Test

Front 1

When leaving the MNPS oceanic control area for a domestic controlled area, the pilot has to:

Back 1

maintain the Mach number previously assigned up to the last position shown in the oceanic clearance

Front 2

Viscous hydroplaning occurs primary if the runway is covered with a thin film of water and:

Back 2

is very smooth and dirty

Front 3

Aircraft may operate in MNPS airspace along a number of special routes, if the aircraft is equipped with at least:

Back 3

one Long Range Navigation System (LNRS)

Front 4

In a 5 kt right crosswind component behind a taking off aircraft:

Back 4

The right wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway

Front 5

If a flight is planned to operate along the whole length of one of the organised tracks in the MNPS airspace, the intended organised track should be defined in items of the flight plan by:

Back 5

the abbreviation "NAT" followed by the code letter assigned to the track

Front 6

The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends from:

Back 6

27' North to 90' North

Front 7

The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight levels:

Back 7

FL285 and FL420

Front 8

The validity period of a night-time organised track system in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace is normally at 30°W, between:

Back 8

0100 UTC to 0800 UTC

Front 9

The validity period of a day-time organised track system in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace is normally, at 30°W, between:

Back 9

1130 UTC to 1900 UTC

Front 10

The minimum lateral separation to be maintained between aircraft flying in MNPS airspace is:

Back 10

60nm

Front 11

A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:

Back 11

550 m

Front 12

According to JAR-OPS 1, a category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:

Back 12

200 m

Front 13

According to JAR-OPS 1, a category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:

Back 13

75m

Front 14

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, for the flight crew members, quick donning type of oxygen masks are compulsory on board any pressurised aeroplane operating at a pressure altitude above:

Back 14

25,000 ft

Front 15

The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in pressurised aeroplanes during and following an emergency descent are that for pilots it shall be available for the entire flight time that the cabin pressure altitude exceeds a minimum of

Back 15

13,000 ft

Front 16

For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance and minimum time if a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg and more than 7000 kg) is following directly behind a heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway?

Back 16

9.3km (5nm) and 2 minutes

Front 17

For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum separation time if a light aeroplane (7000 kg or less) is following a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg but more than 7000 kg) on the approach to landing ?

Back 17

3 minutes

Front 18

The system which must be switched off in case of a belly compartment fire is generally the:

Back 18

ventilation of the cargo compartment

Front 19

In the absence of wind and without the astronomic precession effect, an aircraft would, at a constant gyro heading, follow a:

Back 19

great circle line

Front 20

During a transoceanic and polar flight, the transport precession is the rotation in degrees of the gyro North with respect to the:

Back 20

true North

Front 21

During a transoceanic and polar flight, the chart precession is a rotation in degrees, for a moving aircraft, of the gyro North with respect to the:

Back 21

grid North for a given chart

Front 22

Astronomic precession:

Back 22

causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in the southern hemisphere

Front 23

Astronomic precession:

Back 23

causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the northern hemisphere

Front 24

According to JAR-OPS 1, the lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category D aeroplane is a meteorological visibility of:

Back 24

3,600m

Front 25

According to JAR-OPS 1, the lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category C aeroplane is a meteorological visibility of:

Back 25

2,400m

Front 26

According to JAR-OPS 1, the lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category B aeroplane is a meteorological visibility of:

Back 26

1,600m

Front 27

According to JAR-OPS 1, the lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category A aeroplane is a meteorological visibility of:

Back 27

1,500m

Front 28

The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is:

Back 28

to descend

Front 29

ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization) Annex 18 is a document dealing with:

Back 29

the safety of the air transport of dangerous goods

Front 30

The North Atlantic airspace is regulated, among other, according to:

Back 30

the ICAO document 7030 (additional regional procedures)

Front 31

Following an accident, the operator of an aircraft equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of:

Back 31

60 days

Front 32

When taking-off after a widebody aircraft which has just landed, you should take-off:

Back 32

beyond the point where the aircrafts wheels have touched down

Front 33

In addition to informing each State, whose citizens are known to be on board an aircraft, the State of the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of unlawful interference must immediately notify the:

Back 33

State of Registry of the aircraft, State of the operator and ICAO

Front 34

The holdover time of an anti-icing procedure, for a given ambient temperature, will be longest in weather conditions of:

Back 34

frost

Front 35

DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake turbulence separation minima shall be based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum certificated take-off mass. Heavy (H) Category, are all aircraft types of:

Back 35

136,000kg or more

Front 36

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the lowest minima to be used by an operator in a category B aeroplane for circling are:

Back 36

MDH=500ft and visibility = 1,600m

Front 37

In accordance with JAR OPS 1 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), for a Category III B approach, the RVR shall not be less than:

Back 37

75m

Front 38

You will use a halon extinguisher for a fire of: 1 - solids (fabric, plastic, ...) 2 - liquids (alcohol, gasoline, ...) 3 - gas 4 - metals (aluminium, magnesium, ...) The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

Back 38

1,2,3

Front 39

An engine fire warning will switch on the relevant fire shut off-handle. The fire shut-off handle will be switched off when:

Back 39

fire is no longer detected

Front 40

An engine fire warning will switch on the relevant fire shut off-handle. The fire shut-off handle will be switched off when:

Back 40

contaminated

Front 41

In case of landing on a flooded runway and in heavy rain: ; 1. You increase your approach speed,; 2. You land firmly in order to obtain a firm contact of the wheels with the runway and immediately land your nose gear,; 3. You decrease your approach speed,; 4. You use systematically all the lift dumper devices,; 5. You land as smoothly as possible,; 6. You brake energically.; The combination regrouping all the correct statements is

Back 41

1,2,4

Front 42

Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterise:

Back 42

a rapid depresurization

Front 43

A 1211 halon fire-extinguisher can be used for: 1. a paper fire 2. a fabric fire 3. an electric fire 4. a wood fire 5. a hydrocarbon fire The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

Back 43

1,2,3,4,5

Front 44

In case of an engine tail pipe fire while on the ground you should abort the starting procedure and:

Back 44

carry out a dry cranking

Front 45

A passenger is allowed to carry match-boxes: 1. on himself/herself 2. in his/her hand luggage 3. in his/her checked luggage The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

Back 45

1

Front 46

For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 12 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:

Back 46

Speed is greater than 119kts

Front 47

For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the minimum separation time that is permitted when a light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway ?

Back 47

3 minutes

Front 48

In what period of time must a fuel jettisoning system be capable of jettisoning sufficient fuel to meet the specified approach and landing climb performance requirements:

Back 48

15 minutes

Front 49

The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is:

Back 49

24 hours

Front 50

Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplane's main wheel tyre pressure is 206 psi., the approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning may occur is:

Back 50

129 kts

Front 51

A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is:

Back 51

poor

Front 52

In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when:

Back 52

its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give it a shiny appearance

Front 53

Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet runways and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival. The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by:

Back 53

15%

Front 54

The authorization for the transport of dangerous goods is specified on the:

Back 54

air operator certificate

Front 55

The minimum equipment list of a public transport aircraft is to be found in the:

Back 55

operations manual

Front 56

The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class B fires are: 1 - H2O 2 - CO2 3 - dry-chemical 4 - halon Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?

Back 56

2,3,4

Front 57

H2O extinguishers are fit to fight:

Back 57

Class A fires

Front 58

A class A fire is a fire of:

Back 58

solid material, generally of organic nature

Front 59

The correct definition of a safe forced landing is:

Back 59

an inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonable expect no injuries on board or on the surface

Front 60

The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additional procedures to be observed accordingly. This list is prepared by:

Back 60

the operator, and it is inserted in the operations manual

Front 61

In accordance with DOC 4444 (ICAO) when a MEDIUM and a LIGHT aircraft are using the same runway, or parallel runways separated by less than 760 m, (in approach or departure phases of flight), shall be applied a wake turbulence radar separation minima of:

Back 61

5 nm

Front 62

In airspace where MNPS is applicable, the minimum vertical separation between FL 290 and FL 410 is:

Back 62

1,000ft

Front 63

According to JAR-OPS 1, the lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category D aeroplane is a meteorological visibility of:

Back 63

3,600m

Front 64

In accordance with JAR-OPS, the take-off climb procedures for noise abatement to be specified by the operator should be:

Back 64

for any one aeroplane type, the same for all aerodromes

Front 65

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an aeroplane with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 61 seats, must have in its passenger compartment(s), at least 3 hand fire-extinguishers including:

Back 65

25% with compacted snow

Front 66

A warning device alerts the crew in case of an excessive cabin altitude. This warning must be triggered on reaching the following altitude:

Back 66

10,000ft (approx. 3,000m)

Front 67

According to ICAO Annex 17, following an unlawful interference, who shall take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft, until their journey can be continued? The:

Back 67

contracting state in which the unlawful interference occurs

Front 68

According to ICAO Doc 8168, a noise abatement departure procedure is NOT to be initiated at less than:

Back 68

800ft above aerodrome level

Front 69

Air traffic services may require an aircraft to report position when flying east-west, north of 70°N between 10°W and 50°W, every:

Back 69

20' of longitude

Front 70

Air traffic services may require an aircraft to report position when flying east-west, south of 70°N between 5°W and 65°W, every:

Back 70

10' of longitude

Front 71

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, regarding the first aid oxygen, the supply of undiluted oxygen carried on board a pressurised aeroplane with 8 passengers operated at pressure altitude 27000 ft, shall be sufficient for at least:

Back 71

1 passenger for the remainder of the flight after cabin depressurization when the cabin altitude exceeds 8,000ft

Front 72

According to JAR-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 200 must be equipped with:

Back 72

3 hand hire extinguishers in the passenger compartment

Front 73

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 301 to 400 seats must be equipped with at least:

Back 73

5 hand hire extinguishers in the passenger compartment

Front 74

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 31 to 60 seats must be equipped with at least:

Back 74

2 hand hire extinguishers in the passenger compartment

Front 75

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 401 to 500 seats must be equipped with at least:

Back 75

6 hand hire extinguishers in the passenger compartment

Front 76

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 60 seats must be equipped (including flight deck) with at least:

Back 76

3 halon 1211 fire extinguishers or equivalent

Front 77

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 600 seats must be equipped with at least:

Back 77

8 hand hire extinguishers in the passenger compartment

Front 78

An operator can operate an aeroplane certificated to JAR25, across an area in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, without additional survival equipment if it flies away from an area suitable for making an emergency landing at a distance corresponding to no more than:

Back 78

90 minutes at cruising speed

Front 79

During a flight from Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 1330 UTC ; you will normally be:

Back 79

in a day-time organised track system

Front 80

In accordance with ICAO PANS OPS 8168, noise preferential routes are established to ensure that departing and arriving aeroplanes avoid overflying noise-sensitive areas in the vicinity of the aerodrome as far as practicable. In establishing noise preferential routes:

Back 80

no turns should be required coincident with a reduction of power associated with a noise abatement procedure

Front 81

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1 and if required, the number of life rafts to be carried on board an aeroplane must allow the transportation of the entire aeroplane occupants:

Back 81

in the case of a loss of one raft of the largest rated capacity

Front 82

In accordance with the JAR-OPS, a single deck aeroplane, equipped with an approved seating capacity of 61 seats and carrying passengers, must be equipped with at least:

Back 82

1 megaphone

Front 83

In VMC, a runway should not be chosen as preferential for noise abatement procedures when:

Back 83

It has no ILS or visual approach slope guidance

Front 84

Initially, who is responsible for ensuring that cargo for air transportation as dangerous goods is not prohibited?

Back 84

The shipper when completing the shippers declaration for dangerous goods

Front 85

The dangerous goods regulations ICAO annex 18 and JAR OPS require that, when delivering cargo for transport, the responsibility for compliance with the regulations are to:

Back 85

sender

Front 86

The field of application of the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is defined by a phase of flight operation. The commander must use the limitations provided by the MEL:

Back 86

At the parking area prior to the aircraft taxiing

Front 87

The number of hand fire extinguishers which have to be installed in the passenger cabin according to JAR-OPS depends on the approved number of:

Back 87

seats in the cabin

Front 88

In accordance with JAR-OPS, the operator must ensure that the information contained in the aircraft technical log is stored for a minimum period of:

Back 88

24 months

Front 89

Which statement is correct about noise abatement procedures during landing ?

Back 89

These procecedures shall not prohibit the use of reverse thrust

Front 90

Assuming 60 passengers on board a land aeroplane. The intended track will overfly water for a distance of 80 NM from the shore. According to JAR-OPS 1, the minimum number of passenger life jackets to be on board is:

Back 90

60

Front 91

The touch down areas located at both ends of the runways are typical for the appearance of:

Back 91

viscous hydroplaning

Front 92

A flight is to depart from an airport with runways 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the inversion is 090/30. What is the safest departure procedure?

Back 92

Depart runway 09 with a tailwind

Front 93

According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence radar separation minima of 9.3 km (5.0 NM) shall be applied when a:

Back 93

LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300m (1,000ft)

Front 94

According to JAR-OPS, on an IFR flight a commander shall not commence take-off unless the expected weather conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are at or above:

Back 94

the planning minima, during a period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome

Front 95

According to JAR-OPS, for a non pressurised aircraft, all required cabin crew members shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:

Back 95

the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13,000ft and for any period exceeding 30 minutes at pressure altitudes above 10,000ft but not exceeding 13,000ft

Front 96

According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied:

Back 96

to LIGHT aircraft taking off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel runway seperated by less than 760m

Front 97

Flights within NAT region shall be conducted in accordance with IFR when:

Back 97

Operating at or above FL60 or 2,000ft above ground whichever is higher

Front 98

During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 0300 UTC ; you will normally be:

Back 98

in a night time organised track system

Front 99

During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 11H00 UTC ; you will then normally be:

Back 99

outside the validity period of the organised track system

Front 100

Assuming that the operator is approved by his national authority, carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that:

Back 100

the operator complies with the technical instructions (ICAO DOC 9284)

Front 101

An operator shall ensure that for the duration of each flight or series of flights, relevant information is preserved on the ground. This includes:

Back 101

mass and balance documentation, if required

Front 102

An aeroplane is intended to be operated at FL370. In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the number of cabin oxygen masks (dispensing units) required is at least:

Back 102

110% of the seating capacity

Front 103

During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 00H30 UTC ; you will then normally be ;

Back 103

out of the validity period of organised flight track system

Front 104

According to JAR-OPS 1, for operations under IFR or at night the minimum flight crew is 2 pilots for:

Back 104

all turbo-propeller aeroplanes with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 9 and for all turbo-jet aeroplanes

Front 105

Viscous hydroplaning occurs primarily if the runway is covered with a thin film of water and:

Back 105

the runway is very smooth and dirty

Front 106

To fight a fire in an air-conditioned class E cargo hold, the correct initial action is to:

Back 106

shut off the ventilating airflow within the affected compartment

Front 107

The minimum navigation equipment required for an aircraft flying without restriction in MNPS airspace can be at the very least:

Back 107

Two inertial navigation systems

Front 108

The application of a type II anti-icing fluid on an aircraft on the ground will provide a:

Back 108

limited holdover time

Front 109

In accordance with the fuel policy for isolated aerodromes (JAR-OPS 1), for aeroplanes with turbine engines, the amount of Additional Fuel should not be less than the fuel to fly after arriving overhead the destination aerodrome for:

Back 109

2 hours at normal cruise consumption, including final reserve fuel

Front 110

In accordance with JAR-OPS, which of the following are included in the Aerodrome Operating Minima for a non-precision approach? 1 - the required RVR 2 - the ceiling 3 - the minimum descent height (MDH) 4 - the decision height (DH)

Back 110

1,2,3

Front 111

If a pilot has coupled the automatic pilot to the directional gyro equipped with a rate correction device set for astronomical precession, the course followed by the aircraft (in still air conditions) is:

Back 111

a great circle

Front 112

For two-engined aeroplanes not approved for ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:

Back 112

one hour flight time at one engine inoperative cruising speed

Front 113

In a microburst combined with a violent storm the winds at:

Back 113

low altitude diverge from the center of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure increases by a few hectopascals

Front 114

In accordance with JAR-OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for an ILS approach without the glidepath (LLZ only) is not lower than:

Back 114

250ft

Front 115

In accordance with JAR-OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for a VOR approach is not lower than:

Back 115

300ft

Front 116

In accordance with JAR-OPS, a commander shall ensure that the amount of usable fuel remaining in flight is not less than the fuel required to proceed to an aerodrome where a safe landing can be made with:

Back 116

final reserve fuel remaining

Front 117

In accordance with JAR-OPS an operator must ensure that the lowest MDH for a NDB approach is:

Back 117

300ft

Front 118

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, for a pressurised aircraft, the definition of supplemental oxygen is:

Back 118

oxygen supplied to the aeroplane occupants in the case of cabin pressurisation failure

Front 119

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the minimum required recent experience for a pilot engaged in a single-pilot operation under IFR or at night shall be:

Back 119

5 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type/class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role