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471 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Some marrow of long bones is termed "yellow" marrow under normal conditions. The function of this is to
A) manufacture blood cells B) manufacture tissue cells for the skin C) store adipose tissue D) store bone forming cells |
store adipose tissue
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Some marrow of long bones is termed "red" marrow. The function of this is to
A) manufacture blood cells B) manufacture tissue cells for the skin C) store adipose tissue D) store bone forming cells |
manufacture blood cells
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One of the functions of bone is "electrolyte balance." Which of the following best represents this role?
A) Bones exchange all types of electrolytes with the blood and with cartilage. B) Bones store calcium and phosphorus and release them into the blood as needed. C) Bones take up and store electrolytes but seldom release them. D) Bones are storage places for electrolytes, iron, proteins, and fats. |
Bones store calcium and phosphorus and release them into the blood as needed
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Which of the following best describes the role of a lacuna in a bone?
A) a cavity within a bone to house an osteocyte B) an indentation within a bone that houses an osteoclast C) a space within the bone for marrow development D) another term for the diploe of a flat bone |
a cavity within a bone to house an osteocyte
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Cartilage grows by two mechanisms: interstitial growth and appositional growth. Which pair of terms best describes the two methods?
A) medial and lateral B) proximal and distal C) internal and on the surface D) left and right |
internal and on the surface
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The shaft of a bone is known as the
A) epiphysis B) metaphysis C) periosteum D) diaphysis |
diaphysis
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The growth zone of a long bone is referred to as the
A) osteon B) epiphyseal plate C) articular surface D) diaphysis |
epiphyseal plate
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A tissue that surrounds a long bone, made of a double layer of connective tissue, is referred to as the
A) endosteum B) marrow C) growth plate D) periosteum |
periosteum
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What type of bone tissue surrounds a medullary cavity?
A) compact bone B) medullary bone C) spongy bone D) replacement bone |
spongy bone
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Sharpey's fibers, located on the periphery of a bone, are
A) collagen fibers from ligaments that attach to bone B) elastic fibers that are found in tendons C) fibers that make up the structure of endosteum D) elastic fibers that make up the structure of periosteum |
collagen fibers from ligaments that attach to bone
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The lattice of spongy bone, consisting of plates, rods and spines, is called
A) marrow B) trabeculae C) lacunae D) endosteum |
trabeculae
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The end of a long bone is referred to as the
A) epiphysis B) metaphysis C) diaphysis D) periosteum |
epiphysis
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Examples of bones that are "irregular" in shape are
A) femur, skull and sternum B) vertebrae and some skull bones C) radius and ulna D) radius, tibia, femur and patella |
vertebrae and some skull bones
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Which of the following is a squamous epithelium that lines the medullary cavity of a bone to begin the formation of marrow?
A) periosteum B) osteocytes C) endosteum D) trabeculae with osteoclasts |
endosteum
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Passing through the periostum of bones are arteries, veins, and
A) nerves B) adipose tissue C) Volkmann's canals D) the spinal cord |
nerves
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Which of the following bones is considered to be flat?
A) femur B) sternum C) vertebra D) talus |
sternum
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Which of the following is classified as a long bone?
A) phalanx B) sternum C) vertebra D) talus |
phalanx
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The epiphyseal plate is located in the
A) diaphysis B) spongy bone zone C) mid-bone as in the middle of the clavicle D) metaphysis |
metaphysis
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Once an endochondral bone has completed its ossification, the bone now has a ___________ where the old epiphyseal plate existed.
A) medullary cavity B) line of cartilage C) foramina D) epiphyseal line |
epiphyseal line
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Bones are
A) cartilage B) connective tissues C) organs D) All of the above. |
All of the above.
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In compact bone, the Haversian canals go the length of the bone. What are the connectors from one Haversian canal to another?
A) Volkmann's canals B) Haversian II canals C) semicircular canals D) blood canals |
Volkmann's canals
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Cancellous bone is often referred to as _____________ bone.
A) compact B) woven C) spongy D) modeled |
spongy
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Cancellous bone has spaces within that are deigned for the housing of
A) new osteocytes B) future osteocytes C) marrow and blood vessels D) undifferentiated cells for development of bone |
marrow and blood vessels
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An osteon (Haversian system) is actually
A) a Haversian canal and its lamellae B) a growth of new bone C) layers of bone in a fontanel D) a bone that has demineralized |
a Haversian canal and its lamellae
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Since bone is a connective tissue, it has all the necessary features of a connective tissue including a matrix. What makes up the matrix of a bone?
A) collagen, elastic fibers, and other proteins B) osteoblasts and osteoclasts C) collagen, proteins and hydroxyapatite D) sodium, calcium, phosphorus, elastic fibers and some adipose tissue |
collagen, proteins and hydroxyapatite
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If the collagen and minerals are removed from a bone, what happens to the bone?
A) it becomes stiff and brittle B) no noticeable differences occur with the bone C) it becomes soft and rubbery D) it breaks apart into thousands of small pieces |
it becomes soft and rubbery
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Which of the following types of bone develops out of a non-cartilage connective tissue scaffold?
A) intramembranous B) replacement C) endochondral D) perichondral |
intramembranous
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Bone cells that manufacture new bone are known as
A) osteoblasts B) osteoclasts C) osteomesoclasts D) chondrocytes |
osteoblasts
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The center of an osteon is known as a Haversian canal. What passes through the center of the canal?
A) water B) blood and nerves C) osteocytes D) chondrocytes |
blood and nerves
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The inorganic portion of a bone structure, made primarily of calcium phosphate crystals, is known as
A) collagen bone component B) appetite C) organic calcium D) hydroxyapatite |
hydroxyapatite
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Which of the following types of cells puts calcium and phosphorus into bone as well as manufactures bone?
A) osteoclasts B) osteoblasts C) osteons D) matrix cells |
osteoblasts
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Osteocytes must have the ability to receive nutrients from the blood and an ability to return wastes to the blood. Connectors between the osteocytes and the blood vessels are known as
A) Volkmann's canals B) central canals C) perforating canals D) canaliculi |
canaliculi
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Osteoclasts are active cells that tear down bone. They do this by secreting an enzyme that dissolves the collagen in the bone matrix. Which of the following is that enzyme?
A) hydroxyapatase B) acid phosphatase C) calcium acid D) epiphyseal reduction |
acid phosphatase
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In children and adolescents, what is the epiphyseal plate composed of?
A) bone B) hyaline cartilage C) collagen fibers D) elastic fiber, collagen fibers, and elastic cartilage |
hyaline cartilage
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Normal formation of bone is known as osteogenesis. Another term for bone formation is
A) osteoporosis B) ossification C) osteosarcoma D) osteocyte |
ossification
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Osteoprogenitor cells
A) assist in fracture healing by taking bone fragments away from the injury site B) make up the scaffolding of membranous bone C) are stem cells that become osteoblasts D) are osteocytes that do not live in bone |
are stem cells that become osteoblasts
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In the skull of a newborn baby, the space between the developing skull bones is known as a(n)
A) intramembranous canal B) fontanel C) central canal D) lacuna |
fontanel
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Endochondral ossification begins at what age?
A) during fetal development B) birth C) puberty D) adulthood |
during fetal development
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Endochondral ossification ends at what age?
A) birth B) puberty C) adulthood D) about age 50 |
adulthood
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The bone formed by endochondral ossification is called _____________ bone.
A) replacement B) cartilage C) membrane D) compact |
replacement
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Most of the peripheral skeleton of a 7-month-old fetus is primarily
A) adipose tissue B) cartilage tissue C) general fetal tissue D) undifferentiated bone tissue |
cartilage tissue
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The term "appositional growth" refers to bone growth that occurs
A) before birth B) in the epiphysis only C) on the surface of cartilage, bone or older bone D) inside of a lacuna |
on the surface of cartilage, bone or older bone
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The epiphyseal plate is the zone of
A) new growth for endochondral ossification B) growth in intramembranous bone C) growth in the skull bones only D) growth in the leg bones only |
new growth for endochondral ossification
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The epiphyseal plate is divided into 4 zones. The region where the bone grows longer is the zone of
A) resting cartilage B) proliferation C) hypotrophy D) calcification |
hypotrophy
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The epiphyseal plate is divided into 4 zones. The region where chondrocytes mature and enlarge is the zone of
A) resting cartilage B) proliferation C) hypertrophy D) calcification |
proliferation
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The epiphyseal plate is divided into 4 zones. The region where the cartilage matrix is mineralized with calcium carbonate is the zone of
A) resting cartilage B) proliferation C) hypertrophy D) calcification |
calcification
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Two of the primary hormones for bone growth and development are
A) bone growth hormone and epiphyseal growth hormone. B) human growth hormone and thyroid hormone. C) thyroid stimulating hormone and body growth hormone. D) pituitary hormone and bone growth hormone. |
human growth hormone and thyroid hormone.
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Intramembranous ossification results in the formation of bones that belong to which class of bones?
A) skull and ribs B) ribs, clavicles, and spine C) flat bones of the clavicle and skull D) spine, skull, ribs, and scapulas |
flat bones of the clavicle and skull
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Before the process of intramembranous ossification, which of the following type of tissue is found in the associated membranes of the skull and clavicles?
A) cartilage B) bone C) epithelium D) collagen fibers |
collagen fibers
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The process of intramembranous ossification begins when?
A) during embryonic development B) at birth C) in the teenage years D) around the time of full development |
during embryonic development
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The type of cells that brings about intramembranous ossification are
A) osteocyte B) osteoblasts C) osteoclasts D) osteon |
osteoblasts
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The development of the fontanel is brought about by
A) the unossified fibrous membranes in the skull B) membranous deossification C) endochondral ossification D) hypertrophy of osteocytes |
the unossified fibrous membranes in the skull
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Woven bone is formed during which of the following situations?
A) puberty B) fetal development and after fractures C) the first few months following birth D) periods of bone decalcification in old age |
fetal development and after fractures
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Lamellar bone is bone that
A) arises out of cartilage B) arises out of collagen and elastic fibers C) replaces worn out and fractured bone D) is mature and is organized into thin sheets or layers |
is mature and is organized into thin sheets or layers
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In regard to bone cell development, which of the following sequences is correct?
A) osteoblasts ? osteoclasts ? osteocyte B) osteogenic cells ? osteoclasts ? osteocytes C) osteogenic ? osteocyte ? osteoclast D) osteogenic ? osteoblasts ? osteocyte |
osteogenic ? osteoblasts ? osteocyte
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When a fracture begins to heal, one type of bone cell moves into the fracture site and tears down the damaged bone tissue. Which of the following tears down bone?
A) osteoclasts B) osteoblasts C) osteons D) matrix cells |
osteoclasts
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If a 12 year old were to fracture their epiphyseal plate, the result of the damage could be that the bone
A) grows abnormally brittle B) may stop growing at the plate C) may grow much thicker at the site of the injury D) has greatly increased potential for a sarcoma |
may stop growing at the plate
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Which of the following is the most accurate definition of "bone remodeling"?
A) bone that develops during fetal development and stays with us for life B) removal of old bone by osteoclasts and making of new bone by osteoblasts C) the construction of bone around blood vessels for a Haversian canal D) the laying out of new bone in a fracture site |
removal of old bone by osteoclasts and making of new bone by osteoblasts
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In the process of bone remodeling, old bone is removed by
A) osteocytes B) osteoblasts C) osteoclasts D) remodeling osteoprogenitor cells |
osteoclasts
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Following a bone fracture a callus builds around the fracture site. Callus is a
A) mass of tissue. B) mass of blood vessels. C) mass of old broken bone pieces. D) collection of blood vessels and collagen at the fracture site. |
collection of blood vessels and collagen at the fracture site.
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Which of the following fractures refers to a fracture of a bone in multiple pieces?
A) complete B) incomplete C) impacted D) comminuted |
comminuted
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Which of the following fractures is often referred to as being a "greenstick" fracture?
A) complete B) incomplete C) impacted D) comminuted |
incomplete
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Which of the following fractures goes all the way through a bone, but does not break it into multiple pieces?
A) complete B) incomplete C) impacted D) comminuted |
complete
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Which of the following fractures is a fracture of the distal radius and/or ulna?
A) Pott's B) Colle's C) Avulsion D) Pathologic |
Colle's
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Which of the following fractures is a fracture in a bone already weakened by disease?
A) Pott's B) Colle's C) Avulsion D) Pathologic |
Pathologic
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A spiral fracture of a bone most often is the result of a bone
A) weakened by disease B) that has been crushed C) that has been twisted D) that has been compressed |
that has been twisted
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An injury that occurs to vertebrae when they are flattened is known as a
A) spiral fracture B) pathologic fracture C) compression fracture D) linear fracture |
compression fracture
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The term "calcium homeostasis" refers to which of the following?
A) balance of calcium between the bone and the cartilage B) creation of calcium by bones C) balance of calcium between the blood and the bones D) movement of calcium to and from cartilage and bone |
balance of calcium between the blood and the bones
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Which of the following glands plays a major role in calcium homeostasis?
A) adrenal B) parathyroid C) ovaries and testes D) thymus |
parathyroid
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If blood calcium levels decrease, which of the following hormones is released to take calcium out of bones and put it into the blood?
A) calcitonin B) calcium hydroxyl hormone C) parathyroid hormone D) human growth hormone |
parathyroid hormone
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If blood calcium levels increase, which of the following hormones is released to take calcium from the blood and place in into the bones?
A) calcitonin B) pituitary hormone C) parathyroid hormone D) human growth hormone |
calcitonin
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Calcitrol is a(n)
A) bone growth hormone B) form of calcium stored in bones C) activated form of vitamin D. D) excretion of the thyroid and parathyroid glands. |
activated form of vitamin D.
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The general function of calcitriol in relation to bone cell activity is that it
A) inhibits the action of osteoblasts. B) increases osteoclast activity. C) destroys osteocytes. D) stops all bone growth activity. |
increases osteoclast activity.
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In old age, most of the yellow bone marrow is replaced by
A) gelatinous bone marrow B) solid compact bone C) cartilage D) red marrow |
gelatinous bone marrow
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Osteoporosis most often occurs in
A) older men of all races B) older white women C) older black women D) teenage males and females |
older white women
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Most of the calcium taken in with the diet that is not absorbed is
A) stored in the liver. B) excreted by the kidneys in the urine C) excreted in the feces D) recycled in the body |
excreted in the feces
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Which of the following represents a normal level of blood calcium in an adult?
A) 9-11mgs B) 15-18mgs C) 20-25 mgs D) 10-12 grams |
9-11mgs
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Insufficient vitamin D in a diet may result in a condition known as
A) rickets B) osteoporosis C) scurvy D) Paget's disease |
rickets
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Insufficient vitamin C in a diet may result in a condition known as
A) rickets B) osteoporosis C) scurvy D) Paget's disease |
scurvy
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A lack of vitamin D in the diet that may occur in adults with a digestive disorder is known as
A) sarcoma B) osteomalacia C) osteitis D) osteoprogenitor disorder |
osteomalacia
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Which of the following diseases of bones is a loss of bone mass and density?
A) osteoporosis B) osteitis deformans (Paget's) C) osteomyelitis D) osteosarcoma |
osteoporosis
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Which of the following diseases is a bacterial infection of bone?
A) osteoporosis B) osteitis deformans (Paget's) C) osteomyelitis D) osteosarcoma |
osteomyelitis
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Which of the following bone disorders is a deadly bone tumor?
A) osteoma B) osteosarcoma C) osteomyelitis D) osteitis |
osteosarcoma
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The most common bone disease is osteoporosis. The most common consequence of this disease is
A) fractures B) bone thickening C) luxations and subluxations D) fusion of bones |
fractures
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A developmental disorder in which the pituitary produces excess growth hormone and the patient grows abnormally large is known as
A) pituitary dwarfism B) achondroplastic dwarfism C) acromegaly D) osteogenesis imperfecta |
acromegaly
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Which of the following is a genetic disorder in which very brittle bones are produced that result in many fractures?
A) pituitary dwarfism B) achondroplastic dwarfism C) acromegaly D) osteogenesis imperfecta |
osteogenesis imperfecta
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Which of the following disorders is the result of low amounts of growth hormone production that results in a very small person?
A) pituitary dwarfism B) achondroplastic dwarfism C) acromegaly D) osteogenesis imperfecta |
pituitary dwarfism
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Bone tissue sometimes forms in the lungs, brain, eyes, muscles, tendon, and arteries. This type of extra bone growth is termed
A) ectopic B) mineralized C) hypercalcemic D) hypocalcemic |
ectopic
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Which of the following diseases of bones results in a thickening of the bones of the skull and pelvis, most often occurring in males?
A) osteoporosis B) Rickets' disease C) osteitis D) Paget's disease of bone |
Paget's disease of bone
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Which of the following combinations of treatments would be the most appropriate for treatment of osteoporosis?
A) running, hiking, and drinking 3 liters of water per day B) walking, adding calcium to the diet and, perhaps, taking estrogen-replacement therapy C) walking, taking phosphorus tablets, and drinking 3 liters or more of water a day D) running, taking mineral tablets each day, drinking more water, and taking testosterone therapy. |
walking, adding calcium to the diet and, perhaps, taking estrogen-replacement therapy
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The average adult skeleton consists of ____ bones, however this number ____ with age.
A) 206, increases B) 206, decreases C) 260, increases D) 260, decreases |
206, decreases
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Which of the following bone markings refers to a small, flat articular surface on a bone?
A) condyle B) facet C) head D) process |
facet
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Which of the following bone features is a smooth, rounded knob on a bone?
A) condyle B) facet C) crest D) process |
condyle
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Which of the following bone extensions is massive and located on the femur?
A) trochanter B) epicondyle C) tubercle D) tuberosity |
trochanter
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What is the primary purpose of a bone process or projection?
A) add mass to the bone B) connect one bone to another C) points of attachment for ligaments or tendons D) create a stress point on a bone |
points of attachment for ligaments or tendons
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Of the following depressions in bone, which one is a socket like that for teeth?
A) alveolus B) fossa C) fovea D) sulcus |
fossa
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Of the following holes in a bone, which one is a small pit located on the head of the femur?
A) alveolus B) fossa C) fovea D) sulcus |
fovea
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Of the following passages or openings in bones, which one is a tunnel like that of the inner ear?
A) foramen B) meatus C) fissure D) sulcus |
meatus
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Of the following passages or openings in bones, which one is a hole that allows for the passage of blood vessels and/or nerves?
A) foramen B) meatus C) fissure D) sinus |
foramen
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Which of the following is a mucous membrane-lined air space within a bone?
A) meatus B) sinus C) facet D) foramen |
sinus
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Which portion of the skeleton is the axial skeleton?
A) skull, vertebral column, hyoid bone and rib cage B) arms, legs, and pelvic girdle C) skull and pectoral girdle D) sternum, rib cage, vertebral column, and pelvic girdle |
skull, vertebral column, hyoid bone and rib cage
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Which bone(s) of the skull would be considered to be the most superior?
A) occipital B) temporal C) maxillary D) parietal |
parietal
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A) temporal and parietal
B) occipital and parietal C) frontal and parietal D) right and left parietal |
temporal and parietal
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Which of the following bones are joined by the lambdoidal suture?
A) temporal and parietal B) occipital and parietal C) frontal and parietal D) right and left parietal |
occipital and parietal
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Which of the following bones are joined by the coronal suture?
A) temporal and parietal B) occipital and parietal C) frontal and parietal D) right and left parietal |
frontal and parietal
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Which of the following bones are joined by the saggital suture?
A) temporal and parietal B) occipital and parietal C) frontal and parietal D) right and left parietal |
right and left parietal
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Of the bones of the head and neck, which one provides an attachment for the tongue and some neck muscles and does NOT directly articulate with another bone?
A) vomer B) malleus C) hyoid D) stapes |
hyoid
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Which of the following bones does the supraorbital foramen pass through?
A) frontal B) parietal C) occipital D) temporal |
frontal
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The most superior portion of the ethmoid bones rise up into the cranium through which bone?
A) frontal B) parietal C) occipital D) temporal |
frontal
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The perpendicular plate is part of which bone?
A) sphenoid B) ethmoid C) temporal D) occipital |
ethmoid
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The sella turcica is part of which bone?
A) sphenoid B) ethmoid C) temporal D) occipital |
sphenoid
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The mastoid process is part of which bone?
A) sphenoid B) ethmoid C) temporal D) occipital |
temporal
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What anatomical structure lies within the sella turcica?
A) pituitary gland B) pineal gland C) nerves of the eye D) hypothalamus |
pituitary gland
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The crista galli is part of which bone?
A) sphenoid B) ethmoid C) temporal D) occipital |
ethmoid
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The external auditory meatus passes through which bone?
A) sphenoid B) ethmoid C) temporal D) occipital |
temporal
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The crista galli, perpendicular plate, and nasal concha are all part of which bone?
A) sphenoid B) ethmoid C) temporal D) occipital |
ethmoid
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Which of the following bones has greater and lesser wings?
A) sphenoid B) ethmoid C) temporal D) occipital |
sphenoid
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Which of the following bones has condyles that articulate with the vertebral column?
A) occipital B) temporal C) mandible D) hyoid |
occipital
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Which bone(s) have/has the following foramina: ovale, rotundum, and spinosum?
A) sphenoid B) ethmoid C) temporal D) occipital |
sphenoid
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The jugular foramen lies between two bones. Which of the following pairs is correct?
A) sphenoid and temporal B) temporal and occipital C) sphenoid and ethmoid D) ethmoid and occipital |
temporal and occipital
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The foramen lacerum lies between two bones. Which of the following pairs is correct?
A) sphenoid and temporal B) temporal and occipital C) sphenoid and ethmoid D) ethmoid and occipital |
sphenoid and temporal
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Which of the following bones has the hypoglossal canal?
A) frontal B) occipital C) temporal D) maxillary |
occipital
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Which of the following bones has a cribiform plate?
A) ethmoid B) occipital C) temporal D) maxillary |
ethmoid
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What bone lies as a connecting bridge between the maxilla and the temporal bone?
A) ethmoid B) lacrimal C) zygomatic D) frontal |
zygomatic
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Of the following bones which one does NOT lie in the orbit?
A) parietal B) frontal C) maxilla D) sphenoid |
parietal
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Which bone lies directly inferior to the perpendicular plate?
A) vomer B) lacrimal C) sphenoid D) ethmoid |
vomer
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Which of the following bones of the orbit houses a foramen for a tear duct?
A) maxilla B) lacrimal C) ethmoid D) sphenoid |
lacrimal
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The mandible articulates, via a highly moveable joint, with which of the following bones?
A) temporal B) sphenoid C) maxilla D) parietal |
temporal
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Which of the following pairs of foramina are in the mandible?
A) lacerum and ovale B) spinosum and rotundum C) mental and mandibular D) mandibular and lacerum. |
mental and mandibular
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The thickened bony ridge that houses the middle and inner ear is known as the
A) acoustic meatal canal B) oral fissure C) petrous portion D) occipital protuberance |
petrous portion
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The thickened bony ridge that houses the middle and inner ear is part of which of the following bones?
A) sphenoid B) temporal C) ethmoid D) occipital |
temporal
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The optic foramen passes through which of the following bones?
A) sphenoid B) temporal C) ethmoid D) frontal |
sphenoid
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Which of the following pairs of bones form the roof of the mouth?
A) maxilla and mandible B) zygomatic and vomer C) palatine and maxilla D) lacrimal and zygomatic |
palatine and maxilla
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Which of the following sets is the correct listing of paranasal sinuses?
A) ethmoid, sphenoid, frontal, and maxillary B) maxillary, frontal, temporal, and zygomatic C) zygomatic, ethmoid, temporal, and sphenoid D) frontal, parietal, maxillary, and mandibular |
ethmoid, sphenoid, frontal, and maxillary
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Which of the following bones houses the foramen magnum?
A) ethmoid B) sphenoid C) temporal D) occipital |
occipital
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The superior most portion of the ethmoid bone rises up through which of the following bones?
A) sphenoid B) frontal C) temporal D) palatine |
frontal
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The middle and superior nasal conchae are projections of which bone?
A) ethmoid B) vomer C) sphenoid D) maxilla |
ethmoid
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The inferior most portion of the sphenoid bone is the
A) perpendicular plate B) condyles C) pterygoid processes D) dorsum sellae |
pterygoid processes
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Which of the following bones has wings?
A) ethmoid B) sphenoid C) temporal D) occipital |
sphenoid
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The nasal septum is made up of which of the following pairs of bones?
A) maxilla and lacrimal B) ethmoid and vomer C) vomer and maxilla D) sphenoid and ethmoid |
vomer and maxilla
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The ramus and the angle are parts of which of the following bones?
A) mandible B) sphenoid C) temporal D) occipital |
mandible
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Which of the following groups correctly lists the auditory ossicles?
A) anvil, stapes, and hyoid B) stapes, malleus, and incus C) hyoid, hammer, and stirrup D) lacrimal, auditory, and vestibular |
stapes, malleus, and incus
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Which two bones of the skull contribute to both the neurocranium and the viscerocranium?
A) sphenoid and vomer B) frontal and vomer C) ethmoid and sphenoid D) ethmoid and frontal |
ethmoid and frontal
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Nuchal lines and the mastoid process both provide points of attachment for muscles of
A) facial expression B) mastication C) the neck D) the throat |
the neck
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Temporal lines and the coronoid process provide points of attachment for muscles of
A) facial expression B) mastication C) the neck D) the throat |
mastication
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What is the only bone of the skull that is freely movable relative to the rest of the skull bones?
A) ethmoid B) mandible C) maxilla D) palatine |
mandible
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How many cervical vertebrae are there?
A) 5 B) 7 C) 12 D) 15 |
7
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How many thoracic vertebrae are there?
A) 5 B) 7 C) 12 D) 15 |
12
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How many lumbar vertebrae are there?
A) 5 B) 7 C) 12 D) 15 |
12
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The first cervical vertebrae is known as the
A) atlas B) axis C) lamina D) pedicle |
atlas
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The second cervical vertebrae is known as the
A) atlas B) axis C) lamina D) pedicle |
axis
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The opening in the middle of a vertebra for the spinal cord is known as the
A) intervertebral foramen B) vertebral meatus C) vertebral foramen D) spinous process |
vertebral foramen
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Two of the bony ridges that surround the spinal cord are the
A) pedicle and lamina B) nucleus pulposus and annularis C) neural arch and spinous process D) transverse process and articular facet |
pedicle and lamina
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Which vertebra is immediately inferior to C-7?
A) C-8. B) C-6 C) T-1 D) L-1 |
T-1
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Which vertebra is immediately inferior to T-12?
A) C-7. B) T-11 C) T-13 D) L-1 |
L-1
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How many pairs of vertebrosternal ribs are there?
A) 12 B) 7 C) 5 D) 3 |
7
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The sacrum is composed of how many fused bones?
A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 12 |
5
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The most inferior portion of the sternum is the
A) manubrium B) body C) xiphoid process D) clavicular surface |
xiphoid process
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The most superior portion of the sternum is the
A) manubrium B) body C) xiphoid process D) clavicular surface |
manubrium
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How many pairs of vertebral ribs are there?
A) 12 B) 5 C) 3 D) 2 |
2
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How many pairs of vertebrochondral ribs are there?
A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 12 |
3
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The openings between vertebrae that allow for the spinal nerves to enter and exit are known as
A) intervertebral foramen B) vertebral meatus C) vertebral foramen D) spinous process |
intervertebral foramen
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Which of the following are the cartilages that attach the ribs to the sternum?
A) elastic cartilages B) costal cartilages C) thoracic cartilages D) fibrous cartilages |
costal cartilages
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The spinous processes of the first four sacral vertebrae partially fuse to form which structure?
A) medial sacral crest B) sacral foramina C) sacral hiatus D) sacral promontory |
medial sacral crest
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The superior articular process of T-1 articulates with which process?
A) superior articular process of C-7 B) inferior articular process of C-7 C) inferior articular process of C-8 D) inferior articular process of T-2 |
inferior articular process of C-7
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Which two parts of a rib articulate with the vertebrae?
A) head and tubercle B) head and body C) body and tubercle D) body and angle |
head and tubercle
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A distinctive feature of the first cervical vertebrae is that it
A) does not have a spinous process B) does not have a body C) has a dens D) does not have a vertebral foramen |
does not have a body
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A distinctive feature of the second cervical vertebrae is that it
A) does not have a spinous process B) does not have a body C) has a dens D) does not have a vertebral foramen |
has a dens
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A distinctive feature of all cervical vertebrae is that they
A) do not have a spinous process B) are all lacking a body C) all have facets for ribs D) all have transverse foramina |
all have transverse foramina
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A distinctive feature of all thoracic vertebrae is that they
A) do not have a spinous process B) are all lacking a body C) all have facets for ribs D) all have transverse foramina |
all have facets for ribs
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What is the most posterior portion of a vertebra?
A) transverse processes B) body C) lamina D) spinous processes |
spinous processes
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Which of the following serve as points of articulation between adjacent vertebrae?
A) lamina B) articular facets C) pedicles D) spinous processes |
articular facets
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What attaches to spinous processes and transverse processes?
A) spinal nerves B) muscles C) spinal cord D) other vertebrae |
muscles
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What passes through the foramen magnum?
A) all of the cranial nerves B) the spinal cord C) the spinal nerves D) all of the above pass through |
the spinal cord
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An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is known as
A) lordosis B) kyphosis C) scoliosis D) laminosis |
scoliosis
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An abnormal curvature of the lumbar spine that results in an exaggeration of the convex curve of the lumbar region is known as
A) lordosis B) kyphosis C) scoliosis D) laminosis |
lordosis
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Which of the following is a surgical removal of the posterior arch of a vertebra?
A) epiphysiolysis B) ostealgia C) laminectomy D) osteogenesis |
laminectomy
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What type of vertebrae does this figure represent?
A) cervical vertebrae B) thoracic vertebrae C) lumbar vertebrae D) sacral vertebrae |
thoracic vertebrae
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What type of vertebrae does this figure represent?
A) cervical vertebrae B) thoracic vertebrae C) lumbar vertebrae D) sacral vertebrae |
cervical vertebrae
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Coronoid processes are found on which pair of bones?
A) temporal and humerus B) mandible and ulna C) sphenoid and clavicle D) scapula and mandible |
mandible and ulna
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Which of the following bone extensions is a rough surface found on the tibia?
A) trochanter B) epicondyle C) tubercle D) tuberosity |
tubercle
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The pectoral girdle is composed of which of the following sets of bones?
A) pelvis and femur B) scapula and humerus C) scapula and clavicle D) humerus, radius and ulna |
scapula and clavicle
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The sternoclavicular joint is between which of the following pairs of bones?
A) sternum and clavicle B) clavicle and scapula C) scapula and humerus D) clavicle and humerus |
sternum and clavicle
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The head of the humerus articulates with the
A) coracoid process B) glenoid cavity C) infraspinous fossa D) supraspinous fossa |
glenoid cavity
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The glenohumeral joint is between, which of the following pairs of bones
A) sternum and clavicle B) clavicle and scapula C) scapula and humerus D) clavicle and humerus |
scapula and humerus
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The two bones most inferior to the humerus are the
A) clavicle and scapula B) upper two ribs C) tibia and fibula D) radius and ulna |
radius and ulna
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Medially the clavicle articulates with the
A) humerus B) sternum C) ribs D) radius |
sternum
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Laterally the clavicle articulates with the
A) humerus B) sternum C) scapula D) radius |
scapula
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The two processes on the superior - lateral portion of the scapula are the
A) glenoid and coronoid B) coronoid and coracoid C) coracoid and acromion D) capitulum and trochlea |
coracoid and acromion
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Which of the following bones is immediately proximal to the radius?
A) ulna B) humerus C) scapula D) clavicle |
humerus
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How many carpal bones are there in one hand?
A) 4 B) 6 C) 8 D) 10 |
8
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How many phalanges are there in one hand?
A) 10 B) 12 C) 14 D) 20 |
14
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How many phalanges does one thumb have?
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 |
2
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The carpal bones are arranged in which of the following patterns?
A) two rows of 4 B) four rows of 2 C) three rows of 4 D) four rows of 4 |
two rows of 4
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The end of the first finger (the one used for pointing) has a phalanx in it identified as which of the following?
A) first proximal phalanx B) second proximal phalanx C) first distal phalanx D) second distal phalanx |
second distal phalanx
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On the "pinky", the last digit is referred to as the
A) 5th distal phalanx B) 5th middle phalanx C) 4th proximal phalanx D) 4th middle phalanx |
5th distal phalanx
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Styloid processes are found on which bones?
A) ethmoid and sphenoid B) sphenoid, humerus, and femur C) ethmoid, temporal, tibia, and fibula D) temporal, radius, and ulna |
temporal, radius, and ulna
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What is the structure commonly referred to as the elbow?
A) capitulum of the humerus B) coronoid process of the ulna C) olecranon process of the humerus D) trochlea of the ulna |
olecranon process of the humerus
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Which of the following bones is NOT found in the proximal row of carpals?
A) scaphoid B) hamate C) lunate D) triquetrum |
hamate
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Which of the following bones is NOT found in the distal row of carpals?
A) hamate B) capitate C) trapezoid D) pisiform |
capitate
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The first groove beneath the head of the humerus is the
A) radial notch B) anatomical head C) surgical neck D) deltoid tuberosity |
anatomical head
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Of the following bony parts, which one has the deltoid muscle attachment?
A) radial notch B) anatomical head C) surgical neck D) deltoid tuberosity |
deltoid tuberosity
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Where is the olecranon fossa located?
A) posterior and distal portion of the humerus B) anterior and proximal portion of the humerus C) posterior and distal portion of the ulna D) anterior and proximal portion of the radius |
posterior and distal portion of the humerus
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The structure that articulates with the olecranon fossa is the olecranon process of the
A) radius B) ulna C) humerus D) scapula |
ulna
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The structure that articulates with the coronoid fossa of the humerus is the coronoid process of the
A) ulna B) radius C) scapula D) clavicle |
ulna
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When resting our elbows upon the table, the bony projection on the back of our arms, that rests on the table, is the
A) olecranon process B) olecranon fossa C) coronoid process D) coronoid fossa |
olecranon process
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The distal most bony projections of the radius and the ulna are the __________ processes.
A) coronoid B) olecranon C) glenoid D) styloid |
styloid
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The ulna rotates on the humerus on which of the following anatomical parts?
A) capitulum B) glenoid C) trochlea D) styloid |
trochlea
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The head of the radius rotates on the humerus on which of the following anatomical parts?
A) capitulum B) glenoid cavity C) trochlea D) styloid process |
capitulum
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An accessory bone often found in the palm of the hand, is known as a(n) _______ bone.
A) accessory B) sesamoid C) articulate D) wormian |
sesamoid
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The term "phalanges" is the plural of which of the following?
A) phalange B) phalangie C) phalanx D) phalanxia |
phalanx
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The structure that articulates with the glenoid cavity is the head of the
A) humerus B) radius C) femur D) fibula |
humerus
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Which of the following rotates on the capitulum?
A) radius B) ulna C) humerus D) scapula |
radius
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The joint between a coxal bone and the sacrum is known as the
A) coxal joint B) sacroiliac joint C) iliac and ischium joint D) pubic symphysis |
sacroiliac joint
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The joint between the pubic bones is known as the
A) coxal joint B) sacroiliac joint C) iliac and ischium joint D) symphysis pubic |
symphysis pubic
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Which of the following is a large sesamoid bone in the leg?
A) femur B) patella C) tibia D) fibula |
patella
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The fibula in relation to the tibia is
A) superior to the tibia B) medial to the tibia C) inferior to the tibia D) lateral to the tibia |
lateral to the tibia
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The upper (superior) most portion of the ilium, where we rest our hands on hips, is the
A) iliac crest B) ischial cres C) iliac fossa D) anterior superior iliac spine |
iliac crest
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The visible anterior protrusions of the ilium are which of the following?
A) iliac crest B) ischial cres C) iliac fossa D) anterior superior iliac spine |
anterior superior iliac spine
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The head of the femur articulates in which of the following?
A) acetabulum B) obturator C) linea aspera D) fovea centralis |
acetabulum
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Which of the following is the large opening in the bones between the ilium and ischium?
A) acetabulum B) obturator C) linea aspera D) fovea centralis |
obturator
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In general, the female pelvis differs from the male pelvis by which of the following?
A) Females have a broader and more shallow pelvic outlet. B) Females have a broader and taller pelvic outlet. C) Females have a narrower and more shallow pelvic outlet. D) Females have a narrower and taller pelvic outlet. |
Females have a broader and more shallow pelvic outlet.
|
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The tarsal region of the body is which of the following?
A) pelvic basin B) region of the lower leg C) hip to the ankle D) ankle to the foot |
ankle to the foot
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Which of the following is a long line down the posterior side of the femur for attachment of muscles?
A) greater trochanter B) obturator C) linea aspera D) fovea centralis |
linea aspera
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Which of the following is a large bony ridge along the side of the femur?
A) greater trochanter B) obturator C) lesser trochanter D) fovea centralis |
greater trochanter
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The most superior portion of the tibia is the
A) lateral condyle B) patella C) malleolus D) intercondylar eminence |
intercondylar eminence
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Which of the following is the large bump on the medial side of the ankle?
A) intercondylar eminence B) head of the fibula C) malleolus of the fibula D) malleolus of the tibia |
malleolus of the tibia
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The distal most portion of the tibia lies on which of the following bones?
A) talus B) calcaneus C) cuboid D) navicular |
talus
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Of the following tarsal bones, which one is the most posterior?
A) talus B) calcaneus C) cuboid D) navicular |
calcaneus
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Of the following tarsal bones, which one is the most distal and lateral?
A) talus B) calcaneus C) cuboid D) navicular |
cuboid
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There are three tarsal bones of the same name. Which of the following are the three?
A) cuboids B) naviculars C) metatarsals D) cuneiforms |
cuneiforms
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What bones are frequently beneath the distal end of the first metatarsal?
A) sesamoid B) wormian C) accessory D) phalanges |
sesamoid
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How many tarsal bones are there in one foot?
A) 4 B) 6 C) 7 D) 10 |
7
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How many phalanges are there in one foot?
A) 10 B) 12 C) 14 D) 20 |
14
|
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How many phalanges does one big toe have?
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 |
2
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How many total phalanges are there in the human body?
A) 14 B) 26 C) 28 D) 56 |
56
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The last digit of the little toe is known as the
A) 5th proximal phalanx B) 5th distal phalanx C) 4th proximal phalanx D) 4th middle phalanx |
5th distal phalanx
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Of the following anatomical parts, the head of the _________articulates in the acetabulum?
A) humerus B) radius C) femur D) fibula |
femur
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Which structure(s) of the femur articulate(s) with the tibia?
A) lateral and medial condyles B) lateral and medial epicondyles C) greater trochanter D) lesser trochanter |
lateral and medial condyles
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Which of the following projections of the femur does NOT provide for muscular attachment?
A) greater trochanter B) lesser trochanter C) medial condyle D) lateral epicondyle |
medial condyle
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Which of the following does NOT articulate with the femur?
A) fibula B) coxal bone C) patella D) tibia |
fibula
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Which of the following is the correct term for a freely moveable joint?
A) diarthrosis B) amphiarthrosis C) synarthrosis D) arthrosis |
diarthrosis
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Which of the following is a joint that has little or no movement?
A) diarthrosis B) amphiarthrosis C) synarthrosis D) arthrosis |
synarthrosis
|
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Which of the following is a joint that is slightly moveable?
A) diarthrosis B) amphiarthrosis C) synarthrosis D) arthrosis |
amphiarthrosis
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In a structural classification of joints, which of the following is a joint that has a cavity filled with fluid enclosed in a capsule?
A) fibrous B) cartilaginous C) hinged D) synovial |
synovial
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Which of the following joints is held together with collagenous fibers?
A) fibrous B) cartilaginous C) hinged D) synovial |
fibrous
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Which of the following joints is held together with cartilage?
A) fibrous B) cartilaginous C) hinged D) synovial |
cartilaginous
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The sutures of the skull and the teeth in their sockets are examples of which of the following?
A) diarthrosis B) amphiarthrosis C) synarthrosis D) arthrosis |
synarthrosis
|
|
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Intervertebral discs, the pubic symphysis, and the tibio-fibular joints are examples of which of the following types of joints?
A) diarthrosis B) amphiarthrosis C) synarthrosis D) arthrosis |
amphiarthrosis
|
|
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The shoulder, elbow, and knee are examples of which of the following types of joints?
A) diarthrosis B) amphiarthrosis C) synarthrosis D) arthrosis |
diarthrosis
|
|
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Of the following fibrous joints, which one forms the joints between the skull bones?
A) gomphoses B) syndesmoses C) synosthoses D) sutures |
sutures
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Which of the following fibrous joints attaches the teeth into their sockets?
A) gomphoses B) syndesmoses C) synosthoses D) sutures |
gomphoses
|
|
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Which of the following types of joints holds two bones tightly together with a ligament?
A) gomphoses B) syndesmoses C) synostoses D) sutures |
syndesmoses
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|
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Which of the following types of fibrous joints is the joint between the radius and ulna and also between the tibia and fibula?
A) gomphoses B) syndesmoses C) synosthoses D) sutures |
syndesmoses
|
|
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Of the following types of cartilaginous joints, which one is a joint of hyaline cartilage found in the epiphyseal joints?
A) syntoses B) symphysis C) squamosal D) synchondrosis |
synchondrosis
|
|
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Of the following types of cartilaginous joints, which one is found between the pubic bones?
A) synthoses B) symphysis C) squamosal D) synchondrosis |
symphysis
|
|
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Sometimes a joint has become fused and now is one bone. Which of the following is the correct term for this type of bone?
A) synostosis B) synchondrosis C) syndesmosis D) serrate suture |
synostosis
|
|
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Another term for ellipsoidal joints is _________ joints.
A) pivot B) hinge C) ball-and-socket D) saddle |
ball-and-socket
|
|
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Which of the following is a fluid-filled sac found in a synovial joint?
A) meniscus B) bursa C) sheath D) synovial membrane |
bursa
|
|
|
Which of the following is a cartilage pad found in some synovial joints?
A) articular disks B) epiphyseal plate C) synovium D) sheath. |
articular disks
|
|
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Synovial joints may be classified according to the plane of movement. Which of the following represents a movement that is in two planes?
A) monaxial B) biaxial C) triaxial D) multiaxial |
biaxial
|
|
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Which of the following types of synovial joints is the most freely moveable?
A) ball and socket B) hinge C) saddle D) gliding |
ball and socket
|
|
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Which of the following types of synovial joints is found between the metacarpal bones and the carpal bones?
A) condyloid B) hinge C) saddle D) gliding |
condyloid
|
|
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In which of the following types of synovial joints does one bone have a projection that fits into a ring-like ligament on the other, enabling one bone to revolve on the other?
A) pivot B) hinge C) saddle D) gliding |
pivot
|
|
|
Which of the following synovial joints is the trapeziometacarpal joint at the base of the thumb?
A) condyloid B) hinge C) saddle D) gliding |
saddle
|
|
|
Which of the following types of synovial joints is monaxial, in which one bone has a projection that fits into a ring like ligament on the other so that one bone revolves on the other?
A) pivot B) hinge C) saddle D) gliding |
pivot
|
|
|
Of the following types of diarthrotic movements, which one is a simple moving of the lower arm up and down?
A) flexion and extension B) hyperextension C) abduction D) adduction |
flexion and extension
|
|
|
Of the following types of diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement away from the midsagital line (as in standing spread legged)?
A) flexion and extension B) hyperextension C) abduction D) adduction |
abduction
|
|
|
Of the following types of diarthrotic movements, which one is the movement of spreading the fingers?
A) flexion and extension B) hyperextension C) abduction D) adduction |
abduction
|
|
|
Of the following diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement of a bone anteriorly in a gliding motion?
A) elevation B) protraction C) retraction D) circumduction |
protraction
|
|
|
Of the following diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement in which one limb makes circular movements?
A) elevation and depression B) protraction and retraction C) lateral and medial excursion D) circumduction |
circumduction
|
|
|
Of the following diarthrotic movements, which one occurs when one grinds the teeth?
A) elevation and depression B) protraction and retraction C) lateral and medial excursion D) circumduction |
lateral and medial excursion
|
|
|
Of the following diarthrotic movements, which ones are movements of the thumb against the fingers and then away from the fingers?
A) supination and pronation B) protraction and retraction C) lateral and medial excursion D) opposition and reposition |
opposition and reposition
|
|
|
Of the following diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement of rotating the palm up and down?
A) supination and pronation B) protraction and retraction C) lateral and medial excursion D) opposition and reposition |
supination and pronation
|
|
|
Of the following diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement of a bone anteriorly on a horizontal plane and then pulling it back (as in sticking out one's jaw)?
A) supination and pronation B) protraction and retraction C) lateral and medial excursion D) opposition and reposition |
protraction and retraction
|
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Of the following diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement of tilting the soles of the feet inward and then outward?
A) dorsiflexion and plantar flexion B) protraction and retraction C) inversion and eversion D) opposition and reposition |
inversion and eversion
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Of the following diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement of raising and lowering the toes?
A) dorsiflexion and plantar flexion B) protraction and retraction C) inversion and eversion D) opposition and reposition |
dorsiflexion and plantar flexion
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Which one of the following diarthrotic movements moves a bone superiorly?
A) elevation B) retraction C) depression D) retraction |
elevation
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Which of the following diarthrotic movements is shrugging the shoulders?
A) elevation B) retraction C) depression D) retraction |
elevation
|
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Which of the following diarthrotic movements is the pitcher's arm in a baseball game?
A) circumduction B) retraction C) adduction D) retraction |
circumduction
|
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Which of the following movements occurs in ballet, when dancers point their toes?
A) opposition B) pronation C) plantar flexion D) excursion |
plantar flexion
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Which of the following movements occurs when turning a doorknob clockwise or driving a screw into a piece of wood?
A) opposition B) pronation C) supination D) excursion |
supination
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Where is the talocrural joint?
A) knee B) shoulder C) ankle D) elbow |
ankle
|
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The rotator cuff is located in which of the following joints?
A) shoulder B) wrist C) elbow D) hip |
shoulder
|
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The collateral and cruciate ligaments are found in which of the following joints?
A) shoulder B) knee C) elbow D) hip |
knee
|
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The ulnar collateral ligament and the radial collateral ligament are found in which of the following joints?
A) shoulder B) knee C) elbow D) hip |
elbow
|
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The iliofemoral ligament is found in which joint?
A) shoulder B) knee C) elbow D) hip |
hip
|
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Which of the following is a torn ligament or tendon?
A) strain B) sprain C) synovitis D) bursitis |
sprain
|
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The classic ACL injury that occurs in sports involves which joint?
A) knee B) shoulder C) hip D) elbow |
knee
|
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|
The figure below illustrates what joint?
A) elbow joint B) hip joint C) shoulder joint D) knee joint |
knee joint
|
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The figure below represents which joint?
A) elbow joint B) hip joint C) shoulder joint D) knee joint |
shoulder joint
|
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Which of the following conditions is a hereditary disease in which uric acid crystals build up in the joint space and cause pain?
A) gout B) osteoarthritis C) rheumatism D) rheumatoid arthritis |
gout
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Which of the following conditions is the most common form of arthritis referred to as "wear-and-tear" arthritis?
A) gout B) osteoarthritis C) rheumatism D) rheumatoid arthritis |
osteoarthritis
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Which of the following conditions is a severe form of arthritis that is an autoimmune attack against the joint tissue?
A) gout B) osteoarthritis C) rheumatism D) rheumatoid arthritis |
rheumatoid arthritis
|
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Which of the following is an inflammation of the bursa within a synovial capsule?
A) tendonitis B) bursitis C) rheumatism D) synovitis |
bursitis
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Severely damaged joints can be replaced with artificial joints. The correct term for this procedure is which of the following?
A) prosthesis B) ankylosis C) arthroplasty D) crepitus |
arthroplasty
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Which of the following is a bacterial disease spread by the bite of a tick that can affect joints?
A) rheumatoid arthritis B) lyme disease C) syphilis D) pseudogout |
lyme disease
|
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The term "suppurative arthritis" refers to arthritis
A) accompanied by a dislocation B) that fuses joints C) that has large lesions D) that results from infectious agents |
that results from infectious agents
|
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Which of the following is an example of "suppurative arthritis"?
A) rheumatoid arthritis B) tuberculosis arthritis C) osteoarthritis D) pseudogout |
tuberculosis arthritis
|
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In people that wear pointed shoes, the great toe can be deformed and displaced laterally. This condition is known as
A) a bunion B) hallux valgus C) subluxation D) arthroplasty |
hallux valgus
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The tissue surrounding an entire muscle is known as
A) epimysium. B) perimysium. C) endomysium. D) superficial mysium. |
epimysium
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The tissue that surrounds a muscle cell (myofiber) is known as
A) epimysium B) perimysium C) endomysium D) superficial mysium |
endomysium
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Muscle fibers are bundled into groups known as
A) myotendrils B) endomysium C) myosin D) fascicles |
fascicles
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Bundles of muscle fibers (fascicles) are wrapped by a tissue known as
A) epimysium B) perimysium C) endomysium D) superficial mysium |
perimysium
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A connective tissue on the surface of muscles (that extends onto the tendon and bone) is known as
A) fascia B) perimysium C) endomysium D) connective to muscle tissue |
fascia
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One of the characteristics of muscle tissue is that is has conductivity. Which of the following best describes this characteristic?
A) Muscles contract when stimulated. B) Muscles have local electrical charges that are capable of moving along the muscle fiber. C) Muscles only pull; they cannot push. D) Muscles can stretch when needed. |
Muscles have local electrical charges that are capable of moving along the muscle fiber.
|
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One of the characteristics of muscle tissue is that is has extensibility. Which of the following best describes this characteristic?
A) Muscles contract when stimulated. B) Muscles have local electrical charges that move along the muscle fiber. C) Muscles only pull; they cannot push. D) Muscles can stretch when needed. |
Muscles can stretch when needed.
|
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One of the characteristics of muscle tissue is that is has excitability. Which of the following best describes this characteristic?
A) Muscles contract when stimulated. B) Muscles have local electrical charges that move along the muscle fiber. C) Muscles only pull; they cannot push. D) Muscles can stretch when needed. |
Muscles contract when stimulated.
|
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Which of the following groups are considered to be parts of the series-elastic components of muscle?
A) actin and myosin B) ligaments and tendons C) thick and thin filaments D) endomysium, perimysium, epimysium, fascia, and tendons |
endomysium, perimysium, epimysium, fascia, and tendons
|
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Which of the following best describes the function of the series-elastic component of muscle?
A) These components help the muscle contract. B) The components help maintain muscle tone. C) These are not excitable or contractile, but are extensible and elastic. D) These assist the thick and thin filaments to contract. |
These are not excitable or contractile, but are extensible and elastic
|
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What part of a muscle is the muscle fiber?
A) actin and myosin component B) series-elastic component C) muscle cell itself D) nuclei and the mitochondria |
muscle cell itself
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The outer membrane of the muscle fiber is known as the
A) cell surface membrane. B) sarcolemma. C) sarcoplasm. D) sarcoplasmic reticulum. |
sarcolemma
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The cytoplasm within the muscle fiber is known as the
A) myoglobin component. B) sarcolemma. C) sarcoplasm. D) sarcoplasmic reticulum. |
sarcoplasm.
|
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The cytoplasm within the muscle fiber contains a molecule to distribute oxygen within the cell. This molecule is known as
A) myoglobin B) sarcolemma C) hemoglobin. D) sarcoplasmic reticulum |
myoglobin
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The molecule within the cytoplasm of a muscle fiber that supplies quick energy for contraction is
A) fructose. B) glycogen. C) sucrose. D) ADP. |
glycogen.
|
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The myofilaments within the muscle fiber are composed of three integral items. Which of the following lists the components correctly?
A) myosin, actin, and elastic (titin) filament. B) thick, thin, and straight filaments C) A, H, and B filaments D) sarcoplasm and sarcolemma components |
myosin, actin, and elastic (titin) filament.
|
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Thick filaments within the myofibril are composed of
A) actin B) myosin C) titin D) sarconin |
myosin
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Thin filaments within the myofibril are composed primarily of
A) actin B) myosin C) titin D) sarconin |
actin
|
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The elastic filaments within a myofibril are composed of molecules known as
A) tropomyosin. B) titin. C) troponin. D) ADP |
titin.
|
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The elastic filaments within a myofibril are attached to and wound around, which of the following?
A) myosin B) troponin C) actin D) sarcolemma |
myosin
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In the myofibril, ATP is used for which of the following?
A) muscle tone B) muscle contraction C) muscle relaxation D) All of the above. |
All of the above.
|
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Which of the following tissues has the greatest ability to repair itself?
A) skeletal muscle B) cardiac muscle C) smooth muscle D) all have about the same ability |
all have about the same ability
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Of the following muscles types, which one has long, cylindrical-shaped cells?
A) skeletal muscle B) cardiac muscle C) smooth muscle D) all are about the same |
skeletal muscle
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Of the following muscle types, which one has only one nucleus?
A) skeletal muscle B) cardiac muscle C) smooth muscle D) All of the above. |
smooth muscle
|
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Of the following muscle types, which one does NOT have striations?
A) skeletal muscle B) cardiac muscle C) smooth muscle D) None of the above. |
smooth muscle
|
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Of the following muscle types, which one is usually voluntary?
A) skeletal muscle B) cardiac muscle C) smooth muscle D) None of the above. |
skeletal muscle
|
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|
Objects that move through organs that are surrounded by smooth muscle are often moved by means of
A) neuron stimulated control. B) peristalsis. C) wave summation movement. D) treppe patterns. |
peristalsis.
|
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|
Of the following muscle types, which one is found in the middle layer of the aorta?
A) skeletal muscle B) cardiac muscle C) smooth muscle D) None of the above. |
smooth muscle
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The "all-or-none" concept of skeletal muscle contraction means that
A) all muscles contract completely and not partially. B) muscle fascicles contract completely. C) muscle fibers contract completely. D) all of the actin and myosin molecules contract. |
muscle fibers contract completely.
|
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Which of the following best describes the use of muscle tone in the body?
A) It keeps heart muscle activated and functional. B) It keeps smooth muscles in a ready state. C) It prevents fatigue. D) It keeps our backs straight and our heads up. |
It keeps our backs straight and our heads up.
|
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Action potential frequency is best described as:
A) The strength of the muscle contractions. B) The size of the muscle contracting. C) The speed of muscle contractions D) The number of action potentials produced per unit of time. |
The number of action potentials produced per unit of time.
|
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Triads in skeletal muscle consist of which of the following?
A) sarcoplasm, sarcoplasmic reticulum, calcium ions B) sarcoplasmic reticulum, terminal cisterna, sarcoplasm C) two terminal cisternae and a T-tubule. D) two T-tubules and one terminal cisterna |
two terminal cisternae and a T-tubule.
|
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When acetylcholine is broken down by acetylcholinesterase in the synaptic cleft, what happens to the choline?
A) It is destroyed. B) It is made into new acetylcholinesterase. C) It is reabsorbed at the presynaptic terminal and combined with more acetic acid to make acetylcholine. D) It is taken up at the postsynaptic terminal. |
It is reabsorbed at the presynaptic terminal and combined with more acetic acid to make acetylcholine.
|
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The recovery stroke in muscle contraction involves which of the following?
A) movement of the myosin molecule while the cross-bridge is attached B) return of the myosin head to its original position after the cross bridge releases C) actin slides on myosin D) myosin slides on actin |
return of the myosin head to its original position after the cross bridge releases
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Which of the following is one of the primary functions of muscle tissue?
A) regeneration of mass B) heat production C) growth D) the ability to last forever |
heat production
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The ability of a muscle to be stimulated is called
A) contractility B) elasticity C) extensibility D) excitability |
excitability
|
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Which of the following muscles is involuntary and is the most widely found throughout the body?
A) skeletal B) smooth C) cardiac D) somatic |
smooth
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Which of the following types of muscles contain intercalated discs and branching fibers?
A) skeletal B) smooth C) cardiac D) all of the above |
cardiac
|
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Which of the following muscle types contains peripherally located, multiple nuclei in its cells?
A) skeletal B) cardiac C) smooth D) all of the above |
skeletal
|
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The striations in striated muscle correspond with actual molecular structures. Which of the following is the Z line?
A) a band where only actin molecules are found B) a band where only myosin molecules are found C) an attachment point for actin molecules D) an attachment point for myosin molecules |
an attachment point for actin molecules
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The striations in striated muscle correspond with actual molecular structures. Which of the following is the I band?
A) a band where only actin molecules are found B) a band where only myosin molecules are found C) an attachment point for actin molecules D) an attachment point for myosin molecules |
a band where only actin molecules are found
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The striations in striated muscle correspond with actual molecular structures. Which of the following is the H band?
A) a band where only actin molecules are found B) a band where only myosin molecules are found C) an attachment point for actin molecules D) an attachment point for myosin molecules |
a band where only myosin molecules are found
|
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Which of the following is the A band within a myofibril?
A) actin myofilaments in profile B) myosin myofilaments in profile C) Z disks in profile D) gaps between the actin and myosin myofilaments |
myosin myofilaments in profile
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Which of the following is the unit in a myofibril from Z line to Z line?
A) sarcomere B) sarcolemma C) somatic motor fibers D) thick and thin filaments uniting |
sarcomere
|
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Which of the following best describes a muscle motor unit?
A) a section of myofibrils from Z lines to Z lines B) one nerve fiber and all the muscle fibers innervated by that nerve C) all of the nerves that unite to make a whole muscle contract D) all of the fascicles innervated by several neurons |
one nerve fiber and all the muscle fibers innervated by that nerve
|
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On the surface of the sarcolemma, the voltage may shift up and down rapidly. This change in electrical potential caused by shifts in ions across the membrane is known as a(n)
A) action potential B) myosin potential C) energy of dissipation D) all-or-none potential energy |
action potential
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During an action potential, calcium is released into the sarcoplasm, near the actin and myosin molecules. Which of the following is the best explanation of what the calcium does?
A) The calcium binds to the actin and myosin and makes them work together. B) The calcium breaks apart ATP to ADP and P. C) The calcium removes the tropomyosin block. D) The calcium causes the release of acetylcholine. |
The calcium removes the tropomyosin block.
|
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When the myosin head (of the thick filament) flexes into a bend, while releasing ADP and inorganic phosphate, pulling the thin filament along with it, this is called the
A) action reaction B) power stroke C) recovery stroke D) muscle tone |
power stroke
|
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When the thick and the thin filaments pull together, which of the following is TRUE?
A) The Z to Z line unit moves apart. B) The myofibril doubles in size. C) The muscle loses tone. D) The sarcomere gets shorter. |
The sarcomere gets shorter.
|
|
|
The tissues of cardiac muscle have unique structures known as
A) circular muscle fibers B) abundant elastic fibers C) intercalated discs D) pacemaker cells |
intercalated discs
|
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|
Intercalated discs are capable of doing which of the following?
A) allow for re-growth of damaged muscle cells B) pass the resting potential to other cardiac cells C) pass electrical stimulation to other cardiac cells D) allow for cardiac tissue to expand and contract properly |
pass electrical stimulation to other cardiac cells
|
|
|
Which of the following is unique about cardiac muscle tissue?
A) The cells have large mitochondria. B) The cells are large and wide. C) There are very few nuclei within the cells. D) There is no neuron innervation. |
The cells have large mitochondria.
|
|
|
Which of the following is TRUE of cardiac tissue?
A) It contains only small amounts of myoglobin and glycogen. B) It has few nerve endings within the tissue. C) The fibers are not arranged in bundles. D) It has abundant glycogen and myoglobin and is aerobic |
It has abundant glycogen and myoglobin and is aerobic
|
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Which of the following proteins attaches Z discs to myosin myofilaments?
A) nebulin B) titin C) actin D) both A and C |
titin
|
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|
The functional connection between a nerve fiber and a muscle fiber is called a(an)
A) T tubule. B) I band. C) synapse. D) troponin-myosin component. |
synapse
|
|
|
When the neuron stimulates a muscle fiber, what molecule diffuses across the gap between them?
A) calcium B) acetylcholine C) sodium D) sodium and potassium |
acetylcholine
|
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Once a signal molecule has left the neuron and binds to a receptor molecule on the surface of the muscle fiber, a sodium channel opens, allowing entry of sodium into the muscle fiber. Which substance is then released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
A) calcium B) acetylcholine C) sodium D) sodium and potassium |
calcium
|
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|
Muscle fibers and neurons are called electrically excitable cells because
A) their membranes respond to electricity B) their plasma membranes exhibit voltage changes in response to stimulation C) their surfaces respond to the release of acetylcholine D) they have junctional folds in the membranes that can trap electrical charges |
their plasma membranes exhibit voltage changes in response to stimulation
|
|
|
Movement of which of the following proteins causes exposure of the active sites on the actin molecule?
A) troponin B) tropomyosin C) myosin D) acetylcholine |
tropomyosin
|
|
|
What type of molecule is acetylcholine?
A) It is a protein. B) It is a neurotransmitter. C) It is an activator molecule. D) It is a polarized molecule. |
It is a neurotransmitter.
|
|
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Binding of acetylcholine with its receptor on muscle cells causes
A) opening of a ligand-gated sodium channel B) a gap in the cell membrane for calcium diffusion C) vesicle release of sodium ions D) opening of a ligand-gated calcium channel |
opening of a ligand-gated sodium channel
|
|
|
What kind of molecule is ACh?
A) nucleic acid B) protein C) carbohydrate D) lipid |
protein
|
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In the muscle fiber, what is the function of acetylcholinesterase?
A) It closes the neuromuscular junction to stop a muscle contraction. B) It acts as a receptor for acetylcholine. C) It deactivates acetylcholine. D) It stimulates the synaptic knob into functioning. |
It deactivates acetylcholine.
|
|
|
What is the voltage of the resting potential of the sarcolemma?
A) 70 mv B) -70 mv C) -45 mv D) -15 mv |
-70 mv
|
|
|
Which of the following is a molecule that binds to a receptor?
A) acetylcholine B) tropomyosin C) acetylcholinesterase D) all of the above |
acetylcholine
|
|
|
Which of the following assures quick removal of neurotransmitter at the junction between a nerve and a muscle?
A) acetylcholine B) dopamine C) acetylcholinesterase D) PABA |
acetylcholinesterase
|
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|
A buildup of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft without breakdown may cause which of the following?
A) spastic paralysis B) treppe C) myasthenia gravis D) flaccid paralysis |
spastic paralysis
|
|
|
In a muscle twitch, which of the following represents the time between application of a stimulus and the beginning of contraction?
A) treppe B) tetany C) lag D) relaxation |
lag
|
|
|
Which of the following determines the height of the peaks in multiple motor unit summation?
A) the speed of stimuli B) the amount of tension produced by the number of motor units responding C) the strength of each stimulus D) none of the above |
the amount of tension produced by the number of motor units responding
|
|
|
Which of the following would represent incomplete tetanus?
A) multiple contractions with no relaxation B) multiple contractions with slight relaxation C) multiple contractions followed by a long rest period D) a long rest period before contractions start |
multiple contractions with slight relaxation
|
|
|
Which of the following explains why treppe takes place in muscle contractions?
A) decreased calcium levels around the myofibrils B) increased sodium around the myofibrils C) increased calcium levels around the myofibrils D) decreased potassium around the myofibrils |
increased calcium levels around the myofibrils
|
|
|
Which of the following is true of an isometric muscle contraction?
A) The length of the muscle increases during the contraction. B) responsible for rapid movements of the extremities C) divided into concentric and eccentric D) The amount of tension increases during the contraction. |
The amount of tension increases during the contraction.
|
|
|
Eccentric muscle contractions occur when
A) a person slowly lowers a heavy weight B) the length of the muscle does not change C) a person rapidly raises a lighter weight D) the length of the muscle decreases |
a person slowly lowers a heavy weight
|
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|
All of the following are true of muscle tone except
A) exists for long periods of time B) depends on multiple motor units contracting in phase with each other C) helps maintain the head upright D) Tension in the whole muscle remains constant. |
depends on multiple motor units contracting in phase with each other
|
|
|
Smooth body movements result from
A) large numbers of motor units in complete tetanus throughout the contraction. B) small numbers of motor units firing in a "single twitch" fashion simultaneously. C) isometric contractions only. D) both incomplete and complete titanic contractions of motor units contracting out of phase with each other. |
both incomplete and complete titanic contractions of motor units contracting out of phase with each other.
|
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Active tension in a muscle is defined as
A) the tension applied to load when the muscle is stretched but not stimulated. B) the tension applied to a load when myofilaments within sarcomeres minimally overlap. C) the tension applied to a load when the muscle contracts. D) muscle contraction produced wholly from complete tetanus. |
the tension applied to a load when the muscle contracts
|
|
|
The sum of active and passive tension is called
A) concentric tension. B) total tension. C) sarcomere tension. D) treppe. |
total tension.
|
|
|
Which of the following types of muscle fatigue represents depletion of ATP?
A) psychological B) synaptic C) muscular D) physiological |
muscular
|
|
|
Which of the following types of fatigue is caused by the release of more acetylcholine than can be produced to replace it?
A) muscular B) psychological C) synaptic D) physiological |
synaptic
|
|
|
Muscle soreness can be produced by which of the following?
A) muscular fatigue B) enzymes in the extracellular fluid commonly found within muscle C) collagen in the extracellular fluid D) all of the above |
all of the above
|
|
|
Which of the following represents extreme muscular fatigue when the muscle is incapable of either contracting or relaxing?
A) physiological contracture B) physiological contraction C) psychological fatigue D) synaptic fatigue |
physiological contracture
|
|
|
Which of the following energy storages source is most commonly used during the first 10 seconds of exercise?
A) ATP B) creatine phosphate C) lactic acid D) none of the above |
creatine phosphate
|
|
|
During anaerobic respiration, what is the net amount of ATP produced?
A) 4 ATP B) 6 ATP C) 20 ATP D) 2 ATP |
2 ATP
|
|
|
Which of the following represents the amount of oxygen that is necessary for the body to recover from anaerobic respiration?
A) creatine phosphate utilization period B) oxygen overload C) oxygen debt D) aerobic respiration |
oxygen debt
|
|
|
All of the following are characteristics of slow-twitch fibers except
A) slow contraction. B) large diameter. C) good blood supply. D) many mitochondria. |
large diameter.
|
|
|
All of the following are true about fast-twitch fibers except
A) high amount of myoglobin B) rapid contraction C) break down ATP rapidly D) fewer mitochondria than slow-twitch fibers |
high amount of myoglobin
|
|
|
Which of the following is true about distribution of fast and slow-twitch fibers in the body?
A) Fast-twitch fibers are primarily found in long distance runners. B) Slow-twitch fibers are usually more resistant to fatigue. C) There is a clear separation of slow- and fast-twitch fibers in individual muscles. D) Training does not influence the balance of fast- and slow-twitch fibers. |
Slow-twitch fibers are usually more resistant to fatigue.
|
|
|
A person with an arm immobilized in a cast for 6 weeks will
A) develop muscular hypertrophy. B) decrease the number of muscle fibers. C) develop muscular atrophy. D) Both B and C. |
develop muscular atrophy.
|
|
|
Which of the following effects of exercise elevate the body temperature?
A) elevated metabolism from the oxygen debt B) vasodilation of blood vessels in the skin C) skeletal muscle contractions D) all of the above |
all of the above
|
|
|
Unitary smooth muscle is found in which of the following locations in the body?
A) digestive tract B) reproductive tract C) urinary tract D) all of the above |
all of the above
|
|
|
Which of the following is true about smooth muscle?
A) The resting membrane potential is less negative than in skeletal muscle. B) It responds in an "all or none" fashion. C) It does not respond to hormones. D) It has a faster speed of contraction than skeletal muscle. |
The resting membrane potential is less negative than in skeletal muscle.
|
|
|
Which of the following are the most common neurotransmitters in smooth muscle?
A) dopamine and epinephrine B) acetylcholine and epinephrine C) acetylcholine and norepinephrine D) acetylcholine and dopamine |
acetylcholine and norepinephrine
|
|
|
All of the following are properties of cardiac muscle cells except
A) intercalated discs B) involuntary C) branching fibers D) shorter in duration of contraction than skeletal muscles. |
shorter in duration of contraction than skeletal muscles.
|
|
|
Which of the following is not an effect of aging on skeletal muscle?
A) increased time for muscle to respond to stimuli B) increased myoglobin C) increased recovery time D) loss of muscle fibers |
increased myoglobin
|
|
|
Which of the following exercises slows the loss of muscle fibers in older people?
A) jogging B) aerobic dancing C) weight training D) swimming |
swimming
|
|
|
Which of the following is true about skeletal muscle fibers in aging people?
A) The number of fibers decreases. B) There is a decreased density of capillaries that supply muscle cells. C) The number of motor neurons that innervate skeletal muscle decreases. D) All of the above. |
All of the above.
|
|
|
A type of muscle that extends a joint is known as a(n)
A) flexor B) extensor C) rotator D) supinator Feedback: An extensor |
extensor
|
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|
When a skeletal muscle contracts to cause a given movement, the relatively stationary end of attachment of the muscle is termed its
A) origin B) insertion C) antagonist. D) belly |
origin
|
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|
When a skeletal muscle contracts to cause a given movement, the more movable end of attachment of the muscle is termed its
A) origin B) insertion C) antagonist D) synergist |
insertion
|
|
|
When a muscle contracts, it usually has an opposing muscle that can cause movement in the opposite direction. Such a muscle is called a(an)
A) prime mover B) agonist C) antagonist D) synergist |
antagonist
|
|
|
For the following muscle shapes, which one is thick and tapered like the biceps brachii muscle?
A) fusiform B) parallel C) convergent D) pennate |
fusiform
|
|
|
For the following muscle shapes, which one is feather shaped, like the muscles of the palm?
A) fusiform B) parallel C) convergent D) pennate |
pennate
|
|
|
For the following muscle shapes, which one is fan shaped like the chest muscles?
A) fusiform B) parallel C) convergent D) pennate |
convergent
|
|
|
When a muscle contracts, there may be another muscle that contracts along with it. Which of the following terms describes that type of muscle?
A) origin B) insertion C) antagonist D) synergist |
synergist
|
|
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Of the following muscles of the head, which one encircles the outer border of the orbits?
A) nasalis B) temporalis C) orbicularis oculi D) masseter |
orbicularis oculi
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Of the following muscles of the head, which one aids in chewing?
A) nasalis B) temporalis C) orbicularis oculi D) masseter |
masseter
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Of the following muscles of the head, which one is on the side of the head?
A) nasalis B) temporalis C) orbicularis oculi D) masseter |
temporalis
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Of the following muscles of the head, which one wraps around the mouth?
A) orbicularis oris B) nasalis C) frontalis D) zygomaticus major |
orbicularis oris
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Of the following muscles of the head, which one is on the nose?
A) orbicularis oris B) nasalis C) frontalis D) zygomasticus major |
nasalis
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Of the following muscles of the head, which one is on the cheek?
A) orbicularis oris B) nasalis C) frontali D) zygomaticus major |
zygomaticus major
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Of the following muscles of the head, which one is over the temporal bone?
A) stylohyoid B) temporalis C) occipitalis D) levator labii |
temporalis
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Of the following muscles of the head, which one is in the back of the head?
A) stylohyoid B) temporalis C) occipitalis D) levator labii |
occipitalis
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Of the following muscles of the head, which one is attached to the styloid process of the temporal bone?
A) stylohyoid B) temporalis C) occipitalis D) levator labii |
stylohyoid
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Which of the following muscles of the head draws in the corner of the mouth, as in grimacing?
A) levator labii B) zygomasticus major C) nasalis D) depressor labii |
depressor labii
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Which of the following muscles of the head opens the eyes and raises the upper eyelid?
A) occipitofrontalis B) levator palpebrae superioris C) procerus D) mentalis |
levator palpebrae superioris
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Which of the following muscles of the head elevates and protrudes the lower lip, as in pouting?
A) occipitofrontalis B) levator palpebrae superioris C) procerus D) mentalis |
mentalis
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Which of the following muscles is (are) attached to the tongue?
A) genioglossus B) hypoglossus C) styloglossus D) all of the above |
all of the above
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Which of the following muscles of the neck tilts the head down and toward the side?
A) scalenes B) sternocleidomastoid C) splenius capitis D) semispinalis |
sternocleidomastoid
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Which of the following muscles of the neck flexes the neck laterally?
A) scalenes B) sternocleidomastoid C) splenius capitis D) semispinalis |
scalenes
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Of the following back muscles , which is the largest?
A) trapezius B) rhomboideus major and minor C) infraspinatus D) teres major |
trapezius
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Which of the following muscles of the back has its origin on the occipital bone?
A) trapezius B) rhomboideus major and minor C) infraspinatus D) teres major |
trapezius
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Which of the following muscles of the back adducts, and rotates the arm laterally?
A) trapezius B) rhomboideus major and minor C) infraspinatus D) teres major |
infraspinatus
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Which of the following muscles of the back has its insertion on the humerus?
A) latissimus dorsi B) levator scapulae C) serratus posterior inferior D) longissimus thoracis |
latissimus dorsi
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Which of the following muscles of the lower back inserts on the humerus and helps to move the arm?
A) latissimus dorsi B) subscapularis C) serratus posterior inferior D) longissimus thoracis |
latissimus dorsi
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Which of the following muscles of the back attaches to thoracic and lumbar vertebrae up and down the spine?
A) latissimus dorsi B) subscapularis C) serratus posterior inferior D) longissimus thoracis |
longissimus thoracis
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Which of the following muscles elevate the ribs for inspiration?
A) scalenes B) external intercostals C) serratus posterior (superior part) D) all of the above |
all of the above
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Which of the following muscles is the major muscle for respiration?
A) scalenus B) diaphragm C) rectus abdominus D) internal intercostals |
diaphragm
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Which of the following is the deepest abdominal muscle?
A) external oblique B) internal oblique C) transversus abdominis D) rectus abdominis |
transversus abdominis
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Which of the following muscles depresses the ribs in respiration?
A) internal intercostals B) external intercostals C) scalenes D) none of the above |
internal intercostals
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Which of the following muscles inserts at the mid-humerus?
A) deltoid B) biceps brachii C) triceps brachii D) brachialis |
deltoid
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Which of the following muscles moves the arms up, as in asking a question in class?
A) deltoid B) biceps brachii C) triceps brachii D) brachialis |
deltoid
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Which of the following muscles inserts on the radius?
A) deltoid B) biceps brachii C) triceps brachii D) brachialis |
biceps brachii
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Which of the following muscles extends the forearm and inserts on the ulna?
A) deltoid B) biceps brachii C) triceps brachii D) brachialis |
triceps brachii
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Which of the following muscles is an extensor?
A) deltoid B) biceps brachii C) triceps brachii D) brachialis |
triceps brachii
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Of the following muscles of the forearm, which one rotates the forearm laterally?
A) supinator B) triceps brachii C) brachialis D) pronator quadratus |
supinator
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Of the following muscles that work the hand, which one flexes and abducts the wrist?
A) flexor carpi radialis B) flexor carpi ulnaris C) flexor digitorum profundus D) extensor carpi radialis longus |
flexor carpi radialis
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Of the following muscles that work the hand, which one runs along the lateral side of he forearm, and extends and abducts the wrist?
A) flexor carpi radialis B) extensor carpi ulnaris C) flexor digitorum profundus D) extensor carpi radialis longus |
extensor carpi radialis longus
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Of the following muscles that work the hand, which one is a large muscle that connects the ulna to the distal phalanges? It flexes the distal joints of the fingers.
A) flexor carpi radialis B) flexor carpi ulnaris C) flexor digitorum profundus D) extensor carpi radialis longus |
flexor digitorum profundus
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Of the following muscles that work the hand, which one runs medially along the forearm and connects the humerus to the middle phalanges?
A) palmaris longus B) flexor digitorum superficialis C) extensor carpi radialis brevis D) extensor digitorum |
flexor digitorum superficialis
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Of the following muscles that work the hand, which one is a slender muscle connecting the distal end of the humerus to the fascia of the palm? It flexes the wrist.
A) palmaris longus B) flexor digitorum superficialis C) extensor carpi radialis brevis D) extensor digitorum |
palmaris longus
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Of the following muscles that work the hand, which one runs from the humerus to the phalanges and extends the fingers and wrist?
A) palmaris longus B) flexor digitorum superficialis C) extensor carpi radialis brevis D) extensor digitorum |
extensor digitorum
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Of the following muscles of the forearm, which one has its origin on the mid-humerus and its insertion on the coronoid process of the ulna? It flexes the forearm at the elbow.
A) brachialis B) supinator C) pronator quadratus D) pronator teres |
brachialis
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Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one crosses over the anterior portion of the thigh from lateral to medial?
A) rectus femoris B) sartorius C) adductor magnus D) biceps femoris |
sartorius
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Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one is on the posterior side?
A) rectus femoris B) sartorius C) adductor magnus D) biceps femoris |
biceps femoris
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Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one is on the anterior midline?
A) rectus femoris B) sartorius C) adductor magnus D) biceps femoris |
rectus femoris
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Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one is on the medial side of the thigh and pulls the leg inward?
A) rectus femoris B) sartorius C) adductor magnus D) biceps femoris |
adductor magnus
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Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one is NOT part of the quadriceps group?
A) biceps femoris B) rectus femoris C) vastus lateralis D) vastic medialis |
biceps femoris
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Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one does NOT pull the leg forward?
A) biceps femoris B) rectus femoris C) vastus lateralis D) vastic medialis |
biceps femoris
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Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one is the most superior?
A) iliacus B) adductor longus C) adductor magnus D) gracilis |
iliacus
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Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one is a narrow band that is on the medial side and moves from the pubis to the tibia?
A) iliacus B) adductor longus C) adductor magnus D) gracilis |
gracilis
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Of the following muscles, which one attaches to the spine of the lesser trochanter?
A) adductor magnus B) psoas major C) iliacus D) vastus mediali |
psoas major
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Of the following muscles, which one has its origin on the pubic bone and its insertion on the posterior surface (linea aspera) of the femur?
A) adductor longus B) psoas major C) iliacus D) vastus medialis |
adductor longus
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Of the following muscles of the thigh which one has its origin on the ilium, sacrum and coccyx and its insertion on the posterior surface of the femur?
A) gluteus maximus B) adductor magnus C) biceps femoris D) gluteus minimus |
gluteus maximus
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Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one inserts on the head of the fibula?
A) gluteus maximus B) adductor magnus C) biceps femoris D) gluteus minimus |
biceps femoris
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Of the following muscles of the thigh which one is on the medial side of the anterior thigh?
A) gluteus medius B) biceps femoris C) vastus medialis D) vastus intermedius |
vastus medialis
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Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one has its origin on the ischial tuberosity and inserts on the medial surface of the tibia?
A) semitendinosus B) gracilis C) semimembranosus D) biceps femoris |
semitendinosus
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Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one has its origin on the ischial tuberosity and inserts on the medial condyle of the tibia?
A) semitendinosus B) gracilis C) semimembranosus D) biceps femoris |
semimembranosus
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Which of the following muscles would be considered an antagonist to the rectus femoris?
A) sartorius B) biceps femoris C) adductor magnus D) gracilis |
biceps femoris
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Which of the following muscles would be considered an antagonist to the gluteus maximus?
A) semitendinosus B) biceps femoris C) semimembranosus D) rectus femoris |
rectus femoris
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Which of the following muscles inserts on the linea aspera of the femur?
A) sartorius B) adductor magnus C) psoas major D) vastus intermedius |
adductor magnus
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Of the following muscles of the lower leg, which one is on the anterior side?
A) gastrocnemius B) soleus C) tibialis anterior D) tibialis posterior |
tibialis anterior
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Of the following muscles of the leg, which one inserts on the calcaneus?
A) tibialis anterior B) extensor digitorum longus C) gastrocnemius D) peroneus brevis |
gastrocnemius
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Of the following muscles of the leg, which one attaches to the heel by way of the calcaneal tendon?
A) tibialis anterior B) extensor digitorum longus C) peroneus longus D) soleus |
soleus
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Of the following muscles of the leg, which one is an antagonist to the soleus?
A) gastrocnemius B) peroneus longus C) tibialis anterior D) tibialis posterior |
tibialis anterior
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Of the following muscles, which one flexes the toes?
A) tibialis anterior B) flexor digitorum longus C) peroneus longus D) peroneus brevis |
flexor digitorum longus
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Of the following muscles, which one pulls the heel up?
A) soleus B) peroneus longus C) tibialis anterior D) tibialis posterior |
soleus
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Which of the following muscles flexes the hip and extends the knee?
A) vastus medialis B) vastus lateralis C) rectus femoris D) biceps femoris |
rectus femoris
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Which of the following muscles causes flexion at both the knee and hip, and allows a person to cross the legs while seated?
A) rectus femoris B) vastus intermedius C) gracilis D) sartorius |
sartorius
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Which of the following muscles adducts the leg at the hip?
A) gluteus Maximus B) gluteus Minimus C) gracilis D) sartorius |
gracilis
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Which of the following muscles inverts the foot?
A) tibialis anterior B) tibialis posterior C) flexor digitorum longus D) gatsrocnemius. |
tibialis anterior
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Which of the following muscles is considered a "lateral hamstring," based on its insertion?
A) semitendinosis B) biceps femoris C) gracilis D) semimembranosis |
biceps femoris
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