s ability to provide comprehensive, coordinated, and responsive services that support readiness of soldiers, civilian employees and their families. Maximize technology and resources, adapt to unique installation requirements, eliminate duplication in service delivery, and measure service effectiveness |
|
What army reg covers acs?
|
ar 608-1
|
|
For the most part how is ACS staffed?
|
By volunteers
|
|
Who qualifies for ACS?
|
All active duty and retired military personnel and their family members, if otherwise eligible for
services. Members of the Army National Guard and U.S. Army Reserve when on active duty and their family members, if otherwise eligible for services. Army appropriated fund (APF) and non-appropriated fund (NAF) employees and their family members, if otherwise eligible for services. Family members of prisoners of war or personnel missing in action, if otherwise eligible for services. Surviving family members of military personnel who died while on active duty, if otherwise eligible for services. In overseas commands, the Commander will determine eligibility according to international treaties and agreements. |
|
What can you do to help out ACS?
|
Donate Staple foodstuff to the food lockers, useable household goods, and volunteer your time.
|
|
What army reg covers ACES?
|
621-5
|
|
What army reg covers Army Learning Centers?
|
621-6
|
|
What are the goals of ACES?
|
Develop confident, competent leaders.
Support the enlistment, retention, and transition of Soldiers. Provide self-development opportunities for Soldiers and adult family members. Provide self-development opportunities for DACs. Provide self-development opportunities for DAC ACES professional and support staff. |
|
What does TABE stand for?
|
Test of Adult Basic Education
|
|
How much of your tuition does the tuition assistance grant pay?
|
100%
|
|
Name some federal financial aid programs available to Soldiers through ACES
|
Pell Grant
Perkins Loans Guaranteed Student Loans |
|
What are some of the basic services offered by the Army Continuing Education Center?
|
1. Basic Skills Education Program (BSEP)
2. Advanced Skills Education Program (ASEP) 3. High School Completion Program 4. Service members Opportunity Colleges Army Degrees (SOCAD) 5. Veteran's Educational Assistance Program (VEAP)/Montgomery G.I. Bill (MGIB) 6. Skill Recognition Programs 7. Command Language Programs (Head start - Gateway) 8. Defense Activity for Non-Traditional Education Support (DANTES) 9. Education Counseling Services 10. Learning Resource Centers |
|
What Soldier development programs does ACES provide?
|
1. Functional Academic Skills Training (FAST).
2. High School Completion Program. 3. English as a Second Language (ESL) 4. Mission related Language (Head start and Gateway). 5. Mission required Language. 6. MOS Improvement Training (MOSIT). |
|
What does DANTES stand for?
|
Defense Activity for Non-Traditional Education Support
|
|
What does DANTES do?
|
What does DANTES do?
DANTES provides standardized testing services free to military personnel. Family members and civilians may take DANTES tests but must pay for each test taken. |
|
Soldiers with a GT score of less than 110 should be referred to what?
|
BSEP - Soldiers with a GT less than 100 are normally automatically eligible. Soldiers with a GT
between 100 and 110 may be command referred. |
|
Soldiers who begin their active service after what date are eligible to receive the new GI Bill?
|
July 1985, but they are required to pay $100 per month for 12 months
|
|
What does SOC stand for?
|
Service members Opportunity Colleges
|
|
What does SOCAD stand for?
|
Service members Opportunity College Army Degrees
|
|
AER closely coordinates with what other organization?
|
Red Cross
|
|
How are monetary contributions made to AER?
|
Cash, check or allotment
|
|
When is the AER annual fund campaign held army-wide?
|
March 01 through May 15
|
|
What is the dollar limit on AER loans?
|
There is no dollar limit. AER Assistance will meet your emergency need
|
|
Failure to repay an AER loan (unless repayment would cause undo hardship) will cause the
Soldier’s name to be placed on an AER restricted list which is disseminated Army-wide. What does this mean for the Soldier? |
Individuals who appear on this list will not be approved for AER assistance without the specific
prior approval of HQ AER. |
|
The minimum amount that can be contributed to AER through allotment is what amount?
|
1 dollar a month for 3 months
|
|
What is the purpose of the Army Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Program?
|
The Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Program reinforces the Army’s commitment to
eliminate incidents of sexual assault through a comprehensive policy that centers on awareness and prevention, training and education, victim advocacy, response, reporting, and accountability. |
|
The Army's policy on Army Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Program applies where
and when? |
Both on and off post and during duty and non-duty hours.
To working, living, and recreational environments (including both on- and off-post housing). |
|
What are the goals of the Army Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Program?
|
Create a climate that minimizes sexual assault incidents, which impact Army personnel, Army
civilians, and family members, and, if an incident should occur, ensure that victims and subjects are treated according to Army policy. Create a climate that encourages victims to report incidents of sexual assault without fear. Establish sexual assault prevention training and awareness programs to educate Soldiers. Ensure sensitive and comprehensive treatment to restore victims’ health and well-being. Ensure leaders understand their roles and responsibilities regarding response to sexual assault victims, thoroughly investigate allegations of sexual assault, and take appropriate administrative and disciplinary action. |
|
Define sexual assault
|
Sexual assault is a crime defined as intentional sexual contact, characterized by use of force,
physical threat or abuse of authority or when the victim does not or cannot consent. |
|
Sexual assault includes what acts?
|
Rape
Nonconsensual Sodomy (oral or anal sex) Indecent Assault (unwanted, inappropriate sexual contact or fondling) Attempts to commit these acts |
|
More than half of sexual assault offenses include what?
|
Alcohol
|
|
Prevention of sexual harassment is whose responsibility
|
Commander
|
|
Define the following terms as they apply to the Army Sexual Assault Prevention and Response
Program: victim, alleged perpetrator, and perpetrator. |
Victim - One who has been sexually assaulted.
Alleged Perpetrator - One who has been accused of committing a crime (subject). Perpetrator - One who has committed a crime (offender). |
|
What is the Army’s policy on sexual assault?
|
Sexual assault is a criminal offense that has no place in the Army. It degrades mission readiness
by devastating the Army’s ability to work effectively as a team. Every Soldier who is aware of a sexual assault should immediately (within 24 hours) report incidents. Sexual assault is incompatible with Army values and is punishable under the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) and other federal and local civilian laws. The Army will use training, education, and awareness to minimize sexual assault; to promote the sensitive handling of victims of sexual assault; to offer victim assistance and counseling; to hold those who commit sexual assault offenses accountable; to provide confidential avenues for reporting, and to reinforce a commitment to Army values. The Army will treat all victims of sexual assault with dignity, fairness, and respect. The Army will treat every reported sexual assault incident seriously by following proper guidelines. The information and circumstances of the allegations will be disclosed on a need-toknow basis only. This policy applies— 1. Both on and off post and during duty and non-duty hours. 2. To working, living, and recreational environments (including both on- and off-post housing). |
|
If someone has been sexually assaulted, to whom may they report the crime?
|
Their chain of command.
Medical Treatment Facility. Military Police/Criminal Investigation Division. Chaplains. Social Work Services. Family Advocacy. Legal Services. |
|
Army Regulation 27-10 outlines the rights of crime victims, what are they?
|
The right to be treated with fairness, dignity, and a respect for privacy
The right to be protected from the accused offender The right to be notified of court proceedings The right to be present at all public court proceedings related to the assault unless the court determines that testimony by the victim would be materially affected if the victim heard other testimony at trial, or for other good cause The right to talk to the attorney for the Government in the case The right to seek restitution, if appropriate The right to information regarding conviction, sentencing, imprisonment, and release of the offender from custody. |
|
What must Commanders do to implement and support the Army's Sexual Assault Prevention
and Response Program? |
Ensure that assigned personnel (to include RC personnel under their jurisdiction) are familiar with
the Army policy on sexual harassment. Publish and post written command policy statements for the prevention of sexual harassment. Continually assess and be aware of the climate of command regarding sexual harassment. Identify problems or potential problems. Take prompt, decisive action to investigate all complaints of sexual harassment. Either resolve the problem at the lowest possible level or, if necessary, take formal disciplinary or administrative action. Do not allow Soldiers to be retaliated against for filing complaints. Continually monitor the unit and assess sexual harassment prevention policies and programs at all levels within area of responsibility. Ensure all leaders understand that if they witness or otherwise know of incidents of sexual harassment, they are obligated to act. If they do not, they themselve |
|
What are the categories of sexual harassment and give some examples?
|
Verbal – Examples of verbal sexual harassment may include telling sexual jokes; using sexually
explicit profanity, threats, sexually oriented cadences, or sexual comments. Nonverbal – Examples of nonverbal sexual harassment may include staring at someone (that is, “undressing someone with one’s eyes"), blowing kisses, winking, or licking one’s lips in a suggestive manner. Physical Contact - Examples of physical sexual harassment may include touching, patting, pinching, bumping, grabbing, cornering, |
|
What is an EOR?
|
Equal Opportunity Representative
|
|
What rank should an EOR normally be?
|
SGT (P) through 1LT
|
|
What are some of the special commemorations / ethnic observances listed in AR 600-20?
|
1. January – 3rd Monday – Martin Luther King Jr. Birthday
2. February – 1-28/29 - African-American/Black History Month 3. March – 1-31 - Women’s History Month 4. April/May - Sunday to Sunday for Week Incorporating Yom Hashoah - "Days of Remembrance" for Victims of the Holocaust 5. May – 1-31 - Asian Pacific Heritage Month 6. August – 26 - Women’s Equality Day 7. September/October - 15 Sep.-15 Oct. - Hispanic Heritage Month 8. November – 1-30 - National Native American Indian Heritage Month |
|
What Army Regulation covers the EO program?
|
AR 600-20 chapter 6
|
|
What are the goals of the EO program?
|
1. Provide EO for military personnel and family members, both on and off post and within the limits
of the laws of localities, states, and host nations. 2. Create and sustain effective units by eliminating discriminatory behaviors or practices that undermine teamwork, mutual respect, loyalty, and shared sacrifice of the men and women of America’s Army. |
|
What are the three policies each commander is required to publish and post on equal
opportunity? |
Written command policy statements for EO
Prevention of Sexual Harassment Equal Opportunity Complaint Procedures |
|
Soldiers are required to have how many periods of EO training per year?
|
4- one each quarter
|
|
Define the term ethnic group
|
A segment of the population that possesses common characteristics and a cultural heritage
based to some degree on: faith or faiths; shared traditions, values or symbols; literature, folklore, or music; an internal sense of distinctiveness; and/or an external perception of distinctiveness. |
|
Define the term racism.
|
Any attitude or action of a person or institutional structure that subordinates a person or group
because of skin color or race. |
|
Describe minority group
|
Any group distinguished from the general population in terms of race, religion, color, gender, or
national origin. |
|
What is sexual harassment?
|
1. Sexual harassment is a form of gender discrimination that involves unwelcome sexual advances,
requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature between the same or opposite genders when— Submission to, or rejection of, such conduct is made either explicitly or implicitly a term or condition of a person’s job, pay, career, or Submission to, or rejection of, such conduct by a person is used as a basis for career or employment decisions affecting that person, or Such conduct has the purpose or effect of unreasonably interfering with an individual’s work performance or creates an intimidating, hostile, or offensive working environment. 2. Any person in a supervisory or command position who uses or condones implicit or explicit sexual behavior to control, influence, or affect the career, pay, or job of a Soldier or civilian employee is engaging in sexual harassment. Similarly, any Soldier or civilian employee who makes deliberate or repeated unwelcome verbal comments, gestures, or physical contact of a sexual nature is engaging in sexual harassment. |
|
What is an Affirmative Actions Plan (AAP)?
|
A management document that consists of statements of attainable goals and timetables. This
document is required of all Army organizations, commands, agencies, and activities down to brigade (or equivalent) level. It is designed to achieve EO for all military personnel. |
|
What action does the Army take against off-post activities, including housing and public
accommodations, which arbitrarily discriminate against members of the Army and their dependents? |
Off limits or off limits sanctions may be applied
|
|
Who is the primary source for solving EO complaints?
|
your unit chain of command
|
|
What is the Army's written policy on EO?
|
The U.S. Army will provide EO and fair treatment for military personnel and family members
without regard to race, color, gender, religion, national origin, and provide an environment free of unlawful discrimination and offensive behavior. This policy— a. Applies both on and off post, during duty and non-duty hours. b. Applies to working, living, and recreational environments (including both on and off-post housing). |
|
What is the primary channel for correcting discriminatory practices and for communications on
equal opportunity matters? |
chain of command
|
|
Does every unit have an EO representative?
|
Yes, each Commander is required to appoint an EOR in the rank of SGT (P) through 1LT
|
|
What does AFAP stand for?
|
army family action plan
|
|
What Army Regulation covers the Army Family Action Plan?
|
ar 608-47
|
|
When was the AFAP program established?
|
The AFAP program was established in 1983 as a result of the Chief of Staff, Army (CSA), 1983
White Paper, “The Army Family.” |
|
The AFAP program creates an information loop between whom?
|
The Global Army Family and Leadership. The AFAP provides a means for Army constituents to
address and report issues of well-being concern to leadership at regular intervals. |
|
The AFAP program’s process of improvement begins where?
|
At the local level, where an annual symposium is held to examine issues of concern that
delegates believe need to be fixed. |
|
The Army family has been symbolized by the Secretary of the Army as an equilateral triangle.
How is each side of the triangle expressed? |
Base: "Family of Components" (Total Force)
Second Leg: "Family of Units" Third Leg: "Family of People" |
|
The philosophy toward the family, based on the Army Family White Paper, consists of three
critical elements. What are they? |
1. Partnership
2. Wellness 3. Sense of community |
|
What are some things that the AFAP does?
|
Gives commanders a gauge to validate concerns and measure satisfaction
Enhances Army's corporate image Helps retain the best and brightest Results in legislation, policies, programs and services that strengthen readiness and retention Safeguards well-being |
|
What types of programs are focused on in the "Family of Components"?
|
Programs relating to the Active Army, National Guard, Army Reserve and civilian employees
|
|
What type of programs are focused on in the "Family of Units"?
|
Programs relating to the unique relationship of Soldiers to their units and unit ties to other
components of the command, such as squad to its platoon or the platoon to its company (battery) |
|
What is the basis for the Army theme, "The Army family"?
|
A joint announcement signed by the Secretary and the Chief of Staff of the Army. This
announcement was based on the C/S white paper 1983 |
|
What types of programs are focused on in the Family of People?
|
Programs relating to all areas of concern to the service members and their families, including the
military and civilian retiree |
|
What Army Regulation covers the Army Retention Program?
|
AR 601-280
|
|
What are some reasons that a Soldier may be ineligible for reenlistment?
|
If the Soldier is barred or flagged and if the Soldier is enrolled in ASAP
|
|
What is an SRB?
|
Selective Reenlistment Bonus
|
|
What is the minimum number of years that a Soldier must reenlist for to be eligible for an SRB?
|
3 years
|
|
Can a Soldier request separation if a bar to reenlistment is imposed?
|
no
|
|
Describe a Bar to Reenlistment.
|
Administrative action initiated by the commander to prevent a substandard Soldier from
reenlisting or reentering the service |
|
A Bar to Reenlistment is reviewed how often?
|
Every three months or 30 days prior to PCS / ETS
|
|
Who can initiate a Bar to Reenlistment?
|
Any commander in the Soldier’s chain of command
|
|
Who is the final approving authority for a Bar to Reenlistment?
|
A commander who is one approval level higher than the commanding authority
|
|
Soldiers SGM and below who have not reenlisted under the indefinite reenlistment program are
required to receive Retention Interviews. When are they done? |
Career Counselor: 30 days from arrival to unit
Unit Commander 90 days from arrival Unit Commander 15-16 months prior to ETS Career Counselor 13-14 months prior to ETS Career Counselor 4 months prior to ETS Reserve Component Career counselor 90-120 days prior to ETS |
|
Who may lift a Bar?
|
The same authority that approved the Bar may lift it with a written recommendation by the unit
Commander |
|
What type of fire extinguisher must not be used on electrical fires?
|
water
|
|
Who is responsible for the Army Safety Program?
|
the soldier
|
|
The word SAFETY is often associated with what term?
|
risk management
|
|
What accounts for the majority of accidents?
|
carelessness
|
|
Accidents are reported in accordance with what regulation?
|
ar 385-40
|
|
Name 3 safety features commonly found in any barracks.
|
Lights in stairwells
Fire lights (emergency lighting) Fire extinguisher and alarms Arms room safety procedures First aid kits CQ Safety posters Handrails Storage of dangerous tools and chemicals |
|
What safety features are stressed in the motor pool?
|
Reduced speed, no smoking except in designated areas, fire extinguishers in buildings and
vehicles, proper utilization of tool safety equipment (goggles, safety toe shoes, etc.) |
|
How often are fire extinguishers in the barracks required to be checked for serviceability, and
how can this be determined? |
Once a month, a tag on the fire extinguisher indicating the date and initials of authorized unit
safety personnel |
|
What AR covers safety?
|
AR 385-10
|
|
Where on post can you find out how many privately owned vehicle accidents that were fatal
have occurred this year? |
A sign in the vicinity of the outbound gate on post
|
|
What type of fire extinguisher must not be used on electrical fires?
|
water
|
|
Who is responsible for the Army Safety Program?
|
the soldier
|
|
The word SAFETY is often associated with what term?
|
risk management
|
|
What accounts for the majority of accidents?
|
carelessness
|
|
Accidents are reported in accordance with what regulation?
|
ar 385-40
|
|
Name 3 safety features commonly found in any barracks.
|
Lights in stairwells
Fire lights (emergency lighting) Fire extinguisher and alarms Arms room safety procedures First aid kits CQ Safety posters Handrails Storage of dangerous tools and chemicals |
|
What safety features are stressed in the motor pool?
|
Reduced speed, no smoking except in designated areas, fire extinguishers in buildings and
vehicles, proper utilization of tool safety equipment (goggles, safety toe shoes, etc.) |
|
How often are fire extinguishers in the barracks required to be checked for serviceability, and
how can this be determined? |
Once a month, a tag on the fire extinguisher indicating the date and initials of authorized unit
safety personnel |
|
What AR covers safety?
|
AR 385-10
|
|
Where on post can you find out how many privately owned vehicle accidents that were fatal
have occurred this year? |
A sign in the vicinity of the outbound gate on post
|
|
Should there be a sponsorship program for a Soldier departing a unit?
|
yes
|
|
What Army Regulation covers the Total Army Sponsorship Program?
|
AR 600-8-8
|
|
What is S-Gate?
|
S-Gate provides information for incoming Soldiers entering the USAREUR Theater of command.
An incoming Soldier can find out who their sponsor is and how to contact them. S-Gate includes their pinpoint assignment, sponsor information, a welcome letter, a needs assessment checklist and links to other useful USAREUR web sites and regulatory information. |
|
What DA Form is used to transmit sponsorship requirements to gaining commands?
|
DA Form 5434 or the Electronically Generated DA Form 5434-E
|
|
How soon after the DA Form 5434 is received should a sponsor be assigned?
|
10 days unless the sponsorship is declined
|
|
What are the general rules for appointing a sponsor?
|
The Soldier should be in a grade equal to or higher ranking than the incoming Soldier. The
sponsor should be the same sex (gender) as the sponsor. The sponsor should be familiar with the unit or activity and community |
|
What are the six elements of the sponsorship program?
|
1. DA Form 5434.
2. Welcome letter. 3. ACS Relocation Readiness Services. 4. Reception. 5. Orientation. 6. Inprocessing. |
|
The primary goal of the Army's QOLP is to promote the development of military group
commitment and cohesiveness, is essential to what? |
Readiness (combat effectiveness).
|
|
What are some examples of the QOLP?
|
ACS / AER / ARC / EO
Postal services PX / commissary privileges AFN radio and television MWR, education services Community sports programs Recreational facilities Banking services Clubs Gyms (physical fitness centers) |
|
What does QOLP stand for?
|
quality of life program
|
|
The Army's Quality of Life program is dedicated to the precept that the Army's number one
operational resource must be taken care of. What is this resource? |
the soldier
|
|
Quality of Life needs and the programs and actions to address them, are categorized under two
general headings. What are they? |
living conditions
duty environment |
|
Who is the senior enlisted advisor to the BOSS council, and approves members selected to
serve on BOSS committees? |
The Installation Command Sergeant Major
|
|
According to AR 215-1, what does the BOSS program provide?
|
It provides opportunities for active duty Soldiers, with an emphasis on single and unaccompanied
Soldiers, to participate in physical, self-development, leisure, and educational related services. |
|
What type of program is BOSS?
|
BOSS is categorized as a category B Morale, Welfare, and Recreation (MWR) program.
|
|
How many officers are on the BOSS council?
|
Three: President, Vice-President, and Secretary and Treasurer
|
|
What is the lowest level unit that has a BOSS council representative?
|
The battery/company level
|
|
What are the 3 pillars of BOSS?
|
recreation, community service, well being
|
|
What is CHAMPUS?
|
Civilian Health And Medical Program for the Uniformed Services. It is a cost-sharing program that
is used to provide in-patient and outpatient care for dependants from civilian sources. |
|
What Army regulation covers CHAMPUS?
|
AR 40-121
|
|
Who is Eligible for CHAMPUS?
|
Family members of active duty military personnel, family members of deceased or retired
personnel and retired military personnel and their family members under the age of 65. |
|
What does NCODP stand for?
|
Noncommissioned Officer Development Program
|
|
What is the goal of NCODP?
|
The goal of the NCODP is to increase and sustain NCO combat readiness and compliment the
overarching Army Noncommissioned Officer Professional Development Program. |
|
As with all leader training and leader development, who is responsible for NCODP?
|
the command
|
|
NCODP is typically managed by whom?
|
csm or senior nco of the program
|
|
What are some objectives of NCODP?
|
Develop and strengthen the skills, knowledge, and abilities to train, deploy, and lead Soldiers in
combat through battle focused training. Develop NCOs who are self–aware, adaptive, competent, and confident. Realize the full potential of the NCO support channel. Foster a unit environment that enhances continued NCO leader development and encourages self–development as part of a lifelong learning process. |
|
What Army Regulation covers NCODP?
|
ar 350-1
|
|
What is the purpose of AR 350-1?
|
This regulation prescribes policies, procedures, and responsibilities for developing, managing,
and conducting Army training and leader development. |
|
In order to accomplish battle-focused NCO development, commanders and unit NCOs should
follow what procedures |
Link NCO development to the current skill level and duty assignments
Establish a viable unit level NCODP using unit METL as the vehicle to incorporate the following into each NCO's daily activities. Synchronize battle-focused NCODP as a component of operational assignments (experience) with the other two pillars of leader development (institutional training and self-development) Establish a systematic and continuous program Integrate the use of leader books (FM 25-l01, app B) to track individual NCO progress Emphasize coaching to achieve commitment to excellence in performance |
|
A successful NCODP will result in NCOs who can what?
|
Demonstrate the skills of current skill level and duty position per AR 611–21 and DA Pam 600–
25. Accept the duties and responsibilities of current rank and duty position per AR 600–20, AR 611– 21, and FM 7–22.7. Enhance combat performance for the current and next higher rank and duty position per AR 600– 20 and FM 22–100 (being revised as FM 6–22). Enhance combat leadership competencies for the current and next higher rank per FM 22–100 (being revised as FM 6–22). Train themselves and subordinates to be proficient in METL tasks and associated critical tasks per FM 7–0, FM 7–1, and FM 7–22.7. Coach subordinates to be totally committed to U.S. Army professional ethics, Warrior Ethos, and the Soldier’s Creed per FM 22–100 (being revised as FM 6–22). |
|
What FM covers Physical Fitness Training?
|
FM 21-20
|
|
3 phases of physical conditioning are
|
1. Preparatory
2. Conditioning 3. Maintenance |
|
About how long is the preparatory phase?
|
2 weeks
|
|
About how long is the conditioning phase?
|
The conditioning phase ends when a Soldier is physically mission-capable and all personal,
strength-related goals and unit-fitness goals have been met. |
|
What is a MFT?
|
Master Fitness Trainer. A Master Fitness Trainer (MFT) is a Soldier who has completed either
the four-week active-component, two week reserve-component, or U.S. Military Academy’s MFT course work. Although called “masters,” MFTs are simply Soldiers who know about all aspects of physical fitness training and how Soldiers’ bodies function. Most importantly, since MFTs are taught to design individual and unit programs, they should be used by commanders as special staff assistants for this purpose. |
|
What does FITT stand for?
|
Frequency, Intensity, Time, and Type (this acronym makes it easy to remember the key factors in
the training program) |
|
What is Da Form 3349?
|
Physical profile form
|
|
What is the objective of physical fitness training?
|
To enhance Soldiers’ abilities to meet the physical demands of war.
|
|
What are the three periods of a normal daily exercise routine?
|
1. Warm-up
2. Conditioning 3. Cool-down |
|
What are the commands to get a unit from a normal line formation into an extended rectangular
formation? |
1. Extend to the left, march
2. Arms downward, move 3. Left, Face 4. Extend to the left, march 5. Arms downward, move 6. Right, face 7. From front to rear, count off 8. Even numbers to the left, uncover |
|
What AR covers the Army Physical Fitness Program?
|
AR 350-1 Chapter 1 Section 24
|
|
Soldiers 55 years of age or older have the option of taking the 3 event APFT or what?
|
The alternate APFT. An alternate APFT is defined as push–ups, sit–ups and an alternate aerobic
event (2.5–mile walk, 800–yard swim, or 6.2–mile bicycle ride). |
|
What are the seven basic principles of exercise?
|
1. Regularity
2. Progression 3. Overload 4. Balance 5. Specificity 6. Variety 7. Recovery |
|
What are the three phases of fitness conditioning?
|
1. Preparatory
2. Conditioning 3. Maintenance |
|
What are the five components of physical fitness?
|
1. Cardio Respiratory Endurance
2. Muscular Strength 3. Muscular Endurance 4. Flexibility 5. Body Composition (FM 21-20 Oct 1998 / Intro |
|
How many scorers should be supplied for the APFT?
|
A minimum of 1 per every 15 Soldiers
|
|
What is the DA form 705?
|
Physical readiness test scorecard
|
|
Fitness tasks provide the framework for accomplishing all training requirements. The essential
elements of fitness tasks can be cataloged into what four groups? |
1. Collective Tasks
2. Individual Tasks 3. Leader Tasks 4. Resources required for training |
|
Name the two physical fitness formations?
|
1. Extended Rectangular
2. Circular |
|
What is the FM concerning the M16/A2 Rifle?
|
FM 3-22.9
|
|
Name the five phases in Basic Rifle Marksmanship.
|
1. Preliminary Rifle Instruction
2. Downrange Feedback 3. Field Fire 4. Advanced Rifle Marksmanship 5. Advanced Optics, Laser and Iron Sights |
|
What is the purpose of a weaponeer?
|
The weaponeer is capable of simulating all of the BRM live fire scenarios without firing rounds.
Immediate feedback is available for critiquing the Soldier's application of the integrated act of firing while using the weaponeer device to include misfire procedures. |
|
What are the four fundamentals of marksmanship?
|
1. Steady Position
2. Proper Aim (Sight Picture) 3. Breathing 4. Trigger Squeeze (FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / 4-5 |
|
76)
During Preliminary Marksmanship Training (PMI), what are the only two positions taught? |
1. Individual Foxhole supported
2. Basic Prone unsupported |
|
What are the two basic elements of the Sight Picture?
|
Sight Alignment
2. Placing of the Aiming Point |
|
What is remedial action?
|
Remedial action is the continuing effort to determine the cause for a stoppage or malfunction and
to try to clear the stoppage once it has been identified. |
|
Describe the proper procedures for applying remedial action with the M16/A2.
|
1. Try to place the weapon on safe
2. Remove the magazine 3. Lock the bolt to the rear 4. Place the weapon on safe if not already done |
|
Describe the proper procedure for applying immediate action with the M16/A2.
|
1. Slaps gently upward on the magazine to ensure it is fully seated, and the magazine follower is not
jammed. 2. Pulls the charging handle fully to the rear. 3. Observes for the ejection of a live round or expended cartridge. (If the weapon fails to eject a cartridge, perform remedial action.) 4. Releases the charging handle (do not ride it forward). 5. Taps the forward assist assembly to ensure bolt closure. 6. Squeezes the trigger and tries to fire the rifle. |
|
Is SPORTS an Immediate or Remedial Action?
|
immediate
|
|
What is immediate action?
|
Immediate action involves quickly applying a possible correction to reduce a stoppage without
performing troubleshooting procedures to determine the actual cause. |
|
How many times should immediate action be applied to a weapon?
|
once
|
|
What is a malfunction?
|
The weapon ceasing to fire due to a stoppage resulting from mechanical failure of the weapon,
magazine or ammo |
|
Name the different categories of malfunctions on the M16/A2.
|
1. Failure to feed, chamber or lock
2. Failure to fire cartridge 3. Failure to extract 4. Failure to eject (FM 3-22.9 Apr 2003 / |
|
What is stoppage?
|
A stoppage is a failure of an automatic or semiautomatic firearm to complete the cycle of
operation |
|
How do you clear a stoppage?
|
immediate or remedial action
|
|
What is the definition of Maximum Effective Range?
|
The greatest distance at which a Soldier may be expected to deliver a target hit.
|
|
What does CLP stand for?
|
cleaner, lubricant, and preservative
|
|
Describe the M16/A2 Rifle.
|
A 5.56 mm, magazine fed, gas-operated, air-cooled, semiautomatic or three-round burst, handheld,
shoulder-fired weapon. |
|
What are the 7 types of ammunition that can be used with the M16/A2 Rifle?
|
1. M193 – Ball
2. M196 – Trace 3. M199 – Dummy 4. M200 – Blank (Violet tip and 7 petal rose crimp) 5. M855 – Ball (Green Tip) 6. M856 – Tracer (Red Tip) 7. M862 – Short Range Training Ammunition (Plastic with a Blue Tip) |
|
What are the four steps required in order to mechanically zero the M16/A2?
|
1. Adjust the front sight post (1) up or down until the base of the front sight post is flush with the
front sight post housing (2). 2. Adjust the elevation knob (3) counterclockwise, as viewed from above, until the rear sight assembly (4) rests flush with the carrying handle and the 8/3 marking is aligned with the index line on the left side of the carrying handle. 3. Position the apertures (5) so the unmarked aperture is up and the 0-200 meter aperture is down. Rotate the windage knob (6) to align the index mark on the 0-200 meter aperture with the long center index line on the rear sight assembly. |
|
What are the steps required in order to battlesight zero the M16/A2?
|
1. Adjust the elevation knob (1) counterclockwise, as viewed from above, until the rear sight
assembly (2) rests flush with the carrying handle and the 8/3 marking is aligned with the index line (3) on the left side of the carrying handle. Then adjust the elevation knob one more click clockwise.2. Position the apertures (4) so the unmarked aperture is up and the 0-200 meter aperture is down. Rotate the windage knob (5) to align the index mark on the 0-200 meter aperture with the long center index line on the rear sight assembly. |
|
Describe the weights of the M16/A2 Rifle.
|
Without magazine and sling - 7.78 pounds
With Sling and a loaded 20 round magazine - 8.48 pounds With Sling and a loaded 30 round magazine - 8.79 pounds |
|
Describe the max effective rates of fire for the M16/A2 Rifle.
|
Semiautomatic - 45 rounds per minute
Burst - 90 rounds per minute Sustained - 12-15 rounds per minute |
|
What is the muzzle velocity of the M16/A2 Rifle?
|
3100 ft per second
|
|
Describe the ranges for the M16/A2 Rifle.
|
Maximum Range - 3,600 meters
Max Effective Range for a Point Target - 550 meters Max Effective Range for an Area Target - 800 meters |
|
Describe the Barrel Rifling for the M16/A2 Rifle.
|
Right hand twist 1/7
|
|
What is the basic load of ammunition for the M16/A2 Rifle?
|
210 rounds total
|
|
The elevation knob adjusts the point of aim for the M16A2 Rifle how much?
|
300 to 800 meters
|
|
What is the overall length of the M16/A2 Rifle?
|
39.63 inches
|
|
What are the 8 steps in the functioning of the M16/A2 rifle?
|
1. Feeding
2. Chambering 3. Locking 4. Firing 5. Unlocking 6. Extracting 7. Ejecting 8. Cocking (FM 3-22.9 Apr |
|
Describe the procedures for clearing the M16/A2 Rifle.
|
Point the muzzle in a designated SAFE DIRECTION. Attempt to place selector lever on SAFE. If
weapon is not cocked, lever cannot be placed on SAFE. Remove the magazine by depressing the magazine catch button and pulling the magazine down. To lock bolt open, pull charging handle rearward. Press bottom of bolt catch and allow bolt to move forward until it engages bolt catch. Return charging handle to full forward position. If you have not done so before, place the selector lever on SAFE. Visually (not physically) inspect the receiver and chamber to ensure these areas contain no ammo. With the selector lever pointing toward SAFE, allow the bolt to go forward by pressing the upper portion of the bolt catch. Place the selector lever on SEMI and squeeze the trigger. Pull the charging handle fully rearward and release it, allowing the bolt to return to the full forward position. Place the selector lever on SAFE. |
|
How do you perform a functions check on the M16/A2 Rifle?
|
1. Place the selector lever on safe. If the selector switch will not go on safe, pull the charging
handle to the rear and release. Place the selector lever on safe. Pull the trigger to the rear, the hammer should not fall. 2. Place the selector lever on semi. Pull the trigger to the rear and hold. The hammer should fall. While holding the trigger to the rear, pull the charging handle to the rear and release. Release the trigger and pull it to the rear again. The hammer should fall. 3. Place the selector lever on burst. Pull the charging handle to the rear and release. Pull the trigger to the rear and hold. The hammer should fall. While holding the trigger to the rear, pull the charging handle to the rear three times and release. Release the trigger and pull it to the rear again. The hammer should fall. |
|
What is the FM concerning the M4 Rifle?
|
FM 3-22.9
|
|
What is the first thing you should do when you handle a weapon?
|
make sure you clear it
|
|
Describe the proper procedure for applying immediate action with the M4.
|
1. Slaps gently upward on the magazine to ensure it is fully seated, and the magazine follower is not
jammed. 2. Pulls the charging handle fully to the rear. 3. Observes for the ejection of a live round or expended cartridge. (If the weapon fails to eject a cartridge, perform remedial action.) 4. Releases the charging handle (do not ride it forward). 5. Taps the forward assist assembly to ensure bolt closure. 6. Squeezes the trigger and tries to fire the rifle. |
|
What are the steps required in order to mechanically zero the M4?
|
1. Adjust the front sight post (1) up or down until the base of the front sight post is flush with the
front sight post housing (2). 2. Adjust the elevation knob (3) counterclockwise, when viewed from above, until the rear sight assembly (4) rests flush with the detachable carrying handle and the 6/3 marking is aligned with the index line (5) on the left side of the carrying handle. 3. Position the apertures (6) so the unmarked aperture is up and the 0-200 meter aperture is down. Rotate the windage knob (7) to align the index mark (8) on the 0-200 meter aperture with the long center index line on the rear sight assembly. |
|
What are the steps required in order to battlesight zero the M4?
|
1. Adjust the elevation knob (1) counterclockwise, when viewed from above, until the rear sight
assembly (2) rests flush with the detachable carrying handle and the 6/3 marking is aligned with the index line (3) on the left side of the detachable carrying handle. The elevation knob remains flush. 2. Position the apertures (4) so the unmarked aperture is up and the 0-200 meter aperture is down. Rotate the windage knob (5) to align the index mark (6) on the 0-200 meter aperture with the long center index line on the rear sight assembly. |
|
Name the different categories of malfunctions for the M4 Rifle.
|
1. Failure to feed, chamber or lock
2. Failure to fire cartridge 3. Failure to Extract 4. Failure to Eject |
|
What is the definition of Maximum Effective Range?
|
The greatest distance at which a soldier may be expected to deliver a target hit.
|
|
Describe the M4 Rifle.
|
A 5.56 mm, magazine fed, gas-operated, air-cooled, semiautomatic or three-round burst, handheld,
shoulder-fired weapon. |
|
What are the 7 types of ammunition that can be used with the M4 Rifle?
|
1. M193 – Ball
2. M196 – Trace 3. M199 – Dummy 4. M200 – Blank (Violet tip and 7 petal rose crimp) 5. M855 – Ball (Green Tip) 6. M856 – Tracer (Red Tip) 7. M862 – Short Range Training Ammunition (Plastic with a Blue Tip) |
|
Describe the weights of the M4 Rifle without mgazine and sling, with sling and loaded 20 round
magazine and with sling and loaded 30 round magazine. |
Without Magazine and Sling - 6.49 pounds
With Sling and a loaded 20 round magazine - 7.19 pounds With Sling and a loaded 30 round magazine - 7.50 pounds |
|
Describe the max effective rates of fire for the M4 Rifle
|
Semiautomatic - 45 rounds per minute
Burst - 90 rounds per minute Sustained - 12-15 rounds per minute |
|
What is the muzzle velocity of the M4 Rifle?
|
2970 ft per sec
|
|
Describe the ranges for the M4 Rifle.
|
Maximum Range - 3,600 meters
Max Effective Range for a Point Target - 500 meters Max Effective Range for an Area Target - 600 meters |
|
Describe the Barrel Rifling for the M4 Rifle.
|
right hand twist 1/7
|
|
What is the basic load of ammunition for the M4?
|
210 rounds total
|
|
The elevation knob adjusts the point of aim for the M4 Rifle how much?
|
300 to 600 meters
|
|
What is the overall length of the M4 Rifle?
|
Buttstock Closed - 29.75 inches
Buttstock Open - 33.00 inches |
|
What are the four positions for the buttstock of the M4 Rifle?
|
1. Closed
2. 1/2 Open 3. 3/4 Open 4. Full Open |
|
What are the 8 steps in the functioning of the M4 rifle?
|
1. Feeding
2. Chambering 3. Locking 4. Firing 5. Unlocking 6. Extracting 7. Ejecting 8. Cocking |
|
What part of the M4 Rail Adapter System may be removed to perform PMCS?
|
only the lower assembly
|
|
Describe the procedures for clearing the M4 Rifle
|
Point the muzzle in a designated SAFE DIRECTION. Attempt to place selector lever on SAFE. If
weapon is not cocked, lever cannot be placed on SAFE. Remove the magazine by depressing the magazine catch button and pulling the magazine down. To lock bolt open, pull charging handle rearward. Press bottom of bolt catch and allow bolt to move forward until it engages bolt catch. Return charging handle to full forward position. If you have not done so before, place the selector lever on SAFE. Visually (not physically) inspect the receiver and chamber to ensure these areas contain no ammo. With the selector lever pointing toward SAFE, allow the bolt to go forward by pressing the upper portion of the bolt catch. Place the selector lever on SEMI and squeeze the trigger. Pull the charging handle fully rearward and release it, allowing the bolt to return to the full forward position. Place the selector lever on SAFE. Close the ejection port cover. |
|
How do you perform a functions check on the M4 Rifle?
|
1. Place the selector lever on safe. If the selector switch will not go on safe, pull the charging
handle to the rear and release. Place the selector lever on safe. Pull the trigger to the rear, the hammer should not fall. 2. Place the selector lever on semi. Pull the trigger to the rear and hold. The hammer should fall. While holding the trigger to the rear, pull the charging handle to the rear and release. Release the trigger and pull it to the rear again. The hammer should fall. 3. Place the selector lever on burst. Pull the charging handle to the rear and release. Pull the trigger to the rear and hold. The hammer should fall. While holding the trigger to the rear, pull the charging handle to the rear three times and release. Release the trigger and pull it to the rear again. The hammer should fall. |
|
Once done installing the M18A1, how far behind the mine should the wire be secured?
|
1 meter
|
|
Describe the M18A1
|
A curved, rectangular-shaped weapon, with an olive drab molded case of fiberglass filled
polystyrene (plastic). In the front portion of the case is a fragmentation face containing steel spheres embedded in a plastic matrix. The back portion of the case behind the matrix contains a layer of explosives |
|
What is the M18A1 primarily used for?
|
It was designed for use against mass infantry attacks
|
|
What is the first step in installing the M18A1?
|
Inspect the components
|
|
How much does the M18A1 weigh?
|
3.5 lbs
|
|
What color is a "training" M18A1?
|
Blue
|
|
How long is the wire that the M4 blasting cap is connected to?
|
100ft
|
|
Name the components that are in the bandoleer of the M18A1
|
M40 test set
M57 firing device M4 electric blasting cap assembly Instructions (FM 23-23 Jan |
|
Where will you find the instructions for the employment of the M18A1?
|
Under the flap of the bandoleer
|
|
What color is a "live" M18A1?
|
green
|
|
What is the effective frontal range of the M18A1?
|
When detonated, the M18A1 mine will deliver spherical steel fragments over a 60° fan-shaped
pattern that is 2 meters high and 50 meters wide at a range of 50 meters |
|
Who keeps the M57 firing device while the M18A1 is being installed?
|
the person installing the mine
|
|
What Field Manual covers the M18A1?
|
fm 23-23
|
|
What are the two sites used on the M18A1 to aim it?
|
Knife-edge and slit-type peep sights
|
|
When aiming the M18A1 using the slit-type peep sight, how far above the ground do you aim?
|
2 and 1/2 meters above the ground
|
|
When aiming the M18A1 using the knife edge sight, how far above the ground do you aim?
|
you aim at ground level
|
|
What type of explosive is used in the M18A1?
|
1.5 lbs composition C4 (plastic explosive)
|
|
One M40 test set is included with how may M18A1 claymores?
|
1 in each case of 6
|
|
What is the killing zone of the M18A1?
|
20 to 30 meters
|
|
How far is the danger area to the rear of the M18A1?
|
16 meters (The mine firing position should be in a foxhole or covered position at least 16
meters to the rear or the side of the emplaced mine.) |
|
What is the M2 .50 Cal machine gun used for?
|
Defend against low-flying hostile aircraft, support the infantryman in both attack and defense,
destroy lightly armored vehicles, provide protection for motor movements, vehicle parks and train bivouacs, and reconnaissance by fire on suspected enemy positions |
|
What is the weight of the M2 .50 Cal machine gun?
|
84 lbs
|
|
Which FM covers the M2 .50 Cal?
|
fm 3-22.65
|
|
What is the importance of correct headspace adjustment on the .50 Cal machine gun?
|
Incorrect headspace adjustment can cause a malfunction of the gun and lead to sluggish
operation or failure to function freely. |
|
What is the length of the barrel of the .50 Cal?
|
45 inch
|
|
What is the maximum range of the .50 Cal?
|
6,764 meters
|
|
What is the muzzle velocity of the .50 Cal?
|
3050 ft per sec
|
|
What is the description of the .50 Cal, HB, M2 Machine Gun?
|
The Browning machine gun caliber .50 HB, M2 is a belt-fed, recoil-operated, air-cooled, crewserved
machine gun. The gun is capable of single shot, as well as automatic fire, and operates on the short recoil principle. |
|
What is the maximum effective range of the .50 Cal against point and area targets?
|
Point targets single shot- 1,500 meters
Area shot- 1,830 meters |
|
To control the rate of fire on the M2, the gunner may use what methods of fire?
|
Single shot
Slow Rapid Cyclic |
|
Describe the Single Shot method of fire on the M2 .50 Cal.
|
Place the gun in the single-shot mode and engage the target with aimed shots. The machine gun
is accurate out to 1,500 meters. |
|
Describe the Slow method of fire on the M2 .50 Cal.
|
Slow fire consists of less than 40 rounds per minute, in bursts of five to seven rounds, fired at 10-
to 15-second intervals. |
|
Describe the Rapid method of fire on the M2 .50 Cal.
|
Rapid fire consists of more than 40 rounds per minute, fired in bursts of five to seven rounds, at
5- to 10-second intervals. |
|
Describe the Cyclic method of fire on the M2 .50 Cal.
|
Cyclic fire is when the weapon fires 450 to 550 rounds per minute.
|
|
What is the length of the .50 Cal, overall?
|
Approximately 65.13 inches
|
|
What is the cyclic rate of fire of the M2 .50 Cal?
|
450-550 rounds a minute
|
|
What type of front sight does the M2 .50 Cal have?
|
A semi-fixed blade type with cover
|
|
What type of rear sight does the M2 .50 Cal have?
|
A leaf type rear sight graduated in both yards and mils
|
|
What are the common malfunctions of the M2 .50 Cal?
|
Failure to function freely
Uncontrolled automatic fire |
|
What are the common stoppages of the M2 .50 Cal?
|
Failure to feed
Chamber Lock Fire Unlock Extract Eject Cock (FM 3-22.65 |
|
What are the ten major components and assemblies of the M2 .50 Cal?
|
1. Barrel Group
2. Carrier Assembly 3. Back plate Group 4. Receiver Group 5. Bolt Stud 6. Cover Group 7. Barrel Buffer Body 8. Barrel extension group 9. Bolt Group 10. Driving Spring Rod Assembly |
|
What are the proper procedures for performing immediate action on the M2 .50 Cal?
|
If machine gun fails to fire, take the following action:
1. Wait 5 seconds; a hangfire may be causing the misfire. In the next 5 seconds, pull the bolt to the rear (check for ejection and feeding of belt), release it, re-lay on the target, and attempt to fire. If the bolt-latch release and trigger are depressed at the same time, the bolt goes forward and the weapon should fire automatically. 2. If the weapon again fails to fire, wait another 5 seconds, pull the bolt to the rear (engage with the bolt latch if applicable), and return the retracting slide handle to its forward position. Open the cover and remove the belted ammunition. Inspect the weapon to determine the cause of stoppage. A hangfire or cookoff can cause injury to personnel or damage to the weapon. To avoid these, the gunner must take the following precautions: 1. Always keep the round locked in the chamber the first 5 seconds after a misfire occurs. This prevents an explosion outside of the weapon in event of a hangfire. 2. If the barrel is hot, the round must be extracted within the next 5 seconds to prevent a cookoff. When more than 150 rounds have been fired in a 2-minute period, the barrel is hot enough to produce a cookoff. 3. If the barrel is hot and the round cannot be extracted within the 10 seconds, it must remain locked in the chamber for at least 5 minutes, to guard against a cookoff. 4. Keep the weapon cover closed during the waiting periods. |
|
If you turn the M203 windage screw one increment, how far does that move the strike of the
round at 200 meters? |
1 and 1/2 meters
|
|
What is the maximum range of the M203?
|
about 400 meters
|
|
What is the maximum effective range of the M203 against a fire team sized area target?
|
350 meters
|
|
What is the maximum effective range of the M203 against a vehicle or weapon point target?
|
150 meters
|
|
What is the minimum arming range of the 40 mm round fired from the M203?
|
14 to 38 meters
|
|
What is the rate of fire of the M203?
|
5 to 7 rounds per min
|
|
What Field Manual covers the M203?
|
fm 3-22.31
|
|
What is the casualty radius of a M203 40mm HE round?
|
5 meters
|
|
What are the 4 fundamentals of M203 marksmanship?
|
1. Steady position
2. Aiming 3. Breathing 4. Trigger control (FM 3-22.31 Feb 2003 |
|
The M203 uses several fixed type, low velocity 40mm rounds. Name some of the common
types of rounds used. |
1. M433 – High Explosive Dual Purpose
2. M406 – High Explosive 3. M83A1 (white), M661 (Green), M662 (Red) – Star Parachute 4. M585 – White Star Cluster 5. M713 (Red Smoke), M715 (Green Smoke), M716 (Yellow Smoke) – Ground Marker 6. M781 – Practice 7. M651 – Tactical CS 8. Buckshot (FM 3-22.31 Feb |
|
What are the two common malfunctions of the M203?
|
failure to cock and failure to lock
|
|
What are the five common stoppages of the M203?
|
1. Failure to fire
2. Failure to extract 3. Failure to eject 4. Failure to chamber 5. Safety fails to stay in position |
|
What are the two types of sights on the M203?
|
leaf and quadrant
|
|
Describe the M203.
|
The M203 grenade launcher is a lightweight, single-shot, breech-loaded, pump action (sliding
barrel), shoulder-fired weapon that is attached to an M16 rifle series, or the M4 carbine series with the M203A1, and M4 carbine series with the rail system. |
|
At what range do you zero the M203?
|
200 meters
|
|
How must you maintain the M203 Grenade Launcher in varying climates?
|
Extreme Heat: Lubricate with CLP, grade 2.
Damp or Salty Air: Clean the weapon and apply CLP, grade 2, frequently. Sandy or Dusty Air: Clean the weapon and apply CLP, grade 2, frequently. Remove excess CLP with a rag after each application. Temperatures Below Freezing: When the weapon is brought in from a cold area to a warm area, keep it wrapped in a parka or blanket, and allow it to reach room temperature gradually. If condensation forms on the weapon, dry and lubricate it at room temperature with CLP, grade 2, before returning it to cold weather. Otherwise, ice will form inside the mechanism. |
|
How long should you wait before opening the breach to unload the weapon if you happen to
have a misfire with the M203? |
30 seconds
|
|
What is the maximum range of the M249 (SAW)?
|
3,600 meters
|
|
What is the maximum effective range of the M249 with tripod and T+E?
|
1000 meters
|
|
What is the maximum range of the M249 against an area target for both tripod and bipod?
|
Tripod – 1,000 meters
Bipod – 800 meters |
|
What is the maximum range of the M249 against a point target for both tripod and bipod?
|
Tripod – 800 meters
Bipod – 600 meters |
|
What is the weight of the M249?
|
16.41 pounds
|
|
What is the basic load of ammunition for the M249?
|
1,000 rounds (in 200 round drums)
|
|
What is the length of the M249?
|
40.87 inch
|
|
Describe the M249.
|
The M249 machine gun is a gas-operated, air-cooled, belt or magazine-fed, automatic
weapon that fires from the open-bolt position. |
|
What FM covers the M249?
|
fm 3-22.68
|
|
What are the rates of fire for the M249?
|
Sustained rate is 100 rounds per minute
Rapid rate is 200 rounds per minute Cyclic rate is 650 to 850 rounds per minute |
|
What are the proper procedures for clearing the M249?
|
1. Move the safety to the fire “F” position by pushing it to the left until the red ring is visible.
2. With your right hand, palm up, pull the cocking handle to the rear, locking the bolt in place. 3. While holding the resistance on the cocking handle, move the safety to the SAFE position by pushing it to the right until the red ring is not visible. (The weapon cannot be placed on safe unless the bolt is locked to the rear.) 4. Return and lock the cocking handle in the forward position. 5. Raise the cover and feed mechanism assembly, and conduct the five-point safety check for brass, links, or ammunition: (1) Check the feed pawl assembly under the feed cover. (2) Check the feed tray assembly. (3) Lift the feed tray assembly and inspect the chamber. (4) Check the space between the bolt assembly and the chamber. (5) Insert two fingers of your left hand in the magazine well to extract any ammunition or brass. 6. Close the cover and feed mechanism assembly and move the safety to the “F” position. With your right hand, palm up, return the cocking handle to the rear position. Press the trigger and |
|
What are the 8 major groups of the M249?
|
1. Operating rod group
2. Barrel group 3. Handguard group 4. Buttstock and buffer assembly group 5. Trigger mechanism group 6. Gas cylinder group 7. Bipod group 8. Receiver group (FM 3-22.68 Jan 2003 / |
|
The M249 is loaded, fired, unloaded and cleared from what bolt position?
|
the open bolt position
|
|
What are the steps to the cycle of functioning for the M249?
|
Feeding
Chambering Locking Firing Unlocking Extracting Cocking (FM 3-22.68 |
|
How do you adjust for windage with the M249?
|
Adjustments for windage are made by traversing the rear sight right and left along the sliding
scale. (FM 3-22.68 |
|
How do you adjust for elevation with the M249?
|
Adjustments for elevation (range) require the automatic rifleman to turn the elevation knob
(closest to the buttstock) on the rear sight to the desired range setting. |
|
Name 3 assault firing positions used with the M249
|
shoulder, hip, and underarm
|
|
What are two unique features of the M249?
|
It has a regulator to change the rate of fire, and it is fed by M16 magazines as well as belt fed
|
|
What is the purpose of the D.A. Military Awards Program?
|
The objective of the DA Military Awards Program is to provide tangible recognition for acts of
valor, exceptional service or achievement, special skills or qualifications, and acts of heroism not involving actual combat. |
|
What is the highest peacetime award for valor?
|
The soldiers medal
|
|
During peacetime, who is the approving authority for the Soldier's Medal?
|
HQ Perscom
|
|
What is DA Form 7013?
|
certificate of appreciation
|
|
What are the six groups that individual awards can be categorized into?
|
1. Decorations
2. Good Conduct Medal 3. Service Medals 4. Service Ribbons 5. Badges and Tabs 6. Certificates and Letters |
|
What is engraved on the reverse side of the Medal of Honor?
|
The grade, name, and organization of the awardee are engraved on the reverse of the Medal of
Honor. |
|
What is engraved on the reverse side of every Decoration or Good Conduct Medal other than
the Medal of Honor? |
name of awardee only
|
|
How many stars are on the blue silk shield that the Army Medal of Honor is suspended from?
|
13
|
|
Who is the approving authority for the Medal of Honor?
|
us congress
|
|
Who awards the Medal of Honor?
|
president
|
|
What is the word inscribed on the suspension bar of the Medal of Honor?
|
valor
|
|
Whose profile is on the Medal of Honor?
|
Minerva, the roman goddess of wisdom and righteous war
|
|
What is the order of precedence for the wearing of individual awards?
|
1. U.S. Military Decorations
2. U.S. Non-Military Decorations 3. Prisoner of War Medal 4. Good Conduct Medal 5. U.S. Army Reserve Components Achievement Medal 6. U.S. Service Medals and Service Ribbons 7. U.S. Merchant Marine Decorations 8. Foreign Decorations (Does not include Service Medals and Ribbons) 9. Non-U.S. Service Medals and Ribbons |
|
What is the DA Form 2442?
|
Certificate of acheivement
|
|
How many different weapons are authorized component bars?
|
19
|
|
What three words are inscribed on the front of the Good Conduct Medal?
|
honor effeciency and fidelity
|
|
Who are the final approving authorities for the AAM, ARCOM, MSM, LM and DSM?
|
AAM = Lieutenant Colonel and above
ARCOM = Colonel and above MSM = Major General and above LM = Lieutenant General and above+ DSM = U.S. Army Chief of Staff |
|
What is the second highest award for valor?
|
Distinguished service cross
|
|
What was the first medal awarded in the U.S. Army?
|
purple heart
|
|
In the order of precedence, what are the U.S. Unit Awards authorized for wear on Army
Uniforms? |
1. Presidential Unit Citation (Army, Air Force).
2. Presidential Unit Citation (Navy). 3. Joint Meritorious Unit Award. 4. Valorous Unit Award. 5. Meritorious Unit Commendation (Army). 6. Navy Unit Commendation. 7. Air Force Outstanding Unit Award. 8. Coast Guard Unit Commendation. 9. Army Superior Unit Award. 10. Meritorious Unit Commendation (Navy). 11. Navy “E” Ribbon. 12. Air Force Organizational Excellence Award. 13. Coast Guard Meritorious Unit Commendation. |
|
What was the Purple Heart initially awarded for?
|
It was awarded for valor in the revolutionary war
|
|
What is a DA Form 4950?
|
Good conduct medal certificate
|
|
What decoration has George Washington's picture on it?
|
purple heart
|
|
Who is the approving authority for the Army Achievement Medal?
|
battalion commander
|
|
What is a DA Form 87?
|
certificate of training
|
|
What words are inscribed on the reverse side of the AAM?
|
for military achievement
|
|
What words are inscribed on the reverse side of the ARCOM?
|
for military merit
|
|
What is a Fourragere?
|
A ropelike device worn to signify the award of a foreign decoration
|
|
When can a unit award be worn?
|
When serving with a unit that received an award or if you were assigned to the unit when the
award was assigned |
|
Name the four Special Skills Tabs.
|
1. Ranger
2. Special Forces 3. Presidents Hundred 4. Sapper |
|
If the number of authorized oak leaf clusters exceeds four and will not fit on a single ribbon,
what will happen? |
A second ribbon is authorized for wear. When the second ribbon is worn, it is placed after the first
ribbon; the second ribbon counts as one award. Personnel may wear no more than four oak leaf clusters on each ribbon. If the receipt of future awards reduces the number of oak leaf clusters sufficiently (that is, a silver oak leaf for five awards), personnel will remove the second ribbon and place the appropriate number of devices on a single ribbon. |
|
What DA Form is used to recommend/request an award?
|
da 638
|
|
When was the Medal of Honor established?
|
1862
|
|
Why is the Purple Heart different than all the other decorations?
|
While clearly an individual decoration, the Purple Heart differs from all other decorations in that
an individual is not “recommended” for the decoration; rather he or she is entitled to it upon meeting specific criteria. |
|
What are the three U.S. Army Combat Badges?
|
1. Combat Infantryman Badge (CIB)
2. Combat Action Badge (CAB) 3. Combat Medical Badge (CMB) |
|
Who is eligible to be awarded the Combat Infantryman Badge (CIB)?
|
Personnel in the grade of Colonel or below with an infantry or special forces military occupational
specialty who have satisfactorily performed duty while assigned as a member of an infantry/special forces unit, brigade or smaller size, during any period subsequent to 6 December 1941 when the unit was engaged in active ground combat. There are specific criteria for each conflict that must also be met. |
|
What are the four specific eligibility requirements for the Combat Action Badge (CAB)?
|
1. May be awarded to any Soldier.
2. Soldier must be performing assigned duties in an area where hostile fire pay or imminent danger pay is authorized. 3. Soldier must be personally present and actively engaging or being engaged by the enemy, and performing satisfactorily in accordance with the prescribed rules of engagement. 4. Soldier must not be assigned/attached to a unit that would qualify the Soldier for the CIB/CMB. |
|
Can the Combat Action Badge be awarded to members of the other U.S. Armed Forces and
foreign Soldiers? |
Yes, provided they were assigned to a U.S. Army unit and meet the four specific eligibility
requirements for the award of the CAB. |
|
May Soldiers be awarded the CIB, CMB and CAB for the same qualifying period?
|
Yes, provided the criteria for each badge is met. However, subsequent awards of the same
badge within the same qualifying period are not authorized. |
|
Who is eligible to be awarded the Combat Medical Badge (CMB)?
|
The following medical personnel, assigned or attached by appropriate orders to an infantry unit of
brigade, regimental, or smaller size, or to a medical unit of company or smaller size, organic to an infantry unit of brigade or smaller size, during any period the infantry unit is engaged in actual ground combat are eligible for award of the badge, provided they are personally present and under fire during such ground combat: 1. Subsequent to 6 December 1941 – Army Medical Department (Colonels and below), the Navy Medical Department (Captains and below), the Air Force Medical Service (Colonels and below), assigned or attached to the Army, who have satisfactorily performed medical duties. 2. Subsequent to 19 December 1989 – Special Forces personnel possessing military occupational specialty 18D (Special Operations Medical Sergeant) who satisfactorily performed medical duties while assigned or attached to a Special Forces unit during any period the unit is engaged in actual ground combat, provided they are personally present and under fire. Retroactive awards are not authorized. 3. Subsequent to 16 January 1991 – Personnel outlined in (1) above, assigned or attached to Armor or ground Cavalry units of brigade or smaller size, who satisfactorily performed medical duties while the unit is engaged in actual ground combat, provided they are personally present and under fire. Retroactive awards are not authorized. 4. Subsequent to 11 September 2001 – Personnel outlined in (1) and (3) above, assigned or attached to or under operational control of any ground Combat Arms units (not to include members assigned or attached to Aviation units) of brigade or smaller size, who satisfactorily performed medical duties while the unit is engaged in actual ground combat provided they are personally present and under fire. Retroactive awards are not authorized. |
|
Why is the flag worn on the right shoulder of the Utility Uniform?
|
The flag is worn on the right shoulder to give the effect of the flag flying in the breeze as the
wearer moves forward. |
|
Why are all Soldiers in the U.S. Army now authorized to wear the Reverse-Side Full-Color U.S.
Flag Cloth Replica upon gaining permission from their commander? |
The Nation is at war and will be for the foreseeable future. As an expeditionary Army, our
Soldiers' commitment to fight and win our Nation's War, at home and abroad, is best exemplified by permanently wearing the U.S. Flag insignia on the utility uniforms. |
|
What AR covers the issue and sale of personal clothing?
|
700-84
|
|
When is the only time commercially designed protective headgear is authorized for wear with
Army uniforms? |
When operating motorcycles, bicycles or like vehicles but once the travel is complete protective
headgear must be removed and army headgear donned |
|
When must Identification tags be worn?
|
When directed by the commander, engaged in field training, in an aircraft, or OCONUS
|
|
What does "ECWCS" stand for?
|
Extended Cold Weather Clothing System
|
|
What are the ranks that shoulder boards come in?
|
Corporal through SGM of the Army and also the Officer Ranks.
|
|
What is a CVC uniform?
|
Combat Vehicle Crewman's Uniform (Tanker's Uniform)
|
|
Exposed pens in pockets are allowed on which uniforms?
|
Hospital duty uniforms
Food service uniforms Flight uniforms CVC uniforms |
|
How is the beret properly worn?
|
The beret is worn so that the headband (edge binding) is straight across the forehead, 1 inch
above the eyebrows. The flash is positioned over the left eye, and the excess material is draped over to the right ear extending to at least the top of the ear, and no lower than the middle of the ear. Personnel will cut off the ends of the adjusting ribbon and secure the ribbon knot inside the edge binding at the back of the beret. When worn properly, the beret is formed to the shape of the head; therefore, Soldiers may not wear hairstyles that cause distortion of the beret. |
|
When was the NCO support channel formally recognized?
|
dec 20 1976
|
|
What is sergents bussiness
|
to train and lead soldiers
|
|
what is a sergeant
|
a leader
|
|
explain the chain of command
|
the succession of commanders superior to subordinates through which the command is excercised
|
|
define responsibility
|
being accountable for what you do
|
|
How does the chain of command support the nco support channel
|
By legally punishing those who challenge a sergeant's authority
|
|
define duty
|
Duty is a legal or moral obligation to do what should be done without being told to do it
|
|
what is the role of the csm
|
Senior Enlisted Advisor to the Battalion commander
|
|
how does a commander excercise command
|
through subordiante commanders
|
|
when was the position of sergent major of the army establishes
|
july 4 1966
|
|
Is the CSM in the chain of command
|
no the nco support channel
|
|
what are key elements of comand
|
authority and resposibilty
|
|
What is the NCO support channel
|
It is the channel of communication that reinforces the Chain of Command
|
|
What must a Sergeant have in order to accomplish Sergeant's Business?
|
The skill, ability and leadership to train Soldiers for combat and lead them into combat
|
|
Who is the only member of both your chain of command and your NCO support channel?
|
Your first line supervisor; section, squad or team leader
|
|
what is purpose
|
Purpose gives subordinates the reason to act in order to achieve a desired outcome.
|
|
what is direction
|
Providing clear direction involves communicating how to accomplish a mission: prioritizing tasks,
assigning responsibility for completion, and ensuring subordinates understand the standard. |
|
Describe the "Be, Know and Do".
|
Army leadership begins with what the leader must BE, the values and attributes that shape a
leader’s character. Your skills are those things you KNOW how to do, your competence in everything from the technical side of your job to the people skills a leader requires. But character and knowledge—while absolutely necessary—are not enough. You cannot be effective, you cannot be a leader, until you apply what you know, until you act and DO what you must. |
|
What are the three principal ways that leaders can develop others through which they provide
knowledge and feedback? |
1. Counseling
2. Coaching 3. Mentoring |
|
leader’s effectiveness is dramatically enhanced by understanding and developing what
areas? 1. |
1. Military Bearing
2. Physical Fitness 3. Confidence 4. Resilience (FM 6-22 Oct |
|
What is military bearing?
|
Projecting a commanding presence, a professional image of authority.
|
|
What is physical fitness?
|
Having sound health, strength, and endurance, which sustain emotional health
and conceptual abilities under prolonged stress. |
|
What is confidence?
|
Projecting self-confidence and certainty in the unit’s ability to succeed in whatever
it does; able to demonstrate composure and outward calm through steady control over emotion. |
|
What is resilience?
|
Showing a tendency to recover quickly from setbacks, shock, injuries, adversity, and
stress while maintaining a mission and organizational focus. |
|
What are the three core domains that shape the critical learning experiences throughout
Soldiers’ and leaders’ careers? |
1. Institutional training.
2. Training, education, and job experience gained during operational assignments. 3. Self-development. (FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / 8- |
|
What are the Leader Actions?
|
1. Influencing – getting people (Soldiers, Army civilians, and multinational partners) to do what is
necessary. 2. Operating – the actions taken to influence others to accomplish missions and to set the stage for future operations. 3. Improving – capturing and acting on important lessons of ongoing and completed projects and missions. (FM 6-22 Oct |
|
Attributes of an Army leader can best be defined as what an Army leader is. What are the
attributes of an Army leader? |
1. A leader of character
2. A leader with presence 3. A leader with intellectual capacity |
|
Core leader competencies are what an Army leader does. What are the core leader
competencies? |
1. An Army leader leads
2. An Army leader develops 3. An Army leader achieves. (FM 6-22 Oct 2006 / A-2 / PDF 145) |
|
Why must leaders introduce stress into training?
|
Using scenarios that closely resemble the stresses and effects of the real battlefield is essential
to victory and survival in combat. |
|
What are intended and unintended consequences?
|
Intended consequences are the anticipated results of a leader’s decisions and actions.
Unintended consequences arise from unplanned events that affect the organization or accomplishment of the mission. |
|
what is counseling
|
Counseling is the process used by leaders to review with a subordinate the subordinate’s
demonstrated performance and potential. |
|
What are the three major categories of developmental counseling?
|
1. Event counseling
2. Performance counseling 3. Professional growth counseling |
|
Character is essential to successful leadership. What are the three major factors that
determine a leader’s character? |
1. Army Values
2. Empathy 3. Warrior Ethos |
|
What are the 7 steps to problem solving?
|
1. ID the problem
2. Gather information 3. Develop criteria 4. Generate possible solutions 5. Analyze possible solutions 6. Compare possible solutions 7. Make and implement the decision |
|
What is reverse planning?
|
Reverse planning is a specific technique used to ensure that a concept leads to the intended end
state. |
|
To assess subordinates, leaders you must-
|
Observe and record subordinates’ performance in the core leader competencies.
Determine if the performances meet, exceed, or fall below expected standards. Tell subordinates what was observed and give an opportunity to comment. Help subordinates develop an individual development plan (IDP) to improve performance. |
|
What are the team building stages?
|
1. Formation
2. Enrichment 3. Sustainment |
|
What are the three approaches to counseling?
|
1. Directive
2. Non-directive 3. Combined (FM 6-22 Oct |
|
Explain the advantages and disadvantages of Directive counseling.
|
Quickest method.
Good for people who need clear, concise direction. Allows counselors to actively use their experience. Disadvantages: Doesn't encourage subordinates to be part of the solution. Tends to treat symptoms, not problems. Tends to discourage subordinates from talking freely. Solution is the counselor's, not the subordinate's. |
|
Explain the advantages and disadvantages of Non-Directive counseling.
|
Advantages:
Encourages maturity. Encourages open communication. Develops personal responsibility. Disadvantages: More time-consuming Requires greatest counselor skill. |
|
Explain the advantages and disadvantages of Combined counseling.
|
Advantages:
Moderately quick. Encourages maturity. Encourages open communication. Allows counselors to actively use their experience. Disadvantages May take too much time for some situations |
|
What are the three major categories of developmental counseling?
|
1. Event counseling
2. Performance counseling 3. Professional growth counseling |
|
What are some examples of Event counseling?
|
1. Instances of superior or substandard performance.
2. Reception and Integration Counseling. 3. Crisis Counseling 4. Referral Counseling 5. Promotion Counseling 6. Separation Counseling |
|
What areas would you cover in a reception and integration counseling?
|
Chain of command familiarization.
Organizational standards. Security and safety issues. Noncommissioned officer (NCO) support channel (who is in it and how it is used). On- and off-duty conduct. Personnel/personal affairs/initial and special clothing issue. Organizational history, structure, and mission. Soldier programs within the organization, such as Soldier of the Month/Quarter/Year, and educational and training opportunities. Off limits and danger areas. Functions and locations of support activities. On- and off-post recreational, educational, cultural, and historical opportunities. Foreign nation or host nation orientation. Other areas the individual should be aware of as determined by the leader. |
|
What are the steps required to prepare for counseling?
|
Select a suitable place.
Schedule the time. Notify the subordinate well in advance. Organize information. Outline the counseling session components. Plan the counseling strategy. Establish the right atmosphere. |
|
A counseling session consists of what 4 basic components?
|
Opening the session.
Discussing the issues. Developing the plan of action. Recording and closing the session |
|
What is the objective of counseling?
|
for one person to help another
|
|
Leaders should seek to develop and improve what three leader counseling skills?
|
1. Active Listening
2. Responding 3. Questioning |
|
What are the qualities of an effective counselor?
|
1. Respect for subordinates
2. Self-awareness 3. Cultural awareness 4. Empathy 5. Credibility |
|
Name some good conditions that make for good discipline
|
High performance standards
Loyalty to superiors and subordinates Competitive activities Tough training Open channel of communications |
|
What course of action should a supervisor take when a subordinate has been performing
below his/her usual standards? |
1. Counsel about substandard performance.
2. Attempt to define the problem with the Soldier. 3. Afford opportunity and time to solve the problem. 4. Make a written statement of counseling. |
|
What are the stresses that influence behavior?
|
Fear
Hunger Illness Anxiety Fatigue |
|
By neglecting the welfare of your Soldiers, you will probably do what?
|
Lose their respect and loyal cooperation
|
|
When is the directive approach in counseling most likely to be used?
|
When time is short; when the LEADER knows what to do; when the counseled Soldier has limited
problem-solving abilities |
|
Is it a requirement that a leader counsel his/her subordinates?
|
Yes. A leader who neglects to counsel his subordinates is negligent in his performance of duty
|
|
Is performance counseling limited to bad performance?
|
no
|
|
What are some counseling techniques leaders may explore during the nondirective or
combined counseling approaches? |
1. Suggesting Alternatives
2. Recommending 3. Persuading 4. Advising (FM 6-22 Oct |
|
What are some techniques leaders may use during the directive approach to counseling?
|
1. Corrective Training
2. Commanding |
|
What FM covers the duties, responsibilities and authorities of a NCO?
|
FM 7-22.7.
|
|
What does individual responsibility make a Soldier accountable for?
|
It makes them accountable for their personal conduct.
|
|
What is Command Authority?
|
Command authority is the authority leaders have over Soldiers by virtue of rank or assignment.
Command authority originates with the President and may be supplemented by law or regulation. |
|
What are the two most important responsibilities of a leader?
|
Mission accomplishment and the welfare of the Soldiers.
|
|
Where would a Soldier find a noncommissioned officer's role in reference to the chain of
command? |
ar 600-20
|
|
The authority of command that one individual exercises over others is acquired as a result of
what? |
grade and assignment
|
|
What is a NCO's principle duty and responsibility?
|
training
|
|
Name some basic responsibilities of a NCO?
|
Maintaining discipline
Maintaining government property Training Soldiers Ensuring the welfare of the Soldiers Executing the mission |
|
What is authority?
|
Authority is the legitimate power of a leader to direct those subordinates to him or to take action
within the scope of his position. |
|
Every Soldier has two responsibilities. What are they?
|
individual and command responsibilities
|
|
What is power?
|
Power is the ability, either physical, mental or moral to have a positive control over the actions of
others. |
|
what are the 5 types of power
|
1. Legal
2. Reward 3. Coercive 4. Referent 5. Expert |
|
what is legal power
|
The power derived from law and regulation.
|
|
what is reward power?
|
The power derived from the capacity of the leader to provide desired rewards to a Soldier for
good performance. |
|
what is coercive power
|
The power which influences a person to perform or behave in a manner contrary to how that
person desires to behave at the time. |
|
What is referent (charismatic) power?
|
The power derived from the leader's personality and is effective as a means of influencing
Soldiers to the extent they respect and admire the leader. |
|
what is expert power
|
The power derived from the leader's accumulation of knowledge, skills and capabilities.
|
|
How do you determine the amount of supervision needed to accomplish a task?
|
By considering your Soldiers' competence, motivation and commitment to perform the task.
|
|
To ensure your Soldiers understand and are carrying out the task, you should do what?
|
supervise the task
|
|
What is general military authority?
|
General military authority is authority extended to all Soldiers to take action and act in the
absence of a unit leader or other designated authority. It originates in oaths of office, law, rank structure, traditions and regulations. This broad-based authority also allows leaders to take appropriate corrective actions whenever a member of any armed service, anywhere, commits an act involving a breach of good order or discipline. For example, if you see Soldiers in a brawl, you have the general military authority (and the obligation) to stop the fight. This authority applies even if none of the Soldiers are in your unit. |
|
What are the four fundamental steps in supervising subordinates in the accomplishment of a
task? |
1. Assign the task
2. Set standards 3. Check progress 4. Determine if standards have been met (follow-up) |
|
What is supervision?
|
Keeping a grasp of the situation and ensuring that plans and policies are being followed; the art of
checking without undue harassment. |
|
What are the three different types of duties?
|
1. Specified
2. Directed 3. Implied duties |
|
What is a specified duty?
|
Specified duties are those related to jobs and positions. Directives such as Army regulations,
Department of the Army (DA) general orders, the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ), Soldier’s manuals, Army Training and Evaluation Program (ARTEP) publications and MOS job descriptions specify the duties. For example, AR 600-20 says that NCOs must ensure that their Soldiers get proper individual training and maintain personal appearance and cleanliness. |
|
What is a specified duty?
|
Specified duties are those related to jobs and positions. Directives such as Army regulations,
Department of the Army (DA) general orders, the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ), Soldier’s manuals, Army Training and Evaluation Program (ARTEP) publications and MOS job descriptions specify the duties. For example, AR 600-20 says that NCOs must ensure that their Soldiers get proper individual training and maintain personal appearance and cleanliness. |
|
What is a directed duty?
|
Directed duties are not specified as part of a job position or MOS or other directive. A superior
gives them orally or in writing. Directed duties include being in charge of quarters (CQ) or serving as sergeant of the guard, staff duty officer, company training NCO and NBC NCO, where these duties are not found in the unit’s organization charts. |
|
What is an implied duty?
|
Implied duties often support specified duties, but in some cases they may not be related to the
MOS job position. These duties may not be written but implied in the instructions. They’re duties that improve the quality of the job and help keep the unit functioning at an optimum level. In most cases, these duties depend on individual initiative. They improve the work environment and motivate Soldiers to perform because they want to, not because they have to. For example, while not specifically directed to do so, you hold in-ranks inspections daily to ensure your Soldiers’ appearance and equipment are up to standards. |
|
Who is the 1st Senior Enlisted Advisor to the Chairman Joint Chiefs of Staff (SEAC)?
|
SGM William Joseph Gainey.
|
|
When did the 1st Senior Enlisted Advisor to the Chairmen Joint Chiefs of Staff (SEAC) assume
the position? |
oct 1 2005
|
|
What grade is the Senior Enlisted Advisor to the Chairman Joint Chiefs of Staff (SEAC)?
|
The SEAC holds the grade of E-9 and is equal in seniority to the Services SEAs.
|
|
How many SMA have there been?
|
13
|
|
Name the five most recent Sergeant Majors of the Army:
|
Sergeant Major of the Army Kenneth O. Preston
Former Sergeant Major of the Army Jack L. Tilley Former Sergeant Major of the Army Robert E. Hall Former Sergeant Major of the Army Gene C. McKinney Former Sergeant Major of the Army Richard A. Kidd |
|
Who was the first Sergeant Major of the Army?
|
Sergeant Major William O. Wooldridge.
|
|
What year was the Sergeant Major of the Army Established?
|
1966
|
|
The Sergeants Major Course began in what year?
|
jan 1973
|
|
The history of the Noncommissioned Officer began in what year with the birth of the
Continental Army? |
1775
|
|
Who wrote the "Regulations for the Order and Discipline of the Troops of the United States",
also commonly called the "Blue Book" and thus standardized NCO duties and responsibilities in 1778? |
Inspector General Friedrich von Steuben
|
|
During the year 1778, what were the NCO ranks during that period?
|
Corporals
Sergeants First Sergeants Quartermaster Sergeants Sergeants Major Three NCOs received special recognition for acts of heroism during the American Revolution. Each received the Badge of Military Merit, a purple heart with a floral border and the word "merit" inscribed across the center. In practice this award was the precursor to the Medal of Honor introduced during the Civil War. What were their names? Sergeant Elijah Churchill Sergeant William Brown Sergeant Daniel Bissell |
|
During what year did the War Department make the first reference to noncommissioned officer
chevrons? |
1821
|
|
What publication published in 1829 provided instructions for training of noncommissioned
officers? |
the abstract of infantr tactics
|
|
The 417 page unofficial publication called the Noncommissioned Officers Manual, was
published in what year? |
1909
|
|
During what year did the symbol of NCO rank, the chevron, rotate to what we would today call
point up and become smaller in size? |
1902
|
|
During the period of World War 1, the First Sergeants often carried a book in their pockets that
contained administrative files. This book, which today may be known as a "leader’s book" contained the names of everyone in the company and their professional history (AWOLs, Work Habits, Promotions, etc.). This book was passed from First Sergeant to First Sergeant, staying within the company and providing the unit historical information. What was this book called? |
a black book
|
|
During what year did the AR 350-90 establish army-wide standards for NCO Academies?
|
1957
|
|
In 1958 the Army added two grades to the NCO Ranks, these pay grades would "provide for a
better delineation of responsibilities in the enlisted structure". What were the two new pay grades? |
e8 and e9
|
|
During what year did PLDC first become a mandatory prerequisite for promotion to Staff
Sergeant? |
1986
|
|
What Army Regulation prescribes the policies for completing evaluation reports that support
the Evaluation Reporting System (ERS)? |
AR 623-3
|
|
What DA Pamphlet prescribes the procedures for completing evaluation reports that support
the Evaluation Reporting System (ERS)? |
DA Pam 623-3
|
|
What does the Evaluation Reporting System (ERS) identify?
|
The ERS identifies officers and noncommissioned officers who are best qualified for promotion
and assignments to positions of higher responsibility. ERS also identifies Soldiers who should be kept on active duty, those who should be retained in grade, and those who should be eliminated. |
|
Under the ERS a Soldier is evaluated on performance and potential. In this system, what three
kinds of evaluations are given? |
1. Duty evaluations. Either the DA Form 67–9 or DA Form 2166–8 is used for these evaluations.
2. School evaluations. Either the DA Form 1059 and DA Form 1059–1 is used for these evaluations. 3. DA evaluations. Selection boards and personnel management systems are used for these evaluations. Duty and school evaluations are single time-and-place evaluations and are used to make DA evaluations. DA evaluations cover the entire career of an officer and noncommissioned officer. |
|
DA evaluations focus on an individual Soldier’s potential. They are judgments on their ability to
perform at current and higher grades, and they are also made to judge whether an officer or NCO should be retained and given greater responsibility in their present grade. In making DA evaluations, what three factors are considered? |
1. Army requirements for leaders: officers and noncommissioned officers frequently change. At
times, the Army has a need for leaders with certain backgrounds, experience, and expertise. The size of the Army leader corps by law in terms of strength by grade. Army needs limit the number of selections and assignments that can be made. Thus, a leader’s potential is partially determined by how they compare with their peers. 2. Duty performance. Performance of duty is an extremely important factor in determining a leader’s potential. Duty performance is judged by how well a Soldier performs their assigned tasks and how well they meet Army professional values uniquely established for each respective corps. 3. Leader qualifications. It must be considered in order to meet Army needs for outstanding leaders of troop or technical units, supporting staff managers, and technical specialists. One consideration in determining qualifications is the different skills and backgrounds required by different specialties. Another consideration is a Soldier’s individual progress through specialist fields to positions of greater responsibility. In addition, their length of service, civil schooling, military schooling, or other unique skills required by the Army are considered. |
|
What is the basic structure of the ERS?
|
Allows the rater to give shape and direction to the rated officer or noncommissioned officer’s
performance. Provides a chain-of-command evaluation of a Soldier’s performance and potential. Allows the entire evaluation reporting process to be reviewed. |
|
What is the ERS Process designed to do?
|
Set objectives for the rated Soldier that supports the organization’s overall achievement of the
mission. Review the rated Soldier’s objectives, special duties, assigned tasks, or special areas of emphasis and update them to meet current needs. Promote performance-related counseling to develop subordinates and better accomplish the organization’s mission. Evaluate the rated leader’s performance. Assess the rated leader’s potential. Ensure a review of the entire process. Noncommissioned officer’s organizational rating chain use DA Form 2166–8; and DA Form 2166–8–1. |
|
What will a rating chain for an NCO consist of?
|
Rated NCO
Rater Senior Rater Reviewer |
|
Can an NCO that is on a recommended list for promotion or frocked to one of the top three
NCO grades (first sergeant (1SG), SGM, or CSM) and is serving in an authorized position for the new grade, rate any NCO under their supervision, if after the rater’s promotion he/she will be senior in pay grade or date of rank to the rated NCO? |
yes
|
|
What is an NCOER?
|
Rating chain members use the DA Form 2166–8 (NCOER) to provide DA with performance and
potential assessments of each rated NCO. The DA Form 2166–8 also provides evaluation information to ensure that sound personnel management decisions can be made and that an NCO’s potential can be fully developed. |
|
How many types of NCOERs are there?
|
1. Annual
2. Change of Rater 3. Relief for Cause 4. Complete the Record 5. 60 Day Rater Option 6. 60 Day Senior Rater Option 7. Temporary Duty, Special Duty or Compassionate Reassignment |
|
What is the minimum period of time for rater qualification?
|
3 rated months
|
|
What is the minimum period of time for senior rater qualifications?
|
2 months
|
|
When will a member of an allied force meet senior rater qualifications?
|
never
|
|
What form is used for the NCO Counseling/Checklist Record?
|
DA Form 2166-8-1
|
|
What are some of the uses of an NCOER?
|
The information in evaluation reports, the Army’s needs, and the individual Soldier’s qualifications
will be used together as a basis for such personnel actions as school selection, promotion, assignment, military occupational specialty (MOS) classification, command sergeant major (CSM) designation, and qualitative management. |
|
What is a rating scheme?
|
A rating scheme is the published rating chain of the NCO’s rating officials (rater, senior rater, and
reviewer). |
|
What forms are used for the NCOER?
|
DA 2166-8-1, NCO Counseling Checklist/Record
DA 2166-8, NCO Evaluation Report. |
|
What is the minimum time period before the initial counseling must be done?
|
Within the first 30 days of the rating period, effective date of lateral appointment to corporal, or
promotion to sergeant, the rater will conduct the first counseling session with the rated NCO |
|
The initial counseling is slightly different than future counselings in that it primarily focuses on
what areas? |
Communicating performance standards to the rated NCO. It should specifically let the rated NCO
know what is expected during the rating period. The rater shows the rated NCO the rating chain and a complete duty description, discusses the meaning of the values and responsibilities contained on the NCOER, and explains the standards for success. |
|
Who is the last individual to sign the NCOER?
|
the rated nco
|
|
Does the rated NCOs signature mean that the rated NCO approves of the bullets / comments on
the NCOER? |
No, the rated Soldier’s signature will only verify the accuracy of the administrative data in Part I,
to include nonrated time; the rating officials in Part II; the APFT and height and weight data; and that the rated Soldier has seen the completed report. |
|
Are NCOERs required for POWs?
|
no
|
|
What are the parts of the NCOER?
|
Part I. Administrative Data
Part II. Authentication Part III. Duty Description Part IV. Army Values/ NCO Responsibilities Part V. Overall Performance and Potential |
|
What is the minimum period of time for the reviewer?
|
None, there is no minimum time required
|
|
Are handwritten comments allowed on the NCOER?
|
no
|
|
Will any references be made in an NCOER to an incomplete investigation (formal or informal)
concerning a Soldier? |
no
|
|
Rating an NCO's fears, inner feelings, enthusiasm, and overall confidence falls into which
Values/NCO Responsibility block? |
Physical Fitness/Military Bearing
|
|
Is the use of the 2166-8-1 mandatory for counseling all NCOs in the ranks of CPL through
CSM? |
yes
|
|
Who receives an NCOER?
|
All NCOs in the rank of SGT through CSM.
|
|
What annotation will be made on the NCOER for a NCO's performance as a member of a Court
Martial? |
none
|
|
What NCOER is used upon the removal of an NCO from a ratable assignment based on the
decision by a member of the NCO's chain of command? |
Relief-for-cause
|
|
What AR covers military justice?
|
AR 27-10
|
|
Does a person have to accept an article 15?
|
No, he or she has the right to demand a trial by court martial
|
|
What kind of extra duty is an NCO given by an article 15?
|
supervisory duty only
|
|
What is the UCMJ?
|
Uniform Code of Military Justice (the statute that prescribes criminal law for Soldiers)
|
|
How many articles are there in the UCMJ?
|
146
|
|
When was the UCMJ enacted?
|
1950
|
|
What is a field grade article 15?
|
An article 15 imposed by an O-4 or above
|
|
Who may impose an article 15?
|
Any commanding officer, including a warrant officer exercising command
|
|
What does the UCMJ establish?
|
It declares what conduct is a crime, establishes the various types of courts and sets forth the
basic procedures to be followed in the administration of military justice. |
|
What are the three classifications of article 15s?
|
1. Summarized
2. Company grade 3. Field grade |
|
What form is used to record Summarized Article 15 proceedings?
|
DA Form 2627-1
|
|
What are articles 77 through 134 of the UCMJ known as?
|
Punitive Articles
|
|
What are 3 types of court martial?
|
1. Summary
2. Special 3. General |
|
What are the maximum punishments that company commanders may impose?
|
14 Days extra duty
14 Days restriction 7 Days correctional custody (E3 and below) 7 Days forfeiture of pay 1 Grade reduction for E4 and below Oral or written letter of reprimand |
|
Who is the highest military court?
|
The court of military appeals
|
|
Under what article is Non-judicial punishment imposed?
|
article 15
|
|
Who makes up the court of military appeals?
|
The Court was originally composed of three civilian judges appointed by the President of the
United States for a normal term of 15 years and confirmed by the Senate of the United States. However, effective October 1,1990, Congress increased the membership on this Federal Court to five civilian judges, maintaining the original appointment and confirmation process. Except for ceremonial sessions and special hearing sessions held in various sections of the United States, the Court sits only in Washington, D.C. |
|
What is one circumstance when a Soldier does not have the right to refuse an Article 15 and
demand trial by court martial? |
When aboard a ship
|
|
What rights are given to a Soldier under Article 31?
|
The rights given to a Soldier under Article 31 are: the right to remain silent, the right to demand
trial, and the right to an attorney |
|
What should prisoners be searched for?
|
Hidden weapons and documents of intelligence value
|
|
Does the COC apply to Soldiers held by terrorists during peacetime?
|
yes
|
|
What is the main purpose of the Geneva Convention?
|
It provides rules that prisoners of war must be treated humanely. Specifically forbidden are
violence to life and person, cruel treatment and torture, outrages on personal dignity (in particular, humiliating and degrading treatment) |
|
Under the Geneva Convention rules, can a person worship as he pleases?
|
yes
|
|
What document supports the COC?
|
Manual for Courts- Martial under Uniform Code of Military Justice
|
|
When was the Code of Conduct established?
|
17 August 1955 under the Eisenhower Administration
|
|
What Army Regulation covers the Code Of Conduct?
|
AR 350-30
|
|
If you were to become a prisoner of war (POW), what information would you be required to
give? |
Name, Rank
Service Number Date of Birth |
|
Which article of the Code pertains to escape and evasion?
|
article 3
|
|
When was the COC amended?
|
may 1988
|
|
How many articles are in the COC?
|
6
|
|
What is the first sentence of Article 1?
|
"I am an American, fighting in the forces which guard my country and our way of life."
|
|
What does SERE stand for?
|
Survival, Evasion, Resistance, and Escape
|
|
What was the reason that the COC was developed?
|
To provide a mental defense for U.S. POWs to use to resist enemy POW management practices
|
|
Salutes are not required to be rendered or returned when the senior or subordinate, or both are
what? |
In civilian attire.
Engaged in routine work if the salute would interfere. Carrying articles with both hands so occupied as to make saluting impracticable. Working as a member of a detail, or engaged in sports or social functions where saluting would present a safety hazard. In public places such as theaters, churches, and in public conveyances. In the ranks of a formation. |
|
What is the proper process for reporting to an Officer indoors?
|
When reporting to an officer in his office, the Soldier removes his headgear, knocks, and enters
when told to do so. He approaches within two steps of the officer’s desk, halts, salutes, and reports, “Sir (Ma’am), Private Jones reports.” The salute is held until the report is completed and the salute has been returned by the officer. When the business is completed, the Soldier salutes, holds the salute until it has been returned, executes the appropriate facing movement, and departs. When reporting indoors under arms, the procedure is the same except that the headgear is not removed and the Soldier renders the salute prescribed for the weapon with which he is armed. |
|
What is the proper process for reporting to an Officer outdoors?
|
When reporting outdoors, the Soldier moves rapidly toward the officer, halts approximately three
steps from the officer, salutes, and reports (as when indoors). When the Soldier is dismissed by the officer, salutes are again exchanged. If under arms, the Soldier carries the weapon in the manner prescribed for saluting. |
|
Enlisted members generally do not exchange salutes, what are some examples of when they
would exchange salutes? |
When rendering reports in formation
When reporting to an enlisted president of a board |
|
Is the recipient of the Medal of Honor (Enlisted or Commissioned) entitled to a salute?
|
yes
|
|
During the sounding of reveille, when is the flag hoisted?
|
On the first note of reveille
|
|
At the last note of retreat, what will happen?
|
A gun will be fired (if available) on military installations, followed by the playing of the national
anthem or sound of “To the Color” (using a drum and bugle corps, a bugler, or recorded music) concurrent with the lowering of the flag. The flag will be lowered to ensure completion at the last note of the music. The same respect will be observed by all military personnel whether the national anthem is played or "To the Color" is sounded. |
|
When foreign Soldiers are invited by U.S. forces to participate in parades, where will they be
positioned? |
They will be assigned a position of honor ahead of U.S. Soldiers. As a special compliment, a
small escort of honor composed of U.S. Soldiers will precede the foreign Soldiers. |
|
When was “The Army Goes Rolling Along” dedicated by the Secretary of the Army?
|
Veterans Day, 11 November 1956, and officially announced on 12 December 1957
|
|
The Army Song is always played at the conclusion of what events?
|
Reviews
Parades Honor Guard Ceremonies |
|
What is it customary for all Officers of a unit, organization or installation to do on New Year’s
Day? |
Call upon the commanding officer on New Year’s Day. The commander may designate a
convenient hour and place for receiving such visits or omit the visit if desired. Commanders may exercise the option to have such visits take place on a day other than New Year’s Day if deemed more practical. (AR 600-25 Sept 2004 |
|
What personnel are included in Full Military Funeral Honors?
|
9–Member team (6 pallbearers and/or firing party, a chaplain, and officer and/or NCO in charge,
and a bugler (if available)). The team serves as pallbearers and the firing party, folds and presents the American flag to the next of kin, and plays “Taps.” A member of the decedent’s parent military service will present the flag. |
|
How long is the call "To the Color"
|
40 sec
|
|
What are the courtesies rendered by individuals during Reveille if they are in uniform and in
formation either with or without headgear? |
Execute "Present Arms" at the command of officer or NCO in charge. Execute "Order Arms" at
the command of officer or NCO in charge. |
|
What are the courtesies rendered by individuals during Reveille if they are in uniform and not
in formation either with or without headgear? |
At the first note of music, face flag and render hand salute (if flag is not in view, face direction of
music). End salute on last note of music. |
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What are the courtesies rendered by individuals during Retreat and To the Color if they are in
uniform and in formation either with or without headgear? |
1. At the first note of Retreat, execute "Parade Rest" at the command of the officer or NCO in
charge. Remain at Parade Rest until given "Attention" by officer or NCO in charge. 2. At the first note of To the Color, execute "Present Arms" at the command of officer or NCO in charge. Execute "Order Arms" at the command of officer or NCO in charge. |
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What are the courtesies rendered by individuals during Retreat and To the Color if they are in
uniform and not in formation either with or without headgear? |
1. At the first note of Retreat, face flag and stand at attention (if flag is not in view, face direction of
music). Remain at attention until last note of "TO THE COLOR" has been played. 2. At the first note of To the Color: If outdoors, render hand salute; if indoors, stand at attention. Hold this position until the last note of music has been played. |