Matching (20) Match items in column A to column B

Column a Column b
1.
A.
A pregnant woman tells the nurse that she takes daily vitamin supplements. Since learning of her pregnancy, she has increased her vitamin A supplement to 1200 RAEs per day. The nurse should
a. confirm that this dose is appropriate during pregnancy.
b. encourage the patient to increase the dose to 1500 RAEs to promote the development of the central nervous system of the fetus.
c. recommend that the patient reduce the dose to less than 700 RAEs, because higher doses may be teratogenic.
d. inform the patient that because vitamin A is water soluble, large doses are needed to maintain the vitamin in the system.
2.
B.
A person with acute pyelonephritis would most typically have
a. fever.
b. oliguria.
c. edema.
d. hypertension.
3.
C.
Candidates for the use of sibutramine (Meridia) who have no other risk factors should have a BMI of at least
a. 25.
b. 27.
c. 30.
d. 35.
4.
D.
A Barrett esophagus is
a. best managed with H2 antagonists.
b. a preneoplastic lesion.
c. a benign condition.
d. a gastrin-secreting tumor.
5.
E.
Polycystic kidney disease is
a. always rapidly fatal.
b. due to a streptococcal infection.
c. associated with supernumerary kidney.
d. genetically transmitted.
6.
F.
Fecal leukocyte screening would be indicated in a patient with suspected
a. lactose intolerance.
b. inflammatory bowel disease.
c. laxative abuse.
d. giardiasis.
7.
G.
The nurse is caring for a patient with Crohn’s disease. The patient has been taking metronidazole (Flagyl) for 6 months. The patient begins to complain of numbness and tingling in the extremities. The nurse should suspect
a. myopathy.
b. peripheral neuropathy.
c. myalgia.
d. extrapyramidal symptoms.
8.
H.
When metronidazole (Flagyl) is a component of the H. pylori treatment regimen, the patient must be instructed to
a. avoid foods containing tyramine.
b. take the drug with food.
c. take the drug on an empty stomach.
d. avoid any alcoholic beverages.
9.
I.
Acute right lower quadrant pain associated with rebound tenderness and systemic signs of inflammation are indicative of
a. appendicitis.
b. peritonitis.
c. cholecystitis.
d. gastritis.
10.
J.
The nerves that carry pain sensations from the kidney enter the cord at T___ to L___
11.
K.
The most likely cause of compensated acidosis in a patient with end-stage renal disease is
a. insufficient filtration of bicarbonate ions at the glomerulus.
b. excessive production of respiratory and metabolic acids.
c. insufficient metabolic acid excretion due to nephron loss.
d. hypoventilation secondary to uremic central nervous system depression.
12.
L.
The health care provider is treating a patient with complaints of severe abdominal pain and confirmed infection with H. pylori. Which of the following medication combinations would the nurse expect the health care provider to order?
a. cimetidine (Tagamet) and metronidazole (Flagyl)
b. cimetidine (Tagamet), tetracycline, and cefuroxime (Ceftin)
c. clarithromycin (Biaxin), amoxicillin (Amoxil), and esomeprazole (Nexium)
d. amphotericin B, cimetidine (Tagamet), and bismuth (Pepto-Bismol)
13.
M.
The first indication of vitamin A deficiency is
a. easy bruising.
b. sore tongue.
c. poor night vision.
d. sore, bleeding gums.
14.
N.
The nurse is providing education for a patient taking bisacodyl (Dulcolax) tablets daily. Which statement by the patient best demonstrates the need for further teaching?
a. “I should swallow the pill intact.”
b. “I should take the pills with milk or dairy products.”
c. “The pill will be effective within 6 to 12 hours.”
d. “Most people take the pill at bedtime, with good results in the morning.”
15.
O.
Osteodystrophy commonly occurs in patients with end-stage renal disease because of
a. hypoparathyroidism.
b. hypercalcemia.
c. insufficient active vitamin D.
d. phosphate deficiency.
16.
P.
7. Z.C. is a 49-year-old man with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD). His kidneys are enlarged with multiple urine-filled cystic lesions. Z.C. is currently in a stage of renal insufficiency with a GFR of about 20% of normal. He suffers from recurrent urinary tract infections and chronic anemia. In counseling Z.C. about the risk of transmitting the disorder to his offspring, which of the following statements would be correct?
a. Each offspring has a 50% chance of developing the disease.
b. Each offspring has a 25% chance of developing the disease.
c. Each offspring has a 50% chance of being a carrier.
d. Only boys are affected, whereas girls are carriers.
17.
Q.
The nurse reviews the patient data and health history of a patient who is prescribed tegaserod (Zelnorm) for treatment of IBS. For which of the following patients should the nurse question the order? (Select all that apply.)
a. The patient who is a 56-year-old male.
b. The patient who has irritable bowel syndrome–constipation.
c. The patient who has a history of sulfa allergy.
d. The patient who is a chronic dialysis patient.
e. The patient who is a 40-year-old female.
18.
R.
Ulcerative colitis is commonly associated with
a. bloody diarrhea.
b. malabsorption of nutrients.
c. fistula formation between loops of bowel.
d. inflammation and scarring of the submucosal layer of the bowel.
19.
S.
A patient who is a known chronic alcoholic is admitted to the emergency department. Upon assessment, the nurse notes nystagmus, diplopia, and ataxia. The nurse is correct to suspect
a. dry beriberi.
b. hepatic encephalopathy.
c. riboflavin deficiency.
d. Wernicke-Korsakoff
20.
T.
A patient admitted to the unit for dehydration tells the nurse that he has not had a bowel movement in 5 days, and he typically has one daily. The nurse administers psyllium (Metamucil) as ordered and should monitor the patient for
a. bright red stools.
b. black, tarry stools.
c. pale, clay-colored stools.
d. intestinal obstruction.