Matching (20) Match items in column A to column B

Column a Column b
The nurse on an oncology unit is caring for a patient with lung cancer. Prior to the next dose of cisplatin (Platinol-AQ), which antiemetic would the nurse most likely administer to the patient?
a. Metoclopramide (Reglan)
b. Droperidol (Inapsine)
c. Ondansetron (Zofran)
d. Prochlorperazine
A silent abdomen 3 hours after bowel surgery most likely indicates
a. peritonitis.
b. mechanical bowel obstruction.
c. perforated bowel.
d. functional bowel obstruction.
Renal artery stenosis, hypertension, and nephrosclerosis may all contribute to renal failure by causing
a. hydronephrosis.
b. renal ischemia.
c. nephrosis.
d. renal inflammation.
At his most recent clinic visit, a patient with end-stage renal disease is noted to have edema, congestive signs in the pulmonary system, and a pericardial friction rub. Appropriate therapy at this time would include
a. initiation of dialysis.
b. fluid restriction.
c. antibiotics.
d. phlebotomy.
The oliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis is characterized by
a. polyuria and nocturia.
b. rapidly developing uremia.
c. inability to concentrate urine.
d. enhanced glomerular filtration.
chronic cholelithiasis symptoms
The nurse would question a prescription for alosetron (Lotronex) for a patient with a history of which health problem or problems? (Select all that apply.)
a. Ulcerative colitis
b. Traveler’s diarrhea
c. Intestinal obstruction
d. Diabetes
e. Diverticulitis
What problem(s) is a patient likely to experience in end-stage renal disease?
a. Proteinuria
b. Polyuria and nocturia
c. Uremia
d. Hematuria
Fecal leukocyte screening would be indicated in a patient with suspected
a. lactose intolerance.
b. inflammatory bowel disease.
c. laxative abuse.
d. giardiasis.
A patient inadvertently took an excessive dose of warfarin (Coumadin) and was immediately treated with IV vitamin K (Phytonadione). The symptoms that would most concern the nurse after administration of vitamin K are
a. mild pruritus, pulse of 92.
b. respirations of 32, bronchoconstriction, O2 sats of 83%.
c. prolonged sensitization to warfarin (Coumadin).
d. blood pressure of 107/52 and bleeding gums.
Which of the following interventions has been found to retard the advancement of chronic kidney disease?
a. Calcium supplementation
b. Erythropoietin
c. Insulin
d. ACE inhibitors or A-II receptor blockers
While planning care for obese patients, two nurses are contrasting the differences between orlistat (Xenical) and other weight-loss agents. Which of the following statements best demonstrates how orlistat is different from most weight-loss drugs?
a. It reduces fat absorption in the intestines.
b. It suppresses the appetite center in the brain.
c. It increases the metabolism to help burn calories.
d. It increases serotonin levels and improves mood.
The nurse in a clinic is caring for an obese adult patient who requests dexfenfluramine (Redux) after reading about the drug online. The nurse should instruct the patient that this drug
a. has been approved for long-term weight control.
b. is indicated only for obese patients with hypertension or heart disease.
c. was removed from the market because of associated heart damage.
d. may help with weight loss, but diet management should be used first.
The nurse, who is teaching a class at a local community center, explains to the audience that more patients are using vitamins to supplement their dietary intake. The nurse correctly tells the audience that the role of vitamins in metabolism is that
a. large amounts are required to meet the metabolic needs of an active individual.
b. vitamins are inorganic compounds.
c. vitamins are needed for energy transformation and to regulate metabolic processes.
d. vitamins serve as an energy source, along with proteins, carbohydrates, and fats.
The nurse is providing education to a patient with ulcerative colitis who is being treated with sulfasalazine (Azulfidine). What statement by the patient best demonstrates understanding of the action of sulfasalazine?
a. “It treats the infection that triggers the condition.”
b. “It reduces the inflammation.”
c. “It enhances the immune response.”
d. “It increases the reabsorption of fluid.”
A patient comes to the clinic, worried that he may have contracted a sexually transmitted disease. He complains that his lips are cracked, and he has a “thick” tongue and an itchy scrotum. Upon further assessment, the nurse finds cheilosis, glossitis, vascularization of the cornea, and irritated dermatitis of the scrotum. The nurse suspects that these signs and symptoms are consistent with which vitamin deficiency?
a. Riboflavin
b. Thiamin
c. Pyridoxine
d. Niacin
A deficiency of lipid digestion or absorption commonly results in
a. steatorrhea.
b. constipation.
c. hyperlipidemia.
d. cholelithiasis.
The most helpful laboratory value in monitoring the progression of declining renal function is
a. serum creatinine.
b. serum potassium.
c. blood urea nitrogen.
d. mental status changes.
A patient with cirrhosis has begun displaying signs and symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy. The nurse prepares to administer lactulose per the prescriber’s order. The nurse understands that this drug has been ordered to
a. reduce cerebral edema.
b. reduce abdominal ascites.
c. lower ammonia levels.
d. reduce the hepatic enzymes.