• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/112

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

112 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Gravida
women who is pregnant
gravidity
pregnancy
multigravida
a woman who has completed two or more pregnancies to 20 weeks of gestation or more
nulligravida
a woman who has never been pregnant and is not currently pregnant
nullipara
a woman who has not completed a pregnancy with a fetus or fetuses beyond 20 weeks of gestation
parity
the number of pregnancies in which the fees or fetuses have reached 20 weeks of gestation - not affected if fetus is born alive or is stillborn
postdate or postterm
pregnancy that goes beyond 42 weeks of gestation
preterm
pregnancy that has reached 20 weeks of gestation but ends before completion of 37 weeks of gestation
primigravida
woman who is pregnant for the first time
primpara
woman who has completed one pregnancy with a fetus or fetuses who have reached 20 weeks of gestation
at what age is the fetus considered viable
22 - 25 weeks
what is the earliest biological marker of pregancy
HCG
higher than normal levels of HCG is an indicator of what
abnormal gestation
abnormally slow increase in HCG or lower levels can indicate impending
miscarriage or ectopic pregnancy
what is the most popular testing of pregnancy
ELISA
what meds can cause false positive results
tranquilizers and anticonvulsants
what test can cause false negative results
diuretics and promethazine
when doing a home pregnancy test what sample of urine should you take
first morning
presumptive signs of pregnancy are
those changes felt by the woman (amenorrhea, fatigue, breast changes)
probable
those changes observed by an examiner (he gars sign, ballottement, pregnancy test)
positive signs you are pregnant are
those signs attributed only to the presence of the fetus (hearing fetal heart tones, visualizing the fetus, palpating fetal movements)
Goodell sign
uterus has softened
chadwicks signs is
uterus takes on a bluish color
fnic souffle is
synchronous with the fetal heart rate and is caused by fetal blood coursing through the umbilical cord, may also be heard with the fetal heartbeat
what is ballottement
technique of palpating a floating structure by bouncing it gently and feeling it rebound, a finger is placed within the vagina and a tap is made gently upward on the cervix, causing the fetus to rise
when can you first feel fetal movement
at 14 to 16 weeks
what is chadwicks sign
violet-blish color of the vaginal mucosa and cervix, begins about 6 - 8 weeks of pregnancy
what is leukorrhea
white or slightly gray mucoid discharge with a faint musty odor - this forms the mucous plug (operculum)
what is colostrum
creamy, white to yellowish to orange pre milk fluid secreted during the second trimester
melasma is a
blotchy , brownish hyper pigmentation of the skin over the cheeks , nose and forehead
linea nigra is a
pigmented line extending from the symphis pubis to the top of the funds in the midline
palmar erythema is
pinkish red, diffusely mottled or well defined blotches are sen over the palmar surfaces of the hands
couvade syndrome
when men experience pregnancy like symptoms , such as nausea, wt gain, other physical symptoms
three phases in the developmental tasks experienced by the expectant father
1. the announcement phase - last for a few hours to a few weeks, feelings of joy or dismay
2. moratorium phase - when he adjusts to the reality of pregnancy
3. focusing phase - begins in the last trimester and is characterized by the fathers active involvement in both the pregnancy and his relationship with his child
what is associated with lack of folic acid in the diet
neural tube defects
WHAT ARE THE RECOMMENDED CALORIE INCREASE DURING PREGNANCY
1ST TRIMESTER - SAME AS IF NON-PREGNANT
2ND TRIMESTER - NONPREGNANT NEEDS PLUS 340 CALORIES
3RD TRIMESTER - NONPREGNANT NEEDS + 452 CALORIES
- DURING LACTATION WHAT ARE THE CALORIC NEEDS
FOR THE FIRST 6 MONTHS NONPREGNANT NEEDS + 330 CALORIES, SECOND 6 MONTHS NONPREGNANT NEEDS + 400 CALORIES
IF YOU HAVE AN INADEQUATE WEIGHT GAIN WHAT ARE YOU INCREASED RISK FOR
GIVING BIRTH TO AN INFANT WITH INTRAUTERINE GROWTH RESTRICTION
WHEN OBESTITY IS PRESENT IT INCREASES LIKELIHOOD OF
MACROSOMIA AND FETOPELVIC DISPROPORTION, C SECTION, BIRTH TRAUMA AND LATE FETAL DEATH, UTI, POSTPARTUM HEMORRHAGE
OBESE WOMEN ARE MORE LIKELY TO HAVE
PREECLAMPSIA AND GESTATIONAL DIABETES
WHAT IS THE RECOMMENDED WT GAIN DURING PREGNANCY
UNDERWEIGHT - 12.5 TO 18KG (25 - 35 LBS
NORMAL WT - 7 - 11.5 KG (15 TO 25 LBS)
OBESE 5 - 9 LG (11 TO 20 LBS)
WHATI S ANTEPARTUM TESTING TWO MAJOR GOALS
FIRST TO IDENTIFY FETUSES AT RISK FOR INJURY CAUSED BY ACUTE OR CHRONIC INTERRUPTION OF OXYGENATION SO PERMANENT INJURY OR DEATH MAY BE PREVENTED

SECOND TO IDENTIFY APPROPRIATELY OXYGENATED FETUSES SO UNNECESSARY INTERVENTION CAN BE AVOIDED
A COUNT OF FEWER THAN ____ FETAL MOVEMENTS WITHIN AND HOUR WARRANTS FURTHER EVALUATION BY A NONSTRESS TEST OR A CONTRACTION TEST
3
what are some biophysical factors for high risk pregnancies
genetic considerations, nutritional status, OB disorders
what are some psychosocial factors for high risk pregancies
smoking, caffeine, alcohol, drugs psychologic status
what are some socidemographic factors
low income , lack of prenatal acreage, adolescents mature mothers, parity marital status, residence, ethnicity
antepartum testing is begins at
32 to 34 weeks pregnant
transvaginal ultrasonography is used in the first trimester to detect
ectopic pregnancies, monitor the developing embryo, identify abnormalities, help establish gestational age
transvaginal ultrasound is used in the second and third trimester for
preterm labor
when can fetal heart activity be detected
6 weeks of gestation using transvaginal ultrsound
what is nuchal translucency
screening uses ultrasound measurement of fluid in the nape of the fetal neck between 10-14 weeks of gestation to identify possible fetal abnormalities
a fluid collection that greater than 3 mm is considered
abnormal
an elevated NT alone indicate an increased risk of
fetal cardiac disease
a normal amniocentisis fluid is
10cm - 25 cm
amniotic fluid of 5 - 10 cm is considered
low
amniotic fluid less than 5 cm indicates
oligohydramnios
amniotic fluid above 25 cm indicates
polyhydramnios
oligohydramnios is associated with
congenital anomalies, growth restriction, and abnormal fetal heart rate pattern during labor
polyhydramnios is associated with
neural tube defects, obstruction of the fetal GI tract, multiple fetuses and fetal hydrops
when is amniocentesis possible
14 weeks of pregnancy
indirect coombs test is a screening tool for
TH incompatibility
poor glycemic control later in pregnancy increases the rate of
fetal macrosomia - lg babies
the key to an optimal pregnancy outcome is
strict maternal glucose control before conception and throughout the gestational period
maternal insulin requirements gradually increase from approx
18 - 24 weeks of gestation to approx 36 weeks
what are the changing insulin needs during pregnancy
first trimester - insulin need is reduced
second trimester - insulin needs increase
third trimester - insulin needs may double or even quadruple
breastfeeding mother maintains lower insulin requirements
poor glycemic control associated with an increased incidence
miscarriage
poor glycemic control later in pregnancy increases the rate of
fetal macrosomia
the most important cause of perinatal loss in diabetic pregnancy is
congenital malformations
when does the fetal pancreas begin to secrete insulin
10 -14 weeks
common birth injuries associated with diabetic pregnancies include
brachial plexus palsy, facial nerve inujury, humerus or clavical fracture and cephalhematoma
what is the preferred insulin during pregnancy
lispro (humalog) and aspart (NovoLog)
what are the acceptable fasting levels
65 - 95 one hour
130 -140 1 hour post meal levels
120 two hour post meal levels or less
in GDM if a 2 hour post meal levels are greater than _____ insulin therapy is begun
95
what oral agent most frequently prescribed
glyburide
glyburide should be taken at least _____ before a meal so its peak effect covers the 2 hour post meal blood glucose level
30 min (preferably 1 hour)
what are the most common cardiac decompensation during pregnancy
fever and infection
what is the most common congenital defects seen during pregnancy
atrial septal defect
marfan syndrome is
autosomal dominant disorder characterized by generalized weakness of the connective tissue, aortic root dilation
signs and symptoms of Marfan Syndrome is
dislocation of the optic lens, deformity of the anterior thorax, scoliosis, long limbs, joint laxity and arachnodactyly
the majority of deaths from mar fan syndrome are caused by
aoritic dissection and rupture- excruciating chest pain is the most common symptom of aortic dissection
what is the management of mar fan syndrome during pregnancy
restricted activity and beta blockers
what is thalassemia
relatively common anemia in which an insufficient amount of hemoglobin is produced to fill the RBC - hereditary disorders
what is the most common potentially serious medical condition to complicate pregnancy
asthma
most severe symptoms usually occur between
17 to 24 weeks of gestation
what is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy
liver disorder unique to pregnancy
ICP is characterized by
generalized pruritus
the itching severely affects the
palms and soles and is worse at night
women with ICP have
elevated serum bile acids and liver function tests
thalassemia major (cooleys anemia) usually have
hepatosplenomegaly and bone deformities caused by massive marrow tissue expansion
if women with cooleys disorder become pregnant what happens
they usually have severe anemia and congestive heart failure
accutane prescribed for cystic acne is highly teratogenic what is the fetus at risk for
craniofacial, cardiac and CNS malformations
women with intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy develop
dark urine and light colored stools
what is the major neurologic disorder accompanying pregnancy
epilepsy
infants born to women taking anticonvulsant meds have an increased incidence of
congenital anomalies, including cleft lip and palate , congenital hear disease and neural tube defects
what meds should be avoided in pregnancy for women with seizures do to NTDs
tegretol and depakote
pregnant women with epilepsy are advised to take a ______ supplement and ______ vitamin
folic 4mg and Vitamin D daily
what med reduces the effectiveness of oral contraceptives (anticonvulsant meds)
tegretol and dilantin
hypertensive disorders are a major cause of maternal and perinatal
morbidity and mortality worldwide
gestational hypertension is
development of hypertension after week 20 of pregnancy in previously normotensive woman without proteinuria
preeclampsia
development of hypertension and proteinuria in previously normotensive woman after 20 weeks of gestation or in early postpartum period
eclampsia
development of convulsions or coma not attributable to other causes in preeclamptic woman
common risk factors associated with the development of preeclampsia is
first pregnancy , women who are 19 or younger or over 40, first pregnancy with a new partner and the history of severe preeclampsia
preexisting medical or genetic conditions
chronic hypertension
renal disease
pregestational diabetes mellitus
connective tissue disease
thrombophilia
obesity
what is the HELLP syndrome
lab diagnosis for a variant of severe preeclampsia
H - hemolysis

EL - elevated liver enzymes

LP- low platelet count
HELLP syndrome usually develops during the
antepartum period
s/s of the HELLP syndorme
malaise, influenza like symptoms and epigastric or RUQ abdominal pain
Symptoms worsen at night and improve in the daytime
what are some of the s/s of severe preeclampsia such as
severe headaches (frontal), epigastric pain (heartburn), right upper quadrant abdominal pain or visual disturbances such as scotoma, photophobia, or double vision
what is the drug of choice in the prevention and treatment of seizure activity ( eclampsia)
magnesium sulfate
common side effects of magnesium sulfate are
feeling of warmth, flushing, diaphoresis and burning at the IV site
symptoms of mild toxicity include
lethargy, muscle weakness, decreased or absent DTR, double vision and slurred speech
hyperemesis gravidarum
vomiting durging pregnancy that is excessive enough to cause wt loss, electrolyte imbalance, nutritional deficiencies and keo=tonuria
what are the three most classic symptoms of ectopic (tubal) pregnancy
1 abdominal pain
delayed emeses
abnormal vaginal bleeding that occurs approx 6 to 8 weeks after the last normal menstrual period