Matching (20) Match items in column A to column B

Column a Column b
1.
A.
The nurse is providing education to a patient who has been prescribed both an antacid and ranitidine (Zantac). Which instruction should the nurse give the patient about taking the medications?
a. “Take the antacid 1 hour after the ranitidine.”
b. “The antacid and ranitidine should be taken at the same time for better effect.”
c. “Take the antacid 15 minutes before the ranitidine.”
d. “Take the antacid 30 minutes after the ranitidine.”
2.
B.
The best indicator of renal function:
3.
C.
A pregnant woman tells the nurse that she takes daily vitamin supplements. Since learning of her pregnancy, she has increased her vitamin A supplement to 1200 RAEs per day. The nurse should
a. confirm that this dose is appropriate during pregnancy.
b. encourage the patient to increase the dose to 1500 RAEs to promote the development of the central nervous system of the fetus.
c. recommend that the patient reduce the dose to less than 700 RAEs, because higher doses may be teratogenic.
d. inform the patient that because vitamin A is water soluble, large doses are needed to maintain the vitamin in the system.
4.
D.
Which of the following interventions has been found to retard the advancement of chronic kidney disease?
a. Calcium supplementation
b. Erythropoietin
c. Insulin
d. ACE inhibitors or A-II receptor blockers
5.
E.
True or False: Patients with acute renal failure commonly develop metabolic acidosis because of impaired kidney secretion of H+.
6.
F.
Which of the following signs is consistent with a diagnosis of glomerulonephritis?
a. Pyuria
b. Proteinuria
c. White blood cell casts in the urine
d. Foul-smelling urine
7.
G.
Match the following predisposing factors with the types of acute renal failure below.
a. Nephrotoxic antibiotic
b. Shock
c. Prostatic hyperplasia


1. Prerenal

2. Intrarenal

3. Postrenal
8.
H.
The nurse is caring for a psychiatric patient with breast cancer who is just about to receive chemotherapy. What antiemetic would be most appropriate for this patient, who is anticipating nausea?
a. Loperamide (Imodium)
b. Ranitidine (Zantac)
c. Dronabinol (Marinol)
d. Lorazepam (Ativan)
9.
I.
The nurse is preparing to administer diphenoxylate (Lomotil) to a patient who complains of diarrhea. For what side effects would the nurse observe the patient after administration of this medication?
a. Reduced heart rate
b. Salivation
c. Urinary frequency
d. Blurred vision
10.
J.
A patient is placed on a multidrug regimen that includes bismuth for treatment of peptic ulcer disease (PUD). The nurse should include which of the following points when providing patient education?
a. One week of therapy should heal ulcers, relieve symptoms, and eradicate H. pylori.
b. Resolution of pain indicates that the ulcer has healed.
c. The tongue and stool may turn black.
d. A single-antibiotic regimen is preferable to a multi-antibiotic regimen whenever possible.
11.
K.
A patient on antiulcer therapy complains of reduced libido and impotence. The nurse identifies a knowledge deficit in the patient. During teaching, the nurse informs the patient that _______ has been shown to cause reduced libido and impotence.
a. nizatidine (Axid)
b. cimetidine (Tagamet)
c. ranitidine (Zantac)
d. famotidine (Pepcid)
12.
L.
A 30-year-old female patient is to be started on misoprostol (Cytotec) for treatment of a gastric ulcer secondary to long-term ibuprofen (Motrin) use. Which of the following must the nurse include in the patient education?
a. “Start taking the drug at the end of your next menstrual period.”
b. “Take the medication 1 hour before meals.”
c. “Use a reliable method of birth control.”
d. “Perform a breast self-examination weekly while on the medication.”
13.
M.
What problem(s) is a patient likely to experience in end-stage renal disease?
a. Proteinuria
b. Polyuria and nocturia
c. Uremia
d. Hematuria
14.
N.
Barrett esophagus
15.
O.
A deficiency of lipid digestion or absorption commonly results in
a. steatorrhea.
b. constipation.
c. hyperlipidemia.
d. cholelithiasis.
16.
P.
A person with acute pyelonephritis would most typically have
a. fever.
b. oliguria.
c. edema.
d. hypertension.
17.
Q.
A patient with renal disease is at risk for developing uremia as his nephrons progressively deteriorate because
a. the basement membrane becomes increasingly permeable.
b. filtration exceeds secretory and reabsorptive capacity.
c. excessive solute and water are lost in the urine.
d. GFR declines.
18.
R.
Polycystic kidney disease is
a. always rapidly fatal.
b. due to a streptococcal infection.
c. associated with supernumerary kidney.
d. genetically transmitted.
19.
S.
The nurse is caring for a patient who has celiac disease with malabsorption. The nurse should monitor for which sign of possible vitamin deficiency?
a. Bleeding
b. Sore tongue
c. Hypercalcemia
d. Hypokalemia
20.
T.
Fecal leukocyte screening would be indicated in a patient with suspected
a. lactose intolerance.
b. inflammatory bowel disease.
c. laxative abuse.
d. giardiasis.