Study your flashcards anywhere!

Download the official Cram app for free >

  • Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

How to study your flashcards.

Right/Left arrow keys: Navigate between flashcards.right arrow keyleft arrow key

Up/Down arrow keys: Flip the card between the front and back.down keyup key

H key: Show hint (3rd side).h key

A key: Read text to speech.a key

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/119

Click to flip

119 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
When leaving the MNPS oceanic control area for a domestic controlled area, the pilot has to:
maintain the Mach number previously assigned up to the last position shown in the oceanic clearance
Viscous hydroplaning occurs primary if the runway is covered with a thin film of water and:
is very smooth and dirty
Aircraft may operate in MNPS airspace along a number of special routes, if the aircraft is equipped with at least:
one Long Range Navigation System (LNRS)
In a 5 kt right crosswind component behind a taking off aircraft:
The right wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway
If a flight is planned to operate along the whole length of one of the organised tracks in the MNPS airspace, the intended organised track should be defined in items of the flight plan by:
the abbreviation "NAT" followed by the code letter assigned to the track
The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends from:
27' North to 90' North
The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight levels:
FL285 and FL420
The validity period of a night-time organised track system in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace is normally at 30°W, between:
0100 UTC to 0800 UTC
The validity period of a day-time organised track system in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace is normally, at 30°W, between:
1130 UTC to 1900 UTC
The minimum lateral separation to be maintained between aircraft flying in MNPS airspace is:
60nm
A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
550 m
According to JAR-OPS 1, a category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
200 m
According to JAR-OPS 1, a category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
75m
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, for the flight crew members, quick donning type of oxygen masks are compulsory on board any pressurised aeroplane operating at a pressure altitude above:
25,000 ft
The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in pressurised aeroplanes during and following an emergency descent are that for pilots it shall be available for the entire flight time that the cabin pressure altitude exceeds a minimum of
13,000 ft
For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance and minimum time if a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg and more than 7000 kg) is following directly behind a heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway?
9.3km (5nm) and 2 minutes
For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum separation time if a light aeroplane (7000 kg or less) is following a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg but more than 7000 kg) on the approach to landing ?
3 minutes
The system which must be switched off in case of a belly compartment fire is generally the:
ventilation of the cargo compartment
In the absence of wind and without the astronomic precession effect, an aircraft would, at a constant gyro heading, follow a:
great circle line
During a transoceanic and polar flight, the transport precession is the rotation in degrees of the gyro North with respect to the:
true North
During a transoceanic and polar flight, the chart precession is a rotation in degrees, for a moving aircraft, of the gyro North with respect to the:
grid North for a given chart
Astronomic precession:
causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in the southern hemisphere
Astronomic precession:
causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the northern hemisphere
According to JAR-OPS 1, the lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category D aeroplane is a meteorological visibility of:
3,600m
According to JAR-OPS 1, the lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category C aeroplane is a meteorological visibility of:
2,400m
According to JAR-OPS 1, the lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category B aeroplane is a meteorological visibility of:
1,600m
According to JAR-OPS 1, the lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category A aeroplane is a meteorological visibility of:
1,500m
The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is:
to descend
ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization) Annex 18 is a document dealing with:
the safety of the air transport of dangerous goods
The North Atlantic airspace is regulated, among other, according to:
the ICAO document 7030 (additional regional procedures)
Following an accident, the operator of an aircraft equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of:
60 days
When taking-off after a widebody aircraft which has just landed, you should take-off:
beyond the point where the aircrafts wheels have touched down
In addition to informing each State, whose citizens are known to be on board an aircraft, the State of the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of unlawful interference must immediately notify the:
State of Registry of the aircraft, State of the operator and ICAO
The holdover time of an anti-icing procedure, for a given ambient temperature, will be longest in weather conditions of:
frost
DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake turbulence separation minima shall be based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum certificated take-off mass. Heavy (H) Category, are all aircraft types of:
136,000kg or more
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the lowest minima to be used by an operator in a category B aeroplane for circling are:
MDH=500ft and visibility = 1,600m
In accordance with JAR OPS 1 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), for a Category III B approach, the RVR shall not be less than:
75m
You will use a halon extinguisher for a fire of: 1 - solids (fabric, plastic, ...) 2 - liquids (alcohol, gasoline, ...) 3 - gas 4 - metals (aluminium, magnesium, ...) The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1,2,3
An engine fire warning will switch on the relevant fire shut off-handle. The fire shut-off handle will be switched off when:
fire is no longer detected
An engine fire warning will switch on the relevant fire shut off-handle. The fire shut-off handle will be switched off when:
contaminated
In case of landing on a flooded runway and in heavy rain: ; 1. You increase your approach speed,; 2. You land firmly in order to obtain a firm contact of the wheels with the runway and immediately land your nose gear,; 3. You decrease your approach speed,; 4. You use systematically all the lift dumper devices,; 5. You land as smoothly as possible,; 6. You brake energically.; The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
1,2,4
Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterise:
a rapid depresurization
A 1211 halon fire-extinguisher can be used for: 1. a paper fire 2. a fabric fire 3. an electric fire 4. a wood fire 5. a hydrocarbon fire The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1,2,3,4,5
In case of an engine tail pipe fire while on the ground you should abort the starting procedure and:
carry out a dry cranking
A passenger is allowed to carry match-boxes: 1. on himself/herself 2. in his/her hand luggage 3. in his/her checked luggage The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1
For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 12 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:
Speed is greater than 119kts
For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the minimum separation time that is permitted when a light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway ?
3 minutes
In what period of time must a fuel jettisoning system be capable of jettisoning sufficient fuel to meet the specified approach and landing climb performance requirements:
15 minutes
The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is:
24 hours
Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplane's main wheel tyre pressure is 206 psi., the approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning may occur is:
129 kts
A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is:
poor
In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when:
its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give it a shiny appearance
Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet runways and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival. The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by:
15%
The authorization for the transport of dangerous goods is specified on the:
air operator certificate
The minimum equipment list of a public transport aircraft is to be found in the:
operations manual
The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class B fires are: 1 - H2O 2 - CO2 3 - dry-chemical 4 - halon Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
2,3,4
H2O extinguishers are fit to fight:
Class A fires
A class A fire is a fire of:
solid material, generally of organic nature
The correct definition of a safe forced landing is:
an inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonable expect no injuries on board or on the surface
The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additional procedures to be observed accordingly. This list is prepared by:
the operator, and it is inserted in the operations manual
In accordance with DOC 4444 (ICAO) when a MEDIUM and a LIGHT aircraft are using the same runway, or parallel runways separated by less than 760 m, (in approach or departure phases of flight), shall be applied a wake turbulence radar separation minima of:
5 nm
In airspace where MNPS is applicable, the minimum vertical separation between FL 290 and FL 410 is:
1,000ft
According to JAR-OPS 1, the lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category D aeroplane is a meteorological visibility of:
3,600m
In accordance with JAR-OPS, the take-off climb procedures for noise abatement to be specified by the operator should be:
for any one aeroplane type, the same for all aerodromes
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an aeroplane with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 61 seats, must have in its passenger compartment(s), at least 3 hand fire-extinguishers including:
25% with compacted snow
A warning device alerts the crew in case of an excessive cabin altitude. This warning must be triggered on reaching the following altitude:
10,000ft (approx. 3,000m)
According to ICAO Annex 17, following an unlawful interference, who shall take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft, until their journey can be continued? The:
contracting state in which the unlawful interference occurs
According to ICAO Doc 8168, a noise abatement departure procedure is NOT to be initiated at less than:
800ft above aerodrome level
Air traffic services may require an aircraft to report position when flying east-west, north of 70°N between 10°W and 50°W, every:
20' of longitude
Air traffic services may require an aircraft to report position when flying east-west, south of 70°N between 5°W and 65°W, every:
10' of longitude
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, regarding the first aid oxygen, the supply of undiluted oxygen carried on board a pressurised aeroplane with 8 passengers operated at pressure altitude 27000 ft, shall be sufficient for at least:
1 passenger for the remainder of the flight after cabin depressurization when the cabin altitude exceeds 8,000ft
According to JAR-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 200 must be equipped with:
3 hand hire extinguishers in the passenger compartment
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 301 to 400 seats must be equipped with at least:
5 hand hire extinguishers in the passenger compartment
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 31 to 60 seats must be equipped with at least:
2 hand hire extinguishers in the passenger compartment
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 401 to 500 seats must be equipped with at least:
6 hand hire extinguishers in the passenger compartment
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 60 seats must be equipped (including flight deck) with at least:
3 halon 1211 fire extinguishers or equivalent
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 600 seats must be equipped with at least:
8 hand hire extinguishers in the passenger compartment
An operator can operate an aeroplane certificated to JAR25, across an area in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, without additional survival equipment if it flies away from an area suitable for making an emergency landing at a distance corresponding to no more than:
90 minutes at cruising speed
During a flight from Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 1330 UTC ; you will normally be:
in a day-time organised track system
In accordance with ICAO PANS OPS 8168, noise preferential routes are established to ensure that departing and arriving aeroplanes avoid overflying noise-sensitive areas in the vicinity of the aerodrome as far as practicable. In establishing noise preferential routes:
no turns should be required coincident with a reduction of power associated with a noise abatement procedure
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1 and if required, the number of life rafts to be carried on board an aeroplane must allow the transportation of the entire aeroplane occupants:
in the case of a loss of one raft of the largest rated capacity
In accordance with the JAR-OPS, a single deck aeroplane, equipped with an approved seating capacity of 61 seats and carrying passengers, must be equipped with at least:
1 megaphone
In VMC, a runway should not be chosen as preferential for noise abatement procedures when:
It has no ILS or visual approach slope guidance
Initially, who is responsible for ensuring that cargo for air transportation as dangerous goods is not prohibited?
The shipper when completing the shippers declaration for dangerous goods
The dangerous goods regulations ICAO annex 18 and JAR OPS require that, when delivering cargo for transport, the responsibility for compliance with the regulations are to:
sender
The field of application of the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is defined by a phase of flight operation. The commander must use the limitations provided by the MEL:
At the parking area prior to the aircraft taxiing
The number of hand fire extinguishers which have to be installed in the passenger cabin according to JAR-OPS depends on the approved number of:
seats in the cabin
In accordance with JAR-OPS, the operator must ensure that the information contained in the aircraft technical log is stored for a minimum period of:
24 months
Which statement is correct about noise abatement procedures during landing ?
These procecedures shall not prohibit the use of reverse thrust
Assuming 60 passengers on board a land aeroplane. The intended track will overfly water for a distance of 80 NM from the shore. According to JAR-OPS 1, the minimum number of passenger life jackets to be on board is:
60
The touch down areas located at both ends of the runways are typical for the appearance of:
viscous hydroplaning
A flight is to depart from an airport with runways 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the inversion is 090/30. What is the safest departure procedure?
Depart runway 09 with a tailwind
According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence radar separation minima of 9.3 km (5.0 NM) shall be applied when a:
LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300m (1,000ft)
According to JAR-OPS, on an IFR flight a commander shall not commence take-off unless the expected weather conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are at or above:
the planning minima, during a period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome
According to JAR-OPS, for a non pressurised aircraft, all required cabin crew members shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:
the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13,000ft and for any period exceeding 30 minutes at pressure altitudes above 10,000ft but not exceeding 13,000ft
According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied:
to LIGHT aircraft taking off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel runway seperated by less than 760m
Flights within NAT region shall be conducted in accordance with IFR when:
Operating at or above FL60 or 2,000ft above ground whichever is higher
During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 0300 UTC ; you will normally be:
in a night time organised track system
During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 11H00 UTC ; you will then normally be:
outside the validity period of the organised track system
Assuming that the operator is approved by his national authority, carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that:
the operator complies with the technical instructions (ICAO DOC 9284)
An operator shall ensure that for the duration of each flight or series of flights, relevant information is preserved on the ground. This includes:
mass and balance documentation, if required
An aeroplane is intended to be operated at FL370. In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the number of cabin oxygen masks (dispensing units) required is at least:
110% of the seating capacity
During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 00H30 UTC ; you will then normally be ;
out of the validity period of organised flight track system
According to JAR-OPS 1, for operations under IFR or at night the minimum flight crew is 2 pilots for:
all turbo-propeller aeroplanes with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 9 and for all turbo-jet aeroplanes
Viscous hydroplaning occurs primarily if the runway is covered with a thin film of water and:
the runway is very smooth and dirty
To fight a fire in an air-conditioned class E cargo hold, the correct initial action is to:
shut off the ventilating airflow within the affected compartment
The minimum navigation equipment required for an aircraft flying without restriction in MNPS airspace can be at the very least:
Two inertial navigation systems
The application of a type II anti-icing fluid on an aircraft on the ground will provide a:
limited holdover time
In accordance with the fuel policy for isolated aerodromes (JAR-OPS 1), for aeroplanes with turbine engines, the amount of Additional Fuel should not be less than the fuel to fly after arriving overhead the destination aerodrome for:
2 hours at normal cruise consumption, including final reserve fuel
In accordance with JAR-OPS, which of the following are included in the Aerodrome Operating Minima for a non-precision approach? 1 - the required RVR 2 - the ceiling 3 - the minimum descent height (MDH) 4 - the decision height (DH)
1,2,3
If a pilot has coupled the automatic pilot to the directional gyro equipped with a rate correction device set for astronomical precession, the course followed by the aircraft (in still air conditions) is:
a great circle
For two-engined aeroplanes not approved for ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:
one hour flight time at one engine inoperative cruising speed
In a microburst combined with a violent storm the winds at:
low altitude diverge from the center of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure increases by a few hectopascals
In accordance with JAR-OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for an ILS approach without the glidepath (LLZ only) is not lower than:
250ft
In accordance with JAR-OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for a VOR approach is not lower than:
300ft
In accordance with JAR-OPS, a commander shall ensure that the amount of usable fuel remaining in flight is not less than the fuel required to proceed to an aerodrome where a safe landing can be made with:
final reserve fuel remaining
In accordance with JAR-OPS an operator must ensure that the lowest MDH for a NDB approach is:
300ft
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, for a pressurised aircraft, the definition of supplemental oxygen is:
oxygen supplied to the aeroplane occupants in the case of cabin pressurisation failure
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the minimum required recent experience for a pilot engaged in a single-pilot operation under IFR or at night shall be:
5 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type/class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role