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by Sheepsmating666, Aug 2011

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535 Cards in this Set

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	With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a category of aircraft?	ANSWER: Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air. Category of aircraft, as used with respect to the certification, ratings, privileges, and limitations of airmen, means a broad classification of aircraft. Examples include: airplane, rotorcraft, glider, and lighter-than-air.
	With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of aircraft?	ANSWER: Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea. Class of aircraft, as used with respect to the certification, ratings, privileges, and limitations of airmen, means a classification of aircraft within a category having similar operating characteristics. Examples include single engine, multiengine, land, water, gyroplane, helicopter, airship, and free balloon.
	With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?	ANSWER: Normal, utility, acrobatic. Category of aircraft, as used with respect to the certification of aircraft, means a grouping of aircraft based upon intended use or operating limitations. Examples include transport, normal, utility, acrobatic, limited, restricted, and provisional.
	With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?	ANSWER: Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon. Class of aircraft, as used with respect to the certification of aircraft, means a broad grouping of aircraft having similar characteristics of propulsion, flight, or landing. Examples include airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon, landplane, and seaplane.
	The definition of nighttime is	ANSWER: the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight. 'Night' means the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight, as published in the American Air Almanac, converted to local time.
	Which V-speed represents maximum flap extended speed?	ANSWER: VFE. VFE means the maximum flap extended speed.
	Which V-speed represents maximum landing gear extended speed?	ANSWER: VLE. VLE means the maximum landing gear extended speed.
	VNO is defined as the	ANSWER: maximum structural cruising speed. VNO is defined as the maximum structural cruising speed.
	Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed?	ANSWER: VA. VA means design maneuvering speed.
	VS0 is defined as the	ANSWER: stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration. VS0 is defined as the stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration.
	Which would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff?	ANSWER: VX. VX means the best angle of climb airspeed (i.e., the airspeed which will provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance).
	After takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given period of time?	ANSWER: VY. VY means the airspeed for the best rate of climb (i.e., the airspeed that you use to gain the most altitude in a given period of time).
	What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (AD's)?	ANSWER: They are mandatory. Airworthiness Directives (ADs) are issued under FAR Part 39 by the FAA to require correction of unsafe conditions found in an airplane, an airplane engine, a propeller, or an appliance when such conditions exist and are likely to exist or develop in other products of the same design. Since ADs are issued under FAR Part 39, they are regulatory and must be complied with, unless a specific exemption is granted.
	May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an Airworthiness Directive (AD)?	ANSWER: Yes, if allowed by the AD. An AD is used to notify aircraft owners and other interested persons of unsafe conditions and prescribe the conditions under which the product (e.g., an aircraft) may continue to be operated. An AD may be one of an emergency nature requiring immediate compliance upon receipt or one of a less urgent nature requiring compliance within a relatively longer period of time. You may operate an airplane that is not in compliance with an AD, if such operation is allowed by the AD.
	What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance?	ANSWER: 14 CFR Part 43.7. Preventive maintenance means simple or minor preservation operations and the replacement of small standard parts not involving complex assembly operations. Appendix A to Part 43 provides a list of work that is considered preventive maintenance. Part 43 allows a person who holds a pilot certificate to perform preventive maintenance on any aircraft owned or operated by that pilot which is not used in air carrier service.
	Who may perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for return to service?	ANSWER: Private or Commercial pilot. A person who holds a pilot certificate issued under Part 61 may perform preventive maintenance on any airplane owned or operated by that pilot which is not used in air carrier service. To approve the airplane for return to service after preventive maintenance is performed by a pilot, the pilot must hold at least a private pilot certificate.
	Preventive maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required?	ANSWER: The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records. After preventive maintenance has been performed, the signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.
	Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance?	ANSWER: Servicing landing gear wheel bearings. Appendix A to Part 43 provides a list of work that is considered preventive maintenance. Preventive maintenance means simple or minor preservation operations and the replacement of small standard parts not involving complex assembly operations. Servicing landing gear wheel bearings, such as cleaning and greasing, is considered preventive maintenance.
	Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance?	ANSWER: Replenishing hydraulic fluid. Appendix A to Part 43 provides a list of work that is considered preventive maintenance. Preventive main tenance means simple or minor preservation operations and the replacement of small standard parts not involving complex assembly operations. An example of preventive maintenance is replenishing hydraulic fluid.
	When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot's personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft?	ANSWER: Anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember. Current and appropriate pilot and medical certificates must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when you act as pilot in command (PIC) or as a required pilot flight crewmember.
	A recreational or private pilot acting as pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember, must have in his or her personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a current	ANSWER: medical certificate if required and an appropriate pilot certificate. Current and appropriate pilot and medical certificates must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when you act as pilot in command (PIC) or as a required pilot flight crewmember.
	What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft?	ANSWER: An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required. Current and appropriate pilot and medical certificates must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when you act as pilot in command (PIC) or as a required pilot flight crewmember.
	Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator, the National Transportation Safety Board, or any	ANSWER: federal, state, or local law enforcement officer. Each person who holds a pilot certificate, flight instructor certificate, medical certificate, authorization, or license required by the FARs shall present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator (of the FAA), an authorized representative of the National Transportation Safety Board, or any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer.A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 36-year-old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on
	A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 51-year-old pilot on May 3, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on	ANSWER: May 31, 2 years later. A pilot may exercise the privileges of a private pilot certificate under a third-class medical certificate until it expires at the end of the last day of the month 2 years after it was issued, for pilots 40 years old or older on the date of the medical examination. A third-class medical certificate issued to a 51-year-old pilot on May 3 will be valid until midnight on May 31, 2 years later.
	For private pilot operations, a Second-Class Medical Certificate issued to a 42-year-old pilot on July 15, this year, will expire at midnight on	ANSWER: July 31, 2 years later. For private pilot operations, a second-class medical certificate will expire at the end of the last day of the month, 2 years after it was issued, for pilots 40 years old or older on the date of the medical examination. For private pilot operations, a second-class medical certificate issued to a 42-year-old pilot on July 15 will be valid until midnight on July 31, 2 years later.
	For private pilot operations, a First-Class Medical Certificate issued to a 23-year-old pilot on October 21, this year, will expire at midnight on	ANSWER: October 31, 3 years later. For private pilot operations, a first-class medical certificate will expire at the end of the last day of the month, 3 years after it was issued, for pilots less than 40 years old on the date of the medical examination. For private pilot operations, a first-class medical certificate issued to a 23-year-old pilot on Oct. 21 will be valid until midnight on Oct. 31, 3 years later.
	A Third-Class Medical Certificate was issued to a 19-year-old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a recreational or private pilot certificate, the medical certificate will expire at midnight on	ANSWER: August 31, 3 years later. A pilot may exercise the privileges of a recreational or private pilot certificate under a third-class medical certificate until it expires at the end of the last day of the month 3 years after it was issued, for pilots less than 40 years old at the time of the medical examination. A third-class medical certificate issued to a 19-year-old pilot on Aug. 10 will expire at midnight on Aug. 31, 3 years later.
	Before a person holding a private pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, that person must have	ANSWER: received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person's logbook. A private pilot may not act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane (an airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower) unless (s)he has received and logged ground and flight training from an authorized instructor who has certified in his/her logbook that (s)he is proficient to operate a high-performance airplane.
	What is the definition of a high-performance airplane?	ANSWER: An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower. A high-performance airplane is defined as an airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower.
	The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft?	ANSWER: Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds. A person may not act as pilot in command of any of the following aircraft unless he holds a type rating for that aircraft: (1) A large aircraft (except lighter-than-air), i.e., over 12,500 lb. gross weight (2) A turbojet-powered airplane (3) Other aircraft specified by the FAA through aircraft type certificate procedures
	In order to act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, a pilot must have	ANSWER: received and logged ground and flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower. Prior to acting as pilot in command of an airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower, a person is required to receive and log ground and flight training in such an airplane from an authorized flight instructor who has certified in the pilot's logbook that the individual is proficient to operate a high-performance airplane.
	To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding	ANSWER: 24 calendar months. To act as pilot in command of an aircraft (whether carrying passengers or not), a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding 24 calendar months.
	If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required?	ANSWER: August 31, 2 years later. A pilot is required to have a flight review within the preceding 24 calendar months before the month in which the pilot acts as pilot in command. Thus, a pilot who had a flight review on Aug. 8 of this year, must have a flight review completed by Aug. 31, 2 years later.
	Each recreational or private pilot is required to have	ANSWER: a biennial flight review. Each recreational or private pilot is required to have a biennial (every 2 years) flight review.
	If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required?	ANSWER: August 31, 2 years later. A pilot is required to have a flight review within the preceding 24 calendar months before the month in which the pilot acts as pilot in command. Thus, a recreational or private pilot who had a flight review on Aug. 8 of this year, must have a flight review completed by Aug. 31, 2 years later.
	To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category, class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the preceding	ANSWER: 90 days. To act as pilot in command of an airplane with passengers aboard, you must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings (to a full stop if in a tailwheel airplane) in an airplane of the same category, class, and, if a type rating is required, of the same type within the preceding 90 days. Category refers to airplane, rotorcraft, etc.; class refers to single or multiengine, land or sea.
	If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is	ANSWER: 1929. For the purpose of night recency experience flight time, night is defined as the period beginning 1 hr. after sunset and ending 1 hr. before sunrise. If you have not met the night experience requirements, and official sunset is 1830, a landing must be accomplished at or before 1929 if passengers are carried.
	To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same	ANSWER: category, class, and type, if a type rating is required. No one may act as pilot in command of an airplane carrying passengers unless within the preceding 90 days (s)he has made three takeoffs and three landings as sole manipulator of the controls in an aircraft of the same category and class and, if a type rating is required, the same type. If the aircraft is a tailwheel airplane, the landings must have been to a full stop.
	The three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as pilot in command at night must be done during the time period from	ANSWER: 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise. No one may act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers at night (i.e., the period from 1 hr. after sunset to 1 hr. before sunrise as published in the American Air Almanac) unless (s)he has made three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days, at night, in the category and class of aircraft to be used.
	To meet the recency of experience requirements to act as pilot in command carrying passengers at night, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days in	ANSWER: the same category and class of aircraft to be used. No one may act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers at night (i.e., the period from 1 hr. after sunset to 1 hr. before sunrise) unless (s)he has made three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days, at night, in the category and class of aircraft to be used.
	The takeoffs and landings required to meet the recency of experience requirements for carrying passengers in a tailwheel airplane	ANSWER: must be to a full stop. To comply with recency requirements for carrying passengers in a tailwheel airplane, one must have made three takeoffs and landings to a full stop within the past 90 days.If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only
	When may a recreational pilot act as pilot in command on a cross-country flight that exceeds 50 nautical miles from the departure airport?	ANSWER: After receiving ground and flight instructions on cross-country training and a logbook endorsement. A recreational pilot may act as pilot in command on a cross-country flight that exceeds 50 NM from the departure airport, provided that person has received ground and flight training from an authorized instructor on the cross-country training requirements for a private pilot certificate and has received a logbook endorsement, which is in the person's possession in the aircraft, certifying the person is proficient in cross-country flying.
	A certificated private pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in the pilot's logbook a minimum of	ANSWER: 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider. As a private pilot, you may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider unless you have had, and entered in your logbook, at least 100 hr. of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that you are using to tow a glider.
	To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 12 months	ANSWER: at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot. To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, you are required to have made, in the preceding 12 months, (1) At least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot, or (2) At least three flights as pilot in command of a glider towed by an aircraft.
	In regard to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may	ANSWER: not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees. A private pilot may not pay less than an equal (pro rata) share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers. These expenses may involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures (e.g., landing fees, tie-down fees, etc.), or rental fees.
	According to regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may	ANSWER: not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees. A private pilot may not pay less than an equal (pro rata) share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers. These expenses may involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures (e.g., landing fees, tie-down fees, etc.), or rental fees.
	What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight?	ANSWER: If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight. A private pilot may act as pilot in command of an airplane used in a passenger-carrying airlift sponsored by a charitable organization for which passengers make donations to the organization, provided the following requirements are met: the local FSDO is notified at least 7 days before the flight, the flight is conducted from an adequate public airport, the pilot has logged at least 200 hr., no acrobatic or formation flights are performed, the 100-hr. inspection of the airplane requirement is complied with, and the flight is day-VFR.
	A recreational pilot acting as pilot in command must have in his or her personal possession while aboard the aircraft	ANSWER: a current logbook endorsement that permits flight within 50 nautical miles from the departure airport. A recreational pilot acting as pilot in command must have in his/her personal possession while aboard the airplane a current logbook endorsement that permits flight within 50 NM from the departure airport.
	How many passengers is a recreational pilot allowed to carry on board?	ANSWER: One. Recreational pilots may carry not more than one passenger.
	According to regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations, a recreational pilot may	ANSWER: not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with a passenger. A recreational pilot may not pay less than an equal (pro rata) share of the operating expenses of the flight with a passenger. These expenses may involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures (e.g., landing fees, tie-down fees, etc.), or rental fees.
	In regard to privileges and limitations, a recreational pilot may	ANSWER: not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with a passenger. A recreational pilot may not pay less than an equal (pro rata) share of the operating expenses of the flight with a passenger. These expenses may involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures (e.g., landing fees, tie-down fees, etc.), or rental fees.
	A recreational pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft that is certificated for a maximum of how many occupants?	ANSWER: Four. Recreational pilots may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft that is certificated for more than four occupants. Note, however, that only two occupants are permitted, the recreational pilot and a passenger.
	A recreational pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft with a maximum engine horsepower of	ANSWER: 180. A recreational pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft with a maximum engine horsepower of 180.
	With respect to daylight hours, what is the earliest time a recreational pilot may take off?	ANSWER: At sunrise. A recreational pilot may not act as pilot in command of an airplane between sunset and sunrise. Thus, the earliest time a recreational pilot may take off is at sunrise.
	What exception, if any, permits a recreational pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying a passenger for hire?	ANSWER: There is no exception. Recreational pilots may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft for compensation or hire. There is no exception.
	May a recreational pilot act as pilot in command of an aircraft in furtherance of a business?	ANSWER: No, it is not allowed. Recreational pilots may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft that is used in furtherance of a business. There is no exception.
	When may a recreational pilot operate to or from an airport that lies within Class C airspace?	ANSWER: For the purpose of obtaining an additional certificate or rating while under the supervision of an authorized flight instructor. For the purpose of obtaining an additional certificate or rating while under the supervision of an authorized flight instructor, a recreational pilot may fly as sole occupant of an airplane within airspace that requires communication with ATC, such as Class C airspace. [Note that in this situation, (s)he is active as a student pilot, not a recreational pilot.]
	If sunset is 2021 and the end of evening civil twilight is 2043, when must a recreational pilot terminate the flight?	ANSWER: 2021. A recreational pilot may not act as pilot in command of an airplane between sunset and sunrise. Thus, if sunset is 2021, the recreational pilot must terminate the flight at 2021.
	Under what conditions may a recreational pilot operate at an airport that lies within Class D airspace and that has a part-time control tower in operation?	ANSWER: Between sunrise and sunset when the tower is closed, the ceiling is at least 1,000 feet, and the visibility is at least 3 miles. A recreational pilot may not operate in airspace in which communication with ATC is required, e.g., Class D airspace. When a part-time control tower at an airport in Class D airspace is closed, the Class D airspace is classified as either Class E or Class G airspace, which does not require communication with ATC. A recreational pilot must maintain flight or surface visibility of 3 SM or greater, and the flight must be during the day. To operate at an airport in Class E airspace, the ceiling must be at least 1,000 ft. and the visibility at least 3 SM (FAR 91.155).
	When may a recreational pilot fly above 10,000 feet MSL?	ANSWER: When 2,000 feet AGL or below. Recreational pilots may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft at an altitude of more than 10,000 ft. MSL or 2,000 ft. AGL, whichever is higher. Thus, an airplane may fly above 10,000 ft. MSL only if below 2,000 ft. AGL.
	During daytime, what is the minimum flight or surface visibility required for recreational pilots in Class G airspace below 10,000 feet MSL?	ANSWER: 3 miles. The minimum flight or surface visibility required for recreational pilots in Class G airspace below 10,000 ft. MSL during the day is 3 SM.
	During daytime, what is the minimum flight visibility required for recreational pilots in controlled airspace below 10,000 feet MSL?	ANSWER: 3 miles. The minimum flight visibility for recreational pilots in Class E airspace below 10,000 ft. MSL during the day is 3 SM.
	Under what conditions, if any, may a recreational pilot demonstrate an aircraft in flight to a prospective buyer?	ANSWER: None. Recreational pilots may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft to demonstrate that aircraft in flight to a prospective buyer.
	When must a recreational pilot have a pilot-in-command flight check?	ANSWER: If the pilot has less than 400 total flight hours and has not flown as pilot in command in an aircraft within the preceding 180 days. The recreational pilot who has logged fewer than 400 flight hr. and has not logged pilot in command time in an aircraft within the preceding 180 days may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft until the pilot has received flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who certifies in the pilot's logbook that the pilot is competent to act as pilot in command of the aircraft.When, if ever, may a recreational pilot act as pilot in command in an aircraft towing a banner?
	A recreational pilot may fly as sole occupant of an aircraft at night while under the supervision of a flight instructor provided the flight or surface visibility is at least	ANSWER: 5 miles. For the purposes of obtaining additional certificates or ratings, a recreational pilot may fly as sole occupant in the aircraft between sunset and sunrise while under the supervision of an authorized flight instructor, providing the flight or surface visibility is at least 5 SM.
	The width of a Federal Airway from either side of the centerline is	ANSWER: 4 nautical miles. The width of a Federal Airway from either side of the centerline is 4 NM.
	Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from	ANSWER: 1,200 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL. Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending from 1,200 ft. above the surface up to and including 17,999 ft.
	Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the visibility and ceiling to be at least	ANSWER: 1,000 feet and 3 miles. The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are a 1,000-ft. ceiling and 3 SM visibility.
	The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the	ANSWER: pilot in command. The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the pilot in command.
	Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?	ANSWER: The pilot in command. The pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority for, determining whether the airplane is in condition for safe flight.
	Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found?	ANSWER: In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof. An aircraft's operating limitations may be found in the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.
	Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft?	ANSWER: If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface. No pilot in command of a civil aircraft may allow any object to be dropped from that aircraft in flight that creates a hazard to persons or property. However, this section does not prohibit the dropping of any object if reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property.
	No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with	ANSWER: 04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood. No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft, while having a .04% by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
	A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding	ANSWER: 8 hours. No person may act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding 8 hr.
	Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft?	ANSWER: In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care. No pilot of a civil aircraft may allow a person who demonstrates by manner or physical indications that the individual is under the influence of drugs to be carried in that aircraft, except in an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care.
	Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include	ANSWER: an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned. Preflight actions for flights not in the vicinity of an airport include checking weather reports and forecasts, fuel requirements, alternatives available if the planned flight cannot be completed, and any known traffic delays.
	In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to	ANSWER: determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data. Preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport specifically require the pilot in command to determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.
	Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?	ANSWER: Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight. Each pilot in command will, before beginning a flight, become familiar with all available information concerning that flight.
	Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during	ANSWER: takeoffs and landings. During takeoff and landing, and while en route, each required flight crewmember shall keep his/her safety belt fastened while at the crewmember station. If shoulder harnesses are available, they must be used by crew members during takeoff and landing.
	Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crewmembers are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened?	ANSWER: Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing. During takeoff and landing, and while en route, each required flight crewmember shall keep his/her safety belt fastened while at the crewmember station. If shoulder harnesses are available, they must be used by crewmembers during takeoff and landing.
	Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when?	ANSWER: Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only. Regulations require that safety belts in an airplane be properly secured about all passengers during taxi, takeoffs, and landings.
	With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts?	ANSWER: The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing. The pilot in command is required to brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing.
	With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during	ANSWER: taxi, takeoffs, and landings. During the taxi, takeoff, and landing of U.S. registered civil aircraft, each person on board that aircraft must occupy a seat or berth with a safety belt and shoulder harness, if installed, properly secured about him/her. However, a person who has not reached his/her second birthday may be held by an adult who is occupying a seat or berth, and a person on board for the purpose of engaging in sport parachuting may use the floor of the aircraft as a seat (but is still required to use approved safety belts for takeoff).
	When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator?	ANSWER: Upon request. A pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency must send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator of the FAA only upon request.
	If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may	ANSWER: deviate from the FAR's to the extent required to meet that emergency. In an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action, the pilot in command may deviate from the FARs to the extent required to meet that emergency. A written report of the deviation must be sent to the Administrator of the FAA only if requested.
	Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport?	ANSWER: Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport. Each person operating an airplane to or from an airport without an operating control tower shall (1) in the case of an airplane approaching to land, make all turns of that airplane to the left unless the airport displays approved light signals or visual markings indicating that turns should be made to the right, in which case the pilot shall make all turns to the right, and (2) in the case of an airplane departing the airport, comply with any FAA traffic pattern for that airport.
	When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shall	ANSWER: maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope. An airplane approaching to land on a runway served by a VASI shall maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.
	Each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall	ANSWER: maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope. When approaching to land on a runway served by a VASI, each pilot of an airplane must fly at or above the VASI glide path until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.
	A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace?	ANSWER: Class D. A blue segmented circle on a sectional chart depicts Class D airspace.
	Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only	ANSWER: when the associated control tower is in operation. A Class D airspace area is automatically in effect when and only when the associated part-time control tower is in operation regardless of weather conditions, availability of radar services, or time of day. Airports with part-time operating towers only have a part-time Class D airspace area.Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs.
	While on final approach for landing, an alternating green and red light followed by a flashing red light is received from the control tower. Under these circumstances, the pilot should	ANSWER: exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for landing. An alternating red and green light signaled from a control tower means 'exercise extreme caution' whether to an airplane on the ground or in the air. The flashing red light received while in the air indicates the airport is not safe and the pilot should not land.
	A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot	ANSWER: is cleared to land. A steady green light signal from the tower to an airplane in flight means cleared to land.
	A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to	ANSWER: return to the starting point on the airport. A flashing white light given to an aircraft taxiing along the ground means to return to the aircraft's starting point.
	If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be	ANSWER: steady red. A steady red light signal given to an aircraft in the air means to give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
	Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi?	ANSWER: Flashing green. A flashing green gives the pilot permission to taxi.
	An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to	ANSWER: exercise extreme caution. A flashing red and green light given anytime means exercise extreme caution.
	No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight	ANSWER: except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft. No person may operate in formation flight except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in formation.
	An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane's position, which aircraft has the right-of-way?	ANSWER: The airship. When aircraft of different categories are converging, the less maneuverable aircraft has the right-of-way. Thus, the airship has the right-of-way in this question.
	When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft	ANSWER: at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right-of-way, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another aircraft.
	Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?	ANSWER: Glider. If aircraft of different categories are converging, the right-of-way depends upon who has the least maneuverability. A glider has right-of-way over an airship, airplane or rotorcraft.
	What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course?	ANSWER: Both pilots should give way to the right. When aircraft are approaching head-on, or nearly so (regardless of category), each aircraft shall alter course to the right.
	What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on?	ANSWER: The aircraft on the left shall give way. When two aircraft of the same category converge (but not head-on), the aircraft to the other's right has the right-of-way. Thus, an airplane on the left gives way to the airplane on the right.
	Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?	ANSWER: Aircraft towing other aircraft. An aircraft towing or refueling another aircraft has the right-of-way over all engine-driven aircraft. An airship is an engine-driven, lighter-than-air aircraft that can be steered.
	Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic?	ANSWER: An aircraft in distress. An aircraft in distress has the right-of-way over all other aircraft.
	A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing courses. If the motorboat is to the left of the seaplane, which has the right-of-way?	ANSWER: The seaplane. When aircraft, or an aircraft and a vessel (e.g., a motorboat), are on crossing courses, the aircraft or vessel to the other's right has the right-of-way. Since the seaplane is to the motorboat's right, the seaplane has the right-of-way.
	When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is	ANSWER: 200 knots. No person may operate an airplane in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 kt. (230 MPH).
	Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL?	ANSWER: 250 knots. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 ft. MSL at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 kt. (288 MPH).
	When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is	ANSWER: 200 knots. No person may operate an airplane in the airspace underlying Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 kt. (230 MPH).
	Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is	ANSWER: 200 knots. Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which an airplane may be flown when at or below 2,500 ft. AGL and within 4 NM of the primary airport of Class C airspace is 200 kt. (230 mph).
	Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure?	ANSWER: 500 feet. Over other than congested areas, an altitude of 500 ft. above the surface is required. Over open water and sparsely populated areas, a distance of 500 ft. from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure must be maintained.
	Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?	ANSWER: An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, no person may operate an aircraft anywhere below an altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
	Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas?	ANSWER: An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft. When operating an aircraft over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement, or over an open air assembly of persons, a pilot must remain at an altitude of 1,000 ft. above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 ft. of the aircraft.
	Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?	ANSWER: An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. Over other than congested areas, an altitude of 500 ft. above the surface is required. Over open water and sparsely populated areas, a distance of 500 ft. from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure must be maintained.
	Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting?	ANSWER: The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation. Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to the local altimeter setting, or to the departure airport elevation.
	If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter?	ANSWER: The elevation of the departure area. When the local altimeter setting is not available at takeoff, the pilot should adjust the altimeter to the elevation of the departure area.
	At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92, when climbing to cruising flight level?	ANSWER: 18,000 feet MSL. Pressure altitude is the altitude used for all flights at and above 18,000 ft. MSL, i.e., in Class A airspace. When climbing to or above 18,000 ft. MSL, one does not use local altimeter settings, but rather 29.92' Hg after reaching 18,000 ft. MSL.
	When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance?	ANSWER: When requested by ATC. Each pilot in command who is given priority by ATC in an emergency shall, if requested by ATC, submit a detailed report within 48 hrs. to the manager of that ATC facility.
	When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance, unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is	ANSWER: an emergency. When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance, except in an emergency, unless an amended clearance is obtained. What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority?
	Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?	ANSWER: Class C. No person may operate an aircraft in Class C airspace unless two-way radio communication is established with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the airspace prior to entering that area.
	What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?	ANSWER: Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements. No person may take off or land aircraft at an airport within Class B airspace or operate an aircraft within Class B airspace unless they are at least a private pilot or, if a student pilot, they have the appropriate logbook endorsement required by FAR 61.95.
	What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?	ANSWER: Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements. No person may take off or land aircraft at an airport within Class B airspace or operate an aircraft within Class B airspace unless they are at least a private pilot or, if a student pilot, they have the appropriate logbook endorsement required by FAR 61.95.
	In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?	ANSWER: Class A. Class A airspace (from 18,000 ft. MSL up to and including FL 600) require operation under IFR at specific flight levels assigned by ATC. Accordingly, VFR flights are prohibited.
	An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in	ANSWER: Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport. An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in Class B airspace and within 30 NM of the Class B primary airport.
	What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?	ANSWER: Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter. To operate within Class C airspace, the aircraft must have 1. Two-way radio communications equipment, 2. A 4096-code transponder, and 3. An encoding altimeter.
	What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace?	ANSWER: Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter. To operate within Class B airspace, the aircraft must have 1. Two-way radio communications equipment, 2. A 4096-code transponder, and 3. An encoding altimeter.
	What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for a recreational pilot in Class G airspace at 1,200 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?	ANSWER: 3 miles visibility and clear of clouds. Recreational pilots may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft when the visibility is less than 3 SM. Additionally, FAR 91.155 specifies basic VFR weather minimums which permit pilots to fly in Class G airspace 1,200 ft. AGL or below at 1 SM clear of clouds. Thus, the 3-SM recreational pilot limitation and the clear of clouds situation apply.
	Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for a recreational pilot flying VFR above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is	ANSWER: 3 miles. Recreational pilots may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft when the visibility is less than 3 SM.
	What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?	ANSWER: Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. The night VFR requirement is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly thereafter for 45 min. at normal cruising speed given forecast conditions.
	What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane?	ANSWER: Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed. The day-VFR requirement is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and thereafter for 30 min. at normal cruising speed.
	The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is	ANSWER: 5 miles. Controlled airspace is the generic term for Class A, B, C, D, or E airspace. Of these, only in Class E airspace is the minimum flight visibility 5 SM for VFR flights at or above 10,000 ft. MSL. Note: AGL altitudes are not used in controlled airspace. In Class E airspace, the visibility and distance from clouds are given for (1) below 10,000 ft. MSL and (2) at or above 10,000 ft. MSL.
	VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of	ANSWER: 3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace. Controlled airspace is the generic term for Class A, B, C, D, or E airspace. Only in Class C, D, or below 10,000 ft. MSL in Class E airspace are the minimum flight visibility and vertical distance from cloud for VFR flight required to be 3 SM, and 500 ft. below or 1,000 ft. above the clouds. Note: AGL altitudes are not used in controlled airspace. In Class E airspace, the visibility and distance from clouds are given for (1) below 10,000 ft. MSL and (2) at or above 10,000 ft. MSL.
	For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is	ANSWER: 1 mile. For VFR flight operations in Class G airspace at altitudes more than 1,200 ft. AGL and at or above 10,000 ft. MSL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is 1 SM. Note: The FAA question fails to specify what type of airspace. Since AGL altitudes are not used in controlled airspace (Class A, B, C, D, or E), that implies Class G airspace.
	The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are	ANSWER: 1,000-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility. The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are 1,000-ft. ceiling and 3 SM visibility.
	The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is	ANSWER: 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally. An airway includes that Class E airspace extending upward from 1,200 ft. AGL to, but not including, 18,000 ft. MSL. The minimum distance from clouds below 10,000 ft. MSL in Class E airspace is 500 ft. below, 1,000 ft. above, and 2,000 ft. horizontally.
	What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?	ANSWER: 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds. Below 1,200 ft. AGL in Class G airspace during daylight hours, the VFR weather minimum is 1 SM visibility and clear of clouds.
	What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?	ANSWER: 3 miles. An airway includes that Class E airspace extending upward from 1,200 ft. AGL to, but not including, 18,000 ft. MSL. The minimum flight visibility for VFR flight operations in Class E airspace less than 10,000 ft. MSL is 3 SM.
	During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is	ANSWER: 3 miles. When operating outside controlled airspace (i.e., Class G airspace) at night at altitudes of more than 1,200 ft. AGL, but less than 10,000 ft. MSL, the minimum flight visibility is 3 SM.
	During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is	ANSWER: 1,000 feet. Controlled airspace is the generic term for Class A, B, C, D, or E airspace. Only in Class C, D, or below 10,000 ft. MSL in Class E airspace are the minimum flight visibility and vertical distance from cloud for VFR flight required to be 3 SM, and 500 ft. below or 1,000 ft. above the clouds. Note: AGL altitudes are not used in controlled airspace. In Class E airspace, the visibility and distance from clouds are given for (1) below 10,000 ft. MSL and (2) at or above 10,000 ft. MSL.
	No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the	ANSWER: ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles. No person may take off or land an aircraft at any airport that lies within Class D airspace under basic VFR unless the ground visibility is 3 SM. If ground visibility is not reported, flight visibility during landing or takeoff, or while operating in the traffic pattern, must be at least 3 SM.
	During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is	ANSWER: 1,000 feet. During operations in Class G airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 ft. AGL and at or above 10,000 ft. MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is 1,000 ft. Note: The FAA question fails to specify what type of airspace. Since AGL altitudes are not used in controlled airspace (Class A, B, C, D, and E), that implies Class G airspace. Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is
	During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is	ANSWER: 500 feet. Outside controlled airspace (i.e., Class G airspace) at altitudes above 1,200 ft. AGL and less than 10,000 ft. MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is 500 ft.
	During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is	ANSWER: 2,000 feet. Controlled airspace is the generic term for Class A, B, C, D, or E airspace. Only in Class C, D, or below 10,000 ft. MSL in Class E airspace is the minimum horizontal distance from clouds for VFR flight required to be 2,000 ft. Note: AGL altitudes are not used in controlled airspace. In Class E airspace, the visibility and distance from clouds are given for (1) below 10,000 ft. MSL and (2) at or above 10,000 ft. MSL.
	A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is	ANSWER: at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds. To operate within Class D airspace under special VFR clearance, visibility must be at least 1 SM. There is no ceiling requirement, but the aircraft must remain clear of clouds.
	No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace at night under special VFR unless the	ANSWER: airplane is equipped for instrument flight. To operate under special VFR within Class D airspace at night, the pilot must be instrument rated and the airplane equipped for instrument flight.
	What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night?	ANSWER: The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped. To operate under special VFR within Class D airspace at night, the pilot must be instrument rated and the airplane must be IFR equipped.
	What is the minimum weather condition required for airplanes operating under special VFR in Class D airspace?	ANSWER: 1 mile flight visibility. To operate within Class D airspace under special VFR clearance, visibility must be at least 1 SM. There is no ceiling requirement, but the aircraft must remain clear of clouds.
	Which VFR cruising altitude is acceptable for a flight on a Victor Airway with a magnetic course of 175°? The terrain is less than 1,000 feet.	ANSWER: 5,500 feet. When operating a VFR flight above 3,000 ft. AGL on a magnetic course of 0° through 179°, fly any odd thousand-ft. MSL altitude plus 500 ft. Thus, on a magnetic course of 175°, an appropriate VFR cruising altitude is 5,500 ft.
	Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight on a magnetic course of 135°?	ANSWER: Odd thousand plus 500 feet. When operating a VFR flight above 3,000 ft. AGL on a magnetic course of 0° through 179°, fly any odd thousand-ft. MSL altitude plus 500 ft. Thus, on a magnetic course of 135°, an appropriate VFR cruising altitude is an odd thousand plus 500 ft.
	Which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate when flying above 3,000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 185°?	ANSWER: 4,500 feet. When operating a VFR flight above 3,000 ft. AGL on a magnetic course of 180° through 359°, fly any even thousand-ft. MSL altitude, plus 500 ft. Thus, on a magnetic course of 185°, an appropriate VFR cruising altitude is 4,500 ft.
	Each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruising altitude shall maintain an odd-thousand plus 500-foot altitude while on a	ANSWER: magnetic course of 0° through 179°. When operating above 3,000 ft. AGL but less than 18,000 ft. MSL on a magnetic course of 0° to 179°, fly at an odd thousand-ft. MSL altitude plus 500 ft.
	With certain exceptions, all aircraft within 30 miles of a Class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL must be equipped with	ANSWER: an operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability. All aircraft within 30 NM of a Class B primary airport must be equipped with an operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability. The exception is any aircraft which was not originally certificated with an engine-driven electrical system or which has not subsequently been certified with such a system installed, balloon, or glider may conduct operations in the airspace within 30 NM of a Class B airspace primary airport provided such operations are conducted (1) outside any Class A, Class B, or Class C airspace area; and (2) below the altitude of the ceiling of a Class B or Class C airspace area or 10,000 ft. MSL, whichever is lower.
	In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight?	ANSWER: Operating limitations and Registration Certificate. FAR 91.203 requires both an Airworthiness Certificate and a Registration Certificate to be aboard aircraft during flight. FAR 91.9 requires that operating limitations be available in the aircraft in an approved Airplane Flight Manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.
	When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable?	ANSWER: When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour. ELT batteries must be replaced or recharged (if rechargeable) when the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hr. or when 50% of their useful life (or useful life of charge) has expired.
	When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced?	ANSWER: When 50 percent of their useful life expires. Non-rechargeable batteries of an ELT must be replaced when 50% of their useful life expires or after the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hr.
	Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft?	ANSWER: Sunset to sunrise. Except in Alaska, no person may operate an aircraft during the period from sunset to sunrise unless the aircraft's lighted position lights are on.
	Unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen, no person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of	ANSWER: 15,000 feet MSL. No person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry at cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 ft. MSL unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen.
	When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during	ANSWER: that flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes. At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 ft. MSL, up to and including 14,000 ft. MSL, the required minimum flight crew must use supplemental oxygen only after 30 min. at those altitudes.
	An operable 4096-code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace?	ANSWER: Class A, Class B (and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport), and Class C. An operable transponder with an encoding altimeter (Mode C) is required in Class A, Class B (and within 30 NM of the Class B primary airport), and Class C airspace, and at or above 10,000 ft. MSL excluding that airspace below 2,500 ft. AGL.
	In which class of airspace is acrobatic flight prohibited?	ANSWER: Class E airspace below 1,500 feet AGL. No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight below an altitude of 1,500 ft. AGL.
	No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when the flight visibility is less than	ANSWER: 3 miles. No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when the flight visibility is less than 3 SM.
	What is the lowest altitude permitted for acrobatic flight?	ANSWER: 1,500 feet AGL. No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight below 1,500 ft. AGL.
	No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when	ANSWER: over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement. No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement.
	With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute?	ANSWER: When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30° or more. Unless each occupant of an airplane is wearing an approved parachute, no pilot carrying any other person (other than a crewmember) may execute any intentional maneuver that exceeds a bank of 60° or a nose-up or nose-down attitude of 30° relative to the horizon.
	A chair-type parachute must have been packed by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding	ANSWER: 120 days. No pilot of a civil aircraft may allow a parachute that is available for emergency use to be carried in that aircraft unless it is an approved type and, if a chair type, it has been packed by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding 120 days.
	An approved chair-type parachute may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding	ANSWER: 120 days. No pilot of a civil aircraft may allow a parachute that is available for emergency use to be carried in that aircraft unless it is an approved type and, if a chair type, it has been packed by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding 120 days.
	Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft?	ANSWER: Flight over a densely populated area. Normally, no person may operate a restricted category civil aircraft over a densely populated area. Unless otherwise specifically authorized, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate
	How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid?	ANSWER: As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations. The airworthiness certificate of an airplane remains valid as long as the airplane is in an airworthy condition, i.e., operated and maintained as required by the FARs.
	The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the	ANSWER: owner or operator. The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining that aircraft in an airworthy condition. The term 'operator' includes the pilot in command.
	Who is responsible for ensuring Airworthiness Directives (AD's) are complied with?	ANSWER: Owner or operator. Airworthiness Directives (ADs) are regulatory and must be complied with, unless a specific exemption is granted. It is the responsibility of the owner or operator to assure compliance with all pertinent ADs, including those ADs that require recurrent or continuing action.
	The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the	ANSWER: owner or operator. Each owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service.
	Who is responsible for ensuring appropriate entries are made in maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service?	ANSWER: Owner or operator. It is the responsibility of the owner or operator of an aircraft to ensure that appropriate entries are made in maintenance records by maintenance personnel indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service.
	If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft's operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately-rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated	ANSWER: with passengers aboard. If an alteration or repair has been made that substantially affects the airplane's flight characteristics, the airplane must be test flown and approved for return to service by an appropriately rated pilot prior to being operated with passengers aboard. The test pilot must be at least a private pilot and appropriately rated for the airplane being tested and must make an operational check of the alteration or repair made, and log the flight in the aircraft records.
	Before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that has been altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics, it must be flight tested by an appropriately-rated pilot who holds at least a	ANSWER: Private Pilot Certificate. If an alteration or repair has been made that may have changed an airplane's flight characteristics, the airplane must be test flown and approved for return to service by an appropriately rated pilot prior to being operated with passengers aboard. The test pilot must be at least a private pilot and appropriately rated for the airplane being tested.
	A 100-hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?	ANSWER: 3402.5 hours. Since the 100-hr. inspection was due at 3302.5 hr., the next 100-hr. inspection is due at 3402.5 (3302.5 + 100). The excess time used before the 100-hr. inspection was done must be included in computing the next 100 hr. of time in service.
	An aircraft's annual inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than	ANSWER: July 31, next year. Annual inspections expire on the last day of the 12th calendar month after the previous annual inspection. If an annual inspection is performed on July 12 of this year, it will expire at midnight on July 31 next year.
	What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction?	ANSWER: Annual and 100-hour inspections. All aircraft that are used for hire (e.g., rental) and flight instruction must be inspected on a 100-hr. basis. Also an annual inspection must be completed.
	An aircraft had a 100-hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?	ANSWER: 1359.6 hours. The next 100-hr. inspection is due within 100 hr. of time in service. The 100-hr. may be exceeded by 10 hr. in order to get to a place where the work can be done. Add 100 hr. to 1259.6 to get the next inspection, due at 1359.6.
	No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceding	ANSWER: 24 calendar months. No person may use an ATC transponder that is specified in the regulations unless within the preceding 24 calendar months it has been tested and found to comply with its operating specifications.
	Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 1993. The next inspection will be due no later than	ANSWER: September 30, 1995. No person may use an ATC transponder that is specified in the regulations unless within the preceding 24 calendar months it has been tested and found to comply with its operating specifications. Thus, if the last inspection was performed on September 1, 1993, the next inspection will be due no later than September 30, 1995.
	Completion of an annual inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by	ANSWER: an appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance records. Completion of an annual inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by an appropriate notation in the aircraft's maintenance records.
	To determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection, a person should refer to the	ANSWER: aircraft maintenance records. After maintenance inspections have been completed, maintenance personnel should make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records or logbooks. This is where the date of the last annual inspection can be found.
	Which records or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable Airworthiness Directive?	ANSWER: Aircraft maintenance records. Aircraft maintenance records must show the current status of applicable airworthiness directives (ADs) including, for each, the method of compliance, the AD number, and revision date. If the AD involves recurring action, the time and date when the next action is required.
	The airworthiness of an aircraft can be determined by a preflight inspection and a	ANSWER: review of the maintenance records. As pilot in command, you are responsible for determining whether your aircraft is in condition for safe flight. Only by conducting a preflight inspection and a review of the maintenance records can you determine whether all required maintenance has been performed and, thus, whether the aircraft is airworthy.
	If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified	ANSWER: immediately. The NTSB must be notified immediately and by the most expeditious means possible when an aircraft accident or any of various listed incidents occurs or when an aircraft is overdue and is believed to have been in an accident.
	Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?	ANSWER: An in-flight fire. The NTSB must be notified immediately and by the most expeditious means possible when an aircraft accident or any of various listed incidents occurs or when an aircraft is overdue and believed to have been in an accident. The following are considered incidents: 1. Flight control system malfunction or failure; 2. Inability of any required flight crewmember to perform normal flight duties as a result of injury or illness; 3. Failure of structural components of a turbine engine, excluding compressor and turbine blades and vanes; 4. In-flight fire; or 5. Aircraft collision in flight.
	Which incident requires an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?	ANSWER: Flight control system malfunction or failure. The NTSB must be notified immediately and by the most expeditious means possible when an aircraft accident or any of various listed incidents occurs or when an aircraft is overdue and believed to have been in an accident. The following are considered incidents: 1. Flight control system malfunction or failure; 2. Inability of any required flight crewmember to perform normal flight duties as a result of injury or illness; 3. Failure of structural components of a turbine engine, excluding compressor and turbine blades and vanes; 4. In-flight fire; or 5. Aircraft collision in flight.
	Which incident requires an immediate notification be made to the nearest NTSB field office?	ANSWER: An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident. The NTSB must be notified immediately and by the most expeditious means possible when an aircraft is overdue and is believed to have been involved in an accident.
	May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody?	ANSWER: Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage. Prior to the time the Board or its authorized representative takes custody of aircraft wreckage, mail, or cargo, such wreckage, mail, or cargo may not be disturbed or moved except to the extent necessary: 1. To remove persons injured or trapped; 2. To protect the wreckage from further damage; or 3. To protect the public from injury. The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an accident report within how many days?
	The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB	ANSWER: when requested. The operator of an aircraft shall file a report on NTSB Form 6120.1/2 only when requested. A report is required within 10 days of an accident, or after 7 days if an overdue aircraft is still missing.
	The four forces acting on an airplane in flight are	ANSWER: lift, weight, thrust, and drag. Lift is produced by the wings and opposes weight, which is the result of gravity. Thrust is produced by the engine/propeller and opposes drag, which is the resistance of the air as the airplane moves through it.
	When are the four forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium?	ANSWER: During unaccelerated flight. The four forces (lift, weight, thrust, and drag) that act on an airplane are in equilibrium during unaccelerated flight.
	What is the relationship of lift, drag, thrust, and weight when the airplane is in straight-and-level flight?	ANSWER: Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag. When the airplane is in straight-and-level flight (assuming no change of airspeed), it is not accelerating, and therefore lift equals weight and thrust equals drag.
	The term 'angle of attack' is defined as the angle	ANSWER: between the wing chord line and the relative wind. The angle of attack is the angle between the wing chord line and the direction of the relative wind. The wing chord line is a straight line from the leading edge to the trailing edge of the wing. The relative wind is the direction of airflow relative to the wing when the wing is moving through the air.
	How will frost on the wings of an airplane affect takeoff performance?	ANSWER: Frost will disrupt the smooth flow of air over the wing, adversely affecting its lifting capability. Frost does not change the basic aerodynamic shape of the wing, but the roughness of its surface spoils the smooth flow of air, thus causing an increase in drag and an early airflow separation over the wing, resulting in a loss of lift.
	In what flight condition is torque effect the greatest in a single-engine airplane?	ANSWER: Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack. The effect of torque increases in direct proportion to engine power and inversely to airspeed. Thus, at low airspeeds, high angles of attack, and high power settings, torque is the greatest.
	The left turning tendency of an airplane caused by P-factor is the result of the	ANSWER: propeller blade descending on the right, producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left. Asymmetric propeller loading (P-factor) occurs when the airplane is flown at a high angle of attack. The downward-moving blade on the right side of the propeller (as seen from the rear) has a higher angle of attack, which creates higher thrust than the upward moving blade on the left. Thus, the airplane yaws around the vertical axis to the left.
	When does P-factor cause the airplane to yaw to the left?	ANSWER: When at high angles of attack. P-factor or asymmetric propeller loading occurs when an airplane is flown at a high angle of attack because the downward-moving blade on the right side of the propeller (as seen from the rear) has a higher angle of attack, which creates higher thrust than the upward moving blade on the left. Thus, the airplane yaws around the vertical axis to the left.
	What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane?	ANSWER: To control yaw. The rudder is used to control yaw, which is rotation about the airplane's vertical axis.
	An airplane said to be inherently stable will	ANSWER: require less effort to control. An inherently stable airplane will usually return to the original condition of flight (except when in a bank) if disturbed by a force such as air turbulence. Thus, an inherently stable airplane will require less effort to control than an inherently unstable one.
	What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane?	ANSWER: The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift. The location of the center of gravity with respect to the center of lift determines, to a great extent, the longitudinal stability of the airplane. Positive stability is attained by having the center of lift behind the center of gravity. Then the tail provides negative lift, creating a downward tail force, which counteracts the nose's tendency to pitch down.
	What causes an airplane (except a T-tail) to pitch nosedown when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted?	ANSWER: The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced. The relative wind on the tail is the result of the airplane's movement through the air and the propeller slipstream. When that slipstream is reduced, the horizontal stabilizer (except a T-tail) will produce less negative lift and the nose will pitch down.
	The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will	ANSWER: remain the same regardless of gross weight. A given airplane wing will always stall at the same angle of attack regardless of airspeed, weight, load factor, or density altitude. Each wing has a particular angle of attack (the critical angle of attack) at which the airflow separates from the upper surface of the wing and the stall occurs.
	The amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends upon the	ANSWER: speed of the airplane. The amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing depends upon how fast the airplane is flying. At low speeds, the maximum available lifting force of the wing is only slightly greater than the amount necessary to support the weight of the airplane. Thus, any excess load would simply cause the airplane to stall. At high speeds, the lifting capacity of the wing is so great (as a result of the greater flow of air over the wings) that a sudden movement of the elevator controls (strong gust of wind) may increase the load factor beyond safe limits. This is why maximum speeds are established by airplane manufacturers.
	Which basic flight maneuver increases the load factor on an airplane as compared to straight-and-level flight?	ANSWER: Turns. Turns increase the load factor because the lift from the wings is used to pull the airplane around a corner as well as to offset the force of gravity. The wings must carry the airplane's weight plus offset centrifugal force during the turn. For example, a 60° bank results in a load factor of 2; i.e., the wings must support twice the weight they do in level flight.
	During an approach to a stall, an increased load factor will cause the airplane to	ANSWER: stall at a higher airspeed. The greater the load (whether from gross weight or from centrifugal force), the more lift is required. Therefore, an airplane will stall at higher airspeeds when the load and/or load factor is increased.
	What is one purpose of wing flaps?	ANSWER: To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed. Extending the flaps increases the wing camber and the angle of attack of the wing. This increases wing lift and induced drag, which enables the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without an increase in airspeed.
	One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to	ANSWER: increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed. Extending the flaps increases the wing camber and the angle of attack of the wing. This increases wing lift and induced drag, which enables the pilot to increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.
	An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by	ANSWER: the oil level being too low. Operating with an excessively low oil level prevents the oil from being cooled adequately; i.e., an inadequate supply of oil will not be able to transfer engine heat to the engine's oil cooler (similar to a car engine's water radiator). Insufficient oil may also damage an engine from excessive friction within the cylinders and on other metal-to-metal contact parts.
	Excessively high engine temperatures will	ANSWER: cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage. Excessively high engine temperatures will result in loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage. For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on
	If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with	ANSWER: too much power and with the mixture set too lean. If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges exceed their normal operating range, it is possible that the power setting is too high and the fuel/air mixture is set excessively lean. These conditions may cause engine overheating.
	What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb?	ANSWER: Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed. If an airplane is overheating during a climb, the engine temperature will be decreased if the airspeed is increased. Airspeed will increase if the rate of climb is reduced.
	What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating?	ANSWER: Enrich the fuel mixture. Enriched fuel mixtures have a cooling effect on an engine.
	One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for	ANSWER: improved engine performance. Most airplane engines are equipped with dual ignition systems, which have two magnetos to supply the electrical current to two spark plugs for each combustion chamber. The main advantages of the dual system are increased safety and improved burning and combustion of the mixture, which results in improved performance.
	With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be	ANSWER: more susceptible to icing. Float-type carburetor systems are generally more susceptible to icing than fuel-injected engines. When there is visible moisture or high humidity and the temperature is between 20°F and 70°F, icing is possible, particularly at low power settings.
	The operating principle of float-type carburetors is based on the	ANSWER: difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet. In a float-type carburetor, air flows into the carburetor and through a venturi tube (a narrow throat in the carburetor). As the air flows more rapidly through the venturi, a low pressure area is created which draws the fuel from a main fuel jet located at the throat of the carburetor and into the airstream, where it is mixed with flowing air. It is called a float-type carburetor in that a ready supply of gasoline is kept in the float bowl by a float, which activates a fuel inlet valve.
	If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be	ANSWER: loss of RPM. In an airplane equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and float-type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would be a loss in RPM.
	The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting	ANSWER: a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM. The presence of carburetor ice in an airplane equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase. The decrease in RPM as heat is applied is caused by less dense hot air entering the engine and reducing power output. Also, if ice is present, melting water entering the engine may also cause a loss in performance. As the carburetor ice melts, however, the RPM gradually increases until it stabilizes when the ice is completely removed.
	Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing?	ANSWER: Temperature between 20 and 70°F and high humidity. When the temperature is between 20°F and 70°F with visible moisture or high humidity, one should be on the alert for carburetor ice. During low or closed throttle settings, an engine is particularly susceptible to carburetor icing.
	The possibility of carburetor icing exists even when the ambient air temperature is as	ANSWER: high as 70°F and the relative humidity is high. When the temperature is between 20°F and 70°F with visible moisture or high humidity, one should be on the alert for carburetor ice. During low or closed throttle settings, an engine is particularly susceptible to carburetor icing.
	Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to	ANSWER: decrease engine performance. Use of carburetor heat tends to decrease the engine performance and also to increase the operating temperature. Warmer air is less dense, and engine performance decreases with density. Thus, carburetor heat should not be used when full power is required (as during takeoff) or during normal engine operation except as a check for the presence or removal of carburetor ice.
	Applying carburetor heat will	ANSWER: enrich the fuel/air mixture. Applying carburetor heat will enrich the fuel/air mixture. Warm air is less dense than cold air, hence the application of heat increases the fuel-to-air ratio.
	What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carburetor heat is applied?	ANSWER: The fuel/air mixture becomes richer. When carburetor heat is applied, hot air is introduced into the carburetor. Hot air is less dense than cold air; therefore, the decrease in air density with a constant amount of fuel makes a richer mixture.
	During the run-up at a high-elevation airport, a pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat check. Under these circumstances, what would be the most logical initial action?	ANSWER: Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture. If, during a run-up at a high-elevation airport, you notice a slight roughness that is not affected by a magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat check, you should check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture control. At a high-elevation field, the air is less dense and the application of carburetor heat increases the already too rich fuel-to-air mixture. By leaning the mixture during the run-up, the condition should improve.
	The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to	ANSWER: decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density. At higher altitudes the air density is decreased. Thus the mixture control must be adjusted to decrease the fuel flow in order to maintain a constant fuel/air ratio.
	While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?	ANSWER: The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean. At 9,500 ft., the mixture control is adjusted to provide the proper fuel/air ratio. As the airplane descends, the density of the air increases and there will be less fuel to air in the ratio, causing a leaner running engine. This excessively lean mixture will create higher cylinder temperature and may cause detonation.
	Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when	ANSWER: the unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally. Detonation occurs when the fuel/air mixture in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally. This more rapid force slams the piston down instead of pushing it.
	If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is detonating during climb-out after takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to	ANSWER: lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed. If you suspect engine detonation during climb-out after takeoff, you would normally decrease the pitch to increase airspeed (more cooling) and decrease the load on the engine. Detonation is usually caused by a poor grade of fuel or an excessive engine temperature.
	If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause	ANSWER: detonation. If the grade of fuel used in an airplane engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will probably cause detonation. Lower grades of fuel ignite at lower temperatures. A higher temperature engine (which should use a higher grade of fuel) may cause lower grade fuel to explode (detonate) rather than burn evenly.
	The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as	ANSWER: pre-ignition. Pre-ignition is the ignition of the fuel prior to normal ignition or ignition before the electrical arcing occurs at the spark plug. Pre-ignition may be caused by excessively hot exhaust valves, carbon particles, or spark plugs and electrodes heated to an incandescent, or glowing, state. These hot spots are usually caused by high temperatures encountered during detonation. A significant difference between pre-ignition and detonation is that if the conditions for detonation exist in one cylinder they usually exist in all cylinders, but pre-ignition often takes place in only one or two cylinders.
	What type fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available?	ANSWER: The next higher octane aviation gas. If the recommended octane is not available for an airplane, the next higher octane aviation gas should be used.
	Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will	ANSWER: prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks. Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered good operating practice because it prevents moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks. Humid air may result in condensation at night when the airplane cools.
	On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps, when is the auxiliary electric driven pump used?	ANSWER: In the event engine-driven fuel pump fails. In a fuel pump system, two fuel pumps are used on most airplanes. The main fuel pump is engine-driven and an auxiliary electric-driven pump is provided for use in the event the engine pump fails.
	Which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges?	ANSWER: Using fuel that has a lower-than-specified fuel rating. Use of fuel with lower-than-specified fuel ratings, e.g., 80 octane instead of 100, can cause many problems, including higher operating temperatures, detonation, etc. How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller?
	A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller is to	ANSWER: avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM. For any given RPM, there is a manifold pressure that should not be exceeded. Manifold pressure is excessive for a given RPM when the cylinder design pressure is exceeded, placing undue stress on them. If repeated or extended, the stress would weaken the cylinder components and eventually cause engine failure.
	What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller?	ANSWER: Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance. A controllable-pitch propeller (constant-speed) permits the pilot to select the blade angle that will result in the most efficient performance given the flight conditions. A low blade angle and a decreased pitch reduces the propeller drag and allows more engine RPM (power) for takeoffs. After airspeed is attained during cruising flight, the propeller blade is changed to a higher angle to increase pitch. The blade takes a larger bite of air at a lower RPM and consequently increases the efficiency of the flight. This process is similar to shifting gears in an automobile from low to high gear.
	What effect does high density altitude, as compared to low density altitude, have on propeller efficiency and why?	ANSWER: Efficiency is reduced because the propeller exerts less force at high density altitudes than at low density altitudes. The propeller produces thrust in proportion to the mass of air being accelerated through the rotating propeller. If the air is less dense, the propeller efficiency is decreased. Remember, higher density altitude refers to less dense air.
	What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?	ANSWER: Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges. After the engine starts, the engine speed should be adjusted to the proper RPM. Then the engine gauges should be reviewed, with the oil pressure being the most important gauge initially.
	Should it become necessary to handprop an airplane engine, it is extremely important that a competent pilot	ANSWER: be at the controls in the cockpit. Because of the hazards involved in handstarting airplane engines, every precaution should be exercised. It is extremely important that a competent pilot be at the controls in the cockpit. Also, the person turning the propeller should be thoroughly familiar with the technique.
	During the preflight inspection who is responsible for determining the aircraft as safe for flight?	ANSWER: The pilot in command. During the preflight inspection, the pilot in command is responsible for determining whether the airplane is in condition for safe flight.
	Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in airworthy condition?	ANSWER: Owner or operator. The owner or operator of an airplane is primarily responsible for maintaining an airplane in an airworthy condition, including compliance with all applicable Airworthiness Directives (ADs).
	How should an aircraft preflight inspection be accomplished for the first flight of the day?	ANSWER: Thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer. For the first flight of the day, the preflight inspection should be accomplished by a thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer.
	As altitude increases, the indicated airspeed at which a given airplane stalls in a particular configuration will	ANSWER: remain the same regardless of altitude. All the performance factors of an airplane are dependent upon air density. As air density decreases, the airplane stalls at a higher true airspeed. However, you cannot detect the effect of high density altitude on your airspeed indicator. Accordingly, an airplane will stall in a particular configuration at the same indicated airspeed regardless of altitude.
	The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument?	ANSWER: Airspeed indicator. The pitot system provides impact pressure, or ram pressure, for only the airspeed indicator.
	Which instrument will become inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged?	ANSWER: Airspeed. The pitot-static system is a source of pressure for the altimeter, vertical-speed indicator, and airspeed indicator. The pitot tube is connected directly to the airspeed indicator and provides impact pressure for it alone. Thus, if the pitot tube becomes clogged, only the airspeed indicator will become inoperative.
	If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected?	ANSWER: The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator. The pitot-static system is a source of air pressure for the operation of the altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator. Thus, if the pitot and outside static vents become clogged, all of these instruments will be affected.
	Which instrument(s) will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged?	ANSWER: Airspeed, altimeter, and vertical speed. The pitot-static system is a source of air pressure for the operation of the airspeed indicator, altimeter, and vertical speed indicator. Thus, if the static vents become clogged, all three instruments will become inoperative.
	What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?	ANSWER: Never-exceed speed. The red line on an airspeed indicator indicates the maximum speed at which the airplane can be operated in smooth air, which should never be exceeded intentionally. This speed is known as the never-exceed speed.
	What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators?	ANSWER: Maneuvering speed. The maneuvering speed of an airplane is an important airspeed limitation not color-coded on the airspeed indicator. It is found in the airplane manual (Pilot's Operating Handbook) or placarded in the cockpit. Maneuvering speed is the maximum speed at which full deflection of the airplane controls can be made without incurring structural damage. Maneuvering speed or less should be held in turbulent air to prevent structural damage due to excessive loads.
	What is absolute altitude?	ANSWER: The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface. Absolute altitude is altitude above the surface, i.e., AGL.
	What is true altitude?	ANSWER: The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level. True altitude is the actual altitude above mean sea level, i.e., MSL.
	What is density altitude?	ANSWER: The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature. Density altitude is the pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.
	Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude?	ANSWER: When at sea level under standard conditions. Indicated altitude (what you read on your altimeter) approximates the true altitude (distance above mean sea level) when standard conditions exist and your altimeter is properly calibrated.
	What is pressure altitude?	ANSWER: The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92. Pressure altitude is the airplane's height above the standard datum plane of 29.92' Hg. If the altimeter is set to 29.92' Hg, the indicated altitude is the pressure altitude.
	Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates	ANSWER: true altitude at field elevation. Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is set so that the altimeter indicates true altitude at field elevation.
	If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85, what change occurs?	ANSWER: 700-foot increase in indicated altitude. When increasing the altimeter setting from 29.15 to 29.85, the indicated altitude increases by 700 ft. The altimeter-indicated altitude moves in the same direction as the altimeter setting and changes about 1,000 ft. for every change of 1' Hg in the altimeter setting.
	How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?	ANSWER: Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude. On warm days, the atmospheric pressure levels are higher than on cold days. Your altimeter will indicate a lower than true altitude. Remember, 'low to high, clear the sky.'
	If the outside air temperature (OAT) at a given altitude is warmer than standard, the density altitude is	ANSWER: higher than pressure altitude. When temperature increases, the air expands and therefore becomes less dense. This decrease in density means a higher density altitude. Pressure altitude is based on standard temperature. Thus, density altitude exceeds pressure altitude when the temperature is warmer than standard.
	In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if	ANSWER: an aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading. In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if an airplane is accelerated while on an east or west heading.
	During flight, when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate?	ANSWER: Only in straight-and-level unaccelerated flight. During flight, the magnetic compass indications can be considered accurate only when in straight-and-level, unaccelerated flight. During acceleration, deceleration, or turns, the compass card will dip and cause false readings.
	Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the	ANSWER: magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force. Magnetic fields produced by metals and electrical accessories in the airplane disturb the compass needle and produce errors. These errors are referred to as compass deviation.
	In the Northern Hemisphere, if an aircraft is accelerated or decelerated, the magnetic compass will normally indicate	ANSWER: correctly when on a north or south heading. Acceleration and deceleration errors on magnetic compasses do not occur when on a north or south heading in the Northern Hemisphere. They occur on east and west headings.
	In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if	ANSWER: a right turn is entered from a north heading. Due to the northerly turn error in the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will initially indicate a turn toward the west if a right (east) turn is entered from a north heading.
	In the Northern Hemisphere, the magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south when	ANSWER: the aircraft is decelerated while on a west heading. In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south if an airplane is decelerated while on an east or west heading.
	In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the east if	ANSWER: a left turn is entered from a north heading. In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass normally initially indicates a turn toward the east if a left (west) turn is entered from a north heading.
	An airplane has been loaded in such a manner that the CG is located aft of the aft CG limit. One undesirable flight characteristic a pilot might experience with this airplane would be	ANSWER: difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition. The recovery from a stall in any airplane becomes progressively more difficult as its center of gravity moves backward. Generally, airplanes become less controllable, especially at slow flight speeds, as the center of gravity is moved backward.
	Loading an airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be	ANSWER: less stable at all speeds. Airplanes become less stable at all speeds as the center of gravity is moved backward. The rearward center of gravity limit is determined largely by considerations of stability.
	Which items are included in the empty weight of an aircraft?	ANSWER: Unusable fuel and undrainable oil. The empty weight of an airplane includes airframe, engines, and all items of operating equipment that have fixed locations and are permanently installed. It includes optional and special equipment, fixed ballast, hydraulic fluid, unusable fuel, and undrainable oil.
	An aircraft is loaded 110 pounds over maximum certificated gross weight. If fuel (gasoline) is drained to bring the aircraft weight within limits, how much fuel should be drained?	ANSWER: 18.4 gallons. Fuel weighs 6 lb./gal. If an airplane is 110 lb. over maximum gross weight, 18.4 gal. (110 lb./6) must be drained to bring the airplane weight within limits. If an aircraft is loaded 90 pounds over maximum certificated gross weight and fuel (gasoline) is drained to bring the aircraft weight within limits, how much fuel should be drained?
	GIVEN: WEIGHT ARM MOMENT (LB) (IN) (LB-IN) Empty weight 1,495.0 101.4 151,593.0 Pilot and passengers 380.0 64.0 --- Fuel (30 gal usable no reserve) --- 96.0 --- The CG is located how far aft of datum?	ANSWER: CG 94.01. To compute the CG you must first multiply each weight by the arm to get the moment. Note that the fuel is given as 30 gal. To get the weight multiply the 30 by 6 lb. per gal. (30 x 6) = 180 lb. Weight Arm Moment (lb.) (in.) (lb.-in.) Empty weight 1,495.0 101.4 151,593.0 Pilot and passengers 380.0 64.0 24,320.0 Fuel (30 x 6) 180.0 96.0 17,280.0 2,055.0 193,193.0 Now add the weights and moments. To get CG, you divide total moment by total weight (193,193 ÷ 2,055.0) = a CG of 94.01 in.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/33.jpg' target='figure33'>Figure 33</a> <a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/34.jpg' target='figure34'>Figure 34</a> (Refer to figures 33 and 34.) What effect does a 35-gallon fuel burn (main tanks) have on the weight and balance if the airplane weighed 2,890 pounds and the MOM/100 was 2,452 at takeoff?	ANSWER: Weight is reduced by 210 pounds and the CG is aft of limits. The effect of a 35-gal. fuel burn on weight balance is required. Burning 35 gal. of fuel will reduce weight by 210 lb. and moment by 158. At 2,680 lb. (2,890 - 210), the 2,294 MOM/100 (2,452 - 158) is above the maximum moment of 2,287; i.e., CG is aft of limits. This is why weight and balance should always be computed for the beginning and end of each flight.
	What is ground effect?	ANSWER: The result of the interference of the surface of the Earth with the airflow patterns about an airplane. Ground effect is due to the interference of the ground (or water) surface with the airflow patterns about the airplane in flight. As the wing encounters ground effect, there is a reduction in the upwash, downwash, and the wingtip vortices. The result is a reduction in induced drag. Thus, for a given angle of attack, the wing will produce more lift in ground effect than it does out of ground effect.
	Floating caused by the phenomenon of ground effect will be most realized during an approach to land when at	ANSWER: less than the length of the wingspan above the surface. Ground effect is most usually recognized when the airplane is within one-half of the length of its wingspan above the surface. It may extend as high as a full wingspan length above the surface. Due to an alteration of the airflow about the wings, induced drag decreases, which reduces the thrust required at low airspeeds. Thus, any excess speed during the landing flare may result in considerable floating.
	What must a pilot be aware of as a result of ground effect?	ANSWER: Induced drag decreases; therefore, any excess speed at the point of flare may cause considerable floating. Ground effect reduces the upwash, downwash, and vortices caused by the wings, resulting in a decrease in induced drag. Thus, thrust required at low airspeeds will be reduced and any excess speed at the point of flare may cause considerable floating.
	Ground effect is most likely to result in which problem?	ANSWER: Becoming airborne before reaching recommended takeoff speed. Due to the reduction of induced drag in ground effect, the airplane may seem capable of becoming airborne well below the recommended takeoff speed. However, as the airplane rises out of ground effect (a height greater than the wingspan) with a deficiency of speed, the increase in induced drag may result in very marginal initial climb performance. In extreme cases, the airplane may become airborne initially, with a deficiency of airspeed, only to settle back on the runway when attempting to fly out of the ground effect area.
	What effect, if any, does high humidity have on aircraft performance?	ANSWER: It decreases performance. As the air becomes more humid, it becomes less dense. This is because a given volume of moist air weighs less than the same volume of dry air. Less dense air reduces aircraft performance. What effect does high density altitude have on aircraft performance?
	Which combination of atmospheric conditions will reduce aircraft takeoff and climb performance?	ANSWER: High temperature, high relative humidity, and high density altitude. Takeoff and climb performance are reduced by high density altitude. High density altitude is a result of high temperatures and high relative humidity.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/8.jpg' target='figure8'>Figure 8</a> (Refer to figure 8.) Determine the density altitude for these conditions: Altimeter setting . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 30.35 Runway temperature . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . +25°F Airport elevation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3,894 ft MSL	ANSWER: 2,000 feet MSL. With an altimeter setting of 30.35' Hg, 394 ft. must be subtracted from a field elevation of 3,894 to obtain a pressure altitude of 3,500 ft. Note that the higher-than-normal pressure of 30.35 means the pressure altitude will be less than true altitude. The 394 ft. was found by interpolation: 30.3 on the graph is -348, and 30.4 was -440 ft. Adding one-half the -92 ft. difference (-46 ft.) to -348 ft. results in -394 ft. Once you have found the pressure altitude, use the chart to plot 3,500 ft. pressure altitude at 25°F, to reach 2,000 ft. density altitude. Note that since the temperature is lower than standard, the density altitude is lower than the pressure altitude.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/8.jpg' target='figure8'>Figure 8</a> (Refer to figure 8.) What is the effect of a temperature increase from 30 to 50°F on the density altitude if the pressure altitude remains at 3,000 feet MSL?	ANSWER: 1,300-foot increase. Increasing the temperature from 30°F to 50°F, given a constant pressure altitude of 3,000 ft., requires you to find the 3,000-ft. line on the density altitude chart at the 30°F level. At this point, the density altitude is approximately 1,650 ft. Then move up the 3,000-ft. line to 50°F, where the density altitude is approximately 2,950 ft. There is an approximate 1,300-ft. increase (2,950 - 1,650 ft.). Note that 50°F is just about standard and pressure altitude is very close to density altitude.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/8.jpg' target='figure8'>Figure 8</a> (Refer to figure 8.) Determine the pressure altitude at an airport that is 3,563 feet MSL with an altimeter setting of 29.96.	ANSWER: 3,527 feet MSL. Note that the question asks only for pressure altitude, not density altitude. Pressure altitude is determined by adjusting the altimeter setting to 29.92' Hg, i.e., adjusting for nonstandard pressure. This is the true altitude plus or minus the pressure altitude conversion factor (based on current altimeter setting). On the chart, an altimeter setting of 30.0 requires you to subtract 73 ft. to determine pressure altitude (note that at 29.92, nothing is subtracted because that is pressure altitude). Since 29.96 is half way between 29.92 and 30.0, you need only subtract 36 (-73/2) from 3,563 ft. to obtain a pressure altitude of 3,527 ft. (3,563 - 36). Note that a higher-than-standard barometric pressure means pressure altitude is lower than true altitude.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/8.jpg' target='figure8'>Figure 8</a> (Refer to figure 8.) What is the effect of a temperature decrease and a pressure altitude increase on the density altitude from 90°F and 1,250 feet pressure altitude to 55°F and 1,750 feet pressure altitude?	ANSWER: 1,700-foot decrease. The requirement is the effect of a temperature decrease and a pressure altitude increase on density alti tude. First, find the density altitude at 90°F and 1,250 ft. (approximately 3,600 ft.). Then find the density altitude at 55°F and 1,750 ft. pressure altitude (approximately 1,900 ft.). Next, subtract the two numbers. 3,600 ft. minus 1,900 ft. equals a 1,700-ft. decrease in density altitude.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/8.jpg' target='figure8'>Figure 8</a> (Refer to figure 8.) Determine the pressure altitude at an airport that is 1,386 feet MSL with an altimeter setting of 29.97.	ANSWER: 1,341 feet MSL. Pressure altitude is determined by adjusting the altimeter setting to 29.92' Hg. This is the true altitude plus or minus the pressure altitude conversion factor (based on current altimeter setting). Since 29.97 is not a number given on the conversion chart, you must interpolate. Compute 5/8 of -73 (since 29.97 is 5/8 of the way between 29.92 and 30.0), which is 45. Subtract 45 ft. from 1,386 ft. to obtain a pressure altitude of 1,341 ft. Note if the altimeter setting is greater than standard (e.g., 29.97), the pressure altitude (i.e., altimeter set to 29.92) will be less than true altitude.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/8.jpg' target='figure8'>Figure 8</a> (Refer to figure 8.) What is the effect of a temperature increase from 25 to 50°F on the density altitude if the pressure altitude remains at 5,000 feet?	ANSWER: 1,650-foot increase. Increasing the temperature from 25°F to 50°F, given a pressure altitude of 5,000 ft., requires you to find the 5,000-ft. line on the density altitude chart at the 25°F level. At this point, the density altitude is approximately 3,850 ft. Then move up the 5,000-ft. line to 50°F, where the density altitude is approximately 5,500 ft. There is about a 1,650-ft. increase (5,500 - 3,850 ft.). As temperature increases, so does density altitude; i.e., the atmosphere becomes thinner (less dense).
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/8.jpg' target='figure8'>Figure 8</a> (Refer to figure 8.) Determine the pressure altitude with an indicated altitude of 1,380 feet MSL with an altimeter setting of 28.22 at standard temperature.	ANSWER: 2,991 feet MSL. Pressure altitude is determined by adjusting the altimeter setting to 29.92' Hg, i.e., adjusting for nonstandard pressure. This is the indicated altitude of 1,380 ft. plus or minus the pressure altitude conversion factor (based on the current altimeter setting). On the right side of Fig. 8 is a pressure altitude conversion factor schedule. Add 1,533 ft. for an altimeter setting of 28.30 and 1,630 ft. for an altimeter setting of 28.20. Using interpolation, you must subtract 20% of the difference between 28.3 and 28.2 from 1,630 ft. (1,630 - 1,533 = 97 x .2 = 19). Then, 1,630 - 19 = 1,611 and add 1,611 ft. to 1,380 ft. to get the pressure altitude of 2,991 ft.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/8.jpg' target='figure8'>Figure 8</a> (Refer to figure 8.) Determine the density altitude for these conditions: Altimeter setting . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 29.25 Runway temperature . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . +81°F Airport elevation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5,250 ft MSL	ANSWER: 8,500 feet MSL. With an altimeter setting of 29.25' Hg, about 626 ft. (579 plus ½ the 94-ft. pressure altitude conversion factor difference between 29.2 and 29.3) must be added to the field elevation of 5,250 ft. to obtain the pressure altitude, or 5,876 ft. Note barometric pressure is less than standard and pressure altitude is greater than true altitude. Next convert pressure altitude to density altitude. On the chart, find the point at which the pressure altitude line for 5,876 ft. crosses the 81°F line. The density altitude at that spot shows somewhere in the mid-8,000s ft. The closest answer choice is 8,500 ft. Note that, when temperature is higher than standard, density altitude exceeds pressure altitude.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/41.jpg' target='figure41'>Figure 41</a> (Refer to figure 41.) Determine the total distance required for takeoff to clear a 50-foot obstacle. OAT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Std Pressure altitude . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4,000 ft Takeoff weight . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2,800 lb Headwind component . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Calm	ANSWER: 1,750 feet. The takeoff distance to clear a 50-ft. obstacle is required. Begin on the left side of the graph at standard temperature (as represented by the curved line labeled 'ISA'). From the intersection of the standard temperature line and the 4,000-ft. pressure altitude, proceed horizon tally to the right to the first reference line, and then move parallel to the closest guideline to 2,800 lb. From there, proceed horizontally to the right to the third reference line (skip the second reference line because there is no wind), and move parallel to the closest guideline all the way to the far right. You are at 1,750 ft., which is the takeoff distance to clear a 50-ft. obstacle.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/41.jpg' target='figure41'>Figure 41</a> (Refer to figure 41.) Determine the approximate ground roll distance required for takeoff. OAT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 100°F Pressure altitude . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2,000 ft Takeoff weight . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2,750 lb Headwind component . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Calm	ANSWER: 1,150 feet. Begin on the left section of Fig. 41 at 100°F (see outside air temperature at the bottom). Move up vertically to the pressure altitude of 2,000 ft. Then proceed horizontally to the first reference line. Since takeoff weight is 2,750, move parallel to the closest guideline to 2,750 lb. Then proceed horizontally to the second reference line. Since the wind is calm, proceed again horizontally to the right-hand margin of the diagram (ignore the third reference line because there is no obstacle, i.e., ground roll is desired), which will be at 1,150 ft.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/41.jpg' target='figure41'>Figure 41</a> (Refer to figure 41.) Determine the total distance required for takeoff to clear a 50-foot obstacle. OAT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Std Pressure altitude . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Sea level Takeoff weight . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2,700 lb Headwind component . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Calm	ANSWER: 1,400 feet. Begin in the left section of Fig. 41 by finding the intersection of the sea level pressure altitude and standard temperature (59°F) and proceed horizontally to the right to the first reference line. Then proceed parallel to the closest guideline, to 2,700 lb. From there, proceed horizontally to the right to the third reference line. You skip the second reference line because the wind is calm. Then proceed upward parallel to the closest guideline to the far right side. To clear the 50-ft. obstacle, you need a takeoff distance of about 1,400 ft.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/41.jpg' target='figure41'>Figure 41</a> (Refer to figure 41.) Determine the approximate ground roll distance required for takeoff. OAT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 90°F Pressure altitude . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2,000 ft Takeoff weight . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2,500 lb Headwind component . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 20 kts	ANSWER: 650 feet. Begin with the intersection of the 2,000-ft. pressure altitude curve and 90°F in the left section of Fig. 41. Move horizontally to the right to the first reference line, and then parallel to the closest guideline to 2,500 lb. Then move horizontally to the right to the second reference line, and then parallel to the closest guideline to the right to 20 kt. Then move horizontally to the right, directly to the right margin because there is no obstacle clearance. You should end up at about 650 ft., which is the required ground roll when there is no obstacle to clear.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/36.jpg' target='figure36'>Figure 36</a> (Refer to figure 36.) What fuel flow should a pilot expect at 11,000 feet on a standard day with 65 percent maximum continuous power?	ANSWER: 11.2 gallons per hour. Note that the entire chart applies to 65% maximum continuous power (regardless of the throttle), so use the middle section of the chart which is labeled a standard day. The fuel flow at 11,000 ft. on a standard day would be 1/2 of the way between the fuel flow at 10,000 ft. (11.5 GPH) and the fuel flow at 12,000 ft. (10.9 GPH). Thus, the fuel flow at 11,000 ft. would be 11.5 - 0.3, or 11.2 GPH. <a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/36.jpg' target='figure36'>Figure 36</a> (Refer to figure 36.) What is the expected fuel consumption for a 1,000-nautical mile flight under the following conditions? Pressure altitude . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8,000 ft Temperature . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 22°C Manifold pressure . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 20.8' Hg Wind . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Calm
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/36.jpg' target='figure36'>Figure 36</a> (Refer to figure 36.) What is the expected fuel consumption for a 500-nautical mile flight under the following conditions? Pressure altitude . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4,000 ft Temperature . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . +29°C Manifold pressure . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 21.3' Hg Wind . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Calm	ANSWER: 36.1 gallons. At 4,000 ft., 21.3' Hg manifold pressure, and 29°C (use the section on the right), the fuel flow will be 11.5 GPH, and the true airspeed will be 159 kt. The 500-NM trip will take 3.14 hr. (500 NM ÷ 159 kt). 3.14 hr. x 11.5 GPH = 36.1 gal.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/36.jpg' target='figure36'>Figure 36</a> (Refer to figure 36.) Determine the approximate manifold pressure setting with 2,450 RPM to achieve 65 percent maximum continuous power at 6,500 feet with a temperature of 36°F higher than standard.	ANSWER: 21.0' Hg. The part of the chart on the right is for temperatures 36°F greater than standard. At 6,500 ft. with a temperature of 36°F higher than standard, the required manifold pressure change is 1/4 of the difference between the 21.0' Hg at 6,000 ft. and the 20.8' Hg at 8,000 ft., or slightly less than 21.0. Thus, 21.0 is the best answer given. The manifold pressure is closer to 21.0 than 20.8.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/36.jpg' target='figure36'>Figure 36</a> (Refer to figure 36.) Approximately what true airspeed should a pilot expect with 65 percent maximum continuous power at 9,500 feet with a temperature of 36°F below standard?	ANSWER: 183 MPH. The left part of the chart applies to 36°F below standard. At 8,000 ft., TAS is 181 MPH. At 10,000 ft., TAS is 184 MPH. At 9,500 ft., with a temperature 36°F below standard, the expected true airspeed is 75% above the 181 MPH at 8,000 ft. toward the 184 MPH at 10,000 ft., i.e., approximately 183 MPH.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/37.jpg' target='figure37'>Figure 37</a> (Refer to figure 37.) What is the crosswind component for a landing on Runway 18 if the tower reports the wind as 220° at 30 knots?	ANSWER: 19 knots. The requirement is the crosswind component, which is found on the horizontal axis of the graph. You are given a 30-kt. wind speed (the wind speed is shown on the circular lines or arcs). First, calculate the angle between the wind and the runway (220° - 180° = 40°). Next, find the intersection of the 40° line and the 30-kt. headwind arc. Then, proceed downward to determine a crosswind component of 19 kt. Note the crosswind component is on the horizontal axis and the headwind component is on the vertical axis.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/37.jpg' target='figure37'>Figure 37</a> (Refer to figure 37.) What is the headwind component for a landing on Runway 18 if the tower reports the wind as 220° at 30 knots?	ANSWER: 23 knots. The headwind component is on the vertical axis (left-hand side of the graph). Find the same intersection as in the preceding question, i.e., the 30-kt. wind speed arc, and the 40° angle between wind direction and flight path (220° - 180°). Then move horizontally to the left and read approximately 23 kt.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/37.jpg' target='figure37'>Figure 37</a> (Refer to figure 37.) Determine the maximum wind velocity for a 45° crosswind if the maximum crosswind component for the airplane is 25 knots.	ANSWER: 35 knots. Start on the bottom of the graph's horizontal axis at 25 kt. and move straight upward to the 45° angle between wind direction and flight path line (half-way between the 40° and 50° lines). Note that you are half-way between the 30 and 40 arc-shaped wind speed lines, which means that the maximum wind velocity for a 45° crosswind is 35 kt. if the airplane is limited to a 25-kt. crosswind component.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/37.jpg' target='figure37'>Figure 37</a> (Refer to figure 37.) With a reported wind of north at 20 knots, which runway (6, 29, or 32) is acceptable for use for an airplane with a 13-knot maximum crosswind component?	ANSWER: Runway 32. If the wind is from the north (i.e., either 360° or 0°) at 20 kt., runway 32, i.e., 320°, would provide a 40° crosswind component (360° - 320°). Given a 20-kt. wind, find the intersection between the 20-kt. arc and the angle between wind direction and the flight path of 40°. Dropping straight downward to the horizontal axis gives 13 kt., which is the maximum crosswind component of the example airplane.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/37.jpg' target='figure37'>Figure 37</a> (Refer to figure 37.) What is the maximum wind velocity for a 30° crosswind if the maximum crosswind component for the airplane is 12 knots?	ANSWER: 24 knots. Start on the graph's horizontal axis at 12 kt. and move upward to the 30° angle between wind direction and flight path line. Note that you are almost half-way between the 20 and 30 arc-shaped wind speed lines, which means that the maximum wind velocity for a 30° crosswind is approximately 24 kt. if the airplane is limited to a 12-kt. crosswind component.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/37.jpg' target='figure37'>Figure 37</a> (Refer to figure 37.) With a reported wind of south at 20 knots, which runway (10, 14, or 24) is appropriate for an airplane with a 13-knot maximum crosswind component?	ANSWER: Runway 14. If the wind is from the south at 20 kt., runway 14, i.e., 140°, would provide a 40° crosswind component (180° - 140°). Given a 20-kt. wind, find the intersection between the 20-kt. arc and the angle between wind direction and the flight path of 40°. Dropping straight downward to the horizontal axis gives 13 kt., which is the maximum crosswind component of the example airplane.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/38.jpg' target='figure38'>Figure 38</a> (Refer to figure 38.) Determine the total distance required to land. OAT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Std Pressure altitude . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10,000 ft Weight . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2,400 lb Wind component . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Calm Obstacle . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 50 ft.	ANSWER: 1,925 feet. The landing distance graphs are very similar to the takeoff distance graphs. Begin with the pressure altitude line of 10,000 ft. and the intersection with the standard temperature line which begins at 20°C and slopes up and to the left; i.e., standard temperature decreases as pressure altitude increases. Then move horizontally to the right to the first reference line. Proceed parallel to the closest guideline to 2,400 lb. Proceed horizontally to the right to the second reference line. Since the wind is calm, proceed horizontally to the third reference line. Given a 50-ft. obstacle, proceed parallel to the closest guideline to the right margin to determine a distance of approximately 1,900 ft.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/38.jpg' target='figure38'>Figure 38</a> (Refer to figure 38.) Determine the approximate total distance required to land over a 50-ft. obstacle. OAT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 90°F Pressure altitude . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4,000 ft Weight . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2,800 lb Headwind component . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10 kts	ANSWER: 1,775 feet. To determine the total landing distance, begin at the left side of Fig. 38 on the 4,000-ft. pressure altitude line at the intersection of 90°F. Proceed horizontally to the right to the first reference line. Proceed parallel to the closest guideline to 2,800 lb., and then straight across to the second reference line. Since the headwind component is 10 kt., proceed parallel to the closest headwind guideline to the 10-kt. line. Then move directly to the right, to the third reference line. Given a 50-ft. obstacle, proceed parallel to the closest guideline for obstacles to find the total distance of approximately 1,775 ft.
	What should pilots state initially when telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information?	ANSWER: Identify yourself as a pilot. When telephoning for a weather briefing, you should identify yourself as a pilot so the person can give you an aviation-oriented briefing. Many nonpilots call weather briefing facilities to get the weather for other activities.
	What should pilots state initially when telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information?	ANSWER: The intended route of flight and destination. By telling the briefer your intended route and destination, the briefer will be able to provide you a more relevant briefing.
	When telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information, pilots should state	ANSWER: whether they intend to fly VFR only. When telephoning for a weather briefing, one should identify oneself as a pilot, the route, destination, type of airplane, and whether one intends to fly VFR or IFR to permit the weather briefer to give you the most complete briefing.
	Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should	ANSWER: visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance. Prior to each maneuver, a pilot should visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance. Many maneuvers require a clearing turn which should be used for this purpose.
	When taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron positions should be used?	ANSWER: Ailerons down on the side from which the wind is blowing. When there is a strong quartering tailwind, the aileron should be down on the side from which the wind is blowing (when taxiing away from the wind, turn away from the wind) to help keep the wind from getting under that wing and flipping the airplane over.
	Which aileron positions should a pilot generally use when taxiing in strong quartering headwinds?	ANSWER: Aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing. When there is a strong quartering headwind, the aileron should be up on the side from which the wind is blowing to help keep the wind from getting under that wing and blowing the aircraft over. (When taxiing into the wind, turn into the wind.)
	Which wind condition would be most critical when taxiing a nosewheel equipped high-wing airplane?	ANSWER: Quartering tailwind. The most critical wind condition when taxiing a nosewheel-equipped high-wing airplane is a quartering tailwind, which can flip a high-wing airplane over on its top. This should be prevented by holding the elevator in the down position, i.e., controls forward, and the aileron down on the side from which the wind is coming.
	What force makes an airplane turn?	ANSWER: The horizontal component of lift. When the wings of an airplane are not level, the lift is not entirely vertical and tends to pull the airplane toward the direction of the lower wing. An airplane is turned when the pilot coordinates rudder, aileron, and elevator to bank in order to attain a horizontal component of lift.
	In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin?	ANSWER: Stalled. In order to enter a spin, an airplane must always first be stalled. Thereafter, the spin is caused when one wing becomes less stalled than the other wing.
	During a spin to the left, which wing(s) is/are stalled?	ANSWER: Both wings are stalled. In order to enter a spin, an airplane must always first be stalled. Thereafter, the spin is caused when one wing is less stalled than the other wing. In a spin to the left, the right wing is less stalled than the left wing.
	The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during nighttime hours is to use	ANSWER: peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing offcenter viewing. At night, collision avoidance scanning must use the off-center portions of the eyes. These portions are most effective at seeing objects at night. Accordingly, peripheral vision should be used, scanning small sectors and using off-center viewing. This is in contrast to daytime searching for air traffic, when center viewing should be used.
	What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight?	ANSWER: Scan slowly to permit offcenter viewing. Physiologically, the eyes are most effective at seeing objects off-center at night. Accordingly, pilots should scan slowly to permit off-center viewing.
	The best method to use when looking for other traffic at night is to	ANSWER: look to the side of the object and scan slowly. Physiologically, the eyes are most effective at seeing objects off-center at night. Accordingly, pilots should scan slowly to permit off-center viewing.
	During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?	ANSWER: The other aircraft is crossing to the left. Airplane position lights consist of a steady red light on the left wing (looking forward), a green light on the right wing, and a white light on the tail. Accordingly, if you observe a steady red light, you are looking at the tip of a left wing, which means the other plane is traveling from your right to left (crossing to the left). The red flashing light is the beacon.
	During a night flight, you observe a steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?	ANSWER: The other aircraft is flying away from you. A steady white light (the tail light) indicates the other airplane is moving away from you. The flashing red light is the beacon light.
	During a night flight, you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?	ANSWER: The other aircraft is approaching head-on. If you observe steady red and green lights at the same altitude, the other airplane is approaching head-on. You should take evasive action to the right.
	Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by	ANSWER: blue omnidirectional lights. Taxiway edge lights are used to outline the edges of taxiways during periods of darkness or restricted visibility conditions. These lights are identified at night by blue omnidirectional lights.
	VFR approaches to land at night should be accomplished	ANSWER: the same as during daytime. Every effort should be made to execute approaches and landings at night in the same manner as they are made in the day. Inexperienced pilots often have a tendency to make approaches and landings at night with excessive airspeed.
	The most important rule to remember in the event of a power failure after becoming airborne is to	ANSWER: immediately establish the proper gliding attitude and airspeed. In the event of a power failure after becoming airborne, the most important rule to remember is to maintain best glide airspeed. This will usually require a pitch attitude slightly higher than level flight. Invariably, with a power failure, one returns to ground, but emphasis should be put on a controlled return rather than a crash return. Many pilots attempt to maintain altitude at the expense of airspeed, resulting in a stall or stall/spin.
	Angle of attack is defined as the angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the	ANSWER: direction of the relative wind. The angle of attack is the angle between the wing chord line and the direction of the relative wind. The wing chord line is a straight line from the leading edge to the trailing edge of the wing. The relative wind is the direction of airflow relative to the wing when the wing is moving through the air.
	What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?	ANSWER: 15°C and 29.92' Hg. The standard temperature and pressure values for sea level are 15°C and 29.92' Hg. This is equivalent to 59°F and 1013.2 millibars of mercury. Every physical process of weather is accompanied by, or is the result of, a
	What causes variations in altimeter settings between weather reporting points?	ANSWER: Unequal heating of the Earth's surface. Unequal heating of the Earth's surface causes differences in air pressure, which is reflected in differences in altimeter settings between weather reporting points.
	The most frequent type of ground or surface-based temperature inversion is that which is produced by	ANSWER: terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night. An inversion often develops near the ground on clear, cool nights when wind is light. The ground loses heat and cools the air near the ground while the temperature a few hundred feet above changes very little. Thus, temperature increases in height, which is an inversion.
	A temperature inversion would most likely result in which weather condition?	ANSWER: An increase in temperature as altitude is increased. By definition, a temperature inversion is a situation in which the temperature increases as altitude increases. The normal situation is that the temperature decreases as altitude increases.
	Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high?	ANSWER: Smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds. Beneath temperature inversions, there is usually smooth air because there is little vertical movement due to the inversion. There is also poor visibility due to fog, haze, and low clouds (when there is high relative humidity).
	Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?	ANSWER: At standard temperature. Pressure altitude and density altitude are the same when temperature is standard.
	Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?	ANSWER: When standard atmospheric conditions exist. Pressure altitude equals true altitude when standard atmospheric conditions (29.92' Hg and 15°C at sea level) exist.
	If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96, what is the approximate change in indication?	ANSWER: Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower. Atmospheric pressure decreases approximately 1' of mercury for every 1,000 ft. of altitude gained. As an altimeter setting is changed, the change in altitude indication changes the same way (i.e., approximately 1,000 ft. for every 1' change in altimeter setting) and in the same direction (i.e., lowering the altimeter setting lowers the altitude reading). Thus, changing from 30.11 to 29.96 is a decrease of .15 in., or 150 ft. (.15 x 1,000 ft.) lower.
	If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate	ANSWER: lower than the actual altitude above sea level. When an altimeter setting is at a lower value than the correct setting, the altimeter is indicating less than it should and thus would be showing lower than the actual altitude above sea level.
	If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of lower pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate	ANSWER: higher than the actual altitude above sea level. When flying from higher pressure to lower pressure without adjusting your altimeter, the altimeter will indicate a higher than actual altitude. As you adjust an altimeter barometric setting lower, the altimeter indicates lower.
	Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude?	ANSWER: Air temperature warmer than standard. In air that is warmer than standard temperature, the airplane will be higher than the altimeter indicates. Said another way, the altimeter will indicate a lower altitude than actually flown.
	Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude?	ANSWER: In colder than standard air temperature. The airplane will be lower than the altimeter indicates when flying in air that is colder than standard temperature. Remember that altimeter readings are adjusted for changes in barometric pressure but not for changes in temperature. When one flies from warmer to cold air and keeps a constant indicated altitude at a constant altimeter setting, the plane has actually descended.
	Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport?	ANSWER: An increase in ambient temperature. When air temperature increases, density altitude increases because, at a higher temperature, the air is less dense.
	The wind at 5,000 feet AGL is southwesterly while the surface wind is southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to	ANSWER: friction between the wind and the surface. Winds aloft at 5,000 ft. are largely affected by Coriolis force, which deflects wind to the right, in the Northern Hemisphere. But at the surface, the winds will be more southerly (they were southwesterly aloft) because Coriolis force has less effect at the surface where the wind speed is slower. The wind speed is slower at the surface due to the friction between the wind and the surface.
	The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that there	ANSWER: is a temperature inversion with freezing rain at a higher altitude. Rain falling through colder air may freeze during its descent, falling as ice pellets. Ice pellets always indicate freezing rain at a higher altitude.
	What is meant by the term 'dewpoint'?	ANSWER: The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated. Dew point is the temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated, or have 100% humidity.
	The amount of water vapor which air can hold depends on the	ANSWER: air temperature. Air temperature largely determines how much water vapor can be held by the air. Warm air can hold more water vapor than cool air.
	What are the processes by which moisture is added to unsaturated air?	ANSWER: Evaporation and sublimation. Evaporation is the process of converting a liquid to water vapor, and sublimation is the process of converting ice to water vapor.
	Which conditions result in the formation of frost?	ANSWER: The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the dewpoint of the adjacent air and the dewpoint is below freezing. Frost forms when both the collecting surface is below the dew point of the adjacent air AND the dew point is below freezing. Frost is the direct sublimation of water vapor to ice crystals.
	Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when	ANSWER: water vapor condenses. As water vapor condenses, it becomes visible as clouds, fog, or dew.
	At approximately what altitude above the surface would the pilot expect the base of cumuliform clouds if the surface air temperature is 82°F and the dewpoint is 38°F?	ANSWER: 10,000 feet AGL. The height of cumuliform cloud bases can be estimated using surface temperature/dew point spread. Unsaturated air in a convective current cools at about 5.4°F/1,000 ft., and dew point decreases about 1°F/1,000 ft. In a convective current, temperature and dew point converge at about 4.4°F/1,000 ft. Thus, if the temperature/dew point spread is 44° (82° - 38°), divide 44 by 4.4 to obtain 10,000 ft. AGL.
	What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the surface air temperature at 1,000 feet MSL is 70°F and the dewpoint is 48°F?	ANSWER: 6,000 feet MSL. The height of cumuliform cloud bases can be estimated using surface temperature/dew point spread. Unsaturated air in a convective current cools at about 5.4°F/1,000 ft., and dew point decreases about 1°F/1,000 ft. In a convective current, temperature and dew point converge at about 4.4°F/1,000 ft. Thus, if the temperature and dew point are 70°F and 48°F, respectively, at 1,000 ft. MSL, there would be a 22° spread which, divided by the lapse rate of 4.4, is approximately 5,000 ft. AGL, or 6,000 ft. MSL (5,000 + 1,000).
	What is a characteristic of stable air?	ANSWER: Stratiform clouds. Characteristics of a stable air mass include stratiform clouds, continuous precipitation, smooth air, and fair to poor visibility in haze and smoke.
	Moist, stable air flowing upslope can be expected to	ANSWER: produce stratus type clouds. Moist, stable air flowing upslope can be expected to produce stratus type clouds as the air cools adiabatically as it moves up sloping terrain.
	If an unstable air mass is forced upward, what type clouds can be expected?	ANSWER: Clouds with considerable vertical development and associated turbulence. When unstable air is lifted, it usually results in considerable vertical development and associated turbulence, i.e., convective activity.
	What are characteristics of unstable air?	ANSWER: Turbulence and good surface visibility. Characteristics of an unstable air mass include cumuliform clouds, showery precipitation, turbulence, and good visibility, except in blowing obstructions.
	A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristic?	ANSWER: Smooth air. Characteristics of a stable air mass include stratiform clouds and fog, continuous precipitation, smooth air, and fair to poor visibility in haze and smoke.
	What are characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass?	ANSWER: Cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation. Characteristics of an unstable air mass include cumuliform clouds, showery precipitation, turbulence, and good visibility, except in blowing obstructions.
	What measurement can be used to determine the stability of the atmosphere?	ANSWER: Actual lapse rate. The stability of the atmosphere is determined by vertical movements of air. Warm air rises when the air above is cooler. The actual lapse rate, which is the decrease of temperature with altitude, is therefore a measure of stability. What would decrease the stability of an air mass?
	What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?	ANSWER: A stable layer of air. A temperature inversion is associated with an increase in temperature with height, a reversal of normal decrease in temperature with height. Thus, any warm air rises to where it is the same temperature and forms a stable layer of air.
	An almond or lens-shaped cloud which appears stationary, but which may contain winds of 50 knots or more, is referred to as	ANSWER: a lenticular cloud. Lenticular clouds are lens-shaped clouds which indicate the crests of standing mountain waves. They form in the updraft and dissipate in the downdraft, so they do not move as the wind blows through them. Lenticular clouds may contain winds of 50 kt. or more and are extremely dangerous.
	Crests of standing mountain waves may be marked by stationary, lens-shaped clouds known as	ANSWER: standing lenticular clouds. Lens-shaped clouds, which indicate crests of standing mountain waves, are called standing lenticular clouds. They form in the updraft and dissipate in the downdraft so that they do not move as the wind blows through them.
	Clouds are divided into four families according to their	ANSWER: height range. The four families of clouds are high clouds, middle clouds, low clouds, and clouds with extensive vertical development. Thus, they are based upon their height range.
	The suffix 'nimbus,' used in naming clouds, means	ANSWER: a rain cloud. The suffix nimbus or the prefix nimbo means a rain cloud.
	What clouds have the greatest turbulence?	ANSWER: Cumulonimbus. The greatest turbulence occurs in cumulonimbus clouds, which are thunderstorm clouds.
	What cloud types would indicate convective turbulence?	ANSWER: Towering cumulus clouds. Towering cumulus clouds are an early stage of cumulonimbus clouds, or thunderstorms, which are based on convective turbulence, i.e., an unstable lapse rate.
	The boundary between two different air masses is referred to as a	ANSWER: front. A front is a surface, interface, or transition zone of discontinuity between two adjacent air masses of different densities. It is the boundary between two different air masses.
	One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is a change in the	ANSWER: wind direction. The definition of a front is the zone of transition between two air masses of different air pressure or density, e.g., the area separating high and low pressure systems. Due to the difference in changes in pressure systems, there will be a change in wind.
	One of the most easily recognized discontinuities across a front is	ANSWER: a change in temperature. Of the many changes which take place across a front the most easily recognized is the change in temperature. When flying through a front you will notice a significant change in temperature, especially at low altitudes.
	Steady precipitation preceding a front is an indication of	ANSWER: stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence. Steady precipitation preceding a front is usually an indication of a warm front, which results from warm air being cooled from the bottom by colder air. This results in stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence.
	One in-flight condition necessary for structural icing to form is	ANSWER: visible moisture. Two conditions are necessary for structural icing while in flight. First, the airplane must be flying through visible moisture, such as rain or cloud droplets. Second, the temperature at the point where the moisture strikes the airplane must be freezing or below.
	Possible mountain wave turbulence could be anticipated when winds of 40 knots or greater blow	ANSWER: across a mountain ridge, and the air is stable. Always anticipate possible mountain wave turbulence when the air is stable and winds of 40 kt. or greater blow across a mountain or ridge.
	Where does wind shear occur?	ANSWER: At all altitudes, in all directions. Wind shear is the eddies in between two wind currents of differing velocities, direction, or both. Wind shear may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.
	A pilot can expect a wind-shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the windspeed at 2,000 to 4,000 feet above the surface is at least	ANSWER: 25 knots. When taking off or landing in calm wind under clear skies within a few hours before or after sunset, prepare for a temperature inversion near the ground. You can be relatively certain of a shear zone in the inversion if you know the wind is 25 kt. or more at 2,000 to 4,000 ft. Allow a margin of airspeed above normal climb or approach speed to alleviate the danger of stall in the event of turbulence or sudden change in wind velocity.
	When may hazardous wind shear be expected?	ANSWER: In areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence. Wind shear is the abrupt rate of change of wind velocity (direction and/or speed) per unit of distance and is normally expressed as vertical or horizontal wind shear. Hazardous wind shear may be expected in areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence.
	Why is frost considered hazardous to flight?	ANSWER: Frost spoils the smooth flow of air over the wings, thereby decreasing lifting capability. Frost does not change the basic aerodynamic shape of the wing, but the roughness of its surface spoils the smooth flow of air, thus causing an increase in drag and an early airflow separation over the wing, resulting in a loss of lift.
	How does frost affect the lifting surfaces of an airplane on takeoff?	ANSWER: Frost may prevent the airplane from becoming airborne at normal takeoff speed. Frost that is not removed from the surface of an airplane prior to takeoff may make it difficult to get the airplane airborne at normal takeoff speed. The frost disrupts the airflow over the wing, which increases drag.
	In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest accumulation rate?	ANSWER: Freezing rain. Freezing rain usually causes the highest accumulation rate of structural icing because of the nature of the supercooled water striking the airplane.
	If there is thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of an airport at which you plan to land, which hazardous atmospheric phenomenon might be expected on the landing approach?	ANSWER: Wind-shear turbulence. The most hazardous atmospheric phenomenon near thunderstorms is wind shear turbulence.
	A nonfrontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms that often develop ahead of a cold front is known as a	ANSWER: squall line. A nonfrontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms that often develop ahead of a cold front is known as a squall line.
	What conditions are necessary for the formation of thunderstorms?	ANSWER: High humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions. Thunderstorms form when there is sufficient water vapor, an unstable lapse rate, and an initial upward boost (lifting) to start the storm process.
	During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?	ANSWER: Dissipating. Thunderstorms have three life cycles: cumulus, mature, and dissipating. It is in the dissipating stage that the storm is characterized by downdrafts as the storm rains itself out.
	Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the	ANSWER: mature stage. Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the mature stage, where updrafts and downdrafts cause a high level of wind shear.
	What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?	ANSWER: Continuous updraft. The cumulus stage of a thunderstorm has continuous updrafts which build the storm. The water droplets are carried up until they become too heavy. Once they begin falling and creating downdrafts, the storm changes from the cumulus to the mature stage.
	Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?	ANSWER: Precipitation beginning to fall. The mature stage of a thunderstorm begins when rain begins falling. This means that the downdrafts are occurring sufficiently to carry water all the way through the thunderstorm.
	Thunderstorms which generally produce the most intense hazard to aircraft are	ANSWER: squall line thunderstorms. A squall line is a nonfrontal narrow band of active thunderstorms. It often contains severe, steady-state thunderstorms and presents the single most intense weather hazard to airplanes.
	The conditions necessary for the formation of cumulonimbus clouds are a lifting action and	ANSWER: unstable, moist air. Unstable moist air in addition to a lifting action, i.e., convective activity, are needed to form cumulonimbus clouds.
	Upon encountering severe turbulence, which flight condition should the pilot attempt to maintain?	ANSWER: Level flight attitude. Attempting to hold altitude and airspeed in severe turbulence can lead to overstressing the airplane. Rather, you should set power to what normally will maintain VA, and simply attempt to maintain a level flight attitude. If the temperature/dewpoint spread is small and decreasing, and the temperature is 62°F, what type weather is most likely to develop?
	In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?	ANSWER: An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter. Advection fog forms when moist air moves over colder ground or water. It is most common in coastal areas.
	What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog?	ANSWER: Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights. Radiation fog is shallow fog of which ground fog is one form. It occurs under conditions of clear skies, little or no wind, and a small temperature/dew point spread. The fog forms almost exclusively at night or near dawn as a result of terrestrial radiation cooling the ground and the ground cooling the air on contact with it.
	What types of fog depend upon wind in order to exist?	ANSWER: Advection fog and upslope fog. Advection fog forms when moist air moves over colder ground or water. It is most common in coastal areas. Upslope fog forms when wind blows moist air upward over rising terrain and the air cools below its dew point. Both advection fog and upslope fog require wind to move air masses.
	Low-level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous in which type of fog?	ANSWER: Steam fog. Steam fog forms in winter when cold, dry air passes from land areas over comparatively warm ocean waters, and is composed entirely of water droplets that often freeze quickly. Low-level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous.
	Convective circulation patterns associated with sea breezes are caused by	ANSWER: cool, dense air moving inland from over the water. Sea breezes are caused by cool and more dense air moving inland off the water. Once over the warmer land, the air heats up and rises. Thus the cooler, more dense air from the sea forces the warmer air up. Currents push the hot air over the water where it cools and descends, starting the cycle over again. This process is caused by land heating faster than water.
	The development of thermals depends upon	ANSWER: solar heating. Thermals are updrafts in small scale convective currents. Convective currents are caused by uneven heating of the earth's surface. Solar heating is the means of heating the earth's surface.
	Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm?	ANSWER: Lightning. A thunderstorm, by definition, has lightning, because lightning causes the thunder.
	To get a complete weather briefing for the planned flight, the pilot should request	ANSWER: a standard briefing. To get a complete briefing before a planned flight, the pilot should request a standard briefing. This will include all pertinent information needed for a safe flight.
	Which type weather briefing should a pilot request, when departing within the hour, if no preliminary weather information has been received?	ANSWER: Standard briefing. A pilot should request a standard briefing anytime (s)he is planning a flight and has not received a previous briefing or has not received preliminary information through mass dissemination media (e.g., TWEB, PATWAS, etc.).
	Which type of weather briefing should a pilot request to supplement mass disseminated data?	ANSWER: An abbreviated briefing. An abbreviated briefing will be provided when the user requests information to supplement mass disseminated data, update a previous briefing, or to be limited to specific information.
	A weather briefing that is provided when the information requested is 6 or more hours in advance of the proposed departure time is	ANSWER: an outlook briefing. An outlook briefing is given when the briefing is 6 or more hours before the proposed departure time.
	When telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information, pilots should state	ANSWER: the aircraft identification or the pilot's name. When requesting a briefing you should provide the briefer with the following information: VFR or IFR, aircraft identification or the pilot's name, aircraft type, departure point, route of flight, destination, altitude, estimated time of departure, and time en route or estimated time of arrival.
	To update a previous weather briefing, a pilot should request	ANSWER: an abbreviated briefing. An abbreviated briefing will be provided when the user requests information (1) to supplement mass disseminated data, (2) to update a previous briefing, or (3) to be limited to specific information.
	When requesting weather information for the following morning, a pilot should request	ANSWER: an outlook briefing. An outlook briefing should be requested when the briefing is 6 or more hr. in advance of the proposed departure.
	Transcribed Weather Broadcasts (TWEB's) may be monitored by tuning the appropriate radio receiver to certain	ANSWER: VOR and NDB frequencies. Transcribed Weather Broadcasts (TWEBs) are broadcast on selected VOR and NDB frequencies.
	Individual forecasts for specific routes of flight can be obtained from which weather source?	ANSWER: Transcribed Weather Broadcasts (TWEB's). Forecasts for specific routes of flight should be obtained from Transcribed Weather Broadcasts (TWEBs) which are based upon specific routes.
	For aviation purposes, ceiling is defined as the height above the Earth's surface of the	ANSWER: lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into an obscuration. A ceiling layer is not designated in the METAR code. For aviation purposes, the ceiling is the lowest broken or overcast layer, or vertical visibility into an obscuration.
	To best determine general forecast weather conditions over several states, the pilot should refer to	ANSWER: Aviation Area Forecasts. An aviation area forecast is a prediction of general weather conditions over an area consisting of several states or portions of states. It is used to obtain expected en route weather conditions and also to provide an insight to weather conditions that might be expected at airports where weather reports or forecasts are not issued.
	To determine the freezing level and areas of probable icing aloft, the pilot should refer to the	ANSWER: Inflight Aviation Weather Advisories. To determine the freezing level and areas of probable icing aloft, you should refer to the In-Flight Aviation Weather Advisories (AIRMET Zulu for icing and freezing level; AIRMET Tango for turbulence, strong winds/low-level wind shear; and AIRMET Sierra for IFR conditions and mountain obscuration.) In-Flight Aviation Weather Advisories supplement the area forecast.
	The section of the Area Forecast entitled 'VFR CLDS/WX' contains a general description of	ANSWER: cloudiness and weather significant to flight operations broken down by states or other geographical areas. The VFR CLDS/WX is the clouds and weather plus categorical outlook section, which contains a summary of cloudiness and weather significant to VFR flight operations broken down by states or other geographical areas.
	From which primary source should information be obtained regarding expected weather at the estimated time of arrival if your destination has no Terminal Forecast?	ANSWER: Area Forecast. An area forecast (FA) is a forecast of general weather conditions over an area the size of several states. It is used to determine forecast en route weather and to interpolate conditions at airports which do not have a TAF issued.
	When the term 'light and variable' is used in reference to a Winds Aloft Forecast, the coded group and windspeed is	ANSWER: 9900 and less than 5 knots. When winds are light and variable on a Winds Aloft Forecast (FD), it is coded 9900 and wind speed is less than 5 kt.
	What values are used for Winds Aloft Forecasts?	ANSWER: True direction and knots. For Winds Aloft Forecasts, the wind direction is given in true direction and the wind speed is in knots.
	To obtain a continuous transcribed weather briefing, including winds aloft and route forecasts for a cross-country flight, a pilot should monitor a	ANSWER: Transcribed Weather Broadcast (TWEB) on an NDB or a VOR facility. To obtain a continuous transcribed weather briefing, including winds aloft and route forecasts for a cross-country flight, a pilot should monitor a TWEB on the ADF (low-frequency) radio receiver and/or the VOR.
	SIGMET's are issued as a warning of weather conditions hazardous to which aircraft?	ANSWER: All aircraft. SIGMETs (significant meteorological information) warn of weather considered potentially hazardous to all aircraft. SIGMET advisories cover severe and extreme turbulence; severe icing; and widespread duststorms, sandstorms, or volcanic ash that reduce visibility to less than 3 SM.
	AIRMETs are advisories of significant weather phenomena but of lower intensities than SIGMETs and are intended for dissemination to	ANSWER: all pilots. AIRMETs are advisories of significant weather phenomena that describe conditions at intensities lower than those which require the issuance of SIGMETs. They are intended for dissemination to all pilots.
	Which in-flight advisory would contain information on severe icing not associated with thunderstorms?	ANSWER: SIGMET. SIGMET advisories cover severe icing not associated with thunderstorms; severe or extreme turbulence or clear air turbulence not associated with thunderstorms; dust-storms, sandstorms, or volcanic ash that reduce visibility to less than 3 SM; and volcanic eruption.
	What information is contained in a CONVECTIVE SIGMET?	ANSWER: Tornadoes, embedded thunderstorms, and hail 3/4 inch or greater in diameter. Convective SIGMETs are issued for tornadoes, lines of thunderstorms, embedded thunderstorms of any intensity level, areas of thunderstorms greater than or equal to VIP level 4 with an area coverage of 40% or more, and hail ¾ in. or greater.
	What is indicated when a current CONVECTIVE SIGMET forecasts thunderstorms?	ANSWER: Thunderstorms obscured by massive cloud layers. Convective SIGMETs are issued for tornadoes, lines of thunderstorms, embedded (i.e., obscured by massive cloud layers) thunderstorms of any intensity level, areas of thunderstorms greater than or equal to VIP level 4 with an area coverage of 40% or more, and hail ¾ in. or greater.
	What does the heavy dashed line that forms a large rectangular box on a radar summary chart refer to?	ANSWER: Severe weather watch area. On a Radar Summary Chart, severe weather watch areas are outlined by heavy dashed lines.
	What information is provided by the Radar Summary Chart that is not shown on other weather charts?	ANSWER: Lines and cells of hazardous thunderstorms. The Radar Summary Charts show lines of thunderstorms and hazardous cells that are not shown on other weather charts.
	Radar weather reports are of special interest to pilots because they indicate	ANSWER: location of precipitation along with type, intensity, and cell movement of precipitation. Radar weather reports are of special interest to pilots because they report the location of precipitation along with type, intensity, and cell movement.
	To use VHF/DF facilities for assistance in locating an aircraft's position, the aircraft must have a	ANSWER: VHF transmitter and receiver. The VHF/Direction Finder (DF) facility is a ground operation that displays the magnetic direction of the airplane from the station each time the airplane communication (VHF) radio transmits a signal to it. Thus, to use such facilities for assistance in locating an airplane position, the airplane must have both a VHF transmitter (to send the signal) and a receiver (to communicate with the operator, who reads out the displayed magnetic direction).
	When the course deviation indicator (CDI) needle is centered during an omnireceiver check using a VOR test signal (VOT), the omnibearing selector (OBS) and the TO/FROM indicator should read	ANSWER: 0° FROM or 180° TO, regardless of the pilot's position from the VOT. A VOT transmits a 360° (0°) radial in all directions. With the CDI centered, the OBS should indicate 0° with the TO-FROM indicator showing FROM, or 180° TO, regardless of your position from the VOT. A good way to remember the VOT rule is to associate it with the Cessna 182, i.e., 180 TO.
	How many satellites make up the Global Positioning System (GPS)?	ANSWER: 24. The Global Positioning System (GPS) is composed of a constellation of 24 satellites that broadcast signals decoded by a receiver in order to determine a three-dimensional position.
	What is the minimum number of Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites that are observable by a user anywhere on earth?	ANSWER: 5. The Global Positioning System is composed of 24 satellites, at least five of which are observable at any given time anywhere on earth.
	How many Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites are required to yield a three dimensional position (latitude, longitude, and altitude) and time solution?	ANSWER: 4. GPS satellites broadcast radio signals that are decoded by a receiver in order to triangulate a three-dimensional position by calculating distances based on the amount of time it takes the radio signals to reach the receiver. At least four GPS satellites are required to yield a three-dimensional position (latitude, longitude, and altitude) and time solution.
	An airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates	ANSWER: that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums. Operation of the airport beacon during daylight hours often indicates that weather at the airport located in controlled airspace (e.g., Class D airspace) is below basic VFR weather minimums, i.e., less than 1,000 ft. ceiling or 3 SM visibility. Note that there is no regulatory requirement for daylight operation of an airport's rotating beacon.
	A lighted heliport may be identified by a	ANSWER: green, yellow, and white rotating beacon. A lighted heliport may be identified by a green, yellow, and white rotating beacon.
	A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits	ANSWER: two quick, white flashes between green flashes. Lighted land airports are distinguished by white and green airport beacons. To further distinguish it as a military airport, there are two quick white flashes between each green.
	How can a military airport be identified at night?	ANSWER: Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes. Military airport beacons flash alternately white and green, but are differentiated from civil beacons by two quick white flashes between the green flashes.
	To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times, then click it	ANSWER: five times. To turn on and set the runway lights on medium intensity, the recommended procedure is to key the mike 7 times; this assures that all the lights are on and at high intensity. Next key the mike 5 times to get the medium-intensity setting.
	An on glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is	ANSWER: a green light signal. Tri-color visual approach slope indicators normally consist of a single light unit projecting a 3-color visual approach path into the final approach area of the runway, upon which the indicator is installed. The below glide path indicator is red. The above glide path indicator is amber. The on glide path indicator is green. This type of indicator has a useful range of approximately ½ to 1 mi. in daytime and up to 5 mi. at night.
	An above glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is	ANSWER: an amber light signal. The tri-color VASI has three lights: amber for above the glide slope, green for on the glide slope, and red for below the glide slope.
	A below glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is a	ANSWER: red light signal. The tri-color VASI has three lights: amber for above the glide slope, green for on the glide slope, and red for below the glide slope.
	A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a	ANSWER: pulsating red light. A pulsating VASI indicator normally consists of a single light unit projecting a two-color visual approach path into the final approach area of the runway upon which the indicator is installed. The below glide slope indication is a pulsating red, the above glide slope is pulsating white, and the on glide slope is a steady white light. The useful range of this system is about 4 mi. during the day and up to 10 mi. at night.
	A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is	ANSWER: three white lights and one red light. A precision approach path indicator (PAPI) has a row of four lights, each of which is similar to a VASI, in that they emit a red or white light. Above the glide slope (more than 3.5°) is indicated by four white lights, a slightly above glide slope (3.2°) is indicated by three white lights and one red light, on glide slope (3°) is indicated by two white and two red lights, slightly below glide slope (2.8°) is indicated by one white and three red lights, and below (too low) the glide slope (less than 2.5°) is indicated by four red lights.
	The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately	ANSWER: 090° and 270° magnetic. Runway numbers are determined from the approach direction. The runway number is the whole number nearest one-tenth the magnetic direction of the centerline. Thus, the numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately 090° and 270° magnetic.
	The normal radius of the outer area of Class C airspace is	ANSWER: 20 nautical miles. The outer area of Class C airspace has a normal radius of 20 NM with variations possible. This is in contrast to the Class C airspace area itself, which also has two circles: the first a 5-NM radius core surface area and the second a 10-NM radius shelf area.
	All operations within Class C airspace must be in	ANSWER: an aircraft equipped with a 4096-code transponder with Mode C encoding capability. To operate within Class C airspace, an aircraft must be equipped with a 4096-code transponder with Mode C (altitude encoding) capability. The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally
	Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace?	ANSWER: The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff. Aircraft departing from a satellite airport within Class C airspace with an operating control tower must establish and maintain two-way radio communication with the control tower and thereafter as instructed by ATC. When departing a satellite airport without an operating control tower, the pilot must contact and maintain two-way radio communication with ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.
	Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with	ANSWER: all pilots. Alert areas may contain a high volume of pilot training or other unusual activity. Pilots using the area as well as pilots crossing the area are equally responsible for collision avoidance.
	Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area?	ANSWER: With the controlling agency's authorization. An aircraft may not be operated within a restricted area unless permission has been obtained from the controlling agency. Frequently, the ATC within the area acts as the controlling agent's authorization; e.g., an approach control in a military restricted area can permit aircraft to enter it when the restricted area is not active.
	What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?	ANSWER: Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted. Military operations areas consist of airspace established for separating military training activities from IFR traffic. VFR traffic should exercise extreme caution when flying within an MOA. Information regarding MOA activity can be obtained from flight service stations (FSSs) within 100 mi. of the MOA.
	A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the	ANSWER: primary airport's control tower. Each pilot departing a non-tower satellite airport, within Class D airspace, must establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the primary airport's control tower as soon as practicable after departing.
	The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on	ANSWER: the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established. The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based upon the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.
	Prior to entering an Airport Advisory Area, a pilot should	ANSWER: contact the local FSS for airport and traffic advisories. Airport Advisory Areas exist at noncontrolled airports that have a Flight Service Station (FSS) located on that airport. The FSS provides advisory (not control) information on traffic, weather, etc., to requesting aircraft. Accordingly, pilots should (not must) contact FSSs for advisory services.
	Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning	ANSWER: noncontrol information in selected high-activity terminal areas. The continuous broadcast of recorded noncontrol information is known as the Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS). ATIS includes weather, active runway, and other information that arriving and departing pilots need to know.
	Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace?	ANSWER: Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency. Prior to entering Class C airspace, a pilot must contact and establish communication with approach control on the appropriate frequency.
	TRSA Service in the terminal radar program provides	ANSWER: sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft. TRSA service in the terminal radar program provides sequencing and separation for all participating VFR aircraft within the airspace defined as a Terminal Radar Service Area (TRSA). Pilot participation is urged but is not mandatory.
	From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic information during ground operations?	ANSWER: Ground control, on initial contact. Pilots of departing VFR aircraft are encouraged to request radar traffic information by notifying ground control on initial contact with their request and proposed direction of flight.
	Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as	ANSWER: safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft. Basic radar service in the terminal radar program provides safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring (on a workload-permitting basis) to VFR aircraft.
	If Air Traffic Control advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace, the transponder should be set to code	ANSWER: 1200. The code 1200 designates VFR operations when another number is not assigned by ATC.
	When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?	ANSWER: 7500, 7600, 7700. Some special codes set aside for emergencies should be avoided during routine VFR flights. They are 7500 for hijacking, 7600 for lost radio communications, and 7700 for a general emergency. Additionally, you should know that code 7777 is reserved for military interceptors.
	When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected?	ANSWER: 1200. The standard VFR transponder code is 1200. Since all flight operations above 18,000 ft. MSL are to be IFR, code 1200 is not used above that height.
	An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 090°: 'TRAFFIC 3 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, WESTBOUND...' Where should the pilot look for this traffic?	ANSWER: South. If you receive traffic information service from radar and are told you have traffic at the 3 o'clock position, traffic is in the direction of the right wingtip, or to the south.
	An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 360°: 'TRAFFIC 10 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND...' Where should the pilot look for this traffic?	ANSWER: Northwest. The controller is telling you that traffic is at 10 o'clock and 2 mi. 9 o'clock is the left wingtip, and 10 o'clock is 2/3 of the way from the nose of the airplane (12 o'clock) to the left wingtip. Thus, you are looking northwest.
	An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot during a local flight: 'TRAFFIC 2 O'CLOCK, 5 MILES, NORTHBOUND...' Where should the pilot look for this traffic?	ANSWER: Between directly ahead and 90° to the right. The right wingtip is 3 o'clock, and the nose is 12 o'clock. A controller report of traffic 2 o'clock, 5 mi., northbound indicates that the traffic is to the right of the airplane's nose, just ahead of the right wingtip. An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying north in a calm wind: 'TRAFFIC 9 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND...' Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
	Unless otherwise authorized, if flying a transponder equipped aircraft, a recreational pilot should squawk which VFR code?	ANSWER: 1200. A recreational pilot, flying a transponder-equipped aircraft, should set that transponder on code (squawk) 1200, which is the VFR code.
	When flying HAWK N666CB, the proper phraseology for initial contact with McAlester AFSS is	ANSWER: 'MC ALESTER RADIO, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER.' When calling a ground station, pilots should begin with the name of the facility and the type of facility. Any FSS is referred to as 'Radio.' When the aircraft manufacturer's name or model is stated, the prefix 'N' is dropped. When transmitting and receiving on different frequencies, indicate the name of the VOR or frequency on which a reply is expected. Thus, the proper phraseology on initial contact with McAlester AFSS is McAlester Radio, Hawk Six Six Six Charlie Bravo, Receiving Ardmore VORTAC, Over. (NOTE: The word 'over' has been dropped from common usage.)
	The correct method of stating 4,500 feet MSL to ATC is	ANSWER: 'FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED.' The proper phraseology for altitudes up to but not including 18,000 ft. MSL is to state the separate digits of the thousands, plus the hundreds, if appropriate. It would be 'four thousand, five hundred.'
	The correct method of stating 10,500 feet MSL to ATC is	ANSWER: 'ONE ZERO THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED.' The proper phraseology for altitudes up to but not including 18,000 ft. MSL is to state the separate digits of the thousands, plus the hundreds, if appropriate. It would be one zero thousand, five hundred.
	If the aircraft's radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport?	ANSWER: Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower. If your radio fails and you wish to land at a tower controlled airport, remain outside or above the airport's traffic pattern until the direction and flow of traffic has been determined, then join the airport traffic pattern and maintain visual contact with the tower to receive light signals.
	After landing at a tower-controlled airport, when should the pilot contact ground control?	ANSWER: When advised by the tower to do so. After landing at a tower-controlled airport, you should contact ground control on the appropriate frequency only when instructed by the tower.
	If instructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 9, the pilot may proceed	ANSWER: via taxiways and across runways to, but not onto, Runway 9. A clearance to taxi to the active runway means a pilot has been given permission to taxi via taxiways and across intersecting runways to, but not onto, the active runway.
	Who should not participate in the Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) program?	ANSWER: Student pilots. Land and hold short operations (LAHSO) take place at some airports with an operating control tower in order to increase the total capacity and improve the flow of traffic. LAHSO requires that a pilot not use the full length of the runway but, rather, that (s)he stop and hold short before reaching an intersecting runway, taxiway, or other specified point on the landing runway. Student pilots or pilots who are not familiar with LAHSO should not participate in the program.
	Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?	ANSWER: Pilot-in-command. Land and hold short operations (LAHSO) take place at some airports with an operating control tower in order to increase the total capacity and improve the flow of traffic. LAHSO requires that a pilot not use the full length of the runway but, rather, that (s)he stop and hold short before reaching an intersecting runway, taxiway, or other specified point on the landing runway. LAHSO requires familiarity with the available landing distance (ALD) for given LAHSO combinations and with the landing performance of the aircraft. The pilot in command has the final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short clearance.
	When should pilots decline a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?	ANSWER: When it will compromise safety. Land and hold short operations (LAHSO) take place at some airports with an operating control tower in order to increase the total capacity and improve the flow of traffic. LAHSO requires that a pilot not use the full length of the runway but, rather, that (s)he stop and hold short before reaching an intersecting runway, taxiway, or other specified point on the landing runway. LAHSO requires familiarity with the available landing distance (ALD) for given LAHSO combinations and with the landing performance of the aircraft. Pilots are expected to decline a land and hold short clearance if they determine that it will compromise safety.
	Where is the 'Available Landing Distance' (ALD) data published for an airport that utilizes Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) published?	ANSWER: Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD). Land and hold short operations (LAHSO) take place at some airports with an operating control tower in order to increase the total capacity and improve the flow of traffic. LAHSO requires that a pilot not use the full length of the runway but, rather, that (s)he stop and hold short before reaching an intersecting runway, taxiway, or other specified point on the landing runway. LAHSO requires familiarity with the available landing distance (ALD) for given LAHSO combinations and with the landing performance of the aircraft. ALD data are published in the special notices section of the Airport/Facility Directory.
	What is the minimum visibility for a pilot to receive a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?	ANSWER: 3 statute miles. You should receive a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance only when there is a minimum ceiling of 1,000 ft. and visibility of 3 SM. The intent of having basic VFR weather conditions is to allow pilots to maintain visual contact with other aircraft and ground vehicle operations.
	What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway?	ANSWER: Execute gentle banks, left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace. When climbing (descending) VFR on an airway, you should execute gentle banks left and right to facilitate scanning for other aircraft. Collision avoidance is a constant priority and especially pertinent to climbs and descents on airways where other traffic is expected.
	What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace?	ANSWER: Air Traffic Control Tower. When special VFR is needed, the pilot should contact the Air Traffic Control Tower to receive a departure clearance in Class D airspace.
	How should a VFR flight plan be closed at the completion of the flight at a controlled airport?	ANSWER: The pilot must close the flight plan with the nearest FSS or other FAA facility upon landing. A pilot is responsible for ensuring that the VFR or DVFR flight plan is canceled (FAR 91.153). You should close your flight plan with the nearest FSS or, if one is not available, you may request any ATC facility to relay your cancellation to the FSS.
	When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on	ANSWER: 121.5 and 243.0 MHz. When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits simultaneously on the international distress frequencies of 121.5 and 243.0 MHz.
	Which procedure is recommended to ensure that the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) has not been activated?	ANSWER: Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown. To ensure that your ELT has not been activated, you can monitor 121.5 MHz or 243.0 MHz in flight when a receiver is available and prior to engine shut-down at the end of each flight. When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested?
	When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable)?	ANSWER: After one-half the battery's useful life. Emergency locator transmitter (ELT) batteries must be replaced or recharged after 50% of their useful life has expired or when the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hr.
	How should contact be established with an En Route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) station, and what service would be expected?	ANSWER: Call Flight Watch on 122.0 for information regarding actual weather and thunderstorm activity along proposed route. The frequency designed for en route flight advisory stations calling Flight Watch is 122.0 MHz. It is designed to provide en route aircraft with timely and meaningful weather advisories during the route. It is not for complete briefings or random weather reports.
	What service should a pilot normally expect from an En Route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) station?	ANSWER: Actual weather information and thunderstorm activity along the route. Flight Watch is designed to provide en route traffic with timely and meaningful weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight intended. It is designed to be a continuous exchange of information on winds, turbulence, visibility, icing, etc., between pilots and Flight Watch specialists on the ground.
	Below FL180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on	ANSWER: 122.0 MHz. Below FL 180, to receive weather advisories along your route, you should contact Flight Watch on 122.0 MHz.
	Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is	ANSWER: developing lift. Wingtip vortices are the result of the pressure differential over and under a wing when that wing is producing lift. Wingtip vortices do not develop when an airplane is taxiing, although prop blast or jet thrust turbulence can be experienced near the rear of a large airplane which is taxiing.
	Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to	ANSWER: sink below the aircraft generating turbulence. Wingtip vortices created by large airplanes tend to sink below the airplane generating the turbulence.
	When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to	ANSWER: sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence. When taking off or landing at a busy airport where large, heavy airplanes are operating, you should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to sink into the flight paths of airplanes operating below the airplane generating the turbulence. Wingtip vortices are caused by a differential in high and low pressure at the wingtip of an airplane, creating a spiraling effect trailing behind the wingtip, similar to a horizontal tornado.
	The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is	ANSWER: heavy, clean, and slow. Vortices are the greatest when the wingtips are at high angles of attack. This occurs at high gross weight, flaps up, and low airspeed (heavy, clean, and slow).
	The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a	ANSWER: light, quartering tailwind. The most dangerous wind condition when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a light, quartering tailwind. The tailwind can push the vortices forward which could put it in the touchdown zone of your aircraft even if you used proper procedures and landed beyond the touchdown point of the preceding aircraft. Also the quartering wind may push the upwind vortices to the middle of the runway.
	When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft	ANSWER: above and upwind from the heavy aircraft. The proper procedure for departing behind a large aircraft is to rotate prior to the large aircraft's rotation point, then fly above and upwind of the large aircraft. Since vortices sink and drift downwind this should keep you clear.
	When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying	ANSWER: above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft's touchdown point. When landing behind a large aircraft your flight path should be above the other aircraft's flight path since the vortices sink. When the aircraft touches down, the vortices will stop, so you should thus touch down beyond where the large aircraft did.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/27.jpg' target='figure27'>Figure 27</a> (Refer to figure 27, area 3.) When flying over Arrowwood National Wildlife Refuge, a pilot should fly no lower than	ANSWER: 2,000 feet AGL. See Fig. 27, which is about 2 in. to the left and slightly below 3. All aircraft are requested to maintain a minimum altitude of 2,000 ft. above the surface of a national wildlife refuge except if forced to land by emergency, landing at a designated site, or on official government business.
	Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than	ANSWER: 2,000 feet AGL. The Fish and Wildlife Service requests that pilots maintain a minimum altitude of 2,000 ft. above the terrain of national wildlife refuge areas.
	The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use	ANSWER: a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10° sector. The most effective way to scan for other aircraft during daylight hours is to use a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive areas of the sky into your central visual field. Each movement should not exceed 10°, and each area should be observed for at least one second to enable detection. Only a very small center area of the eye has the ability to send clear, sharply focused messages to the brain. All other areas provide less detail.
	How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?	ANSWER: There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft. Any aircraft that appears to have no relative motion and stays in one scan quadrant is likely to be on a collision course. Also, if a target shows no lateral or vertical motion, but increases in size, take evasive action.
	Which statement best defines hypoxia?	ANSWER: A state of oxygen deficiency in the body. Hypoxia is oxygen deficiency in the bloodstream and may cause lack of clear thinking, fatigue, euphoria and, shortly thereafter, unconsciousness.
	Rapid or extra deep breathing while using oxygen can cause a condition known as	ANSWER: hyperventilation. Hyperventilation occurs when an excessive amount of carbon dioxide is passed out of the body and too much oxygen is retained. This occurs when breathing rapidly, and especially when using oxygen.
	Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?	ANSWER: Emotional tension, anxiety, or fear. Hyperventilation usually occurs when one becomes excited or undergoes stress, which results in an increase in one's rate of breathing.
	A pilot should be able to overcome the symptoms or avoid future occurrences of hyperventilation by	ANSWER: slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a bag, or talking aloud. To recover from hyperventilation, the pilot should slow the breathing rate, breathe into a bag, or talk aloud. Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if
	If a pilot experiences spatial disorientation during flight in a restricted visibility condition, the best way to overcome the effect is to	ANSWER: rely upon the aircraft instrument indications. The best way to overcome the effects of spatial disorientation is to rely entirely on the aircraft's instrument indications and not upon body sensations. Sight of the horizon also overrides inner ear sensations. Thus, in areas of poor visibility, especially, such bodily signals should be ignored.
	The danger of spatial disorientation during flight in poor visual conditions may be reduced by	ANSWER: having faith in the instruments rather than taking a chance on the sensory organs. Various complex motions and forces and certain visual scenes encountered in flight can create illusions of motion and position. Spatial disorientation from these illusions can be prevented only by visual reference to reliable fixed points on the ground and horizon or to flight instruments.
	A state of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information being sent to the brain by various sensory organs is defined as	ANSWER: spatial disorientation. A state of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information being sent to the brain by various sensory organs is defined as vertigo (spatial disorientation). Put simply, the pilot cannot determine his/her relationship to the earth's horizon.
	Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-and-level flight?	ANSWER: Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals. Due to the fact that eyes can focus only on a narrow viewing area, effective scanning is accomplished with a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive areas of the sky into the central vision field.
	What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?	ANSWER: All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance. Atmospheric haze can create the illusion of being at a greater distance from traffic or terrain than you actually are. This is especially prevalent on landings.
	What preparation should a pilot make to adapt the eyes for night flying?	ANSWER: Avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before the flight. Prepare for night flying by letting your eyes adapt to darkness, including avoiding bright white light for at least 30 min. prior to night flight.
	Large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the human body result in	ANSWER: loss of muscular power. Carbon monoxide reduces the ability of the blood to carry oxygen. Large accumulations result in loss of muscular power.
	Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases as	ANSWER: altitude increases. Carbon monoxide poisoning results in an oxygen deficiency. Since there is less oxygen available at higher altitudes, carbon monoxide poisoning can occur with lesser amounts of carbon monoxide as altitude increases.
	An ATC clearance provides	ANSWER: authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace. A clearance issued by ATC is predicated on known traffic and known physical airport conditions. An ATC clearance means an authorization by ATC, for the purpose of preventing collision between known airplanes, for an airplane to proceed under specified conditions within controlled airspace.
	The letters VHF/DF appearing in the Airport/Facility Directory for a certain airport indicate that	ANSWER: the Flight Service Station has equipment with which to determine your direction from the station. The VHF/Direction Finder (DF) facility is a ground operation that displays the magnetic direction of the airplane from the station each time the airplane communication radio transmits a signal to it. It is used by ATC and FSS to assist lost pilots by telling them which direction they are from the receiving station.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/23.jpg' target='figure23'>Figure 23</a> (Refer to figure 23, area 2, and Legend 1.) For information about the parachute jumping and glider operations at Silverwood Airport, refer to	ANSWER: the Airport/Facility Directory. The miniature parachute near the Silverwood Airport (at 2 on Fig. 23) indicates a parachute jumping area. In Legend 1, the symbol for a parachute jumping area instructs you to see the Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD) for more information. The A/FD will also have information on the glider operations at Silverwood Airport.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/53.jpg' target='figure53'>Figure 53</a> (Refer to figure 53.) When approaching Lincoln Municipal from the west at noon for the purpose of landing, initial communications should be with	ANSWER: Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0 MHz. Fig. 53 contains the A/FD excerpt for Lincoln Municipal. Locate the section titled Airspace and note that Lincoln Municipal is located in Class C airspace. The Class C airspace is in effect from 0530-0030 local time (1130-0630Z). You should contact approach control (app con) during that time before entering. Move up three lines to App/Dep Con and note that aircraft arriving from the west of Lincoln (i.e., 170° - 349°) at noon should initially contact Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/53.jpg' target='figure53'>Figure 53</a> (Refer to figure 53.) Which type radar service is provided to VFR aircraft at Lincoln Municipal?	ANSWER: Sequencing to the primary Class C airport, traffic advisories, conflict resolution, and safety alerts. Fig. 53 contains the A/FD excerpt for Lincoln Municipal. Locate the section titled Airspace to determine that Lincoln Municipal is located in Class C airspace. Once communications and radar contact are established, VFR aircraft are provided the following services: 1. Sequencing to the primary airport 2. Approved separation between IFR and VFR aircraft 3. Basic radar services, i.e., safety alerts, limited vectoring, and traffic advisories. The FAA should change 'conflict resolution' to 'limited vectoring' in the future.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/53.jpg' target='figure53'>Figure 53</a> (Refer to figure 53.) Traffic patterns in effect at Lincoln Municipal are	ANSWER: to the left on Runway 17L and Runway 35L; to the right on Runway 17R and Runway 35R. Fig. 53 contains the A/FD excerpt for Lincoln Municipal. For this question, you need to locate the runway end data elements, i.e., Rwy 17R, Rwy 35L, Rwy 14, Rwy 32, Rwy 17L, and Rwy 35R. Traffic patterns are to the left unless right traffic is noted by the contraction Rgt tfc. The only runways with right traffic are Rwy 17R and Rwy 35R.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/53.jpg' target='figure53'>Figure 53</a> (Refer to figure 53.) Where is Loup City Municipal located with relation to the city?	ANSWER: Northwest approximately 1 mile. Fig. 53 contains the A/FD excerpt for Loup City Municipal. On the first line, the third item listed, 1 NW, means that Loup City Municipal is located approximately 1 NM northwest of the city.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/53.jpg' target='figure53'>Figure 53</a> (Refer to figure 53.) What is the recommended communications procedure for landing at Lincoln Municipal during the hours when the tower is not in operation?	ANSWER: Monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on 118.5 MHz. When the Lincoln Municipal tower is closed, you should monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on the CTAF. Fig. 53 contains the A/FD excerpt for Lincoln Municipal. Locate the section titled Communications and note that on that same line the CTAF frequency is 118.5. <a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/23.jpg' target='figure23'>Figure 23</a> (Refer to figure 23.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over Sandpoint Airport at less than 700 feet AGL are
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/27.jpg' target='figure27'>Figure 27</a> (Refer to figure 27.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over the town of Cooperstown below 700 feet AGL are	ANSWER: 3 miles and clear of clouds. The town of Cooperstown is about 3/4 in. above and to the right of the number 2 in Fig. 27. The airspace over the town of Cooperstown (yellow color) is Class G from the surface to 2,124 ft. MSL (700 ft. AGL) since the town lies inside the magenta shaded area. For a recreational pilot to operate over the town of Cooperstown below 700 ft. AGL, the minimum visibility is 3 SM and the cloud clearance requirement is to remain clear of clouds.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/27.jpg' target='figure27'>Figure 27</a> (Refer to figure 27, area 6.) The airspace overlying and within 5 miles of Barnes County Airport is	ANSWER: Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet AGL. The requirement is the type of airspace overlying and within 5 SM from Barnes County Airport (Fig. 27). Note at 6 that Barnes County Airport is in the lower right and is surrounded by a shaded magenta (reddish) band, which means the floor of the controlled airspace is 700 ft. Thus, Class G airspace extends from the surface to 700 ft. AGL.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/27.jpg' target='figure27'>Figure 27</a> (Refer to figure 27, area 1.) Identify the airspace over Lowe Airport.	ANSWER: Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL; Class E airspace -- 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL. The requirement is the type of airspace above Lowe Airport, which is located 2 inches left of 1 on Fig. 27. Because there is no blue shading depicted on the chart, Class E airspace is understood to begin at 1,200 ft. AGL unless otherwise indicated. There are no airspace symbols surrounding Lowe Airport, so Class G airspace exists from the surface to 1,200 ft. AGL, and Class E airspace exists from 1,200 ft. AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 ft. MSL.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/27.jpg' target='figure27'>Figure 27</a> (Refer to figure 27, area 2.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are	ANSWER: 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds. The airspace over the town of Cooperstown (Fig. 27, north of 2) is Class G airspace up to 700 ft. AGL, and Class E airspace from 700 ft. AGL up to but not including 18,000 ft. MSL (indicated by the magenta shading). Therefore, the visibility and cloud clearance requirements for daylight VFR operation over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 ft. AGL and 10,000 ft. MSL are 3 miles and 1,000 ft. above, 500 ft. below, and 2,000 ft. horizontally.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/21.jpg' target='figure21'>Figure 21</a> (Refer to figure 21, area 1.) What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off at Norfolk International?	ANSWER: Mode C transponder and two-way radio. The minimum equipment to land and take off at Norfolk International (Fig. 21) is a Mode C transponder and a two-way radio. Norfolk International is located within Class C airspace. Unless otherwise authorized, a pilot must establish and maintain radio communication with ATC prior to and while operating in the Class C airspace area. Mode C transponders are also required in and above all Class C airspace areas.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/21.jpg' target='figure21'>Figure 21</a> (Refer to figure 21, area 2.) The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport is	ANSWER: 20 feet. The requirement is the elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport (Fig. 21). East of 2, note that the second line of the airport identifier for Chesapeake Regional reads, '20 L 55 123.05.' The first number, in bold type, is the altitude of the airport above MSL. It is followed by the L for lighted runway(s), 55 for the length of the longest runway (5,500 ft.), and the CTAF frequency (123.05).
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/23.jpg' target='figure23'>Figure 23</a> (Refer to figure 23, area 1.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over Sandpoint Airport at 1,200 feet AGL are	ANSWER: 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud. The airspace around Sandpoint Airport is Class G airspace from the surface to 700 ft. AGL, and Class E airspace from 700 ft. AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 ft. MSL (indicated by the magenta shading). Therefore, 1,200 ft. AGL is within Class E airspace. The VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements for operations in Class E airspace below 10,000 ft. MSL are 3 miles and a distance of 1,000 ft. above, 500 ft. below, and 2,000 ft. horizontally from each cloud.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/23.jpg' target='figure23'>Figure 23</a> (Refer to figure 23, area 3.) The vertical limits of that portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are	ANSWER: 1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL. Magee Airport on Fig. 23 is northwest of 3. The question asks for the vertical limits of the Class E airspace over the airport. Class E airspace areas extend upwards but do not include 18,000 ft. MSL (base of Class A airspace). The floor of a Class E airspace designated as an airway is 1,200 ft. AGL unless otherwise indicated.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/24.jpg' target='figure24'>Figure 24</a> (Refer to figure 24, area 3.) What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)?	ANSWER: 1,300 feet MSL. Class C airspace consists of a surface area and a shelf area. The floor of the shelf area is 1,200 ft. above the airport elevation. The Savannah Class C airspace (Fig. 24, area 3) is depicted by solid magenta circles. For each circle there is a number over a number or SFC. The numbers are in hundreds of feet MSL. The lower number represents the floor of the airspace. Thus, the floor of the shelf area of the Class C airspace is 1,300 ft. MSL (41 13).
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/24.jpg' target='figure24'>Figure 24</a> (Refer to figure 24, area 3.) What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International?	ANSWER: 1,549 feet MSL. On Fig. 24, find the lighted obstacle noted by its proximity to Savannah International by being outside the surface area of the Class C airspace, which has a 5-NM radius. It is indicated by the obstacle symbol with arrows or lightning flashes extending from the tip. According to the numbers to the northeast of the symbol, the height of the obstacle is 1,549 ft. MSL or 1,534 ft. AGL.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/24.jpg' target='figure24'>Figure 24</a> (Refer to figure 24, area 3.) The top of the group obstruction approximately 11 nautical miles from the Savannah VORTAC on the 340° radial is	ANSWER: 455 feet MSL. To determine the height of the lighted stack, first find it on Fig. 24. Locate the compass rose and look along the 340 radial, knowing that the compass rose has a 10-NM radius. Just outside the compass rose is a group obstruction (stacks). Its height is 455 ft. MSL; AGL height is not shown.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/25.jpg' target='figure25'>Figure 25</a> (Refer to figure 25, area 1.) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the northeast side of Airpark East Airport by 500 feet?	ANSWER: 1,273 feet MSL. Find Airpark East, which is near 1 in Fig. 25. Remember to locate the actual airport symbol, not just the name of the airport. It is 1 in. southwest of 1. The elevation of the top of the obstacle on the northeast side of the airport is marked in bold as 773 ft. MSL. Minimum altitude to clear the 773-ft. obstacle by 500 ft. is 1,273 ft. MSL.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/25.jpg' target='figure25'>Figure 25</a> (Refer to figure 25, area 2.) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the southeast side of Winnsboro Airport by 500 feet?	ANSWER: 1,403 feet MSL. The first step is to find the obstacle on the southeast side of Winnsboro Airport on Fig. 25, near 2. The elevation numbers to the right of the obstruction symbol indicate that its top is 903 ft. MSL or a height of 323 ft. AGL. Thus, the clearance altitude is 1,403 ft. MSL (903 ft. MSL + 500 ft. of clearance).
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/26.jpg' target='figure26'>Figure 26</a> (Refer to figure 26.) At which airports is fixed-wing Special VFR not authorized?	ANSWER: Dallas-Fort Worth International and Dallas Love Field. The first (top) line of the airport data for Dallas-Ft. Worth Int'l. and Dallas Love Field (Fig. 26, areas 5 and 6) indicates NO SVFR, which means no special VFR permitted for fixed-wing aircraft. <a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/26.jpg' target='figure26'>Figure 26</a> (Refer to figure 26, area 7.) The airspace overlying Mc Kinney (TKI) is controlled from the surface to
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/26.jpg' target='figure26'>Figure 26</a> (Refer to figure 26, area 4.) The airspace directly overlying Fort Worth Meacham is	ANSWER: Class D airspace to 3,200 feet MSL. The airspace overlying Fort Worth Meacham (Fig. 26, southeast of 4) is Class D airspace as denoted by the segmented blue lines. The upper limit is depicted in a broken box in hundreds of feet MSL northeast of the airport. Thus, the Class D airspace extends from the surface to 3,200 ft. MSL.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/26.jpg' target='figure26'>Figure 26</a> (Refer to figure 26, area 8.) What minimum altitude is required to fly over the Cedar Hill TV towers in the congested area south of NAS Dallas?	ANSWER: 3,449 feet MSL. The Cedar Hill TV towers (Fig. 26, west of 8) have an elevation of 2,449 ft. MSL. The minimum safe altitude over a congested area is 1,000 ft. above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 ft. of the aircraft. Thus, to vertically clear the towers, the minimum altitude is 3,449 ft. MSL (2,449 + 1,000).
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/22.jpg' target='figure22'>Figure 22</a> (Refer to figure 22.) The terrain elevation of the light tan area between Minot (area 1) and Audubon Lake (area 2) varies from	ANSWER: 2,000 feet to 2,500 feet MSL. The requirement is the terrain elevation in the tan area between 1 and 2 in Fig. 22. The tan area indicates terrain between 2,000 ft. and 3,000 ft. The elevation contours on sectionals vary by 500 ft. increments. The 2,000-ft. contour line is located where the color changes from light green to light tan. Since there is no other contour line in the light tan area, the terrain elevation is between 2,000 ft. and 2,500 ft. MSL. Also, Poleschook Airport (halfway between 1 and 2) indicates an elevation above MSL of 2,245.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/26.jpg' target='figure26'>Figure 26</a> (Refer to figure 26, area 5.) The navigation facility at Dallas-Ft. Worth International (DFW) is a	ANSWER: VOR/DME. On Fig. 26, DFW is located at the center of the chart and the navigation facility is 1 NM south of the right set of parallel runways. The symbol is a hexagon with a dot in the center within a square. This is the symbol for a VOR/DME navigation facility.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/21.jpg' target='figure21'>Figure 21</a> (Refer to figure 21, area 2.) The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents a	ANSWER: visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial callup to Norfolk Approach Control. The magenta (reddish) flag (Fig. 21, north of 2) at Lake Drummond signifies that the lake is a visual checkpoint that can be used to identify the position for initial callup to the Norfolk approach control.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/21.jpg' target='figure21'>Figure 21</a> (Refer to figure 21, area 5.) The CAUTION box denotes what hazard to aircraft?	ANSWER: Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,000 feet MSL. On Fig. 21, northwest of 5, find 'CAUTION: UNMARKED BALLOON ON CABLE TO 3,000 MSL.' This is self-explanatory.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/22.jpg' target='figure22'>Figure 22</a> (Refer to figure 22.) Which public use airports depicted are indicated as having fuel?	ANSWER: Minot Int'l (area 1) and Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3). On Fig. 22, the requirement is to identify the airports having fuel available. Airports having fuel available are designated by small squares extending from the top, bottom, and both sides of the airport symbol. Only Minot (area 1) and Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) have such symbols.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/24.jpg' target='figure24'>Figure 24</a> (Refer to figure 24.) The flag symbols at Statesboro Bullock County Airport, Claxton-Evans County Airport, and Ridgeland Airport are	ANSWER: visual checkpoints to identify position for initial callup prior to entering Savannah Class C airspace. On Fig. 24, note the flag symbols at Claxton-Evans County Airport (1 in. to the left of 2), at Statesboro Bullock County Airport (2 in. above 2), and at Ridgeland Airport (2 in. above 3). These airports are visual checkpoints to identify position for initial callup prior to entering the Savannah Class C airspace.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/22.jpg' target='figure22'>Figure 22</a> (Refer to figure 22.) On what frequency can a pilot receive Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) in the vicinity of area 1?	ANSWER: 117.1 MHz. On Fig. 22, 1 is on the upper left and the Minot VORTAC information box is 1 in. below 1. Availability of Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) will be indicated by a circle which contains an 'H,' found in the upper right corner of a navigation frequency box. Note that the Minot VORTAC information box has such a symbol. Accordingly, a HIWAS can be obtained on the VOR frequency of 117.1.
	<a href='http://www.coryat.com/faa-pp-written/26.jpg' target='figure26'>Figure 26</a> (Refer to figure 26, area 2.) The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is	ANSWER: 126.0 MHz. Addison Airport (Fig. 26, area 2) control tower frequency is given as the first item in the second line of the airport data to the right of the airport symbol. The control tower (CT) frequency is 126.0 MHz.
	What is it often called when a pilot pushes his or her capabilities and the aircraft's limits by trying to maintain visual contact with the terrain in low visibility and ceiling?	ANSWER: Scud running. Scud running refers to a pilot's pushing his/her capabilities and the aircraft's limits by trying to maintain visual contact with the terrain while flying with a low visibility or ceiling. Scud running is a dangerous (and often illegal) practice that may lead to a mishap. This dangerous tendency must be identified and eliminated.
	What often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with ground/obstacles when flying under Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?	ANSWER: Continual flight into instrument conditions. Continuing VFR flight into instrument conditions often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with ground/obstacles due to the loss of outside visual references. It is even more dangerous if the pilot is not instrument qualified or current.
	What is one of the neglected items when a pilot relies on short and long term memory for repetitive tasks?	ANSWER: Checklists. Neglect of checklists, flight planning, preflight inspections, etc., is an indication of a pilot's unjustified reliance on his/her short- and long-term memory for repetitive flying tasks.
	What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as 'Antiauthority'?	ANSWER: Follow the rules. When you recognize a hazardous thought, you should correct it by stating the corresponding antidote. The antidote for the antiauthority ('Do not tell me!') hazardous attitude is 'Follow the rules; they are usually right.'
	What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as 'Impulsivity'?	ANSWER: Not so fast, think first. When you recognize a hazardous thought, you should correct it by stating the corresponding antidote. The antidote for the impulsivity ('Do something quickly!') hazardous attitude is 'Not so fast, think first.'
	What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as 'Invulnerability'?	ANSWER: It could happen to me. When you recognize a hazardous thought, you should correct it by stating the corresponding antidote. The antidote for the invulnerability ('It will not happen to me') hazardous attitude is 'It could happen to me.' What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as 'Macho'?
	What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as 'Resignation'?	ANSWER: I am not helpless. When you recognize a hazardous thought, you should correct it by stating the corresponding antidote. The antidote for the resignation ('What is the use?') hazardous attitude is 'I am not helpless. I can make a difference.'
	Who is responsible for determining whether a pilot is fit to fly for a particular flight, even though he or she holds a current medical certificate?	ANSWER: The pilot. A number of factors, from lack of sleep to an illness, can reduce a pilot's fitness to make a particular flight. It is the responsibility of the pilot to determine whether (s)he is fit to make a particular flight, even though (s)he holds a current medical certificate. Additionally, FAR 61.53 prohibits a pilot who possesses a current medical certificate from acting as pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember, while the pilot has a known medical condition or an aggravation of a known medical condition that would make the pilot unable to meet the standards for a medical certificate.
	What is the one common factor which affects most preventable accidents?	ANSWER: Human error. Most preventable accidents, such as fuel starvation or exhaustion, VFR flight into IFR conditions leading to disorientation, and flight into known icing, have one common factor: human error. Pilots who are involved in accidents usually know what went wrong. In the interest of expediency, cost savings, or other often irrelevant factors, the wrong course of action (decision) was chosen.
	FAA advisory circulars (some free, others at cost) are available to all pilots and are obtained by	ANSWER: ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office. FAA Advisory Circulars are issued with the purpose of informing the public of nonregulatory material of interest. Free advisory circulars can be ordered from the FAA, while those at cost can be ordered from the Government Printing Office.
	FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic Control and General Operations are issued under which subject number?	ANSWER: 90. FAA advisory circulars are numbered based on the numbering system used in the FARs 60 Airmen 70 Airspace 90 Air Traffic Control and General Operation
	FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number?	ANSWER: 60. FAA advisory circulars are numbered based on the numbering system used in the FARs 60 Airmen 70 Airspace 90 Air Traffic Control and General Operation
	FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject number?	ANSWER: 70. FAA advisory circulars are numbered based on the numbering system used in the FARs 60 Airmen 70 Airspace 90 Air Traffic Control and General Operation

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