The Boards - Usmlerx Flashfacts To Remember

Front 1

What word describes the phenomenon of a single gene having more than one effect on an individual's phenotype?

Back 1

Pleiotropy

Front 2

A patient has inherited a mutation in a tumor suppressor gene. Mutation of the remaining (previously normal) copy of the tumor suppressor gene represents a loss of _____, which may lead to the development of cancer.

Back 2

Heterozygosity; the patient was previously a heterozygote for the lost tumor suppressor gene

Front 3

A genetic disease that shows _____ _____ will have mutations at different loci that produce the same phenotype.

Back 3

Locus heterogeneity

Front 4

What term describes the presence of both normal and mutated mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA), resulting in variable expression in mitochondrial inherited diseases?

Back 4

Heteroplasmy

Front 5

Name the genetic phenomenon that occurs when the offspring receives 2 copies of a chromosome from 1 parent and no copies from the other parent.

Back 5

Uniparental disomy

Front 6

In Leber's hereditary optic neuropathy, vision loss is _____ (central/peripheral).

Back 6

Central (like macular degeneration)

Front 7

What is the pattern of inheritance of hypophosphatemic rickets?

Back 7

X-linked dominant

Front 8

Autosomal-recessive patterns of inheritance are often found in diseases caused by defects in _____.

Back 8

Enzymes

Front 9

Autosomal-dominant patterns of inheritance are often found in diseases caused by defects in _____ genes.

Back 9

Structural

Front 10

Fatty acid oxidation occurs in the _____ (mitochondria/cytoplasm), whereas fatty acid synthesis occurs in the _____ (mitochondria/cytoplasm).

Back 10

Mitochondria; cytoplasm

Front 11

Name the three pathways that occur in both the cytoplasm and the mitochondria.

Back 11

Heme synthesis, the Urea cycle, and Gluconeogenesis; remember the mnemonic: HUGs take two

Front 12

Four pathways that occur in the mitochondria

Back 12

Fatty acid oxidation, acetyl-CoA production, Krebs cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation

Front 13

What is the rate-determining enzyme of de novo pyrimidine synthesis?

Back 13

Carbomyl phosphate synthetase II

Front 14

What is the rate-determining enzyme of de novo purine synthesis?

Back 14

Glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase

Front 15

What is the rate-determining enzyme of glycolysis?

Back 15

PFK-1

Front 16

What is the rate-determining enzyme of gluconeogenesis?

Back 16

Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase (F-1,6-BP)

Front 17

What is the rate-determining enzyme of the TCA cycle?

Back 17

Isocitrate dehydrogenase

Front 18

What is the rate-determining enzyme of glycogen synthesis?

Back 18

Glycogen synthase

Front 19

What is the rate-determining enzyme of glycogenolysis?

Back 19

Glycogen phosphorylase

Front 20

What is the rate-determining enzyme of the HMP shunt?

Back 20

G6PD

Front 21

What is the rate-determining enzyme of fatty acid synthesis?

Back 21

Acetyl-CoA carboxylase

Front 22

What is the rate-determining enzyme of fatty acid oxidation?

Back 22

Carnitine acetyltransferase I

Front 23

What is the rate-determining enzyme of ketogenesis?

Back 23

HMG-CoA synthase

Front 24

What is the rate-determining enzyme of cholesterol synthesis?

Back 24

HMG-CoA reductase

Front 25

What is the rate-determining enzyme of the urea cycle?

Back 25

Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase

Front 26

How many ATP molecules are produced from the aerobic metabolism of glucose via the malate-aspartate shuttle?

Back 26

32; occurs in the heart and liver

Front 27

How many ATP molecules are produced from the aerobic metabolism of glucose via the glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate shuttle?

Back 27

30; this occurs in the muscle

Front 28

What compounds are used as single-carbon donors in various reactions?

Back 28

Tetrahydrofolates (THFs)

Front 29

What vitamin is the donor of the carboxyl group used in many biochemical reactions in the body?

Back 29

Biotin

Front 30

What molecule donates methyl groups?

Back 30

S-adenosylmethionine (SAM)

Front 31

What enzyme deficiency is seen in Fabry's disease?

Back 31

α-Galactosidase A

Front 32

A patient presents with progressive neurodegeneration, hepatosplenomegaly, and a cherry-red spot on his macula. Histologic examination reveals cells containing lipid droplets, confirming a lysosomal storage disease. What are these cells called?

Back 32

Foam cells; seen in Niemann-Pick disease

Front 33

A patient presents with peripheral neuropathy, developmental delay, and optic atrophy. Histologic examination reveals multinucleated macrophages, confirming your diagnosis of a lysosomal storage disease. What are these cells called?

Back 33

Globoid cells; seen in Krabbe's disease

Front 34

A deficiency of the enzyme α-galactosidase A leads to what disease?

Back 34

Fabry's disease

Front 35

What substrate is accumulated in Fabry's disease?

Back 35

Ceramide trihexose

Front 36

A patient shows mild symptoms similar to Hurler's syndrome, but no corneal clouding; what kind of behavior patterns do you expect?

Back 36

Aggressive behavior; seen in Hunter's syndrome

Front 37

What type of inheritance does Fabry's disease demonstrate?

Back 37

X-linked recessive

Front 38

A patient has peripheral neuropathy of the hands and feet, angiokeratomas of the skin, and both cardiovascular and renal disease. These characteristics are typical of which lysosomal storage disease?

Back 38

Fabry's disease

Front 39

Name six types of sphingolipidosis.

Back 39

Fabry's disease, Gaucher's disease, Niemann-Pick disease, Tay-Sachs disease, Krabbe's disease, metachromatic leukodystrophy

Front 40

What enzyme deficiency leads to Gaucher's disease?

Back 40

β-Glucocerebrosidase

Front 41

What is the most common lysosomal storage disease?

Back 41

Gaucher's disease

Front 42

What three lysosomal storage disorders are Ashkenazi Jews at increased risk for?

Back 42

Tay-Sachs, Niemann-Pick, and some forms of Gaucher's disease

Front 43

A patient has hepatosplenomegaly, aseptic necrosis of the femur, bone crises, and abnormal macrophages on histologic examination. These characteristics are typical of which lysosomal storage disease?

Back 43

Gaucher's disease

Front 44

What enzyme deficiency leads to Niemann-Pick disease?

Back 44

Sphingomyelinase

Front 45

A child has progressive neurodegeneration, hepatosplenomegaly, and a cherry-red spot on his macula. These characteristics are typical of which lysosomal storage disease?

Back 45

Niemann-Pick disease

Front 46

What substrate is accumulated in Tay-Sachs disease?

Back 46

GM2 ganglioside

Front 47

A child has progressive neurodegeneration, developmental delay, cherry-red spots on the macula, and lysosomes with onion skin. These characteristics are typical of which lysosomal storage disease?

Back 47

Tay-Sachs disease

Front 48

Name two lysosomal storage diseases that may present with a cherry-red spot on the macula.

Back 48

Niemann-Pick disease and Tay-Sachs disease

Front 49

What enzyme deficiency leads to Krabbe's disease?

Back 49

Galactocerebrosidase

Front 50

A patient has peripheral neuropathy, developmental delay, and optic atrophy. These characteristics are typical of which lysosomal storage disease?

Back 50

Krabbe's disease

Front 51

What are the names of the cells that may serve as histologic confirmation of Niemann-Pick disease?

Back 51

Foam cells

Front 52

What are the names of the cells that may serve as histologic confirmation of Krabbe's disease?

Back 52

Globoid cells

Front 53

What enzyme deficiency leads to metachromatic leukodystrophy?

Back 53

Arylsulfatase A

Front 54

What substrate is accumulated in metachromatic leukodystrophy?

Back 54

Cerebroside sulfate

Front 55

A patient has central and peripheral demyelination with ataxia and dementia. These characteristics are typical of which lysosomal storage disease?

Back 55

Metachromatic leukodystrophy

Front 56

What enzyme deficiency leads to Hurler's syndrome?

Back 56

α-L-iduronidase

Front 57

A patient has developmental delay, gargoylism, airway obstruction, and corneal clouding. These characteristics are typical of which lysosomal storage disease?

Back 57

Hurler's disease

Front 58

What substances accumulate in mucolipodosis?

Back 58

Heparan sulfate and dermatan sulfate

Front 59

What enzyme deficiency leads to Hunter's syndrome?

Back 59

Iduronate sulfatase

Front 60

What pattern of inheritance does Hunter's syndrome demonstrate?

Back 60

X-linked recessive

Front 61

A patient has mild developmental delay, gargoylism, and airway obstruction but no corneal clouding. These characteristics are typical of which lysosomal storage disease?

Back 61

Hunter's syndrome

Front 62

Name the two lysosomal storage diseases that show x-linked recessive inheritance.

Back 62

Fabry's disease and Hunter's syndrome

Front 63

In which direction does the citrate shuttle move acetyl coenzyme A between the cytoplasm and the mitochondria?

Back 63

From the mitochondria to the cytoplasm

Front 64

What is the intracellular location of the citrate shuttle?

Back 64

The inner mitochondrial membrane

Front 65

In acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency, dicarboxylic acid levels _____ (increase/decrease) and glucose and ketone levels _____ (increase/decrease).

Back 65

Increase; decrease

Front 66

What two blood vessels and one nerve run along the spine at the level of the umbilicus?

Back 66

aorta, IVC, sympathetic trunk

Front 67

True or False: The latissimus dorsi is more superficial than the quadratus lumborum.

Back 67

true

Front 68

True or False: The transversalis fascia runs superficially to the transversus abdominis muscle.

Back 68

false

Front 69

True or False: The rectus sheath wraps around the outside of the rectus abdominis.

Back 69

true

Front 70

What is the most superficial muscle group making up the lateral abdominal wall?

Back 70

external oblique

Front 71

What is the deepest muscle group making up the lateral abdominal wall?

Back 71

transversus abdominis

Front 72

What lies between the bilateral rectus abdominis muscles, formed by the rectus sheath?

Back 72

linea alba

Front 73

Name two major organs that lie completely in the retroperitoneal space.

Back 73

kidneys and adrenal glands

Front 74

What part of the pancreas is not found in the retroperitoneal space?

Back 74

the tail

Front 75

True or False: The rectum lies in the retroperitoneal space.

Back 75

true

Front 76

Keep the lesser and greater curvatures of the stomach straight!

Back 76

Front 77

Which two parts of the urinary system are retroperitoneal?

Back 77

kidneys and ureters

Front 78

Which parts of the colon are found in the retroperitoneal space?

Back 78

ascending and descending colon

Front 79

In the gastrointestinal tract, the falciform ligament connects which two structures?

Back 79

liver and anterior abdominal wall

Front 80

In the gastrointestinal tract, the gastrohepatic ligament connects which two structures?

Back 80

liver and LESSER CURVATURE of the stomach

Front 81

In the gastrointestinal tract, the gastrocolic ligament connects which two structures?

Back 81

TRANSVERSE colon and GREATER CURVATURE of the stomach

Front 82

In the gastrointestinal tract, the splenorenal ligament connects which two structures?

Back 82

spleen to the POSTERIOR ABDOMINAL WALL (remember that the kidneys are retroperitoneal not within the abdominal cavity itself!)

Front 83

The hepatoduodenal ligament contains what structures?

Back 83

portal artery, portal vein and common bile duct (the hepatic TriaD, hepaToDuodental)

Front 84

The gastrohepatic ligament contains what structures?

Back 84

gastric arteries

Front 85

The gastrocolic ligament contains what structures?

Back 85

gastroepiploic arteries

Front 86

The splenorenal ligament contains what structures?

Back 86

splenic artery and vein

Front 87

Name the ligament in the gastrointestional tract which is dervived from the fetal umbilical vein.

Back 87

falciform ligament

Front 88

The portal triad can be compressed through what opening to control bleeding?

Back 88

omental foramen (also known as the epiploic foramen of Winslow)

Front 89

What gastrointestinal ligament can be cut to access the lesser sac during surgery?

Back 89

gastrohepatic ligament (it separates the RIGHT greater and lesser sacs)

Front 90

The gastrosplenic ligament separates what two structures?

Back 90

LEFT greater and lesser sacs

Front 91

Don't forget where the greater and lesser sacs are! And, remember that the lesser sac may also called the omental bursa.

Back 91

Front 92

You must pound this abdominal cross-section into your head...especially the important GI ligaments!

Back 92

Front 93

Pound the layers of the abdominal wall into your brain!

Back 93

Front 94

What structure attaches the digestive tract to the abdominal wall?

Back 94

the mesentery

Front 95

remember the histological layers of the GI tract!

Back 95

Front 96

Which layer of the muscularis externa is closer to the lumen: the circular layer or the longitudinal layer?

Back 96

the circular layer

Front 97

What is another name for the serosa?

Back 97

the adventitia

Front 98

List three components of the gut wall mucosa.

Back 98

epithelium, lamina propria, muscularis muscosa

Front 99

What is the primary function of the lamina propria of the gut wall mucosa?

Back 99

support

Front 100

What structure is found within the submucosa of the gut wall?

Back 100

Meissner's plexus

Front 101

What lies between the inner circular and outer longitudinal layers of the muscularis externa?

Back 101

the myenteric nerve (Auerbach's) plexus

Front 102

List the four main layers of the gut wall, starting from the inside and going out.

Back 102

mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, serosa

Front 103

What is the rate of basal electrical rhythm in the duodenum?

Back 103

12 waves/min

Front 104

What is the rate of basal electrical rhythm in the stomach?

Back 104

3 waves/min

Front 105

What is the rate of basal electrical rhythm in the ileum?

Back 105

8-9 waves/min

Front 106

In what portion of the gut does the myenteric plexus coordinate motility?

Back 106

along the entire gut wall

Front 107

The submucosal plexus is located between what two layers?

Back 107

mucosa and the innner (circular) layer of smooth muscle

Front 108

True or False: The vagus nerve innervates structures at the L3 vertebral level.

Back 108

False; the L3 vertebral level is innervated by the pelvic parasympathetics (hindgut region)

Front 109

What is the parasympathetic innervation for the liver, gallbladder and pancreas?

Back 109

vagus nerve (CN X)

Front 110

Where is the division between the foregut and the midgut?

Back 110

Middle of the duodenum, the proximal duodenum is part of the foregut, the distal duodenum is part of the midgut

Front 111

Where is the division between the midgut and the hindgut?

Back 111

2/3rds of the way through the transverse colon it changes from midgut to hindgut

Front 112

Name the 3 brances of the celiac trunk.

Back 112

Common hepatic artery, splenic artery, and left gastric artery

Front 113

True or False: The cystic artery is a branch of the hepatic artery proper.

Back 113

False, the cystic artery is a branch of the right hepatic artery

Front 114

What are the two branches of the gastroduodenal artery?

Back 114

Superior pancreaticoduodenal and right gastroepiploic arteries

Front 115

True or False: The right and left gastroepiploic arteries anastamose along the lesser margin of the stomach.

Back 115

False, they anastamose along the greater margin

Front 116

The short gastric arteries have poor anastomoses if the _____ artery is blocked.

Back 116

Splenic

Front 117

Strong anastomoses exist between what two sets of arteries of the celiac trunk?

Back 117

L & R gastroepicloics and L & R gastrics

Front 118

Know the branches of the celiac trunk

Back 118

Front 119

The internal thoracic/mammary (subclavian) can anastamose with the inferior epigastric (external iliac) via what arterial connection?

Back 119

superior epigastric (internal thoracic)

Front 120

If the abdominal aorta is blocked, the superior pancreaticoduodenal (celiac trunk) artery can anastamose with what vessel?

Back 120

inferior pancreaticoduodenal (SMA)

Front 121

If the abdominal aorta is blocked, which artery can anastamose with the left colic artery (IMA)?

Back 121

middle colic artery (SMA)

Front 122

The superior rectal artery (IMA) can anastamose with what artery?

Back 122

middle rectal artery (internal iliac)

Front 123

Esophageal varices result from anastomoses between the _______ vein and the _______ vein.

Back 123

left gastric vein; esophageal vein

Front 124

Caput medusae results from anastomoses between the ____ vein and ____/_____ veins.

Back 124

paraumbilical vein; superior and inferior epigastric veins

Front 125

Hemorrhoids result from anastomoses between the ______ vein and _____ and _____ veins.

Back 125

superior rectal vein; middle and inferior rectal veins

Front 126

Portocaval shunt placement between the ______ _____ and ______ _____ veins relieves portal hypertension by shunting blood from the ______ circulation to the ______ circulation.

Back 126

splenic vein; left renal vein; portal; systemic

Front 127

Be sure to know all the layers involved in the inguinal canal

Back 127

Front 128

What fluid drains through the space of Disse?

Back 128

lymph (in the liver)

Front 129

In the liver, bile flows from zone ___ (centrilobular zone) to zone _____ (periportal zone).

Back 129

zone III; zone I

Front 130

In the liver, venous blood flows from the ___ zone to the ___ zone.

Back 130

periportal; centrilobular - remember it enters via the portal vein

Front 131

In the liver, hepatocytes secrete bile into the bile _____, which drain into the bile _____ leading to the central hepatic duct.

Back 131

canaliculi; ductules

Front 132

Are the zones of the liver numbered according to the flow of venous blood or of bile

Back 132

According to the flow of venous blood - zone I is where the blood enters (periportal region) and zone III is where the blood exits the liver (centrilobular region)

Front 133

True or False: Zone I (periportal zone) of the liver is affected first by viral hepatitis.

Back 133

True - remember that viral hepatitis is a BLOOD-BORNE illness

Front 134

Zone III (pericentral zone/centrilobular zone) is the first site affected by ______ (alcoholic/viral) hepatitis.

Back 134

centrilobular zone; ALCOHOLIC hepatitis (most sensitive to toxins)

Front 135

Name two characteristics of the sinusoids of the liver that make them "irregular capillaries."

Back 135

fenestrated epithelium and lack of a basement membrane

Front 136

En route from the liver sinusoids to the hepatocytes, plasma macromolecules must pass through what space?

Back 136

the perisinusoidal space (space of Disse)

Front 137

A patient presents with right upper quadrant abdominal pain. Further work-up reveals a gallstone obstructing the common bile duct. Which two biliary ducts drain directly into the common bile duct?

Back 137

cystic duct and common hepatic duct

Front 138

Know the anatomy of the bile ducts

Back 138

Front 139

What is the name of the structure formed by the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct as they empty into the duodenum?

Back 139

the ampulla of Vater

Front 140

What structure forms the lateral border of the femoral triangle?

Back 140

the sartorius muscle

Front 141

What structure forms the medial border of the femoral triangle?

Back 141

the adductor longus muscle

Front 142

What three main structures are contained within the femoral sheath?

Back 142

femoral artery, femoral vein, femoral canal

Front 143

What does the femoral canal contain?

Back 143

the deep inguinal lymph nodes

Front 144

What femoral triangle structure lies outside of the femoral sheath?

Back 144

the femoral NERVE

Front 145

What acronym do you use to remember the structures in the femoral triangle?

Back 145

NAVEL - lateral to medial contents of the femoral triangle - Nerve, Artery, Vein, Empty space, Lymphatics - remember the Venous near the Penis

Front 146

Know indirect inguinal hernias

Back 146

Front 147

Know direct inguinal hernias

Back 147

Front 148

What acronym do you use for the contents of the carotid sheath?

Back 148

VAN - think of someone with VAN Morrison tattooed on their neck - Vein, Artery, Nerve

Front 149

What structure is described in relation to inguinal hernias?

Back 149

inferior epigastric artery

Front 150

What acronym do you use for the contents of the carotid sheath?

Back 150

VAN - think of someone with VAN Morrison tattooed on their neck - Vein, Artery, Nerve

Front 151

What structure is described in relation to inguinal hernias?

Back 151

inferior epigastric artery

Front 152

What is the site of protrusion of an indirect hernia in the inguinal canal?

Back 152

the INternal inguinal ring is the structure through which an INdirect inguinal hernia protrudes

Front 153

Which runs more medially, the medial umbilical ligament or the median umbilical ligament?

Back 153

the mediaN umbilical ligament - think about how the median of a road is it's dead center

Front 154

Name the layers that compose the spermatic cord, from the most superficial to the deepest layer.

Back 154

external spermatic fascia, cremasteric muscle, internal spermatic fascia

Front 155

True or False: The rectus abdominis muscle is deep to the pyramidalis muscle and superficial to the medial/median umbilical ligaments.

Back 155

TRUE

Front 156

From the most superficial layer to deep, what are the three muscles that cover the internal (deep) inguinal ring?

Back 156

external oblique, internal oblique, rectus abdominis

Front 157

What cells produce the hormone gastrin?

Back 157

G cells

Front 158

Where within the gastrointestinal tract are G cells located?

Back 158

the antrum of the stomach

Front 159

What hormone causes the following three effects: increased hydrogen secretion, increased growth of the gastric mucosa, and increased gastric motility?

Back 159

gastrin

Front 160

The presence of what substance within the stomach leads to increased gastrin release?

Back 160

amino acids (or peptides) - especially phenylalanine and tryptophan

Front 161

What cells in the gastrointestinal tract make cholecystokinin?

Back 161

I cells

Front 162

In cholelithiasis, the worsened pain experienced after the ingestion of fatty foods is the result of the increased release of what substance?

Back 162

CCK - increases contraction of the gallbladder

Front 163

Secretin is produced by what cells?

Back 163

S cells

Front 164

Where in the gastrointestinal tract are S cells located?

Back 164

duodenum

Front 165

What two types of GI hormone secreting cells are found in the duodenum and jejunum but not in the ileum

Back 165

I cells (secrete cholecystokinin, CCK) and K cells (secrete glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide, GIP)

Front 166

Secretin has what effect on the pancreas?

Back 166

increased bicarbonate secretion

Front 167

Which two substances stimuate secretin release within the duodenum?

Back 167

acid and fatty acids

Front 168

True or False: There are clinically useful inhibitors for the gastrin receptors on the parietal cells.

Back 168

false

Front 169

Acetylcholine and gastrin act through which second messenger system in parietal cells?

Back 169

Gq / IP3 / Ca signaling

Front 170

What transporter is required for glucose and galactose uptake?

Back 170

SGLT1 and it's Na+ dependent

Front 171

What transporter is required for fructose uptake?

Back 171

GLUT-5

Front 172

What is the only monosaccharide with Na independent uptake?

Back 172

fructose

Front 173

What transporter is required for monosaccharide transport into the blood?

Back 173

GLUT-2

Front 174

Fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus damages what nerve?

Back 174

axillary nerve - may also hit the posterior circumflex humoral artery

Front 175

Fracture of the midshaft of the humerus damages what nerve?

Back 175

radial nerve (lies in the radial groove) - may also hit the profunda brachial/brachii artery

Front 176

Fracture of the supracondylar humerus damages what nerve?

Back 176

median nerve

Front 177

Fracture of the medial epicondyle of the humerus damages what nerve?

Back 177

ulnar nerve

Front 178

Know where a "Colles" fracture is...most common fracture seen in little only ladies w/ osteoporosis...distal 2 cm of the radius

Back 178

Front 179

Know your humeral fractures and what arteries and nerves may be damaged with each

Back 179

Front 180

Match these up correctly: Apolipoproteins B-100 and B-48 / Liver and Intestine

Back 180

B-100 in the liver, B-48 in the intestine - remember apo B-48 in on chylomicrons while apo B-100 is on VLDL and chylomicrons transport dietary TGs while VLDL transports TG synthesized in the liver

Front 181

Can the liver use ketones for fuel?

Back 181

NO! it's missing a key enzyme in the mito

Front 182

What congenital defect produces a similar symptom to those seen in an infant with PKU who consumes phenylalanine?

Back 182

congenital pyloric stenosis - will have projectile vomiting

Front 183

Into what two monomers is lactose degraded?

Back 183

glucose + galactose

Front 184

Into what two monomers is sucrose degraded?

Back 184

glucose + fructose

Front 185

A patient has an anterior hip dislocation and can no longer adduct the thigh. She has a sensory deficit along the medial thigh. What nerve has been damaged?

Back 185

obturator n.

Front 186

A patient has a pelvic fracture. He can no longer flex his thigh or extend his leg. He has a sensory deficit along the anterior thigh and medial leg. What nerve has been damaged?

Back 186

femoral n.

Front 187

A patient has a pelvic fracture and has damaged his femoral nerve. On physical exam one would expect that he can no longer _____ (flex/extend) his thigh, nor can he _____ (flex/extend) his leg.

Back 187

flex; extend

Front 188

A patient has a pelvic fracture and has damaged his femoral nerve. On physical exam one would expect decreased sensation along the _____ (anterior/posterior/medial) thigh and along the _____ (anterior/posterior/medial) leg.

Back 188

anterior thigh; medial leg

Front 189

A patient experiences trauma to his lateral leg and can no longer evert or dorsiflex his foot, nor can he extend his toes. What nerve has been injured, and what sign is evident on physical exam?

Back 189

common peroneal nerve; foot drop

Front 190

A patient has damaged his common peroneal nerve. What sensory deficit would be expected on physical exam in the foot?

Back 190

decreased sensation in the DORSUM of the foot

Front 191

A patient has damaged his tibial nerve. What sensory deficit would be expected on physical exam in the foot?

Back 191

decreased sensation in the SOLE of the foot

Front 192

A patient has had trauma to his knee and can no longer invert or plantar flex his foot, nor can he flex his toes. He has decreased sensation in the sole of his foot. What nerve has been damaged?

Back 192

tibial n.

Front 193

A patient has a posterior hip dislocation and cannot abduct his thigh (positive Trendelenburg sign). What nerve has been damaged?

Back 193

superior gluteal n.

Front 194

A patient has a posterior hip dislocation. She can't jump, climb stairs, or rise from a seated position. What nerve has been damaged?

Back 194

inferior gluteal n.

Front 195

What two nerves may be damaged if a patient sustains a posterior hip dislocation?

Back 195

superior gluteal and inferior gluteal nerves

Front 196

Loss of foot eversion is due to damage of the _____ _____nerve, while loss of foot inversion is due to damage of the _____ nerve.

Back 196

common peroneal; tibial

Front 197

Loss of dorsiflexion of the foot is due to damage of the _____ _____nerve, while loss of plantar flexion of the foot is due to damage of the _____ nerve.

Back 197

common peroneal; tibial

Front 198

If a patient has foot drop, his ______ _____nerve is damaged; but if a patient cannot stand on his tiptoes, then the _____ nerve is damaged.

Back 198

common peroneal; tibial

Front 199

What nerve innervates the posterior compartment of the lower extremity?

Back 199

tibial n.

Front 200

During skeletal muscle signal conduction, postsynaptic ligand binding leads to the depolarization of what type of cell?

Back 200

muscle cell in the motor end plate

Front 201

Where are Dihydropyridine receptors located? Where are Ryanodine receptors located?

Back 201

Dihydropyridine receptors in on the skeletal muscle membrane deep in the T-tubules; Ryanodine receptors are in the sarcoplasmic reticulum membrane

Front 202

During skeletal muscle contraction, which band(s) of the sarcomere shorten in length?

Back 202

H, I & Z bands - think HIZ shrinkage

Front 203

During skeletal muscle contraction, which bands of the sarcomere remain(s) the same length?

Back 203

A band - think A is Always the same length

Front 204

In the sarcomere, does the A-band correspond to the length of actin or myosin?

Back 204

myosin

Front 205

In the sarcomere, does the I band correspond to the area that is only actin or only myosin?

Back 205

only actin

Front 206

In the sarcomere, does the H-band correspond to the area that is only actin or only myosin?

Back 206

only myosin

Front 207

In the sarcomere, is the Z line the site of actin or myosin attachment?

Back 207

actin

Front 208

In the sarcomere, is the M line the site of actin or myosin attachment?

Back 208

myosin

Front 209

A sarcomere is defined as the area between one ______ _____to the next ______ _____.

Back 209

z line; z line

Front 210

In skeletal muscle contraction, ATP binds to what molecule?

Back 210

myosin head - think "it's a SIN to give HEAD" .... and the head gets COCKED when it hydrolyzes ATP

Front 211

The release of ADP allows for what process in actin/myosin cross-bridging?

Back 211

release of the myosin head from it's binding site on actin

Front 212

After a smooth muscle membrane is depolarized, voltage-gated _____ _____ will open.

Back 212

calcium channels

Front 213

In the process of smooth muscle cell contraction, calcium binds to what?

Back 213

calmodulin

Front 214

With the binding of calcium to calmodulin in smooth muscle contraction, the activation of _____ _____-_____ kinase takes place.

Back 214

myosin light-chain kinase

Front 215

Don't forget what microglia look like!

Back 215

Front 216

Don't forget what an astrocyte looks like!

Back 216

Front 217

Don't forget what oligodendrocytes look like!

Back 217

FRIED EGGS!!!

Front 218

Know structures of the brain stem in a ventral view

Back 218

Front 219

Know the structures of the brain stem in a dorsal view (with the cerebellum removed)

Back 219

Front 220

Know the structures that pass through the cavernous sinus

Back 220

Front 221

Know the structures of the inner ear

Back 221

Front 222

Know the structures of the eye and retina

Back 222

Front 223

Know the locations of extraocular muscles and related nerves as they exit the bony ocular orbit

Back 223

Front 224

Know the pathway of aqueous humor secretion and reabsorption

Back 224

Front 225

What are the three first-line drug classes for the treatment of anxiety?

Back 225

SSRIs, benzos, buspirone

Front 226

What are the three first-line drug classes (all mood stabilizers) for the treatment of bipolar disorder?

Back 226

Lithium, valproic acid, and carbamazepine; atypical antipsychotics can also be used

Front 227

What are the three first-line drug classes for the treatment of depression?

Back 227

NSRIs, SSRIs, TCAs

Front 228

What are the two first-line drugs used for the treatment of depression with insomnia?

Back 228

trazadone and mirtazapine

Front 229

What two drug classes are used in the treatment of atypical depression?

Back 229

MAOIs and SSRIs

Front 230

What drug classes are used in the treatment of panic disorder?

Back 230

SSRIs, TCAs and Benzos

Front 231

What two drugs or drug types are used in the treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorder?

Back 231

SSRIs and clomipramine

Front 232

What two drugs or drug types are used in the treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorder?

Back 232

Antipsychotics (Haloperidol)

Front 233

Which has mainly neurological side effects, high or low potency antipsychotics?

Back 233

High potency antipsychotics (haloperidol)

Front 234

Which is better at addressing the negative S/S of schizophrenia, typical or atypical antipsychotics?

Back 234

atypicals address both + and - symptoms; typicals address + symptoms only